10-08-2025

6001CMD30302125SRG04 MD

PHYSICS

1) The displacement of a particle of mass 1 kg on a horizontal smooth surface as a function of time is

given by The work done by external agent for first one second is

(1) 0.5 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 0.60 J
(4) None of these

2) The potential energy of a spring when stretched through a distance S is 10 J. The amount of work
(in J) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through an additional distance S will be

(1) 30 J
(2) 40 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 20 J

3) The momentum of a body is increased by 20%. The percentage increase in its kinetic energy is

(1) 36%
(2) 44%
(3) 20%
(4) 50%

4) A uniform chain is held on a frictionless table with one-fifth of its length hanging over the edge. If
the chain has a length and a mass m, how much work is required to slowly pull the hanging part

back on the table?

(1) mgℓ/5
(2) mgℓ/25
(3) mgℓ/50
(4) mgℓ/2

5) The displacement of a body in metre is a function of time according to Mass of the

body is 2 kg. What is the increase in its kinetic energy one second after the start of motion?
(1) 8 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 64 J

6) A body starts moving from the highest point of the smooth curved surface horizontal at the end as
shown in figure without losing contact. Find out the horizontal distance moved by the body after

breaking off at point P from the curved surface.

(1) 4 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 5 m

7) A particle of mass m is acted upon by a constant power P. The distance travelled by the particle
when its velocity increases from v1 to v2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

A particle moves with a velocity under the influence of a constant force

The instantaneous power delivered to the particle is:

(1) 200 J/s

(2) 40 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

9) A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction
between the tyres and the road is the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) Assertion(A): Two parallel plates having unequal charges have same capacitance as that of
equal and opposite charges on same plates and same configuration.
Reason (R): Capacitance of system / configuration is independent of charge on plates.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) is false

11) A uniformly accelerated wheel reaches the angular velocity 20 rad/sec in 10 revolution after
rotation begins. The angular acceleration of wheel is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Four plates of the same area of cross-section are joined as shown in the figure. The distance
between each plate is d. The equivalent capacity across A and B will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend on

(1) The medium between the plates

(2) The size of the plates
(3) The charges on the plates
(4) The separation between the plates.
14) In the figure, a potential of + 1200 V is given to point A and point B is earthed, what is the

potential at the point P?

(1) 100 V
(2) 200 V
(3) 400 V
(4) 800 V

15) The capacities and connection of five capacitors are shown in the below figure. The potential
difference between the points A and B is 60 V. Then, the equivalent capacity between A and B will

be.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Three plates A, B, C each of area 50 cm2 have separation 3 mm between A and B and 3 mm
between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are fully charged is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to and are

connected to in a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Seven capacitors each of capacity are to be so connected to have a total

capacity Which will be the necessary figure as shown?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A capacitor of is connected as shown in the circuit. The internal resistance of the battery is

The amount of charge on the capacitor plates will be

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4)
20) In the circuit shown, the potential difference across the capacitors is V and the equivalent

capacitance between A and B is CAB. Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) A parallel palate air filled capacitor has a capacitance of It is half filled with a dielectric

with K = 3. Its capacitance is,

(1)
(2) 3 V
(3)
(4)

22) A capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery which is later disconnected. The energy
stored in the capacitor is E. If the separation between the plates is doubled, the energy stored in the
capacitor becomes

(1) E/2
(2) E
(3) E/A
(4) 2E

23) Find the reading of spring balance as shown in figure. Here is the charge density of the
capacitor of plate area A and separation d

Thin sheets

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

24) Assertion(A): The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as shown in the figure.

The force acting on the particle is zero at points C and E.

Reason(R): Conservative force f(x) associated with potential energy U(x) is related with U(x) as

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) is false

25) Four capacitors and are connected as given in

figure. The potential of junction O is

(1) 16.5 V
(2) 18 V
(3) 15.5 V
(4) 18.5 V

26) The potential at point M is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Two condensers of capacities 2C and C are joined in parallel and charged upto potential V. The
battery is removed and the condenser of capacity C is filled completely with a medium of dielectric
constant K. The p.d. across the capacitor will now be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

A capacitor of capacitance is charge to 80 V and another capacitor of capacitance is

charged to 30 V. When they are connected together, the energy lost by the capacitor is

(1) 7.8 mJ
(2) 4.6 mJ
(3) 3.2 mJ
(4) 2.5 mJ

29) A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectrics as shown in figure. This capacitor is
connected across a battery, then the ratio of potential difference across the dielectric layers is.

(1) 4/3
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 3/2

30) Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2 (< Q1) respectively. If they are
brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance, C, the potential
difference between them is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Consider the situation shown in the figure. The capacitor A has a charge q on it whereas B is un
charged. The charge appearing on the capacitor B a long time the switch is closed is

(1) Zero

(2)

(3) q
(4) 2q

32) The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 5d. The positively charged plates is
at and negatively charged plate is at Two slabs one of conductor and the other of a
dielectric of same thickness d are inserted between the plates as shown in figure. Potential (V)

versus distance x graph will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) Two capacitors each having capacitance C and breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and the breakdown voltage of the combination will be

(1) 2C and 2V
(2) C/2 and V/2
(3) 2C and V/2
(4) C/2 and 2V

34) A thin metal plate P is inserted between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C
in such a way that its edge touch the two plates (figure). The capacitance now becomes

(1) C/2
(2) 2C
(3) 0
(4) indeterminate

35) Three capacitors of capacitances each are available. The minimum and maximum
capacitances, which may be obtained are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of a capacitor. The charge on the capacitor is Q
and the magnitude of the induced charge on each surface of the dielectric is Q'.

(1) Q' may be larger than Q.

(2) Q' must be larger than Q.
(3) Q' must be equal to Q.
(4) Q' must be smaller than Q.

37) Find the equivalent capacitance of the infinite ladder shown in figure between the points A and

B.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Two capacitors of capacitances connected in series with a battery of 20 V.

