Chapter 20

Lower Level
ISEE Practice Test
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Lower Level ISEE Practice Test
Be sure each mark completely fills the answer space.

SECTION 1 - Verbal Reasoning

1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 27 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 29 A B C D E

6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E

7 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

SECTION 2 - Quantitative Reasoning

1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 36 A B C D

5 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 37 A B C D

6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 38 A B C D

7 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

SECTION 3 - Reading Comprehension

1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 36 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 29 A B C D E

6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E

7 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 32 A B C D E

SECTION 4 - Mathematics Achievement

1 A B C D E 9 A B C D E 17 A B C D E 25 A B C D E 33 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 10 A B C D E 18 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 34 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 11 A B C D E 19 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 35 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 12 A B C D E 20 A B C D E 28 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 13 A B C D E 21 A B C D E 29 A B C D E

6 A B C D E 14 A B C D E 22 A B C D E 30 A B C D E

7 A B C D E 15 A B C D E 23 A B C D E 31 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 16 A B C D E 24 A B C D E 32 A B C D E
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Section 1
Verbal Reasoning

34 Questions Time: 20 Minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have
completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer
you select, fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.
Part One – Synonyms
Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the
one word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

           
AGGRAVATE: A B C D
(A) apply
(B) enjoy
(C) irritate
(D) present

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Part Two – Sentence Completion
Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one blank. Each blank indicates that a word or
phrase is missing. The sentence is followed by four answer choices. Select the one word or phrase that best
completes the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS: Sample Answer

  A   B   C   D
Because Edgar enjoyed seeing new places, every
winter he went on a ------ to a place he had never been.
(A) debate
(B) puzzle
(C) restoration
(D) voyage
Doctors recommend that Americans exercise Sample Answer
more in order to stay healthy, but unfortunately   A   B   C   D

many people ------.

(A) watch, rather than play, professional sports
(B) do not eat enough fruits and vegetables
(C) do not choose to follow that advice
(D) work too many hours to enjoy leisure time

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

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Part One – Synonyms

Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

1. BASIN: 6. UNFURL:
(A) desk (A) close
(B) frame (B) flap
(C) mound (C) gather up
(D) sink (D) spread out

2. DRENCH: 7. NOVICE:
(A) clean (A) beginner
(B) rain (B) player
(C) soak (C) sickness
(D) twist (D) story

3. HASTILY: 8. COMPREHEND:
(A) happily (A) compare
(B) passively (B) speak
(C) quickly (C) understand
(D) quietly (D) wonder

4. HEAP: 9. MALICE:
(A) grain (A) fear
(B) imprint (B) hatred
(C) pile (C) joy
(D) volume (D) opinion

5. ADORN: 10. UNKEMPT:

(A) average (A) free
(B) decorate (B) frequent
(C) sew (C) messy
(D) visit (D) obvious

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11. RUSE: 15. ORATOR:
(A) laugh (A) curator
(B) partner (B) listener
(C) sale (C) orchestra
(D) trick (D) speaker

12. OBSOLETE: 16. POLL:

(A) historical (A) argument
(B) old-fashioned (B) discussion
(C) popular (C) election
(D) uncommon (D) survey

13. WILY: 17. PLEA:

(A) careful (A) appeal
(B) crafty (B) explanation
(C) loud (C) remark
(D) thin (D) response

14. BRITTLE:
(A) breakable
(B) lumpy
(C) sharp
(D) small

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Part Two – Sentence Completion

Directions: Select the word that best completes the sentence.

