THE PRODIGIES PU COLLEGE
SORAHUNASE
Neet 25/8/25
NEET-UG - PHYSICS
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks : 180
Section A
1 The total energy of an [4]
electron in the nth
stationary orbit of the
hydrogen atom can be
obtained by
13.6
a) En = 2
eV
n
b) En =−13.6 × n2 e V
13.6
c) En =− 2
eV
n
1.36
d) En =− 2
eV
n
2 For which one of the [4]
following, Bohr model
is not valid?
a) Hydrogen atom
b) Deuteron atom
c) Singly ionised neon
atom (Ne❑+¿¿ )
d) Singly ionised
helium atom (He❑+¿¿ )
3 LetT 1 and T 2 be the [4]
energy of an electron in
the first and second
excited states of
hydrogen atom,
respectively. According
to the Bohr’s model of
an atom, the ratio
T 1 :T 2 is:
a) 4 :9
b) 1 :4
c) 4 :1
d) 9 : 4
4 An alpha nucleus of [4]
1
energy mv ❑2
2
bombards a heavy
nuclear target of
charge Ze. Then the
distance of closest
approach for the alpha
nucleus will be
proportional to:
a) m
1
b) 2
m
1
c)
m
1
d)
√m
5 As the quantum [4]
number increases, the
difference of energy
between consecutive
energy levels:
a) decreases
b) first decreases and
then increases
c) increases
d) remains the same
6 A particle of massm is [4]
moving around the
origin with a constant
force F pulling it
towards the origin. If
Bohr model is used to
describe its motion, the
radius r of the nt h orbit
and the particle’s speed
v in the orbit depend
on n as
a) r ∝n 2/ 3 ; v ∝ n1 /3
b) r ∝n 4 /3 ; v ∝n −1/ 3
c) r ∝n 1/ 3 ; v ∝ n2 /3
d) r ∝n 1/ 3 ; v ∝ n1/ 3
7 Let R1 be the radius of [4]
the second stationary
orbit and R2 be the
radius of the fourth
stationary orbit of an
electron in Bohr’s
R1
model. The ratio is:
R2
a) 0.25
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 4
8 Match List I with List II. [4]
Choose the correct
answer from the
options given below:
a) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D
- II
b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D
- IV
c) A - III, B - IV, C - II,
D- I
d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D
- III
9 The ratio of [4]
wavelengths of the last
line of Balmer series
and the last line of
Lyman series is:
a) 1
b) 4
c) 0.5
d) 2
10 A radioactive nucleus [4]
A
❑Z X undergoes sponta
- neous decay in the
sequence
A
❑Z X →z − 1 B →z − 3 C → z −2 D
, where Z is the atomic
number of element X.
The possible decay
particles in the
sequence are:
+¿¿
a) α , β , β−
+¿¿
b) β − , α , β
+¿¿
c) β , α , β−
d) α , β − , β +¿¿
11 The radius of inner [4]
most orbit of hydrogen
atom is5.3 ×10− 11 m .
What is the radius of
third allowed orbit of
hydrogen atom?
o
a) 1.06 A
o
b) 0.53 A
o
c) 1.59 A
o
d) 4.77 A
12 What happens to the [4]
mass number and
atomic number of an
element when it emitsγ
- radiation?
a) Mass number
remains unchanged
while atomic number
decreases by one.
b) Mass number
increases by four and
atomic number
increases by two.
c) Mass number
decreases by four and
atomic number
decreases by two.
d) Mass number and
atomic number remain
unchanged.
13 According to Bohr’s [4]
theory, the time -
averaged magnetic
field at the centre (i.e.
nucleus) of a hydrogen
atom due to the motion
of electrons in the nth
orbit is proportional
to : (n = principal
quantum number)
a) n❑−5
b) n❑−3
c) n❑−2
d) n❑−4
14 In the hydrogen [4]
spectrum, the shortest
wavelength in Balmer
series is λ . The shortest
wavelength in Brackett
series is:
a) 9 λ
b) 2 λ
c) 4 λ
d) 16 λ
15 The ratio of kinetic [4]
energy to the total
energy of an electron in
a Bohr orbit of the
hydrogen atom, is:
a) 1 : - 2
b) 1 : - 1
c) 1 :1
d) 2 : - 1
16 β - particale consists of [4]
a) 2 electrons, 2
protons and 2
neutrons.
b) 2 protons and 2
neutrons only.
c) 2 electrons and 4
protons only.
d) 2 protons only.