Find the energy supplied by the battery.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

39) Two cars having masses m1 and m2 move in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. If they complete
the circle in equal time, the ratio of their angular speed is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1

40) Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle with a string attached to it. The water does not
fall down even when the bucket is inverted at the top of its path. We conclude that in this position.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
41) A coin placed on a rotating turntable just slips if it is placed at a distance of 4 cm from the
centre. If the angular velocity of the turntable is doubled, it will just slip at a distance of

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 8 cm

42) A particle is projected with a speed u at an angle with the horizontal. Consider a small part of
its path near the highest position and take it approximately to be a circular arc. What is the radius of
this circle? This radius is called the radius of curvature of the curve at the point.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As
the motorcycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Fluctuates.

44) A circular road of radius 50m has the angle of banking equal to 30°. At what speed should a
vehicle go on this road so that the friction is not used?

(1) 14 m/s
(2) 17 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 50 m/s

45) A capacitor is charged as shown in the figure. The percentage of its stored energy

dissipated after the switch s is turned to position 2 is

(1) 0 %
(2) 20 %
(3) 75 %
(4) 80 %

CHEMISTRY

1) For the following electrochemical cell at 298K,

Pt(s) | H2(g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 1M) || M4+(aq)/ M2+(aq) | Pt(s)

when

Given:

The value of x is-

(1) -2
(2) -1
(3) 1
(4) 2

2) Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies according to the equation

The graph of vs log[Mg2+] is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) On the basis of data given below:

Column I Column II

(i) F2 non metal which is the best oxidising agent

(ii) Li metal is the strongest reducing agent

(iii) Au3+ metal ion which is an oxidising agent

(iv) Br- anion that can be oxidised by Au3+

(v) Au unreactive metal

(vi) Li+ metal ion which is the weakest oxidising agent

(vii) F– anion which is the weakest reducing agent

Number of correct matches above is?
(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

4) Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is

100 Ω. The conductivity of this solution is 1.29 Sm-1. Resistance of the same cell when filled with
0.02 M of the same solution is 520Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.02 M solution of the electrolyte will

be: (Take )

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
5) Salts of A (atomic mass 15), B (atomic mass 27) and C (atomic mass 48) were electrolysed using
same amount of charge. It was found that when 4.5 g of A was deposited, the mass of B and C
deposited were 2.7g and 9.6 g. The valencies of A, B and C respectively.

(1) 1, 3 and 2
(2) 3, 1 and 3
(3) 2, 6 and 3
(4) 3, 1 and 2

6) lf for the reaction is is X, the for the reaction is

(1)

(2) 2x
(3) x2
(4)

7) Consider the following equations for a cell

Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) The following facts are available

Which of the following statement is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Can't predict

9) Equivalent conductivity of BaCl2,H2SO4, and HCI, are x1,x2, and x3, Scm-1eq-1 at infinite dilution. If
conductivity of saturated BaSO4 solution is x Scm-1, then Ksp of BaSO4 is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of

(1) 0.1 M acetic acid

(2) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(3) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
(4) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid

11) Identify the correct order of reactivity in nucleophilic substitution reactions of the following

compounds

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which graph is incorrect?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) MX2 dissociates into M2+ and X- ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation (α) of
0.5. The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the
depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is

(1) 0.5
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0.33

14) Formation of a solution from two components can be considered as

(i) Pure solvent separated solvent molecules, ΔH1
(ii) Pure solute separated solute molecules, ΔH2
(iii) Separates solvent and solute molecules solution, ΔH3
Solution so formed will be ideal if

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) X3Y2(i=5) when reacted with A2B3(i=5) in aqueous solution gives brown colour. These are

separated by a semi permeable membrane. Due to osmosis, there is:

(1) Brown colour formation in side X

(2) Brown colour formation in side Y
(3) Brown colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(4) No brown colour formation

16) K4[Fe(CN)6] is supposed to be 40% dissociated when 1M solution prepared. Its boiling point is
equal to another 20% mass by volume of non-electrolytic solution A. Considering molality = molarity.
The molecular weight of A is

(1) 77
(2) 67
(3) 57
(4) 47

17) Statement-1 : Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1, 4-dibromobenzene as the major
product.
Statement-2 : In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more dominant than the
mesomeric effect in directing the incoming electrophile.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

18) Two liquids A and B form an Ideal solution. At 300K, the V.P of solution containing one mole of
'A' and 4 mole 'B' is 560mm Hg. At the same temp. If one mole of 'B' is taken out from the solution
the V.P of the solution has decreased by 10mm Hg, the V.P, of pure A & B are (in mm)

(1) 400, 600

(2) 500, 500
(3) 300, 700
(4) 200, 800

19) Which of the following statements is false?

Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the
(1)
same depression in freezing point.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation ( where C is the molarity of
(2)
the solution).
Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride,
(3)
potassium chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is
(4)
directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

20) The correct orders of reactivity towards reaction is

(1) I>II>III
(2) II>III>I
(3) III>II>I
(4) I>III>II

21) Two beakers of capacity 500 mL were taken. One of these beakers, labelled as “A”, was filled
with 400 mL water whereas the beaker labelled “B” was filled with 400 mL of 2 M solution of NaCl.
At the same temperature both the beakers were placed in closed containers of same material and
same capacity as shown in Fig.

At a given temperature, which of the following statement is correct about the vapour pressure of
pure water and that of NaCl solution.

(1) vapour pressure in container (A) is more than that in container (B).
(2) vapour pressure in container (A) is less than that in container (B).
(3) vapour pressure is equal in both the containers.
(4) vapour pressure in container (B) is twice the vapour pressure in container (A).