18. Sasha’s friends think she is outgoing and 22. Scientists spend a lot of time studying
talkative, but when she meets people for ants, bees, and other ------- insects that
the first time she is often -------. live and work together in large groups.
(A) friendly (A) aquatic
(B) privileged (B) social
(C) shy (C) uninteresting
(D) sociable (D) wingless

19. Ms. Lin reviewed all the essays so that 23. Because the domestic cat cleans its fur
she could ------- each student’s writing. thoroughly with its rough tongue, it rarely
becomes -------.
(A) deny
(B) emphasize (A) distracted
(C) evaluate (B) soiled
(D) ignore (C) tidy
(D) washed
20. A snapping turtle’s neck can ------- to
catch fish far away from its body. 24. Everyone said Jaquinta was an -------
person because she always asked a lot of
(A) blend
questions.
(B) extend
(C) retract (A) inquisitive
(D) wander (B) intense
(C) organized
21. The young man dressed carefully for his (D) unpredictable
job interview because he wanted to -------
the interviewer. 25. Although Wanda has taken violin lessons
for three years, her ------- is actually to
(A) annoy
play sports.
(B) discourage
(C) employ (A) possibility
(D) impress (B) preference
(C) question
(D) routine

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26. People who obey the law and try not to 30. Frederick Church built a large Moorish
hurt anyone are not likely to become home that was ------- as a visitor came
-------. up the long driveway, but came into view
suddenly at the end.
(A) happy
(B) infamous (A) beautiful
(C) quiet (B) concealed
(D) serene (C) uninteresting
(D) visible
27. At one time, Western movies were
released -------, but now they are hardly 31. To keep Cassidy’s baby sister safe once
ever made. she begins to crawl, her family will -------.
(A) frequently (A) take lots of pictures
(B) informally (B) stay close to the ground
(C) quickly (C) buy new baby shoes
(D) seldom (D) baby-proof the house

28. Mr. Thomas placed celery in colored 32. Even though most of the students looked
water in order to ------- the way plants can confused, the teacher -------.
absorb liquids.
(A) wondered what she would have for
(A) compress lunch
(B) cover (B) explained the solution to the prob-
(C) demonstrate lem a second time
(D) ignore (C) sent a student to the principal’s
office for misbehaving
29. Most goods were produced in people’s (D) moved on to a new topic without
homes before industrialization, but as the asking whether anyone had
factory system became common, ------- questions
production of goods decreased.
(A) domestic
(B) energetic
(C) foreign
(D) high-speed

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33. Although the weather forecast predicted 34. Because Ronnie was terrified of the ocean
freezing temperatures and wet snow, and never learned to swim, -------.
Jason -------.
(A) she did not accept an invitation to
(A) decided to learn how to ski her friend’s beach house
(B) did not wear a coat when he went (B) her parents never took her on their
outside vacations to Kansas
(C) worked twice as hard as he usually (C) she became an A student and was
does the president of two clubs
(D) put on his favorite wool sweater (D) her brother decided to try out for
the Olympic swimming team

STOP. If there is time,

you may check your
work in this section only.

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QR 
Section 2
Quantitative Reasoning

38 Questions Time: 35 Minutes

Each question consists of a word problem followed by four answer choices. Read each question and then
decide which one of the four suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row,
mark the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

EXAMPLE 1: Sample Answer

  A   B   C D
What is the value of the expression
6 + (8 ¸ 2) ?
(A) 2+5
(B) 2´5
(C) 3+4
(D) 3´4

The correct answer is 10, so circle B is darkened.

EXAMPLE 2: Sample Answer

  A   B   C   D
Which could be the dimensions of a rectangle
with an area of 34 cm2 ?
(A) 2 cm ´ 17 cm
(B) 3 cm ´ 12 cm
(C) 4 cm ´ 8 cm
(D) 5 cm ´ 7 cm

The correct answer is 2 cm ´ 17 cm, so circle A is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

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  QR
1. Which is seven hundred ninety thousand 5. Which is the smallest fraction?
twelve?
2
(A)
(A) 7,912 5
(B) 79,012 3
(C) 709,012 (B)
8
(D) 790,012 3
(C)
4
D
4
x (D)
9
2
y
E 2 F
2. Which of the following must be true of
triangle DEF above, which is drawn to
scale?

