Test Code: CTS-04 Time Allowed: 150min

BIOLOGY
1. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves:
A) PS I B) PS I and PS II C) PS II D) P680
2. Photosystem – I and photosystem − II are found in:
A) Stroma of chloroplast C) Matrix of mitochondria
B) Grana of chloroplast D) Inner membrane of mitochondria
3. Photophosphorylation means:
A) Formation of ATP from ADP in the presence of light
B) Formation of NADP
C) Formation of ADP from ATP
D) Formation of ATP in ETC
4. Chlorophyll molecules are green in colour because they:
A) Transform green light C) Absorb green light
B) conversion of green light into red light D) Reflect green light
5. Cu+ is present in:
A) Plasmalemma B) Plastoquinone C) Plastocyanin D) Ferridoxin
6. The molecule, which mainly absorb light energy and convert it to chemical energy in photosynthesis
are:
A) Chlorophyll B) Chlorophyll a C) Chlorophyll b D) Xanthophyll
7. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in:
A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria C) Peroxisomes D) Centriole
8. The first stable product of Calvin cycle is:
A) 3 – phosphoglycerate C) Glyceraldehyde – 3 phosphate
B) 1, 3 biphosphoglycerate D) Ribulose – 5 – phosphate
9. The incomplete breakdown of sugars in anaerobic respiration results in the formation of:
A) Fructose + H2O C) Alcohol + CO2
B) Glucose + CO2 D) H2O+CO2
10. The formation of Acetyl Co – A from pyruvic acid is the result of its:
A) Reduction C) Dephosphorylation
B) Dehydration D) Oxidative decarboxylation
11. Cytochromes help in:
A) Oxidation of glucose C) Growth and development
B) Release of energy D) Electron transport
12. In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, oxidation takes place?
A) Glucose 6-PO4 to fructose 6-PO4
B) Glyceraldehyde 3 – phosphate to 1, 3 – diphosphoglycerate
C) 1, 3 – diphosphoglycerate to 3 – phosphoglycerate
D) 2 - phosphoglycerate to phosphoglycerate
13. In the Krebs cycle the FAD electron transport system operates during the conversion of:
A) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid. C) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
B) a - ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA D) Fumaric acid to malic acid
14. Following are the characteristics of chlorophyll head EXCEPT:
A) Flat B) Hydrophobic C) Hydrophilic D) Square
15. Co-enzymes Q is oxidized by cytochrome:
A) b B) a3 C) a D) c

16. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for synthesis of one molecule of glucose?
A) 12ATP and 12NADPH2 C) 18ATP and 12NADPH2
B) 12ATP and 18NADPH D) None of the above
17. Calvin cycle expends the following for fixation of 3-molecules of CO2
A) 9ATP and 6NADPH2 C) 9ATP and 3NADPH2
B) 8ATP and 6NADPH2 D) 6ATP and 9NADPH2
18. During light reaction of photosynthesis which of the following phenomenon is observed during
cyclic photophosphorylation as well as non – cyclic photophosphorylation?
A) Formation of ATP
B) Release of O2
C) Involvement of both pigment system – I and pigment system - II
 D) Formation of NADPH2
19. The chlorophyll molecule has a
A) Porphyrin head and phytol tail C) Phosphate head and porphyrin tail
B) Phytol head and porphyrin tail D) All of the above
20. The molecular mechanism of oxidative phosphorylation takes place in conjunction with respiratory
chain in the:
A) Outer membrane of mitochondrion C) Matrix of mitochondrion
B) Inner membrane of mitochondrion D) Inner side of thylakoid membrane
21. Which of the following is concerned with CO2 fixation?
A) Krebs’ cycle B) Calvin cycle C) Nitrogen cycle D) Glycolysis
22. The electron transport chain of photosynthetic process is
A) In the stroma of chloroplast C) Present in the outer membrane of chloroplast
B) Bound to the thylakoid membranes D) Present in mitochondria
23. In grana of Chloroplast, the reaction ADP+Pi = ATP during day shows.
A) Oxidative phosphorylation C) Substrate level phosphorylation
B) Photophosphorylation D) Dephosphorylation
24. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plants contains
A) Light – independent reaction enzymes C) Ribosomes
B) Light – dependent reaction enzymes D) Chlorophyll
25. Which of the following is the first compound that accepts carbon dioxide during dark phase of
photosynthesis?
A) NADP B) RuBP C) Ferredoxin D) Cytochrome
26. Cyclic – photophosphorylation results in the liberation of
A) NADPH C) ATP, NADPH and oxygen
B) ATP and NADPH D) ATP
27. During the different processes of photosynthesis, splitting of water takes place in
A) Photosystem I C) Photosystem II
B) Lumen of thylakoid D) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane.
28. Energy of these compounds is directly used in the formation of carbohydrates from CO 2:
A) FADH, NADH B) Solar energy C) ATP, NADPH D) ATP, FADH
29. Which process needs oxygen?
A) Glycolysis B) Chemiosmosis C) Krebs cycle D) ETC
30. It is found in all photosynthetic plants and green algae:
A) Chlorophyll – b C) Chlorophyll – a
B) Bacteriochlorophyll D) Carotenoids
31. The net product of non-cyclic electron flow in photosynthesis is:
A) ATP B) O2 C) NADPH2 D) All of these
32. Unstable 6-C compound in dark reaction splits into:
A) PGA B) RUBP C) PGAL D) none of these
33. The tallest peak is obtained in the absorption spectrum of:
A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b C) Carotenoids D) Phycoerythrin
34. The atmospheric oxygen is continuously consumed in cellular respiration; it is mainly replenished
by:
A) Photolysis of water C) Photophosphorylation
B) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Z – scheme
35. Pick up the one involved only in non – cyclic electron flow of light reaction of photosynthesis:
A) Pq B) Pc C) Cytochrome complex D) Fd
36. NADH++H+ and FAD+ collectively yield:
A) 3ATP B) 2ATP C) 5ATP D) 6ATP
37. The major/final function of the cellular respiration is to make:
A) ATP B) FAD C) NADP D) Water
38. Chlorophyll a differs from chlorophyll b in having:
A) Four pyrrole rings C) Four nitrogen atoms
B) CHO functional group D) CH3 functional group
39. Calvin cycle can be divided into:
A) Two phases B) Three phases C) Four phases D) Five phases
40. Pick up the productive phase of Calvin cycle:
A) Reduction B) Fixation C) Regeneration D) Carboxylation
41. The step of Kreb’s cycle, accompanied by a free energy change, utilized in the synthesis of an ATP
molecule is conversion of:
A) Isocitrate into  – ketogluterate C) Succinate into Fumarate
B)  - ketoglutarate into succinate D) Fumarate into malate
42. 2-Phosphoglycerate is converted into PEP by:
A) Oxidation B) Hydration C) Dehydration D) Reduction
43. During the first step of reduction phase of Calvin cycle, a three carbon compound is:
A) Phosphorylated B) Reduced C) Dephosphorylated D) Oxidized
44. ATP produced in one Calvin cycle:
A) 0 B) 18 C) 6 D) 12
45. Glycolysis is not:
A) In cytoplasm C) Formation of acetic acid
B) Formation of pyruvic acid D) Break down of glucose
46. In absence of oxygen breakdown of glucose through glycolysis yields:
A) Lactic acid C) Lactic acid or Alcohol and CO2
B) Alcohol and CO2 D) Pyruvate
47. Molecular formula of chlorophyll a is:
A) C55 H72 O5 N4 Mg C) C35 H30 O5 N4 Mg
B) C55 H70 O6 N4 Mg D) C54 H70 O6 N4 Mg
48. Total numbers of NADH produced from glucose during respiration is
A)10 B)12 C) 36 D) 3
49. Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis:
A) sunlight B) blue light C) red light D) green light
50. Both respiration and photosynthesis require:
A) sunlight B) cytochromes C) green cells D) organic substrate
51. The first step in photosynthesis is the:
A) formation of ATP C) ionization of water
B) excitation of electron from chlorophyll by photon of light D) attachment of CO2 to carbon sugar
52. Which colour of light gives maximum absorption peak of chlorophyll a:
A) Red B) Green C) Blue D) Yellow
53. The empirical formula/structure for chlorophyll a is:
A) C35 H75 O5 N4 Mg C) C65 H70 O6 N4 Mg
B) C55 H72 O5 N4 Mg D) C45 H70 O6 N4 Mg
54. Which of the following occurs during dark phase of photosynthesis:
A) Hydrogen is released C) ATP is produced
B) Molecular oxygen is released D) PGAL is synthesized
55. NADPH2 is generated in noncyclic photophosphorylation through:
A) glycolysis B) photosystem II C) photosystem I D) anaerobic respiration
56. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in chloroplast & mitochondria is based on:
A) membrane potential C) proton gradient
B) accumulate of Na+ D) accumulation of K+
57. Which of the following is essentially regenerated to complete the calvin cycle:
A) PGA B) PEP C) RUBP D) OAA
58. In photosystem-I (PSI) of light reaction which substrate works as an electron acceptor:
A) NAD+ B) NADP+ C) ADP D) FADH+
59. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:
A) Lumen of thylakoids C) Inter membrane space
B) Antenae complex D) stroma
60. Which is formed through phosphorylation in glycolysis?
A) Fructose 1-6 Biphoshate C) Both are correct
B) DHA-3-Phosphate D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
61. Aerobic glycolysis is _____ times efficient than anaerobic glycolysis
A) 2 times B) 10 times C) 4 times D) 18 times
62. Ratio of CO2 producer in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
A) 3 : 1 B) 4 : 1 C) 2 : 1 D) 1 : 1
63. Upon complete oxidation of 1 molecule of pyruvic acid in mitochondrial respiration the molecules of
ATP generated are
A) 38 B) 8 C) 30 D) 15
64. Oxidation of one molecule of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP in the proportion of
A) All the 38 molecules in mitochondrion
B) 8 outside mitochondria and 30 inside mitochondrian
C) two glycolysis and 36 inside the krebs cycle
D) two outside and 36 inside the mitochondria
65. In electron transport system. The cytochrome which donates electron to free oxygen is
A) Cyt b B) Cyt a C) Cyt c1 D) Cyt a3
66. The molecule that regularly enters through the inner membrane of mitochondrion is
A) ATP B) glucose C) Acetyle co-enzyme A D) Citric acid
67. Which of the following is common to glycolysis and krebs’ cycle?
A) Substrate level phosphorylation C) FADH2 formation
B) Photophosphorylation D) Both occur in matrix of mitochondria
68. One molecule of sucrose yields _____ ATP in anaerobic respiration
A) 2 B) 4 C) 38 D) 36
69. If fructose 1-6 bisphosphate is oxidized in aerobic respiration, the ATP production will be
A) 36 B) 38 C) 32 D) 40
 70. To start respiration, a living cell requires
A) Only glucose C) glucose, ATP and enzymes
B) glucose + O2 D) glucose + enzymes
71. The rate of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP synthesis is related with
A) Quantasomes C) Elementary Particles
B) Ribosomes D) Lysosomes
72. Cytochromes are found in
A) entire inner mitochondrial membrane C) Cristae only
B) Matrix of mitochondria D) oxysomes
73. Cytochromes are component of ETC and act as
A) O2 acceptor C) Electron acceptor
B) H2 acceptor D) All of these
74. In Krebs’ cycle, the H+ removed at succinate level is accepted by
A) FAD B) ADP C) NAD D) FMN
75. One turn of krebs’ cycle produce
A) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 ATP C) 1 FADH2, 3 NADH and 1 ATP
B) 1 FADH2, 2 NADH and 1 ATP D) 2 FADH2, 2 NADH and 2 ATP
76. Excess of ATP inhibits which enzyme
A) Phosphofructokinase C) Isomerase
B) Pyruvic D) Acomitase
77. In glycolysis, during oxidation, electron’s are removed by
A) ATP B) NAD+ C) GAP D) Molecular oxygen
78. Following is correct sequence of energy transfer between photosynthetic pigments?
A) Chl.a ….> chl.b ….> carotenoids C) Carotenoids…..> chl.b ….> chl.a
B) Chl.b ….> carotenoids….> chl.a D) In any direction
79. The end product of anaerobic respiration in humans and other mammals is?
A) Pyruvic acid C) Lactic acid
B) Ethanol D) Glucose
80. Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?
A) Phytol C) Pyrole
B) Porphyrrin ring D) Thylakoid membrane