22) The correct order of reactivity of the following compounds towards aqueous NaCN will be

I.
II.

III.
IV.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23)
 List-I List-II

(A) Gaseous solution (i) German silver

(B) Liquid solution (ii) Milk

(C) Solid solution (iii) Sand in water

(D) Colloidal solution (iv) Aqueous alcoholic

(v) Air
The correct match is
A B C D

(1) v iv i ii

(2) i iii ii v

(3) iv ii v i

(4) ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Match the following

Column-I(Solute, degree of Column-II(Van't Hoff

ionisation) factor)

(A) K2SO4: α=0.85 (p) 3.7

(B) SnCl2: α=0.7 (q) 4.0

(C) Al(NO3)3: α=0.9 (r) 2.7

(D) Fe2(SO4)3: α=0.75 (s) 2.4

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

100 ml 1.2% (NH2)2CO

Isotonic with 100 ml 1M
(A) solution (wt/vol) at T (p)
K3[Fe(CN)6] T temperature
temperature

Isotonic with 100ml

250 ml 2M NaNO3 solution
(B) (q) 6.84%(wt./vol) C12H22O11 at T
at T Temperature
temperature
 5.845%(by wt.) NaCl
(C) (r) Boiling point=100.052ºC
aqueous solution

1.8%(by wt.) C6H12O6

(D) (s) Boiling point=101.1ºC
aqueous solution

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Degree of dissociation of three binary electrolytes AB, CD and EF are 60%, 20% and 100% in the
solution having same mole fraction of water. Ratio of lowering in vapour pressure of their solution is

(1) 0.8:0.6:1
(2) 0.2:0.4:0.1
(3) 0.3:0.5:0.2
(4) [Link].5

27) How many of the given reagents can be used to convert alcohol into alkyl halide?

NaBr I

NaCl II

HBr III

PCl3 IV

SOCl2 V

HCl(conc.)/ZnCl2(anhy) VI

NaI VII

HI VIII

PCl5 IX
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

28) Statement-I: is

hydrolyzed more readily than

Statement-II: Secondary halides are more reactive than primary alkyl halides towards hydrolysis.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

29) The major product of the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)
Product P (major) is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) On the basis of the given reaction sequence, find out the final product?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Compound X in the reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) The number of isomers (including stereoisomers) of C5H12O which can give positive haloform test
is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

34) Which of the following is the correct ease of dehydration?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Assertion(A): The dehydration of ethyl alcohol in presence of Al2O3 at 623 K gives ethene.
Reason (R): The reaction proceed through the formation of carbocation intermediate.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
A is incorrect but R is correct
(4)

36) Assertion(A): The reactivity order of alcohols is 1° > 2° > 3° for the reaction in which O—H
bond is broken.
Reason(R): The reactivity order of alcohol is 3° > 2° > 1° for the reaction in which C—O bond is
broken.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

37) Decreasing order of reactivity of hydrogen halide acids in the conversion of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) STATEMENT-1 : U can show oxidation state +6.

STATEMENT-2 : Uranium is a radioactive element.
STATEMENT-3 : Uranium is lanthanoid.

(1) TTF
(2) TFF
(3) TTT
(4) FTF

39) The basic charechter of the transition metal monoxides follows the order
(Atomic nos. Ti=22, V=23, Cr=24, Fe=26)

(1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO

(2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

40) Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property
indicated against it ?

(1) Ti<V<Cr<Mn: Increasing number of oxidation states

(2) Ti3+<V3+<Cr3+<Mn3+:increasing magnetic moment
(3) Ti<V<Cr<Mn: Increasing melting points
(4) Ti<V<Mn<Cr: Increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

41) Total number of lanthanide elements that contain electrons in f-orbital

(1) 3
(2) 14
(3) 11
(4) 5

42) Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's law is not correct.

the value of KH increases with increase of temperature and KH is function of the nature of the
(1)
gas.
(2) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in
(3)
the solution.
(4) Different gases have different KH

43) If 0.224 L of H2 gas is formed at the cathode, the volume of O2 gas formed at the anode under
identical conditions, is
(1) 0.224 L
(2) 0.448 L
(3) 0.112 L
(4) 1.12 L

44) Match the terms given in Column-I with the items given in Column-II

(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b

45) The colour and magnetic nature of maganate ion is

(1) Green, paramagnetic

(2) Purple, diamagnetic
(3) Green, diamagnetic
(4) Purple, paramagnetic

BOTANY

1) Read the following statements:

(i) In a open flower where anthers and stigma are exposed, complete autogamy is rare
(ii) Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce Cleistogamous flowers besides chasmogamous
(iii) Chasmogamous flowers produce seed set comparatively with greater variation
(iv) Majority of the plants use abiotic agents for pollination
(v) Allogamy does not produce any variation in the progenies after fertilization
Which of the following is/are correct.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect

(2) (i), (ii) are correct and remaining all are not wrong
(3) (iv) and (v) are incorrect along with (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) Except (iv) & (v) rest all are correct.

2) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Entomophily?

(1) Flowers are large, colourful, nectar rich but no fragrance

(2) Very fragrant but are not colourful
(3) Flowers are clustered into a pack of inflorescence
(4) Bees are not one of the major pollinators in insect pollination

3) Assertion(A): The proximal end of the filament in a stamen is attached to the thalamus while the
distal end is attached to the anther
Reason(R): Angiospermic anthers are Bilobed and Dithecous while microsporangia are
bisporangiate

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

4) Assertion(A):- Wind pollinating flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary
Reason(R):- This kind of distribution of ovules is going to increase the chances and efficiency of a
pollen grain in fertilization.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5) Choose the incorrect match

(1) Tapetum - innermost - endomitosis

(2) Epidermis - outermost - 2n
(3) Endothecium - Stomium - n
(4) Middle layer - Food storage - 2n

6) Find the odd one out w.r.t seed's endosperm

(1) Pea
(2) Wheat
(3) Maize
(4) Barley

7) Read the following statements

(i) Microspore tetrads possess callose walls
(ii) Connective tissue along with a longitudinal groove divides an Anther into Bilobed & Dithecous
(iii) Cells of sporogenous tissue never undergo Meiosis
(iv) All the cells of the female sporogenous tissue develop into MMC
(v) A fully developed pollen grain of over 60% angiosperms is called a matured male gametophyte
Choose the correct option:

(1) Except (iii), all other statements are correct

(2) (i) & (ii) are correct. (iii), (iv) & (v) are also correct
(3) (iii), (iv) & (v) are not incorrect
(4) Only (i) & (ii) are not incorrect.