17 Given below are two [4]
statements:
Statement I: Atoms
are electrically neutral
as they contain equal
number of positive and
negative charges.
Statement II: Atoms of
each element are stable
and emit their
characteristic
spectrum.
In the light of the above
statements, choose the
most appropriate
answer from the
options given below:
a) Statement I is
incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
b) Statement I is
correct but Statement
II is incorrect.
c) Both Statement I and
Statement II are
incorrect.
d) Both Statement I
and Statement. II are
correct.
18 What is missing in the [4]
following nuclear
reaction?
2 2 3
❑1 H +❑1 H →❑2 H e +?
a) positron
b) neutron
c) electron
d) meson
19 In a nuclear reaction [4]
which of the following
is conserved?
a) Sum of mass and
energy
b) All of these
c) Charge
d) Momentum
20 Energy released in [4]
nuclear fission is due to
1. some mass is
converted into
energy
2. total binding
energy of
fragments is
more than the
binding energy
of parental
element
3. total binding
energy of
fragments is
less than the
binding energy
of parental
element
4. total binding
energy of
fragments is
equal to the
binding energy
of parental
element.
a) (C)
b) (B)
c) (A)
d) (D)
21 Which of the following [4]
is an essential
requirement for
initiating the fusion
reaction?
a) high temperature
b) critical mass
c) thermal neutrons
d) critical temperature
22 M❑n and M ❑ p [4]
represent the mass of
neutron and proton
respectively. An
element having mass M
has N neutrons and Z
protons, then the
correct relation will be
a) M N[ M❑n + M ❑ p ]
b) M < [ N - M❑n + Z -
M ❑p ]
c) M = [ N - M❑n + Z -
M ❑p ]
d) M > [ NM❑n + Z - M
❑p ]
23 Heavy stable nuclei [4]
have more neutrons
than protons. This is
because of the fact that
a) neutrons decay into
protons through beta
decay
b) nuclear forces
between neutrons are
weaker than that
between protons
c) the electrostatic
force between protons
is repulsive
d) neutrons are heavier
than protons
24 When two nuclei (A≤ [4]
10) fuse together to
form a heavier nucleus,
the:
a) total binding energy
decreases
b) binding energy per
nucleon decreases
c) binding energy per
nucleon does not
change
d) binding energy per
nucleon increases
25 When two nuclei (with [4]
A = 8) join to form a
heavier nucleus, the
binding energy (B.E.)
per nucleon of the
heavier nuclei is
a) more than the B.E.
per nucleon of the
lighter nuclei
b) same as the B.E. per
nucleon of the lighter
nuclei
c) less than the B.E. per
nucleon of the lighter
nuclei
d) double the B.E. per
nucleon of the lighter
nuclei.
26 If the nuclear force [4]
between two protons,
two neutrons and
between proton and
neutron is denoted by
F❑ p p , F ❑n n and F ❑ p n
respectively, then
a) F❑ p p = F ❑n n = F ❑ p n
b) F p p ≈ F n n ≈ F p n
c) F p p ≠ F n n andF ❑ p p =
F ❑n n
d) F p p ≠ F n n ≠ F p n
27 Which of the following [4]
statements is not true
for nuclear forces?
a) They have about the
same magnitude for
different pairs of
nucleons.
b) They are always
attractive.
c) They are stronger
than Coulomb forces.
d) They saturate as the
separation between
two nucleons
increases.