(A) x = 45°
(B) DF = 2
(C) DF = 4
6. The number of smaller cubes that make
(D) x + y > 90°
up the solid object above is
3. Which number shows 9 in the thousands (A) 36
place? (B) 108
(A) 1,039 (C) 216
(B) 7,920 (D) 46,656
(C) 9,437
(D) 94,016

4. Which of the following is the product of

two distinct prime numbers?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 14

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7. It takes Ms. Weiss ten minutes to drive 11. Which of the following equals 90 ?
4 miles. If she continues to drive at the
(A) 5 × 18
same speed for 25 more minutes, how
(B) 5 × 16
many more miles will she have driven?
(C) 4 × 15
(A) 4 (D) 910
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 25
Students who walk to school
8. A painter uses 3 gallons of paint to cover
2 square yards on the inside of a house.
How many gallons will it take for him to
cover a wall that is 12 feet tall and 60 feet
long? Note: 3 feet = 1 yard. A
(A) 40 C Students in fourth grade
(B) 120 D
(C) 180 B
(D) 240

9. Which of the following is equal to 1 ? Students who bring their

6
3 lunch from home
(A)
6
3
(B) 12. In which region of the figure above would
9
3 you find Stephanie, a fourth-grade student
(C) who walks to school and buys her lunch
18
3 in the cafeteria?
(D)
24 (A) A
(B) B
10. When a number is divided by 8, the (C) C
remainder is 3. Which could be the (D) D
number?
(A) 11
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 21

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  QR
13. Which of the following shows a line of
symmetry?

(A)

(B)
14. What is the area of the shaded region in
the figure above?
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(C)
(D) 24

16
 M
A0
(D)
15. In the multiplication problem shown
above, if A and M represent distinct posi-
tive integers, which of the following is the
value of A ?
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 9

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QR 
A B C D
A B

3 1 1 14 1 12 1 34 2 2 14 2 12 2 34

D 8 C 19. Which point on the number line above

16. What is the perimeter of rectangle ABCD 10
indicates the correct placement of 4 ?
above?
(A) A
(A) 5 (B) B
(B) 11 (C) C
(C) 22 (D) D
(D) 24
20. Which of the following is closest in value
17. Which shows 7 in the hundreds and to 7 ?
thousandths places?
(A) 6.8
(A) 2,793.4701 (B) 7.009
(B) 5,704.2371 (C) 7.01
(C) 7,421.9783 (D) 7.1
(D) 8,072.7634
24
18. Which is seventy two thousand fourteen? 14
22
(A) 7,214
(B) 72,014 A B C D
(C) 72,140
(D) 720,014
21. The length of AD in the figure shown
above is
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 38
(D) 46

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  QR
22. Which of the following shows three- Lunches that include juice
fourths?

(A)

Lunches that include a sandwich

(B)

25. Which lunch menu can be found in the

shaded part of the figure above?
(C) (A) Yogurt and soda
(B) Ham sandwich and apple juice
(C) Pizza and milk
(D) Cheese sandwich and water
(D)

23. Which of the following is NOT equal to

16 ?
(A) 22 × 4
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 42

24. Which is the largest fraction?

3
(A)
5
2
(B)
3
1
(C)
6
1
(D)
2

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QR 
26. Which of the following shows a 27. Which of the following produces a
reflection? remainder of 3 ?
(A) 72 ÷ 9
(A) (B) 57 ÷ 6
(C) 49 ÷ 9
(D) 39 ÷ 7

28. Sam’s Pizza uses 24 slices of pepperoni

on 8 pieces of pizza. How many slices of
(B) pepperoni would be used on 6 pieces of
pizza?
(A) 3
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 48
(C)
29. Evan is making a quilt out of squares of
material with sides measuring 6 inches.
How many squares will he need to make
a quilt that is 6 feet long and 5 feet wide?
Note: 1 foot = 12 inches.
(D)
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 120