8) Assertion(A):- Endothecium is a Hygroscopic layer made up of α-cellulosic fibres

Reason(R):- Stomium is the site of dehiscence of an Anther.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9) Assertion(A):- The Embryosac of a typical Angiosperm is called a Polygonum type with 7-cells
and 8 nuclei.
Reason(R):- Strasburger discovered a Polygonum type of embryosac

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

10) Assertion(A):- Occurrence of more than one embryo is called Polyembryony

Reason(R):- In citrus & mango some of the nucellar cells divide and develop into an embryo which
protruding into the embryosac

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

11) The no. of meiotic divisions required to produce 4000 seeds in a pea plant?

(1) 2000
(2) 3000
(3) 4000
(4) 5000

12) If a diploid plant has 36 chromosomes in its somatic cells..., what would be the chromosome
number in its endosperm?

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 54

13) How many microspore mother cells are required to produce 1000 microspores/pollen grains?

(1) 100
(2) 150
(3) 250
(4) 300

14)
Which of the following is not a feature of this

(1) They are Dioecious

(2) Pollination happens at the surface of water
(3) Post fertilization events occur below the surface of water
(4) Stigma is short and coiled

15)
Which of the following are not related to the above diagram…?

(1) Oxalis
(2) Viola
(3) Commelina
(4) Papaya
16)
Which of the following statement is correct

(1) Large and filamentous pollen grains are present

(2) Small and sticky pollen grains with Pollen kitt
(3) Large no. of pollen grains released from versatile anthers
(4) Anthers are feathery and sticky

17) In a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white, and fruit shape round is
dominant over elongated. Crossing was performed between two pure lines – one having yellow-
flower and round-fruit, and another with white-flower and elongated-fruit. About 20 plants survived
in F1, progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed to self-fertilize, and about 960 plants survived in F2. If the
traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of plants would have yellow-flower and round-fruit
in F1 and F2 are respectively

(1) 20,960
(2) 20,540
(3) 10,180
(4) 10,60

18) The prerequisite for the dissociation of microspores from each other and formation of pollen
grains is

(1) maturity and dehydration of anther

(2) maturity and hydration of anther
(3) dehiscence and dehydration of anther
(4) dehiscence and hydration of anther

19) Spherical in shape, 25 - 50 µm in diameter, prominent two-layered wall one of which is made up
of a highly resistant organic material are the characteristics of:

(1) Pollen grain

(2) Anther
(3) Microsporangia
(4) Microspore tetrad
20) Match the following

Column A Column B
(a) Funicle (i) Small opening devoid of integuments
(b) Hilum (ii) Ovarian cavity
(c) Integuments (iii) Connects the ovule and placenta
(d) Micropyle (iv) Junction between ovule and funicle
(e) Locule (v) Protective envelopes of megasporangium
(1) (a - i), (b - ii), (c - iii), (d - iv), (e - v)
(2) (a - v), (b - iv), (c - iii), (d - ii), (e - i)
(3) (a - iv), (b - iii), (c - ii), (d - i), (e - v)
(4) (a - iii), (b - iv), (c - v), (d - i), (e - ii)

21) In a cross in Drosophila, the heterozygous animal with grey body (b+) and long wings (vg+) was
crossed with an animal with black body and vestigial wings. The progeny has the animals in the
following ratio: Grey vestigeal 24; grey long 126; black long 26; black vestigeal 124. What is the
frequency of recombinants in the population?

(1) 15.8
(2) 16.7
(3) 17.5
(4) 14.5

22) Put the stages of a Dicot embryo development in order

(a) Proembryo (b) Heart-shaped
(c) Globular (d) Mature embryo

(1) a - b - c - d
(2) a - c - b - d
(3) a - d - b - c
(4) a - b - d - c

23) Apomixis, a mechanism of producing seeds without fertilization is evolved by the families of
plants?

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Grasses
(3) Citrus family
(4) All the above

24) Which of the following are crucial for storage of seeds?

(1) Desiccation and germination of matured seed

(2) Cryo-preservation at –196°C of liquid nitrogen
(3) Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds
(4) Both (2) and (3)
25) In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous
for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently
germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental phenotype?

(1) 400
(2) 1600
(3) 1200
(4) 800

26) Select the correct order of endosperm types.

(1) Cellular, helobial, free nuclear.

(2) Cellular, free nuclear, helobial.
(3) Helobial, free nuclear, cellular.
(4) Free nuclear, cellular, helobial.

27) When experimenting with the factor of tallness in Pisum sativum, Mendel obtained the results
73.97% tall and 26.03% dwarf from one of the cross. This shows that the parents for this cross are:

(1) Pure tall and pure dwarf plant

(2) Hybrid tall and pure tall plant
(3) Hybrid tall and hybird tall plant
(4) Hybrid tall and pure dwarf plant

28) Which of the following is the ratio of a Polygenic inheritance of 2 genes?