CHEMISTRY

81. Among the following the electron deficient compound is:

A) BCl3 B) CCl4 C) PCl5 D) CH4
82. Cation and anion combine in a crystal to form following type of compound:
A) ionic B) metallic C) covalent D) dipole-dipole
83. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry:
A) BF3 B) NH3 C) PCl3 D) IF3
84. The ratio of π and σ bonds in benzene is:
A) 1 : 2 B) 1 : 4 C) 1 : 6 D) 1 : 6
85. Dipole moment is shown by:
A) Neopentane C) cis-2-butene
B) trans-2-butene D) carbon tetrachloride
86. In 1, 3-butadiene, the carbon is hybridized as:
A) sp B) sp3 C) sp2 D) sp2 and sp3
87. The most polar covalent covalent bond among the ones listed below is:
A) C-S B) C-F C) C-O D) C-Br
88. Which of the following molecules contains one lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
A) NH3 B) CHCl3 C) CH4 D) Cl2
89. The number of σ and π-bonds present in pent-1-ene-4-yne is:
A) 3, 10 B) 4, 9 C) 9, 4 D) 10, 3
90. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is strongest in:
A) methylamine B) formaldehyde C) phenol D) methanol
91. Both BF3 and NF3 are covalent but BF3 molecule is non-polar while NF3 is polar because:
A) atomic size of boron is smaller than nitrogen
B) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal
C) boron is a metal while nitrogen is gas
D) B-F bond has no dipole moment while N-F bond has dipole moment
92. The boiling point of alcohol is high due to:
A) hydrogen bonding C) large size of alcohol
 B) presence of –OH group D) high molecular weight
93. Which one of the following is a correct set with respect to molecule, hybridization and shape?
A) BeCl2, sp2, linear C) BCl3, sp2, triangular planar
2
B) BeCl2, sp , triangular planar D) BCl3, sp3, tetrahedral
94. The molecular having largest dipole moment among the following is:
A) CHI3 B) CH4 C) CHCl3 D) CCI4
95. Which of the following molecules has a zero dipole moment?
A) BeCI2 B) NH3 C) HCI D) H2O
96. In which of the following molecules the central atom does not follow the octet rule?
A) CO2 B) BF3 C) H2S D) PCI3
97. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?
A) NH4Cl B) H2O2 C) HCN D) CH4
98. Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2
hybridization is:
A) H2CO3 B) BF3 C) SiF4 D) NH3
99. In which of the following species, intramolecular H-bonding occurs?
1. Acetate ion 2. Salicylate anion 3. Propanoic acid 4. O-nitrophenol
A) 1, 3, 4 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 4 only
100. The correct order in which the O-O bond length increases in the following is:
A) O2< H2O2< O3 C) O3< H2O2< O2
B) H2O2< O2< O3 D) O2< O3< H2O2
101. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the properties of ionic compounds?
A) ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points
B) their reaction velocity in aqueous medium is very high
C) ionic compounds in their molten and aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity.
D) Mostly they are soluble in polar solvents.
102. Which bond angle , would result in the ma ximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
XY2 shown below?

A)  = 120o B)  = 145o C)  = 90o D)  = 175o

103. Correct order of dipole moment is:

A) 1 = 2 = 3 B) 1 < 2 < 3 C) 3 < 2 < 1 D) 2 < 3 < 1

104. Match the following:

List I List II
(Compounds) (Structures)
1. CS2 (i) Bent
2. SO2 (ii) Linear
3. BF3 (iii) Trigonal planar
4. NH3 (iv) Tetrahedral
(v) Trigonal pyramidal
The correct matching is:
1 2 3 4
A) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
B) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
C) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
D) (ii) (i) (v) (iv)
105. Which of the following types of bonds are present in CuSO4.5H2O?
1. electrovalent 2. Covalent 3. Coordinate
A) 1 and 2 only B)1 and 3 only C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 2 and 3 only
106. In which one of the following pairs, molecules/ions have similar shape?
A) CCl4 and PtCl4 C) NH3 and BF3
B) BF3 and t-butyl carbonium ion D) CO2 and H2O
107. Consider the following halogen containing compounds:
1. CHCl3 2. CCl4 3. CH2Cl2 4. CH3Cl 5. C6H4Cl2
The compounds with an expected net zero dipole moment are:
A) 2 and 5 only B) 3 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 4 only
108. Electron affinity is positive, when
A) O changes into O- C) O changes into O+
-
B) O changes into O 2-
D) electron affinity is always negative
109. Which of the following contains both ionic and covalent:
A) NaCl B) H2O C) CCI4 D) NaOH
110. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
A) Boiling point and melting point of ionic compounds are very high
B) ionic bonds are non-directional
C) Ionic bonds are directional
D) Both A and B
111. A metallic bond is:
A) ionic B) polar C) non-polar D) electrostatic
112. Which of the following is the correct order of C – H bond length?
A) CH3 – CH3> CH CH> CH2 = CH2 C) CH  CH > CH2 = CH3 – CH3
B) CH3 – CH3> CH2 = CH2> CH CH D) CH2 = CH2> CH  CH > CH3 – CH3
113. Which of the following has zero dipole moment:

A) C) both A and B

B) D) none of these

114. The shape of sulphate ion is:

A) square planar B) trigoanl planar C) trigonal D) tetrahedral
115. Four element A, B, C, D have atomic numbers Z-l, Z, Z+1 & Z+2 respectively. If Z is 9, then bond
between which pair of elements will be ionic?
A) A &C B) D & C C) B&C D) D & B
116. The forces responsible for dissolution of ionic compounds in water are:
A) Hydrogen bonds C) Ion-dipole forces
B) Ionic bonds D) Vander weal forces
117. Electronic structure of four elements is W, X, Y, Z are given below:
X: 1s2 2s2, Y: ls22s22p2, Z: ls22s22p5, W= ls22s22p6
The tendency to form covalent bond is maximum in
A) W B) Z C) Y D) X
118. Which among the following is the best description about the bond holding the fluorine atoms in
F2 molecule?
A) End to end overlap of 2p orbitals C) Sidewise overlap of 2p- orbitals
B) Overlap of 2s-orbitals D) Overlap of sp-hybrid orbitals

119. The chloride of which of the following element will have maximum covalent character:
A) Sodium B) Lithium C) Rubidium D) Potassium
120. The double bond between the carbon atoms of ethylene consists of:
A) Two sigma bonds at right angles to each other
B) Two pi bonds at right angles to each other
C) One sigma bond & one pi-bond
D) Two pi bonds at an angle of 600 to each other.
121. Which of the following element has six electrons in the valence shell but cannot exhibit a
maximum covalency of six?
A) Sulphur C) Oxygen
B) Cr D) Both (A) and (B)
122. In the formation of H2O molecule, the oxygen atom makes use of:
A)2p - orbitals C) sp-hybrid orbitals
B) dsp2- hybrid orbitals D) sp3-hybrid orbitals
123. Which of the hydrogen halide has highest ionic character?
A) HF B) HBr C) HCI D) HI
124. The interatomic distance in H2and Cl2is respectively 74 and 198 pm. The H-CI bond is likely to
be:
A) 272 Pm B) 140 pm C) 127 pm D) 248 pm
125. C−C bond length in C3H8
A)154 pm B)133 pm C) 120 pm D) 105 pm
126. Polarity of a molecule is expressed in terms of
A) Bond strength B) Dipole moment C) Bond length D) Shape
127. A covalent bond may be
A)100% covalent B) Partial ionic C) 100% ionic D) Both A and B
128. In which of the following molecules would you expect the nitrogen to nitrogen bond to be the
shortest?
A) N2H4 B) N2 C) N2O4 D) N2O
129. What is the molecular geometry for ammonia (NH3)?
A) saw horse B) tetrahedral C) trigonal planar D) pyramidal
130. Which molecule has a linear arrangement of all constituent atoms?
A) CH4 B) CO2 C) H2O D) NH3
131. Which overlapping may not lead to sigma bond formation?
A) p – p linear B) sp2 – sp2 C) s – p D) all form sigma bond
132. Which statement is incorrect about dipole – dipole forces.
A) Present among polar molecules
B) 10% effective as covalent bond
C) Attraction b/w chloroform molecules is dipole – dipole interaction
D) Increase in electronegativity difference increase strength of these forces
133. Element X and Y combined to form a bond b/w them. Read the following statements carefully.
 . X is metal and Y is non – metal
 . The bond is non – directional and non rigid.
. X is with low . and  is with high ..
Which one of the following compound represents X and Y .
A) CsF B) NH 4 C C) HC D) BH3
134. Which pair has Debye forces?
A) Water and methanol C) Ether and benzene
B) Water and Ar D) Water and table salt
135. Which types of forces are present in benzene?
A) dipole – dipole forces C) dipole – induced – dipole forces
B) Hydrogen bonding D) London dispersion forces
136. Bond energy decreases with increase in?
A) %age of S – Character C) Difference of E.N value
B) Bond Order D) Bond length
137. Which of the following has covalent bond formed by donor acceptor mechanism?
A) O3 B) CO2 C) NH3 D) PH3
138. Which of the following has different molecular geometry and electron pair geometry?
A) SO3 B) PH3 C) CO2 D) BF3
139. The most important application of bond energy:
A) Understanding reaction mechanism C) estimating enthalpy change
B) Understanding structure & bonding D) All are applications of bond energy