28 Nuclear fission is best [4]
explained by
a) liquid droplet theory
b) independent particle
model of the nucleus
c) Yukawa π - meson
theory
d) proton - proton
cycle
29 Complete the equation [4]
for the following
fission process
235 1 90
❑92 U +❑0 n →❑38 S r + …
a) ❑54 Xe ❑142 + ❑0 n
1
❑
b) ❑57 Xe ❑142 + 3 ❑0 n
1
❑
c) ❑54 Xe ❑143 + 3 ❑0 n
1
❑
d) ❑54 Xe ❑145 + 3 ❑0 n
1
❑
30 Fusion reaction takes [4]
place at high
temperature because
a) molecules break up
at high temperature
b) kinetic energy is
high enough to
overcome the coulomb
repulsion between
nuclei.
c) atoms get ionised at
high temperature
d) nuclei break up at
high temperature
31 What amount of energy [4]
is released by
deuterium and tritium
fusion?
a) 60.6 eV
b) 28.3 eV
c) 17.6 eV
d) 12.6 eV
32 The reaction [4]
responsible for the
production of light
energy from the sun is
a) nuclear
b) fusion
c) fission
d) scission
33 A neutron can cause [4]
fission in
a) uranium - 238
b) hydrogen
c) uranium - 235
d) thorium
34 Nuclear binding energy [4]
is equivalent to:
a) Mass of neutron
b) Mass of proton
c) Mass of nucleus
d) Mass defect of the
nucleus
35 In an atom bomb, the [4]
reaction which occurs
is
a) fusion
b) thermonuclear
c) controlled fission
d) uncontrolled fission
36 Radioactive radiations [4]
are harmful to the
living organs. To avoid
harm during storage,
radioactive samples
are stored in lead
boxes. Lead is used
because it is
a) good absorber
b) heavy
c) strong
d) bad conductor
37 M❑ p denotes the mass [4]
of a proton and M ❑n
that of a neutron. A
given nucleus, of
binding energy B,
contains Z protons and
N neutrons. The mass
M(N, Z) of the nucleus
is given by (where c is
the velocity of light)
a) M(N, Z) =ZM❑n + ZM
B
❑p + 2
c
b) M(N, Z) =NM❑n +
ZM ❑ p + Bc ❑2
c) M(N, Z) =NM❑n + ZM
B
❑p - 2
c
d) M(N, Z) =NM❑n +
ZM ❑ p - Bc ❑2
38 Out of the following [4]
which one is not
possible energy for a
photon to be emitted
by hydrogen atom
according to Bohr’s
atomic model?
a) 1.9 eV
b) 13.6 eV
c) 0.65 eV
d) 11.1 eV
39 In a hydrogen - like [4]
atom, electron makes
the transition from an
energy level with a
quantum number n to
another with a
quantum number (n -
1). If n >> X the
frequency of radiation
emitted is proportional
to
1
a) 3
2
n
1
b) 3
n
1
c) 2
n
1
d)
n
40 V 1 is the frequency of [4]
the series limit of
Lyman series V ❑2 is
the frequency of the
first line of Lyman
series and V ❑3 is the
frequency of the series
limit of the Balmer
series. Then
1 1 1
a) = +
v1 v2 v3
b) v❑1 = v ❑2 - v ❑3
c) v❑1 - v ❑2 = v ❑3
1 1 1
d) = +
v2 v1 v3
41 In the ground state of [4]
which model electrons
are in stable
equilibrium with zero
net force?
a) Bohr model
b) None of these
c) Thomson’s model
d) Rutherford’s model
42 Which one of the [4]
relations is correct
between time period
and a number of orbits
while an electron is
revolving in an orbit?
1
a) T ∝
n
1
b) T ∝ 2
n
c) T ∝ n3
d) T ∝ n2
43 Rutherford’s model of [4]
the atom was unstable,
because
a) electrons are
repelled by the nucleus
b) nuclei will break
down
c) orbiting electrons
radiate energy
d) electrons move in
circular orbits
44 According to Bohr’s [4]
theory, the moment of
momentum of an
electron revolving in
second orbit of
hydrogen atom will be:
h
a)
π
2h
b)
π
c) π h
d) 2 π r h
45 The wavelength of [4]
radiation emitted is λ 0
when an electron in a
hydrogen atom jumps
from 3 rdto 2 ndorbit.
If in the hydrogen atom
itself, the electron
jumps from the fourth
orbit to the second
orbit, then the
wavelength of emitted
radiation will be
16
a) λ
25 0
27
b) λ
20 0
25
c) λ
16 0
20
d) λ
27 0