(1) [Link]
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]

29) If enough crosses are made between male flies of the genotype 'Aa' and the female flies of the
genotype 'aa' to produce about 1000 offsprings. Which one of the following is the most likely
distribution of genotypes in the offsprings

(1) 250 Aa : 750 aa

(2) 750 Aa : 250 aa
(3) 243 AA : 517 Aa : 240 aa
(4) 481 Aa : 519 aa

30) Independent assortment of genes does not take place when

(1) Genes are located at the same locus on homologous chromosomes
(2) Genes are completely linked and located on same chromosome
(3) Genes are located on non-homogenous chromosomes
(4) All of these

31) When AABBcc is crossed with Aa Bb Cc then the ratio of hybrid for all the three genes is -

(1) 1/8
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/16
(4) 1/32

32) A cross between AaBB X aa BB yields a genotypic ratio of -

(1) 1 AaBB: 1 aaBB

(2) 1 AaBB: 3 aaBB
(3) 3AaBB : 1 aa BB
(4) All AaBb

33) (a) Pleiotropic genes have multiple phenotypic effect

(b) Muliple alleles exhibit same phenotypic expression.
(c) Polygenes exhibit quantitative inheritance

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(2) Statement (a), (c) correct and (b) is incorrect
(3) Statement (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect
(4) Statement (a) and (c) are incorrect and (b) is correct

34)

Match the following:

Column-I Column-II

Phenotypic ratio
(i) (a) Mendelian characters
for two genes

(ii) Mendel's second law (b) Grass hopper & Cockroach

(iii) 14 traits (c) [Link]

(iv) ZZ/ZW (d) Pure gametes

(v) XX/XO (e) Birds & Chickens

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (v), (d) - (iii), (e) - (i).
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii), (e) - (iv).
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv), (e) - (ii).
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (v), (e) - (ii).
35) When a pure strain of tall plants (TT) with round seeds (RR) is crossed with a pure strain of short
plants (tt) with wrinkled seeds (rr), an F1 generation is produced. The alleles for short and wrinkled
are recessive to those for tall and round, respectively. When these F1 plants self-pollinate, what
proportion of the F2 generation is short with wrinkled seeds?

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Study the following pedigree. The transmission of the trait indicates

(1) Autosomal dominance

(2) Maternal inheritance
(3) Paternal inheritance
(4) Allosomal inheritance

37) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Multiple allelism (i) Tt × tt

(B) Back cross (ii) Tt × TT

(C) Test cross (iii) Human blood groups

Non-parental gene
(D) Crossing over (iv)
combination

(E) Recombination (v) Non-sister chromatids

(1) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (v), E - (iv)
(2) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (v), E - (iv)
(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv), E - (v)
(4) A - (iv), b - (ii), C - (i), D - (v), E - (iii)

38) A woman with normal vision marries a man with normal vision and gives birth to a colourblind
son. Her husband dies and she marries a colourblind man. what is the probability of her children
having the abnormality -

(1) 50% colourblind sons + 50% colourblind daughters

(2) All sons colourblind & daughter carrier
(3) All daughter colourblind & sons normal
(4) 50% sons colourblind and all daughters normal

39) In polygenic inheritance triat which controlled by three pairs of genes. Two individuals which
are heterozygous for three alleles, Crossed each other. Such type of cross produced phenotypic ratio
in what ratio-

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1

40) In jersey hog, the coat colour is dependant on two pairs of alleles, R and r or S and s. Any
genotype containing at least one R-gene and at least one S-gene result in red coat colour. The double
recessive genotype results in white coat colour. All other genotypes results in sandy coat colour. If
one hog with genotype "RrSs" mated with another hog of some genotype will be prduced by above
cross-

(1) 9 red : 6-sandy : 1 white

(2) 9 red : 3-sandy : 4 white
(3) 12 red : 3-sandy : 1 white
(4) 1 red : 2-sandy : 1 white

41) In maize coloured endosperm (C) is dominant over colourless (c) and full endosperm (R) is
dominant over shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of F₁ generation was test crossed it produced four
phenotype in the following percentage -
Coloured and Full = 45%
Coloured - Shrunken = 5%
Colourless - Full = 4%
Colourless - Shrunken = 46%
From these data what would be distance between the two genes -

(1) 48 unit
(2) 9 unit
(3) 4 unit
(4) 12 unit

42) Which of the following show linkage group in coupling phase -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have
seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of
the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this
disease

(1) Sex-limited recessive

(2) Autosomal dominant
(3) Sex-linked recessive
(4) Sex-linked dominant

44)

In Drosophila crossing over occurs in female but not in male. Gene A and B are 10 map unit apart on

chromosome. A female Drosophila with genotype and male Drosophila with genotype How
many type of gametes are produced by female and male Drosophila respectivel -

(1) 4 types : 2 types

(2) 2 types : 2 types
(3) 4 types : 4 types
(4) 4 types : one types

45)

In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red flowered and white flowered plants are crossed, all F1
plants have pink coloured flowers. In F2 produced by selfing of F1plants, pink, red, white flowered
plants would appear respectively in the ratio of :-

(1) 1 : 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 0 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of the following secretions helps in lubrication of penis?

(1) Seminal vesicles
(2) Prostate
(3) Bulbourethral glands
(4) All of these

2) How many of below are not included under female external genital organs?
a. Mons pubis b. Labia majora
c. Labia minora d. Hymen
e. Vagina f. Clitoris

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

3) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

4) The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large plasma surge of

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrodiol

5) Identify the procedure shown in the figure given below:

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Ovarian cancer
(4) Uterine cancer

6) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its implantation
into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which may be a complication problem of STD, when it is not timely detected–

(1) PID
(2) Still Birth
(3) Infertility
(4) All of these

8)

Match the following :

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (a) CuT

(B) Copper releasing IUDs (b) Saheli

(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Lippes loop

(D) Non-steroidal pill (d) LNG-20

(1) A – b, B – c, C – d, D – a
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(4) A – a, B – c, C – d, D – b
9) An emergency contraceptive pill is given to a female who is 2 weeks pregnant. This will lead to:

(1) Termination of pregnancy.

(2) Prevention of implantation
(3) Pregnancy is unaffected.
(4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to negative feedback of LH.