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  QR
7 O
12 5
5
M N
?
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
12
32. Which of the following CANNOT be
30. What is the area of the figure shown the length of side MN in triangle MNO,
above? shown above?
(A) 24 (A) 8
(B) 35 (B) 11
(C) 47.5 (C) 16
(D) 60 (D) 19

31. Which of the following shows 48 as a 33. When a number is divided by 8, the
product of primes? remainder is 2. What is the number?
(A) 3×8 (A) 11
(B) 24 × 3 (B) 22
(C) 23 × 6 (C) 72
(D) 2×3 (D) 90

34. What is the perimeter of a square with a

side of length 2 ?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2

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QR 
A = {Shapes that are red}
2× 1
37. =
3 8
1
(A)
12
1
(B)
B = {Shapes that contain 24
C = {Shapes that right angles} 19
(C)
are triangles} 24
1
(D)
4
35. Which of these shapes would fall into the
shaded region of the figure shown above?
(A) A red right triangle 38. The distance from Amy’s home to Los
(B) A red equilateral triangle Angeles is 2,281 miles. The distance from
(C) A green rectangle Dave’s house to Los Angeles is 1,912
(D) A blue circle miles. How much closer is Dave’s house
to Los Angeles than Amy’s house?
(A) 379
36. Melissa had 20 words on her spelling test.
(B) 369
1 (C) 359
If she spelled of the words incorrectly,
4 (D) 269
how many words did she spell correctly?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 15
(D) 16

STOP. If there is time,

you may check your
work in this section only.

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 Ž RC
Section 3
Reading Comprehension

25 Questions Time: 25 Minutes

This section contains five short reading passages. Each passage is followed by five questions based on its
content. Answer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that pas-
sage. You may write in the test booklet.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

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 Ž RC
Questions 1–5

Line
1 “What’s that noise?” my brother asked. 20 “Okay,” I said. I pretended I was
2 I listened carefully. Just when I thought 21 very brave, and got up and marched to the
3 I heard a small noise, the thunder crashed 22 bathroom. When I saw what was making the
4 again. The rain was hitting the roof hard, 23 noise, I laughed out loud. My brother came
5 too, making it difficult to hear anything. “I 24 running down the hall, asking, “What is it?”
6 don’t hear it,” I said. 25 Then, he poked his head in the door and
7 “What do you mean you don’t hear 26 looked in the bathtub. There was our dog,
8 it? It’s so loud!” my brother whispered. 27 Mack. He was so scared of the thunder that
9 Then I heard it. It was a click-click-click, 28 he was hiding in the tub! He sat there with
10 and it sounded like it was coming from the 29 his head down, shivering. His toenails went
11 bathroom. 30 click-click-click against the ceramic tub as
12 “Maybe it’s a monster. We should go 31 he turned to look at us.
13 get Mom,” my brother said. I didn’t want 32 “Poor Mack! He’s more scared than
14 to be a scaredy-cat, and I knew Mom was 33 we were,” I said. We brought Mack into our
15 probably asleep. Besides, I’d have to walk 34 bedroom and petted him until he stopped
16 past the bathroom to get to her. 35 shaking. Then, we all went to sleep.
17 Click-click-click. I told my brother to
18 go to sleep, but he said, “I can’t. We have to
19 see what it is.”

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RC Ž
1. At the beginning of the story, the narra- 4. Why does the narrator laugh out loud
tor’s brother thinks the noise is made by (line 23) when he gets to the bathroom?
(A) a monster (A) He is amused because he sees that it
(B) his mother is just the dog making a noise.
(C) the dog (B) He is happy that there is nothing
(D) the narrator making a noise in the bathroom.
(C) He is nervous about opening the
2. When the narrator says, “Besides, I’d door.
have to walk past the bathroom,” (D) His brother has just told him a good
(lines 15–16), you know that he joke.
(A) is afraid of getting in trouble
5. According to the passage, the dog was in
(B) is not familiar with the house
the bathtub because
(C) is scared to go near the noise
(D) would rather go to the kitchen (A) he needed a bath
(B) he was hungry
3. In line 21, “marched” most nearly means (C) he was trying to hide from the
(A) hopped loudly brothers
(B) ran sneakily (D) he was trying to hide from the
(C) sang a military song thunder
(D) walked with a purpose