140. When ‘s’ character of hybridized orbitals increases the bond angle:
A) Decreases B) Increases C) Becomes zero D) Does not change
 PHYSICS

141. A simple pendulum has a metal bob, which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate
above a positively charged metallic plate, then its time period will
A) Increase B) decrease C) become zero D) remain the same
142. Ten second after an electric fan is turned ON, the fan rotates at 300 rev/min. Its average angular
acceleration is
A) 30 rad/s2 B) 30 rev/s2 C) 3.14 rad/s2 D) 5000 rev/s2
143. The direction of linear velocity of a body moving in circle is
A) Along the axis of rotation C) Along the tangent
B) Direction toward the center D) Direction away from the center
144. In radian per hour angular speed of hours’ hand of mechanical watch is
A) /6 B) /12 C) /4 D) /8
145. A satellite moving around the earth constitutes
A) An initial frame of reference C) Non inertial frame of reference
B) neither inertial nor non inertial D) Both inertial and non inertial
146. Which of the following is necessary and sufficient condition for S.H.M?
A) Constant period
B) Constant acceleration
C) Proportionality between acceleration and mass of the oscillating body
D) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement from equilibrium position.
147. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 seconds. If its length is increased by 3 times, then its
period becomes
A) 16 s B) 8 s C) 12 s D) 4 s
148. An object attached to one end of a spring makes 20 vibrations in 10 s. Its angular frequency is:
A) 0.79 rad s–1 B) 2.0 rad s–1 C) 1.57 rad s–1 D) 12.6 rad s–1
149. A weight suspended from an ideal spring oscillates up and down with a period T. If the
amplitude of the oscillation is doubled, the period will be:
A) T B) 2T C) 1.5T D) T =2
150. In simple harmonic motion, the magnitude of the acceleration is greatest when:
A) the displacement is zero
B) the displacement is maximum
C) the speed is maximum
D) the force is zero E. the speed is between zero and its maximum
151. Time period of oscillation of a spring is 12 s on Earth. What shall be the time period if it is taken
to Moon?
A) 12s C) 12  6 s
12
B) s D) 6  12 s
6
152. Waveform of SHM is given in figure. At what time/times velocity
is equal to zero?
T 3T T
A) and C) 0 , and T
4 4 2
3T T T
B) only D) and
4 4 2
153. A particle executing simple harmonic motion has amplitude of 1metre and time period 2 second.
At t = 0, net force on the particle is zero. The equation of displacement of particle is:
A) x = sin  t C) x = cos  t
B) x = sin 2  t D) x = cos 2  t
154. If we increase the length of simple pendulum, its velocity at the mean position
A) increase C) decrease
B) remain same D) become infinite
155. In which group below do all three quantities remain constant when a particle moves in ideal SHM:
A) Acceleration, force, total energy, C) Force, total energy, amplitude
B) Total energy, amplitude, angular frequency D) Angular frequency, acceleration, force
156. The waves produced in the microwave oven, have wavelength of ___ at frequency of:
A) 6cm, 2450kHz C) 6cm, 2450MHz
 B) 12cm, 2450kHz D) 12cm, 2450MHz
157. A spring of force constant k is cut into two equal parts, which are then joined parallel to each
other. The force constant of the combination will be
k
A) 4k B) k C) 2k D)
2
158. A particle executes S.H.M with frequency ‘2f’, the frequency with which its K.E oscillates
between maximum and minimum values is:
A) f C) 2f
B) 3f D) 4f
159. In SHM , the graph between acceleration and displacement is straight line. Its slope is equal to
A) 2 B) (2f )
2
C) – (2f )
2
D) 2f ( )
160. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period of 0.01 sec and an amplitude of 0.2 m. The magnitude
of the velocity in m sec −1 at the centre of oscillation is
(a) 20  (b) 100 (c) 40 (d) 100 