10) Which of the following method of contraception is effective only upto a maximum period of six
months following parturition ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational Amenorrhoea
(3) Cu T
(4) Condoms

11) Match the following and give the answer for correct match:

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i
stage transfered into the uterus

Sperm is directly injected

B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote upto 8 blastomere

C GIFT iii
could be tranfered into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected

D ICSI iv
from ovary into the fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

12) Read the following four statements (A - D):

(A) Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option.
(B) Intense lactation could help as a natural method of contraception.
(C) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(D) Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country.
How many statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

13) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of it's
implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together:

Contraceptive device Site of implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Match the column-A with column-B, and choose the correct option :-

Column-A Column-B

(A) Barrier method (i) Tubectomy

(B) Oral pills (ii) Condoms

(C) IUDs (iii) Prevents ovulation

(D) Sterilization (iv) Cu-T

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

15) 'Saheli' an oral contraceptive was developed in

(1) CDRI, Lucknow

(2) TIFR, Mumbai
(3) CFTRI, Mysore
(4) WHO, Geneva

16) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is

(1) Natural, legal abortion

(2) Induced, legal abortion
(3) Induced, illegal abortion
(4) Natural, illegal abortion
17) Major threat to a healthy society with respect to reproductive health, out of the following is

(1) sex limited inheritance

(2) sexually transmitted disease
(3) sex linked inheritance
(4) sexually transmitted characters

18) Centechroman is :-

(1) A synthetic non - steroidal contraceptive

(2) Prevents implantation
(3) Available with trade name of 'SAHELI'
(4) All of the above

19) How many of following are associated with natural method of contraception ? Periodic
abstinence, Lactational amenorrhea, Implant, LNG-20, Diaphragm, saheli, coitus interruptus

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

20) After invitro fertilization :

(1) Embryo with more than 8 cells are transferred into uterus.
(2) Embryo with more than 16 cells are not transferred into uterus.
(3) Embryo with 8-16 cells can be transferred into fallopian tube
(4) Embryo with cells more than 16 is transferred into fallopian tube

21) Consider the following statements:

(a) Cervical caps and vaults are not cost effective as they cannot be reused.
(b) Contraceptive efficiency of vaults and cervical caps can be increased by using spermicidal
creams along with these barriers.
Select the correct option

(1) a is true, b is false

(2) Both a and b are true
(3) a is false, b is true
(4) Both a and b are false

22) Assertion: Amniocentesis helps to detect fetal genetic disorders

Reason: Jaundice can be detected in fetus by amniocentesis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

23) An ideal contraceptive should be

(1) User-friendly and easily available

(2) Effective and reversible
(3) With no or least side-effects and reversible
(4) All of these

24) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a procedure where a sperm is directly
injected into the ovum to form an zygote in the laboratory.
Statement II: Artificial insemination (AI) is a technique where semen is introduced only into the
uterus of the female and cannot be used in cases of low sperm counts in the ejaculates. In the light
of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

25) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In India, legal adoption is permitted by law and is considered one of the best methods
for couples seeking parenthood.
Statement II: Emotional, religious, and social factors do not pose any hindrance in the adoption of
advanced medical procedures for having children. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

26) Which of the following is a statutory ban implemented to legally check the increasing menace of
female foeticides?

(1) Ban on ultrasound for pregnancy complications

(2) Ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination
(3) Ban on all postnatal gender reveal methods
(4) Ban on immunisation programmes for children

27) According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, under what
condition can a pregnancy be terminated by the opinion of two registered medical practitioners
between 12 and 24 weeks?

(1) If the pregnancy is causing inconvenience to the woman

If there is a risk to the life of the woman or potential grave injury to her physical or mental
(2)
health
(3) If the woman requests for it without any particular reason
(4) If developing baby is normal

28) Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is not completely curable?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Syphilis
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Trichomoniasis

29) A couple is unable to produce a child even after two years of marriage. After medical
investigations it is found that female ovary is not able to produce the egg but her fallopian tubes and
uterus are suitable for reproductive events. Male has no reproductive dysfunction. Which artificial
technique would be followed to help the couple to get a child:

(1) ICSI
(2) GIFT
(3) ZIFT
(4) IUI

30) Which technique of ART cannot be used in infertile female :-

(1) GIFT
(2) IUT
(3) ZIFT
(4) AI

31) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) FSH (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation

Develop female secondary sexual

(b) LH (ii)
characters

(c) Progesterone (iii) Contraction of uterine wall

(d) Estrogen (iv) Development of corpus luteum

(v) Stimulates follicular development

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
(4) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

32) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only:
(a) In humans placenta act as fetal lung (b) During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases
but secretion of estrogen increases from placenta (c) Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens are
produced in women only during pregnancy (d) The first movement of the fetus and appearance of
hairs on the head are usually observed during the third month of pregnancy

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

33) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Formation
Proliferative 14th
(A) (a) (i) of corpus
phase day
luteum

Development
Secretory Ist - 4th
(B) (b) (ii) of graafian
phase day
follicle

15th - Shedding
Menstruation
(C) (c) 28th (iii) of
phase
day endometrium

Release of
Ovulatory 5th - 13th
(D) (d) (iv) secondary
phase day
oocyte
(1) A → c → i; B → d → ii, C → a → iv, D → d → ii
(2) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(3) A → b → iii; B → b → iii, C → d → ii, D → a → iv
(4) A → a → iv; B → d → ii, C → d → ii, D → c → i

34) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

35) Match the Column-A with Column-B :-

Column -A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

Membrane covering the

(C) Labia minora (iii)
vaginal opening
 (D) Hymen (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue
(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

36) If Oophorectomy is done for both ovaries in late pregnancy then what will happen ?

(1) Abortion
(2) Growth retardation of child
(3) Pregnancy will be continued
(4) Premature delivery

37) How many structures in the list given below have (22 + x) chromosomes ?
Polar Body, Oogonia, Primary Oocyte, Ovum, Secondary Oocyte.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

38) Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in female is controlled by circulating level of :-

(1) Only estrogen

(2) Only progesterone
(3) Estrogen and progesterone
(4) Progesterone and inhibin

39) Seminal plasma is rich in which sugar?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Glucose
(3) Fructose
(4) Maltose

40) Seminiferous tubules contain ____ cells for providing nutrition to sperm cells.

