SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS

HÀ NAM NĂM HỌC 2019- 2020

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Đề thi gồm 10 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
(Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này)

Điểm của bài thi Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số: Giám khảo số 1:

Bằng chữ: Giám khảo số 2:

SECTION A. LISTENING (30 points)

Part I. You will hear Sarah Brown talking about her work as a television weather
forecaster. Choose the best answer for each question. (10 points)

1. How long has Sarah worked as a weather forecaster?

A. two years C. thirty years
B. seven years D. eleven years
2. What does Sarah say about her job?
A. She sometimes has to work at night. C. She works ten or twelve hours a day.
B. She enjoys getting up early. D. She doesn’t have a day off.
3. When Sarah does a weather forecast, _________.
A. she prepares it in advance C. she worries about making a mistake
B. she sometimes forgets her words D. she has a lot of time to take notes
4. Sarah is pleased because she_________.
A. has got her pilot’s licence C. took part in a long race
B. taught her husband to play tennis D. talked to a famous man
5. A man in India wanted_________.
A. to meet Sarah’s family C. to invite Sarah to his home
B. to receive a letter from Sarah D. a photo of Sarah

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Page 1/10
 Part II. You will hear a girl called Lydia giving a talk about a project she has been involved in on
healthy eating. For questions 1–10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (10 points)

The healthy eating project

Lydia says an alternative name for healthy eating is having a (1)................................................
Lydia compares the food we eat to (2).................................................................. for our bodies.
Lydia says people do not need to avoid certain foods such as (3)..............................................
Lydia says the food pyramid describes the foods we ought to eat and their
(4).............................................................. .
Lydia offers to provide listeners with (5).......................................................... which contain
fruit and vegetables.
Lydia points out that (6).............................................................................. is a non-food source
of one vitamin.
Lydia says that (7)..................................................................... is an example of a snack we
needn’t avoid.
Lydia says the action of (8)................................................................... salad items doesn’t burn
more energy than the food provides.
Lydia gives the example of (9)....................................................................... as a drink that is
useful for our bodies.
Lydia explains that some people think (10)............................................................... is a
substitute for eating healthily.

Part III. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Jane, and her brother, Michael, about a
Spanish family who are coming to visit them in England. Decide if each sentence is correct or
incorrect. Put a (ü) in the box under A for YES and under B for No. (10 points)

Yes NO
Statements
(A) (B)
0. This will be the Sanchez family’s first trip to England ü
1. Michael suggests sightseeing in London.
2. The Sanchez children are teenagers.
3. Jane has been to the car museum.
4. Michael thinks everyone enjoys visiting museums.
5. Jane and Michael have bought tickets for the tennis competition.

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. (5 points)
1. 1. A. swing B. sweet C. sword D. swan
2. 2. A. viable B. dynamite C. priority D. responsible
3. 3. A. paragraphed B. coughed C. ploughed D. faced
4. 4. A. confident B. concentrate C. cognitive D. somebody
5. 5. A. illusion B. adulthood C. frustrated D. much
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Page 2/10
Part II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group. (5 points)
1. A. philosopher B. patriot C. atmosphere D. habit
2. A. pollute B. severe C. tragic D. humane
3. A. encourage B. financial C. departure D. average
4. A. career B. request C. ancient D. machine
5. A. magnificence B. stimulating C. imperial D. simplicity
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (65 points)

Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points)
1. Eight dollars _____ the price of a movie these days.
A. are B. is C. were D. am
2. ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us.
A. In spite of B. So C. As D. However
3. It costs about fifty dollars to have a tooth ________.
A. filling B. to fill C. filled D. being filled
4. Many plant and animal species are now on the ___________ of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. margin D. verge
5. At the South Pole _______, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.
A. Antarctica lies where B. Antarctica lies and
C. where Antarctica lies D. lies Antarctica
6. ____________ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an
optical illusion.
A. The Moon B. That the Moon C. When the Moon D. The Moon which
7. _____ Internet can be used as _______ means of education and communication.
A. An - a B. The - a C. The - the D.  - a
8. I caught the last bus by the skin of my ______.
A. mouth B. leg C. neck D. teeth
9. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when _________ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
10. If you don't be careful, you'll cut your hands on that sharp knife.
A. look up B. watch out C. make up your mind D. look off
11. Nobody liked the film, __________?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. did they D. didn’t they
12. Of the two discussions held last month, the second one was __________ .
A. more fruitful B. the more fruitful C. the most fruitful D. most fruitful
13. - Cheer up! It might never happen!
- __________
A. It’s so very unlikely, isn’t it? B. What do you think?
C. It already has. D. That was the last thing I did.
14. Monica and Mathew are talking about recycling.
- Monica: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
- Mathew: “_______ ”
A. I’ll say. B. It's rubbish. We shouldn’t use it.
C. Never mind. D. You can’t say that again.
15. If you come to the theatre late, you have to wait until the _________ to get in.
A. break B. interval C. refreshment D. half time

Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage. (20 points)
Page 3/10
 ENGLISH STUDENTS AND CULTURE SHOCK

Culture shock is a feeling of (0. CONFUSE)__________________ 0. conFUSION

experienced by someone visiting a new country and being confronted with an
(1. FAMILIAR) __________ culture. It is experienced by many of the 1. ………………………
thousands of students who leave home to study in an English speaking
country. 2. ………………………

These students have to cope with changes in weather, food, language and 3. ………………………
behaviour. (2. RESEARCH) __________ have found that there are several
stages of culture shock and that adjusting to life in a new country is an
4. ………………………
ongoing and gradual process.

Initially, students may feel excited and delighted at the new culture. They take 5. ………………………
to their language studies with (3. ENTHUSIASTIC) _____________ and
make significant progress. 6. ………………………

Once the (4. NOVEL)___________________ of being in a foreign place 7. ………………………

wears off, feelings of (5. ANXIOUS)_____________________, depression
and homesickness may arise, and homesick students may call home 8. ………………………
repeatedly. (6. COMMUNICATE) ____________ problems, due to locals
speaking too quickly and using strange idioms and slang, are also very
9. ………………………
common. (7. ADDITION)______________, stress may be caused by racial
discrimination, (8. FINANCE) ___________ problems or safety concerns.
10. ………………………
During the next stage, the student is more (9. REAL)__________ and begins
to accept the positive and negative aspects of both cultures. They begin to feel
at home and realise that problems are (10. LEARN)__________
opportunities.

Part III. Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in brackets to complete the sentences. (20 points)
1. By the time your brother (return)________ here next year, the city will have changed a lot.
2. You shouldn’t (speak) _________________to Mrs. Joanna at her party like that.
3. They went to the party without (invite) _______________________.
4. It is expected that tax increases (announce) _____________ in tomorrow’s budget.
5. (Write)________ the letter, she put it carefully in an envelope.
6. He talked as if he (know) ______________ where she was.
7. Peter helped us. Or else, we (be )___________ in serious trouble.
8. He was the only student (award) _______ the special prize in reciting poetry competition.
9. You may feel frightened when you are in a forest (surround) ______ by tall trees.
10. The police caught her (climb) _________ over the garden wall.
Your answers:

1…………………………………….. 6………………………………..

2…………………………………… 7……………………………….

3…………………………………… 8……………………………….

4…………………………………… 9………………………………….

5……………………………………... 10……………………………….
Part IV. Each of the numbered lines in the passage contains a mistake, underline and correct it.

Page 4/10
(10 points)

Air pollution is a cause for ill – health in human beings. In a lot of 0. for --> of
countries, there are laws limited the amount of smoke which factories can 1. ………………….
produce. Because there isn’t enough information on the amount of smoke in 2. ………………….
the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution makes lung cancer. 3. ………………….
The gases from the exhausts of cars have also risen air pollution in most 4. ………………….
cities. The lead in petrol produces a poisoned gas which often collects in 5. ………………….
busy streets surrounding by high buildings. Children who live in areas 6. ………………….
where there is a lot of lead in the atmosphere cannot think as quick as other 7. ………………….
children and they are clumsy where they use their hands. There are long- 8. ………………….
term effects of pollution. If the gases in the atmosphere continues to increase, the 9. ………………….
earth’s climate will become warmer. A lot of ice near the Poles may water and 10. ………………….
may cause serious floods.

SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION (50 points)

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following passage. (20 points)
British families started going (0) __ON__ holiday to the seaside around the middle of the
th
19 century. The invention of the railways (1) _____ this possible. The first holidaymakers were
quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside was a place to be cured of illness,
and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to increase (2) ______
knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from the library.
At that time, ordinary working people had a very little time (3) _______ work. However, in
1871, the government introduced for ‘Bank Holidays’- national holiday days. This allowed
people to have a day or two out, which now and (4) _______ gave them a taste for leisure and the
seaside. At first, they went on day-trips, taking (5) ______ of special cheap tickets on the
railways.
By the 1880s, rising incomes (6) _______ that many ordinary workers and their families
could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built
to (7) ______ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle sitting on the beach, (8) ______ in the
sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (9) ______ offer and holidaymakers went to
have fun.
Today, the English seaside remains popular, with more than 18 million holidays (10)
________ there each year.

Your answers:
1…………… ……………….. 6…………… ………………..
2…………… ……………….. 7…………… ………………..
3…………… ……………….. 8…………… ………………..
4…………… ……………….. 9…………… ………………..
5…………… ……………….. 10…………… ………………..
Part II. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points)
Page 5/10
 When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (1)________ across words
you do not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes
you (2)__________. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (3)__________ of
accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth
remembering that every dictionary has its (4) ___________. Each definition is only an
approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting
it in a (5) of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of
dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use
a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (6)___________ an English-English dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (7) you are allowed to
use one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You
are, (8) , forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.
When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you
develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (9) _________ a number of
possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought
likely.
Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues,
both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (10) _____________ from the
formation of the word.
1. A. put B. drop C. see D. come
2 A. look B. guess C. examine D. inspect
3. A. extent B. range C. degree D. level
4. A. limitations B. values C. advantages D. entry
5. A. multiple B. variety C. variation D. diversity
6. A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire
7. A. or else B. Provided C. Although D. Even if
8. A. so B. therefore C. completely D. so that
9. A. surpass B. get over C. go over D. overcome
10. A. derived B. extracted C. coming D. originated
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Read the following passage and select the best answer to each of the questions. (10 points)
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive
their name from the Japanese expression for "high water in a harbor". These waves are also
referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with
tides. Scientists often refer to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do
result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano, for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced.
This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow water the coast
that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic
activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and
Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean
bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often comes with little warning and
Page 6/10
can therefore prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon.
The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the
Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto
nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and
was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
1: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses
A. tidal waves B. tides C. storm surges D. underwater earthquakes
2: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
A. they are the same as tsunamis.
B. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides.
C. this terminology is not used by the scientific community.
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves.
3: The word "displaced" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to_______________
A. located B. not pleased C. filtered D. moved
4: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis_______________.
A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
B. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
C. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
D. are often identified by ships on the ocean
5: As used in paragraph 2, water that is "shallow" isn’t________ .
A. clear B. deep C. tidal D. coastal
6: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to
A. arrive without warning. B. be less of a problem.
C. come from greater distances. D. originate in Alaska.
7: The possessive "their" in the third paragraph refers to __________.
A. the Hawaiian islands B. thousands of miles
C. these tsunamis D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
8: A "calamitous" tsunami in the last paragraph is the one that is _________.
A. expected B. at fault C. extremely calm D. disastrous
9: From the expression "on record" in the last paragraph, it can be inferred the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano __________.
A. occurred before efficient records were kept
B. was filmed as it was happening
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
10: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano__________.
A. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
B. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
D. resulted in little damage
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Page 7/10
Part IV. You are going to read an article about a national vote for people’s favourite tree. Six
sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A–G the one which fits
each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (10 points)

A. This means that they are touching the ground and have taken root.
B. These roots have become enormous with age and have now emerged above the ground.
Children love to jump over them like horses in a race.
C. But the most distinctive thing about this tree is that its main trunk is leaning towards the
ground at an angle of 45 degrees.
D. The best example of this on the big old tree is another species of tree called a rowan.
E. Alternatively, they could be used to hold a community event in honour of the tree.
F. It was planted from a seed in 1809 by a woman called Ann Brailsford.
G. Children hang bird feeders from its branches and it is used as the focus of many of the
educational activities going on around it.