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Questions 6–10
This story is adapted from an African folktale that explains why the sun and moon are in the
sky.
Line
1 Long ago, the sun and the moon and the 25 The sun and moon said together, “Yes,
2 water all lived on Earth. The sun and moon 26 of course. Come in.” So the water came
3 were married and they were friends with 27 through the gates. So, too, came the fishes
4 the water. The sun and moon often went to 28 and the crabs and the other water-dwelling
5 visit the water where he lived, but the water 29 creatures.
6 never returned their visits. 30 The water filled the palace so much that
7 One day, the moon said to the water, 31 the sun and moon were forced to move up
8 “Why do you never come to visit us?” 32 to the top floor. “Are you sure you want me
9 The water replied, “My people and I 33 to continue?” the water asked.
10 take up a lot of room. I do not think you have 34 “Of course, come in,” said the sun and
11 enough room in your house for all my people 35 moon. So the water continued.
12 and me. I would like to visit you, but I do not 36 Soon the water had filled the house
13 want to crowd your home.” 37 completely, and the sun and moon were
14 The moon said, “Well, then we shall 38 perched on the roof. “Are you sure?” asked
15 build a bigger house so that you can visit.” 39 the water.
16 “I would like that,” said the water, “but 40 “Yes, yes. You are welcome here,” said
17 it must be a very big place.” 41 the moon and sun. And so the water flowed
18 So the moon and the sun built a huge 42 more, until the moon and sun had to jump
19 palace. It took many months, but finally it 43 into the sky. They have stayed there ever
20 was finished. They sent word to the water to 44 since.
21 come and visit.
22 The next day, the water came. It stayed
23 outside the gates and called inside. “I have
24 arrived, my friends. Shall I come in?”

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RC Ž
6. The primary purpose of this passage is to 9. When the water says “my people” in
line 9, he is referring to
(A) describe how to build a large and
expensive palace (A) the creatures that live in the trees
(B) describe how water flows in a flood (B) the creatures that live in the water
(C) explain how the sun and moon got (C) the sun and the moon
into the sky (D) the workers who build the palace
(D) provide information about sea crea-
tures 10. In line 38, “perched” most nearly means
(A) got very thirsty
7. The sun and moon can best be described
(B) laughed heartily
as
(C) looked like a fish
(A) assertive (D) sat on the edge
(B) friendly
(C) grumpy
(D) selfish

8. In the beginning of the story, why does

the water never come to visit the sun and
moon?
(A) The sun and moon have never in-
vited the water to their home.
(B) The water does not really like the
sun and moon.
(C) The water lives too far away from
the sun and moon to make the trip.
(D) The water thinks there is not
enough space where the sun and
moon live.

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Questions 11–15
Line
1 Not all bees live in colonies. Some bees 11 bees mate with the queen and die. The
2 live all alone in a nest built for one. Most 12 worker bees gather food, care for the hive
3 of us, however, when we think of bees and 13 and the young, and protect the hive. The
4 wasps, think of huge groups of insects, 14 stored pollen and honey will feed the colony
5 working together in a cohesive social 15 throughout the cold winter months. Inside
6 unit. The hive is, in many ways, a perfect 16 a hive there is one queen, a few hundred
7 example of a social system. Inside the hive, 17 drones, and as many as 40,000 workers.
8 bees raise their young and store honey. The 18 The expression “busy as a bee” is certainly
9 queen honeybee, for example, may lay up to 19 appropriate when you consider the work
10 1,500 eggs a day in the summer. The drone 20 that bees perform.