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Interstitial cell
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Germ cells

41) For the first time theca layer is organized into theca interna and theca externa in which follicle?

(1) 1°
(2) 2°
(3) 3°
(4) Mature follicle

42) Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions and choose the
correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Head i Enzymes

B Middle piece ii Sperm motility

C Acrosome iii Energy

D Tail iv Genetic material

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

43) Assertion: Myometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.

Reason: Myometrium lines the uterine cavity.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

44) Study the flow chart. Name the hormones labelled as A, B, C, D at each stage.

Choose the correct option.

(1) A-GnRH, B-ICSH, C-Androgen, D-FSH

(2) A-GnRH, B-LH, C-FSH, D-Androgens
(3) A-Gonadotropins, B-LH, C-FSH, D-Testosterone
(4) A-Gn-RH, B-FSH, C-LH, D-Androgens
45)

Umbilical cord consists-

(1) 100% foetal blood

(2) 100% maternal blood
(3) 50% foetal + 50% maternal blood
(4) 25% foetal + 75% maternal blood
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 1 4 1 1 1 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 1 2 3 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 1 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 4 4 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 3 1 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

4)
5)

6)

7)

8)

9)

10) Conceptual
11)

12)

13) The charges on the plates

14) Conceptual.

15)

16)

17)

18)

19) Current flows through resistance from left to right, is given by

The potential difference across resistance

Since, capacitor is in parallel with resistance, so it also has 2V potential difference across
it.
The charge on capacitor
20)

21) If A is the area of each plate, the capacitance of the air-filled capacitor shown in figure (i)
is

The capacitance of air capacitor in figure (ii) is

The capacitance of dielectric filled capacitor in figure (ii) is

Since C1 and C2 are in parallel, the capacitance C of the capacitor shown in figure (ii) is

22)

23)

24) Conceptual.

25)

10V = 185
V = 18.5 V

26)

27)
28)

29)

30)

31) When switch is closed, inner plates of two capacitor get connected with each other. But
outer plates are not connected. It means circuit is not completed. Therefore, no current will
flow or no charge will appear on B.

32) E = - slope of V-x graph E inside a conductor = 0

33) Conceptual.

34) Conceptual.
 35) Conceptual.

36) Q' must be smaller than Q.

37) Conceptual.

38)

39)

40)

41) Conceptual.

42)

43) Increases

44)

45) This charge will remain constant after switch is shifted from position 1 to position 2.
i.e.,

Energy dissipated is 80% of the initial stored energy

CHEMISTRY

46)
Conceptual

47)

Conceptual

48)

Conceptual

49)

Conceptual

50)

Conceptual

51)

Conceptual

52)

Conceptual

53)

Conceptual

54)

Conceptual

55)

Conceptual

56)

Conceptual

57)

Conceptual
58)

Conceptual

59)

Conceptual

60)

Conceptual

61)

Conceptual

62)

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

63)

Conceptual

64)

Conceptual

65)

Conceptual

66)

Conceptual

67) Conceptual

68)

Conceptual

69) Conceptual
70) Conceptual

71)

72) Only NaCl, NaBr and Nal can’t be used to convert alcohol into alkyl halide.

73) is hydrolyzed more readily than because C-O bond is

more polar than C-Cl bond.

74) mechanism occurs in polar aprotic solvent hence inversion of configuration takes
place.

75) Conceptual

76)
From [A] to [B] is the Birch reduction.

77)

In this reaction, only I+ is obtained electrophile.

78)
79) The ease of dehydration is,

80)

prefer to go E2 elimination reaction, so carbocation does not form in this reaction.

81) Reactivity order of alcohols for the reaction in which O-H bond is broken is in the order of
H,C — OH> 1°R — OH > 2°R — OH > 3°R- OH
As the stablity order of their conjugate base.
H3C -O- > 1°R-O- > 2°R-O- > 3°R-O- (because of +I effect of ‘R’ group)
Reactivity order of alcohol for the reaction in which C - O bond is broken is as
3°R — OH > 2°R — OH > 1°R — OH > H3C— OH
Since stablity order of carbocation.
3°R+ > 2°R+ > 1°R+ > H3C+

82) R-OH + HX R-X

The HX reactivity order is

83) Uranium is actinoid.

84) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

85) The incorrect order of increasing melting point is

Ti<V<Cr<Mn
Melting point increases from T1 to chromium but decreases in case of Mn. Mn has melting
point even lower than that of Ti.

86) Conceptual

87)

Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.

88)

Conceptual
 89)

i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

90)

Green, paramagnetic

BOTANY

91) NCERT Page No. 11 & 12

92) NCERT Page No. 14

93) NCERT Page No. 5

94) NCERT Page No. 13

95) Allen module

96) NCERT Page No. 20

97) NCERT Page No. 3,4 & 5

98) Allen Module

99) NCERT - 11 & Allen module

100) NCERT Page No. 22 & 23

101)
102) Allen Module

103) Allen Module

104)

NCERT Page No. 30

105)

NCERT Page No. 28

106)

NCERT Page No. 29

107)

Yellow Flower & Round Fruit will be 9, out of 16

In F1, all 20 plants will be heterozygous.

108)

NCERT Page No. 22

109)

NCERT Page No. 23

110)

NCERT Page No. 25

111)

Allen module model application

112)

NCERT Page No. 34

113)
NCERT Page No. 38

114)

NCERT Page No. 36

115)

Allen Module

116)

Allen Module

117)

Allen Module

118)

Allen Module

119)

Allen Module

120)

Application of NCERT Pg No. 80

121)

Allen Module

122)

Allen Module

123)

NCERT Application.

124)

Allen Module
 125)

Allen Module

126)

Allen Module

127)

NCERT Application.

128)

Allen Module PYQ

129)

Allen Module

130)

Allen Module

131)

Allen Module

132)

Allen Module

133)

Allen Module

134)

Allen Module

135)

Allen Module.