161. A particle has simple harmonic motion. The equation of its motion is x = 5 sin 4 t −  , where x is its
 6
displacement. If the displacement of the particle is 3 units, then it velocity is
2 5
(A) (B) (C) 20 (D) 16
3 6
162. A body of mass 5 gm is executing S.H.M. about a point with amplitude 10 cm. Its maximum velocity
is 100 cm/sec. Its velocity will be 50 cm/sec at a distance
(A)5 (B) 5 2 (C) 5 3 (D) 10 2
163. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum
on this planet will be (If it is a second's pendulum on earth)
1 1
(A) sec (B) 2 2 sec (C)2 sec (d) sec
2 2
164. A body is vibrating in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 0.06 m and frequency of 15
Hz. The velocity and acceleration of body is
(A) 5.65 m/s and 5 .32  10 2 m /s 2 (C) 8.91 m/s and 8 .21  10 2 m /s 2
(B) 6.82 m/s and 7 .62  10 2 m /s 2 (D) 9.82 m/s and 9 .03  10 2 m /s 2
165. There is a body having mass m and performing S.H.M. with amplitude a. There is a restoring force
F = −Kx , where x is the displacement. The total energy of body depends upon
(A) K, x (B) K, a (C) K, a, x (D) K, a, v
166. A vertical mass-spring system executes simple harmonic oscillations with a period of 2 s. A
quantity of this system which exhibits simple harmonic variation with a period of 1 s is
(A) Velocity (C) acceleration and displacement
(B) Potential energy (D) sum of kinetic energy and potential energy
167. The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 80 J. What is the potential energy when the
particle is at a distance of 3/4 of amplitude from the mean position
(A) 60 J (B) 10 J (C) 40 J (D) 45 J
168. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r centered at O with constant speed v. What is the
change in velocity in moving from A to B? Given ∠AOB = 900

A)V B) V/2 C)√2V D)V/4

169. Two satellites A and B go round a planet P in circular orbits having radii 4R and R respectively.
If the speed of the satellite A is 3V, the speed of the satellite B will be.
4 3
(A) 12 V (B) 6 V (C) V (D) V
3 2
170. A particle of mass m is rotating by means of a string in a vertical circle. The difference in tensions
at the top and the bottom would be
A) 6 mg B) 4 mg C) 2mg D) 3 mg
171. ar and at represent radial and tangential accelerations respectively. The motion of the particle is
uniformly circular only if
 A) ar = 0 and at = 0 C) ar = 0 and at ≠ 0
B) ar ≠ 0 and at = 0 D) ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0
172. An object rotates with a frequency of 300Hz. How many revolutions will it make in 15 s?
A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 4500
173. For motion along a circular path, a particle starts from rest and moves with a constant angular
acceleration of 8 𝝅 rad s-2 It will reach a speed of 60 𝝅 rad/ s after
A) 7.5 𝜋 s B) 20 s C) 15 s D) 7.5 s
174. A geostationary satellite
A) Revolves about the polar axis
B) Has a time period less than that of the near earth satellite
C) Moves faster than a near earth satellite
D) Is stationary in the space
175. A bucket full of water is revolved in vertical circle of radius 2m. what should be the maximum
time-period of revolution so that the water doesn’t fall off the bucket
A) 1 s B) 2 s C) 3 s D) 4 s
176. An object of mass of 2 kg rotates at constant speed in a horizontal circle of radius 5 m. The time
for one complete revolution is 3 s. What is the magnitude of the resultant force acting on the
object?
4 2 100 2 40 2 400 2
A) N B) N C) N D) N
9 9 9 9
177. If earth is one-fourth the present distance from the sun, what would be the duration of the year?
A) 8 years B) 4 years C) 1/8 year D) 1/4 year
178. Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon
(A) Mass of the earth (C) Radius of the earth
(B) Mass of the satellite (D) Acceleration due to gravity
179. The distance of a geo-stationary satellite from the centre of the earth (Radius R = 6400 km) is
nearest to
(A) 5 R (B) 7 R (C) 10 R (D) 18 R
180. A point on a rim of wheel covers a distance 0.3 m when turns throw 30o. what is the radius of
wheel:
 1.8
A)  m B) m C) m D) 2 m
1.8 
 ENGLISH
Choose the correct word words to complete each sentence.
181. Tried to get _______ her father’s lap and fly at me while tears of defeat blinded her eyes
A) out C) away
B) into D) off
182. He passed his nights sleepless for the preparation of MDCAT and his face seemed to be drawn
and _____ from sleeplessness.
A) assiduous C) smug
B) Haggard D) inevitable