Tree of the Year

The aim of the national Tree of the Year competition is to promote and celebrate the most
interesting trees around the country. Images and descriptions of a shortlist of 28 trees are put
online and the public are asked to vote for their favourite.
The four trees that gain the most votes before 5 p.m. on 5th October will be given a grant
of £1,000. In addition, all trees that receive 1,000 or more votes will get a grant of £500. The
grants may be spent on a tree health check or advice from a tree expert, or an educational event,
for example. (0)____________
Among the 28 shortlisted trees there are a wide range of tree species, each with its own
unique, fascinating story. For example, the ‘Ding Dong’ tree is a copper beech tree growing in a
primary school playground. It was named the ‘Ding Dong’ tree because of a game pupils
invented in which they race to touch its trunk, shouting ‘Ding Dong!’ The protective space
underneath the 50-year-old tree is used as a magical outdoor classroom, while the indoor
classroom displays pictures of the tree through each season of the year. (1)____________
Many of the other trees in the competition are remarkable for their age alone. The
Craigends Yew, for example, is thought to be up to 700 years old, making it one of the oldest in
Scotland. It is an amazing sight as many of its branches have layered. (2)__________ As a
result of these extra growths, the total size when measured around the tree’s crown (the main
body of its leaves and branches) is a massive 100 metres.
Another very old tree, the Holm Oak in Kilbroney Park, Northern Ireland, is much loved
by local people. It measures 3.6 metres around the trunk, and its beautiful bark looks like the skin
of a snake. (3) _________ The advantage of this lack of uprightness is that young children can
climb safely and easily on it. Kilbroney Park is home to many remarkable trees, but this tree was
chosen as the favourite by community members.
A 500-year-old veteran oak tree stands in the ancient woodland pasture at Carngafallt in
Wales. One of the interesting things about this twisted, hollow tree is that it has several ‘air trees’
growing out of it. An ‘air tree’ is one growing without its roots touching the ground.
(4)______________ It extends its roots down inside the oak’s hollow trunk.
The original Bramley apple tree in Nottinghamshire is younger than many in this
competition, but is the famous parent of all modern Bramley apple trees. (5) __________ Many
years later, Matthew Bramley, the new owner of the tree, was carrying some of his fruit when he
met a gardener called Henry Merryweather. Henry asked if he could take some cuttings from
Page 8/10
Matthew’s trees to grow his own trees. Mr Bramley agreed, provided they were named
‘Bramley’s Seedling’.

Your answers:
0. E 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (10 points)
1. It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.
- The accident is ________________________________________________________
2. Fiona was so disappointed that she could not keep on working.
- Such ________________________________________________________________
3. He helped us so we finished the project on time.
- If it _________________________________________________________________
4. We live far from our relatives. We miss them very much.
- The _________________________________________________________________
5. “Why don’t you complain to the company, Jane?”, said Mr. John.
- Mr. John suggested ____________________________________________________

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the given one. Use the
given word. Do not change the BOLD word. (10 points)

1. Margaret was offered a place on the course but couldn’t accept because she was ill. TURN
- .................................................................................................................................................
2. He was exhausted after a long trip, but he helped me to repair my broken chair. AS
- .................................................................................................................................................
3. Please excuse Jane’s poor typing, she’s only been learning for a month. ALLOWANCES
- .................................................................................................................................................
4. Did you mean to kick him, or did it happen by accident? PURPOSE
- .................................................................................................................................................
5. I knew I had met him before, but I can’t remember his name. TONGUE
- .................................................................................................................................................

Part III. Writing (25 points)

Page 9/10
 The rapid development of tourism has negative effects on natural beauty of Vietnam,
especially its wonders. In 180 -200 words, write a paragraph about what should be done to
preserve them.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Page 10/10
…………………………………….………………………………………
THE END

Page 11/10