ZOOLOGY
 136)

Bulbourethral glands

137)

One

138)

Progesterone

139)

The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large plasma surge of
LH

140)

Question Asking About:

A. The question asks you to identify the surgical procedure depicted in the provided image.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

A. It shows fallopian tube is being cut & tied which is know as Tubectomy.

Answer :
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2: Vasectomy.

141)

Question Asking About:

Identify the device:

Identify the implantation site:

Solution Explanation:

Correct Implantation Site: Copper-T IUDs are inserted into the uterine cavity.

Correct Answer: Option (3)

142)

NCERT XII PAGE NO.63

143)

The correct answer is Option 3: A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b

 144) Explanation :
Emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) work primarily by preventing ovulation or fertilization.
If fertilization has already occurred, as in the case of a 2-week pregnancy, ECPs will not have
any effect.
At 2 weeks of pregnancy, implantation has likely already happened, and the embryo is starting
to develop.

The correct answer is Option 3: Pregnancy is unaffected.

145)

Solution:
Lactational Amenorrhoea:
This method is based on the natural infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding. It is
effective only for up to six months following childbirth, as long as the mother is exclusively
breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation. After six months or when breastfeeding
frequency decreases, the effectiveness significantly decreases.

Final Answer: (2) Lactational Amenorrhoea

146)

NCERT Pg. No. 48

147)

Three

148) Norplant is implanted subcutaneously and it works up to 5yrs approx.

149)

Question Asking About :

Asks to match contraceptive methods (Column A) with their corresponding examples or
mechanisms (Column B).

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

A. Barrier method (A):

A. Condoms are a common example.
B. Therefore, A matches with (ii) Condoms.
B. Oral pills (B):
A. Typically work by preventing ovulation.
B. Therefore, B matches with (iii) Prevents ovulation.
C. IUDs (C):
A. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) like Cu-T are inserted int the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
B. Therefore, C matches with (iv) Cu-T.
D. Sterilization (D):
A. Sterilization procedures like tubectomy are surgical methods of contraception.
 B. Therefore, D matches with (i) Tubectomy.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i.

150)

CDRI, Lucknow

151)

Induced, legal abortion

152)

sexually transmitted disease

153)

All of the above

154)

Question Asking About:

The question asks you to count the number of methods listed that are considered natural
methods of contraception.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

Periodic abstinence: This is a natural method.
Lactational amenorrhea: This is a natural method.
Coitus interruptus: This is a natural method.
Therefore, there are three natural methods: periodic abstinence, lactational amenorrhea, and
coitus interruptus.
The correct answer is 3. three.

155)

Embryo with more than 8 cells are transferred into uterus.

156)

NCERT Pg - 60

157)

NCERT Pg - 58
158)

All of these

159) Statement I: Correct. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is indeed a procedure
where a sperm is directly injected into the ovum to form an embryo in the laboratory.
Statement II: Incorrect. Artificial insemination (AI) can involve introducing semen into the
vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra-uterine insemination) of the female, and it can be used in
cases where there are low sperm counts in the ejaculates, not just when it is introduced into
the uterus.

160) Statement I: Correct. The text clearly states that Indian laws permit legal adoption, and it
is considered one of the best methods for couples looking for parenthood.
Statement II: Incorrect. The text mentions that emotional, religious, and social factors are
deterrents in the adoption of advanced medical procedures for having children, which means
they do pose a hindrance.

161) A statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination has been implemented to legally
combat the increasing issue of female foeticides. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure where
some of the amniotic fluid of the developing fetus is taken to analyze the fetal cells and
dissolved substances, which can also reveal the sex of the fetus. The ban is specifically to
prevent the misuse of this procedure for sex-determination, which can lead to sex-selective
abortions.

162) NCERT (XII) Page no. 46

According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, a pregnancy may
be terminated between 12 and 24 weeks by the opinion of two registered medical
practitioners, formed in good faith, if they believe that the continuation of the pregnancy
would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of grave injury to her physical or
mental health, or there is a substantial risk that if the child were born, it would suffer from
physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

163) While most sexually transmitted infections like gonorrhoea, syphilis, and trichomoniasis
are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, genital herpes, along with
hepatitis-B and HIV infections, is not completely curable and can only be managed with
treatment.

164)

GIFT

165)

Technique of ART cannot be used in infertile female AI

166)
 A. (a) FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) matches with (v) Stimulates follicular
development. FSH is the hormone that primarily stimulates the growth and
development of ovarian follicles, which contain the eggs.

B. (b) LH (Luteinizing Hormone) matches with (iv) Development of corpus luteum.

LH triggers ovulation (the release of the egg) and the subsequent development of the
corpus luteum from the ruptured follicle.

C. (c) Progesterone matches with (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation.

Progesterone is the key hormone responsible for maintaining the thickened and nutrient-
rich endometrium, which is essential for the implantation of a fertilized egg.

D. (d) Estrogen matches with (ii) Develop female secondary sexual characters.
Estrogen is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics
during puberty, such as breast development and widening of the hips.

Therefore, the correct matching is a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, which corresponds to option 1.

167)

Only (a) and (b)

168)

A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv

169)

Five

170)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

171)

Pregnancy will be continued

172)

Three

173)
 The correct answer is 3. Estrogen and progesterone.

Solution/Explanation:

A. GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone): This hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus

and plays a crucial role in regulating the release of other hormones involved in the
reproductive system.
B. Estrogen and Progesterone: These are the primary female sex hormones produced by the
ovaries. They exert a significant influence on the hypothalamus, causing fluctuations in the
frequency of GnRH pulses.

174)

Fructose

175)

Sertoli cells

176)

For the first time theca layer is organized into theca interna and theca externa in which
follicle 3°

177)

Sertoli cells

178)

Both the assertion and reason are false.

179)

A-GnRH, B-LH, C-FSH, D-Androgens

180)

100% foetal blood