183. The parents have agreed to get my blood shed ________ the trash of this world.
A) Against C) For
B) With D) At

184. The manager is equipped with the capability to cope with the issue in a _____ way.
A) gingerly C) intimate
B) unscrupulous D) scruple

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your
task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be
corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
185. No less than hundred people are sitting in the hall and waiting for the final performance.
A B C D
186. The club has lost a lot of business because of poor maintained facilities.
A B C D
187. She knocked my glasses flying and they fell several foot away from me on the kitchen floor.
A B C D
188. He thought of the Gulistan as one of the bibles of the world, for he find in it the universality of moral law.
A B C D
189. The little girl’s expression did not change, nor does she move her eyes from my face.
A B C D
190. The docent emphasizes that this is the more difficult question I have ever solved within ten minutes.
A B C D

In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given Choose the CORRECT one and
fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
191.
A). His sprain put him at her mercy, and it was soon revealed to him.
B) His sprain put him on her mercy, and it was soon revealed to him.
C) His sprain put him at her mercy, and it was soon revealed by him.
D) His sprain put him at her mercy, and it was soon revealed of him.
192.
A) The people belonging to his army will put a thousand fowls on the spit.
B) The people belonging from his army will put a thousand fowls on the spit.
C) The people belonging from his army will put a thousand fowl in the spit.
D) The people belonging to his army will put a thousand fowl in the spit.
193.
A) If only they wouldn't have use the word "hurt" I might be able to get anywhere.
B) If only they wouldn't use the word "hurt" I might be able to get somewhere.
C) If only they wouldn't use the word "hurt" I might be able to get anywhere.
D) If only they wouldn't have use the word "hurt" I might be able to get somewhere.
194.
A) The topper of our college is a much intelligent boy than any boy of the college.
B) The topper of our college is a much more intelligent boy than any boy of the college.
C) The topper of our college is a much intelligent boy than any other boy of the college.
D) The topper of our college is a much more intelligent boy than any other boy of the college.
195.
A) She reduced it into splinters before I could get it out again.
 B) She reduced it to splinter before I could get it out again.
C) She reduced it to splinters before I could get it out again.
D) She reduced it into splinter before I could get it out again.
196.
A) This candy is preferable to that and its taste is also comparatively good.
B) This candy is preferable than that and its taste is also comparatively better.
C) This candy is preferable than that and its taste is also comparatively good.
D) This candy is more preferable than that and its taste is also comparatively better.
197.
A) All remained quite except the slave who in fear of being drowned began to cry and tremble, and
created inconvenience for the other.
B) All remained quite except the slave who with fear of being drowned began to cry and tremble, and
created inconvenience for the other.
C) All remained quiet except the slave who with fear of being drowned began to cry and tremble, and
created inconvenient for the other.
D) All remained quiet except the slave who in fear of being drowned began to cry and tremble, and
created inconvenience for the other.
198.
A) "Pay for the salt", said the king, “lest it shall become a custom and the village be ruined."
B) "Pay for the salt", said the king, “lest it would become a custom and the village be ruined."
C) "Pay for the salt", said the king, “lest it should become a custom and the village be ruined."
D) "Pay for the salt", said the king, “lest it could become a custom and the village be ruined."
In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select
the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ
Response Form.

199. Havoc
A) vexation B) heed C) Devastation D) summit
200. Groggy
A) glossy B) unimpeachable C) verdict D) benumbed
201. Glistening
A) Shimmering B) knotty C) deranged D) invariable
202. Gingerly
A) Glooming B) Circumspect C) Sepulchral D) Animated
203. Hideous
A) juvenile B) horrendous C) maven D) cognizant

In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select
the opposite in meaning of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

204. Harmony
A) Incongruity B) congruence C) empathy D) temptation
205. Flawlessly
A) Consummately B) Contemplatively C) Punctually D) Erroneously

TESTS ARE THE BEST FOR YOUR TEST