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RC Ž
11. According to the passage, the purpose of 14. The word “cohesive” in line 5 most nearly
the drones is to means
(A) care for the hive (A) connected
(B) gather food (B) hardworking
(C) mate with the queen (C) sacred
(D) supervise the workers (D) sticky

12. According to the passage, the purpose of 15. The tone of the passage is most like that
the honey and pollen is to found in a
(A) attract a queen to the hive (A) diary entry of a modern naturalist
(B) fertilize flowers (B) general science textbook
(C) provide a place for the queen to lay (C) laboratory report
her eggs (D) letter to a friend
(D) provide food for the hive

13. According to the passage, the hive is an

example of a social system because
(A) different members of the hive per-
form different jobs, yet they work
together
(B) the queen rules over all the bees
(C) there are workers to do all the work
(D) there is no conflict in the hive

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20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 689

 Ž RC
Questions 16–20
Line
1 A wealthy contributor to the arts, 12 years overseeing its creation. She actually
2 Isabella Stewart Gardner was born in New 13 lived in the museum until her death in 1924.
3 York in 1840. She married John Lowell 14 Her museum became a gathering place for
4 Gardner, a wealthy heir, and settled in 15 artists, writers, and celebrities. She was
5 Boston, Massachusetts. When her only son 16 considered quite eccentric, often shunning
6 died as a young child, she devoted her life 17 Boston “society” in favor of more colorful
7 to the arts. Assisted by Bernard Berenson, 18 characters. She gave her wonderful museum
8 a young art critic, she began collecting 19 to the city of Boston, to be preserved as a
9 important works of art. After her husband 20 public museum. Today, if you visit Boston,
10 died in 1898, she purchased land for the 21 you can admire the work of Isabella Stewart
11 construction of a museum and worked for 22 Gardner.

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RC Ž
16. Which title would be most appropriate for 19. According to the passage, the museum
the passage? built by Isabella Stewart Gardner was
used for all of the following EXCEPT
(A) “An Eccentric Woman”
(B) “Isabella Stewart Gardner— (A) a place for artists to congregate
Museum Maker” (B) a place for art to be viewed
(C) “The Beginnings of a Museum” (C) a school for aspiring artists
(D) “Two Deaths in a Family” (D) her home

17. In line 17, the word “colorful” most 20. The author’s attitude toward Isabella
nearly means Stewart Gardner can best be described as
(A) beautiful (A) admiring
(B) brilliant (B) critical
(C) unusual (C) jealous
(D) vivid (D) skeptical

18. The passage suggests that Isabella Stewart

Gardner began collecting art
(A) after the death of her husband
(B) after the death of her son
(C) to impress art critics
(D) to spend her husband’s money

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20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 691

 Ž RC
Questions 21–25
Line
1 Charlotte Perkins Gilman lived from 14 Gilman eventually began publishing
2 1860 to 1935. She lived during a time when 15 books, articles, poems, and even a monthly
3 most women in America and Europe had 16 magazine of her own. She also lectured
4 few educational opportunities. For most of 17 to large groups. Much of her writing and
5 Gilman’s life, women could not even vote. 18 speaking focused on allowing women to
6 Gilman had many ideas for how to improve 19 use their natural talents and intelligence by
7 women’s lives. 20 giving them access to education and jobs
8 Because she grew up in a family that 21 that paid well. By offering lots of different
9 was not wealthy, Gilman read a lot in order 22 ideas and ways to change society, Gilman
10 to educate herself. When she was eighteen, 23 helped women gain the right to live full,
11 however, she attended the Rhode Island 24 productive lives.
12 School of Design. She worked her way
13 through school by tutoring and teaching.

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RC Ž
21. The primary purpose of the passage is to 24. The main point of the third paragraph
(lines 14–24) is that
(A) convince the reader that women are
able to work and study outside the (A) Gilman enjoyed writing and speak-
home ing to large groups
(B) describe how one woman focused (B) Gilman worked to spread ideas
on helping to improve others’ lives about how women could live fuller
(C) prove that people who are not lives
wealthy can still gain access to (C) it was very easy to publish your
education own magazine at the turn of the
(D) show that everyone needs to find a century
way to help others (D) most women did not have access to
education and well-paying jobs
22. According to the passage, during
Gilman’s life women did not have 25. Based on the information in the passage,
you could most likely expect one of
(A) any ideas about how to change
Gilman’s books to be titled
things
(B) any way to publish their writing (A) Europe: A History
(C) a way to travel between America (B) Growing Up Rich
and Europe (C) Why Women Don’t Need to Vote
(D) many options for school and work (D) Women and Economics

23. It can be inferred from lines 8–10 that

Gilman
(A) did not like to read by herself
(B) planned to become a writer and
speaker when she was young
(C) preferred to spend time alone
(D) was not able to attend school very
often as a child

STOP. If there is time,

you may check your
work in this section only.

20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 693

  MA
Section 4
Mathematics Achievement

30 Questions Time: 30 Minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the
four suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row,
mark the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

  A   B   C   D

Which number is divisible by 7 without a remainder?

(A) 26
(B) 35
(C) 18
(D) 60

The correct answer is 35, so circle B is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on
until told to do so.

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  MA
1 Questions 4–6 refer to the pictograph shown
1. 6 2 hours is how many minutes more than below.
5 hours? Letters Delivered on Mrs. Adler’s
1 Mail Route
(A) 1
2
(B) 30 Monday -----
(C) 60 Tuesday ---
(D) 90 Wednesday ----

Note: Each - represents 2 letters.

2. Which numeral represents twenty-four
thousand, six hundred and three? 4. How many letters did Mrs. Adler deliver
on Tuesday?
(A) 2,463
(B) 20,463 (A) None
(C) 24,603 (B) 2
(D) 24,630 (C) 3
(D) 6
2 8 5. How many more letters did Mrs. Adler
3.
3 9 deliver on Monday than on Wednesday?
14 (A) 1
(A)
9
(B) 2
28 (C) 3
(B) (D) 4
27
10 6. How many letters did Mrs. Adler deliver
(C)
9 on Monday and Tuesday?
9 (A) 24
(D)
14 (B) 18
(C) 16
(D) 8

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MA 
7. In the decimal 0.42537, the digit 2 is 1, 000
9. =
equivalent to which of the following? 25

(A) 400
2
(A)
10 (B) 40
2
(B)
100 (C) 4
2 1
(C) (D)
1, 000 4
2
(D)
10, 000 10. 3 × 64 =
(A) 128
(B) 182
(C) 192
Q R (D) 256

11. 3 × 2 + 4 =
3 (A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16
T 4 S

8. What is the perimeter of rectangle QRST 12. Wu had 18 marbles. He lost half of them,
shown above? and then his friend gave him 3 more
marbles. How many marbles does Wu
(A) 7 have now?
(B) 10
(C) 12 (A) 6
(D) 14 (B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 21

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20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 697

  MA
16. If 12 eggs cost $1.80, then how much will
School Supplies 36 eggs cost?
Pad of Paper............................$1.25
(A) $0.60
Notebook................................ $1.50
(B) $1.80
Box of Pencils........................ $2.00
(C) $3.60
Pens........................................ $1.00
(D) $5.40

13. Ian visits the store and buys 2 pads of F

paper, 1 notebook, and 3 boxes of pencils.
How much money does he spend?
45°
(A) $10.00
(B) $8.00
(C) $5.75 x 45°
(D) $4.75 G H

1 × 400 = 17. In triangle FGH shown above, the value of

14.
5 angle x in degrees is

(A) 20 (A) 30
(B) 40 (B) 45
(C) 80 (C) 90
(D) 120 (D) 180

15. Evan has 26 comic books. Mark has twice

as many comic books as Evan has. How
many comic books does Mark have?
(A) 13
(B) 26
(C) 42
(D) 52

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MA 
Questions 18–19 refer to the following graph. 20. 6 × 20 = 150 – _______
Amount of Time Alicia (A) 130
Spent Doing Homework (B) 90
4
(C) 30
(D) 10
3
Number
of 2 3
21. Which fraction is less than ?
Hours 4
2
1 (A)
3
5
0 (B)
Mon. Tue. Wed. Thur. Fri. 6

(C) 7
18. On which day did Alicia spend the same 8
amount of time doing homework as she 9
spent on Monday? (D) 10
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday 22. All of the following are multiples of 3
(C) Thursday EXCEPT
(D) Friday (A) 120
(B) 210
19. How many more hours did Alicia spend (C) 462
doing her homework on Tuesday than on (D) 512
Wednesday?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

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20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 699

  MA
Questions 23–24 refer to the graph shown 25. If the perimeter of a square is 36, what is
below. the length of one side?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
Favorite Ice Cream Flavors of Helen’s Class (D) 18
5

4
26. If 1 pound = 16 ounces, which of the fol-
Number 3
of lowing is equivalent to 2.5 pounds?
Students 2
(A) 18 ounces
1
(B) 24 ounces
0 (C) 32 ounces
Chocolate Strawberry Vanilla Peppermint
(D) 40 ounces
Flavor

1
27. Jessica worked 5 hours on Tuesday and
23. How many students chose vanilla ice 2
3
cream as their favorite? 3 hours on Wednesday. How many
4
(A) 1 hours did she work on Tuesday and
(B) 2 Wednesday?
(C) 3
(D) 4 3
(A) 1
4
24. Which flavor was the favorite of the 1
(B) 2
greatest number of students? 2
1
(A) Peppermint (C) 8
4
(B) Vanilla
(C) Chocolate 1
(D) 9
4
(D) Strawberry

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 MA 
Questions 28–30 refer to the price list shown 30. The price for 2 adults and 1 child to ride
below. the Fast Ferry on a weekend is what frac-
Fast Ferry Price List tional part of the price for 2 adults and 1
child to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekday
ADULTS CHILDREN afternoon?
Weekday Mornings $15.00 $9.00
Weekday Afternoons $12.00 $6.00 1
(A)
2
Weekends $10.00 FREE
1
(B)
3
28. How much will it cost for 2 adults and 1
(C) 2
child to ride the Fast Ferry on a weekday
3
afternoon?
3
(D)
(A) $30.00 4
(B) $27.00
(C) $24.00
(D) $18.00

29. How much less will it cost 1 adult and 2

children to ride the Fast Ferry on a week-
day afternoon than it would cost them to
ride on a weekday morning?
(A) $6.00
(B) $8.00
(C) $9.00
(D) $18.00

STOP. If there is time,

you may check your
work in this section only.

20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 701

 Essay

You will have 30 minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic printed on the other side of this page. Do
not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.

The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try to ex-
press your thoughts clearly. How well you write is much more important than how much you write, but you
need to say enough for a reader to understand what you mean.

You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy of your
essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write only in the appro-
priate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may be read by someone who
is not familiar with your handwriting.

You may make notes and plan your essay on the reverse side of the page. Allow enough time to copy the
final form onto your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer sheet, on page 3, in
the box provided.

Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on pages 3 and 4 of your answer sheet and to
write it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only pages 3 and 4 will
be sent to the schools.

Directions continue on next page.

20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 703

 REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of page 3 of your answer
sheet.

Essay Topic

If you could plan your perfect vacation, what would you do?

• Only write on this essay question

• Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools
• Only write in blue or black pen

NOTES
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STUDENT NAME GRADE APPLYING FOR

You must write your essay topic in this space.

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Use specific details and examples in your response.

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20. Lower Level ISEE Practice Test | 705

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