BGR IIT & MEDICAL ACADEMY

(A Step towards success)

IEEJA, GADWAL- 509127
JEE MAINS
Test Code-101
Name of the Student: Date:19.08.2025.

Class: VII; Time: 2 ½ Hrs. Max Marks: 300

SYLLABUS
Periodic Properties;
Mathematics: Number System; Worksheet: 1 & 2 Chemistry:
Worksheet: 1, 2 & 3

Units and Dimensions;

Physics: Biology: Basic Botany;
Worksheet: 1, 2 & 3

Mathematics
Note: Attempt All Questions each Question carry 3 Marks 25 X 3 = 75 M

1. The rational number is same as [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

2. If a= and b= , then [ ]
1) a < b 2) 𝑎 = 𝑏 3) 𝑎 > 𝑏 4) None of these
3. A was completed part of work and B completed of it. Who completed the lesser part of
work? [ ]
1) A 2) 𝐵 3) We can't say 4) A & B are completed equal
4. Express as a rational number with denominator as -63. [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)
5. A person's monthly salary is Rs 19,200. If he spends Rs 2,500 on rent, Rs. 3,800 on food,
Rs.4,000 on travelling and Rs.4,100 on medicines, then the fraction of saving is [ ]
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/5 4) 1/4
6. + + = [ ]
17 19
1) 2) 3) 4)

7. The sum of 2 and 1 is [ ]

1) 8 2) 5 3) 4 4) 2

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 8. The value of + + is [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

9. The sum of two rational numbers is -8. If one of the rational numbers is , then the
other is [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)

10. Should be subtracted from to get ? [ ]

1) 2) − 3) -9 4) −
11. Additive inverse of - − is [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

12. The additive inverse of is [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4) - −
13. A rational number between and is [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

14. Then sum of and is equal to [ ]

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) – 2
15. Which of the following rational number is positive? [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4) −50/59

16. In a rational number , which of the following is correct? [ ]

1) 𝑝, 𝑞 are whole number, 𝑞 ≠ 0 2) p,q are natural numbers
3) 𝑝, 𝑞 are an integer, 𝑞 ≠ 0 4) all of these
17. If 𝑥 = and 𝑦 = , then___________. [ ]
1) 𝑥 > 𝑦 2) 𝑥 < 𝑦 3) 𝑥 = 𝑦 4) 𝑥 = 3𝑦
18. The rational numbers , , are___________________. [ ]
1) In descending order 2) Equivalent fractions
3) In ascending order 4) Decimal fractions
19. Rohan completed part of preparation how much course is left? [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

20. The sum of 2 and 1 is___________. [ ]

1) 8 2) 5 3) 4 4) 2

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 21. +0− − + =__________. [ ]
1) 2) 3) 4)

22. If 𝑥 + = , then the value of 𝑥 is___________. [ ]

1) 2) 3) 4)

23. __________should be subtracted from to get ? [ ]

1) − 2) -9 3) − 4)

24. Statement I:2 + = .

Statement II: + = 1. [ ]
1) Both Statements are true. 2) Both Statements are false.
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
25. Statement - I: < .
Statement II: If the denominators of two rational numbers are not same, we should
change them into rational numbers having same denominator and then compare. [ ]
1) Both Statements are true. 2) Both Statements are false.
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Physics
Note: Attempt All Questions each Question carry 3 Marks 25 X 3 = 75 M

26. In a set of physical quantities, if no quantity can be derived from the remaining physical
quantities then the set is called a__________________________. [ ]
1) Complementary quantities 2) Set of derived quantities
3) Set of fundamental quantities 4) Set of physical quantities
27. Among the following, the set of fundamental physical quantities are [ ]
1) {𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ, 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒} 2) {𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠, 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ, 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒}
3) {𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦, 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ, 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒} 4) all the above
28. The derived quantities in SI system are_____________. [ ]
1) Amount of substance 2) Mass 3) Speed 4) Strength of electric current
29. Area, volume, density are _______________. [ ]
1) Derived units 2) Derived quantities
3) Fundamental units 4) Fundamental quantities
30. Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? [ ]
1) Temperature 2) Volume 3) Density 4) Weight
31. Which of the following can be a set of fundamental quantities? [ ]
1) Momentum, mass, velocity 2) Temperature, length, time
3) Momentum, time, frequency 4) Force, mass, velocity
32. A derived physical quantity can depend on how many fundamental physical quantities?
1) Only three 2) Only One [ ]
3) Any number of fundamental physical quantities 4) More than ten only
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 33. Conversion is possible only between the units used to measure______. [ ]
1) all physical quantities 2) different physical quantities
3) same physical quantities 4) no physical quantities
34. If pressure P is inversely proportional to volume (V), then [ ]
a) PV = Constant b) 𝑉 ∝ c) 𝑃 𝑉 = 𝑃 𝑉 d) = Constan 𝑡
1) a, c are correct 2) c, d are correct 3) a, b, c are correct 4) All of these
35. The magnitude of physical quantity is___________________. [ ]
1) The sum of numerical value and unit 2) The ratio of numerical value and unit
3) The product of numerical value and unit
4) The difference between numerical value and unit.
36. If 𝑈 , 𝑈 are units of physical quantities 𝑁 , 𝑁 are their numerical values,
then________________. [ ]

1) = 2) = 3) = 4) =
37. All physical quantities consist of a___________________. [ ]
1) symbolic magnitude 2) numerical magnitude
3) alphabetical magnitude 4) analogical magnitude
38. The mass of a boat is PQ in one system and the mass of the same boat is RS in another
system. P and R are numerical values and Q and S are units. [ ]
1) 𝑃𝑄 = 𝑅𝑆 2) 𝑃𝑄 ≠ 𝑅𝑆 3) PS = QR 4) None of the above
39. Among the following, the odd one is__________________. [ ]
1) candela 2) newton 3) kilogram 4) mole
40. The unit 𝑚s is_________________. [ ]
1) complementary 2) supplementary 3) derived 4) fundamental
41. Unit metre is multiplied with itself______ times, to get the unit for volume. [ ]
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4
42. Which of the following is not rule of writing units? [ ]
1) compound prefixes are not allowed 2) units must be in singular form
3) all symbols for units are written in lower case
4) names of units can be pluralised in short form.
43. SI unit of pressure is______________. [ ]
1) coulomb 2) pascal 3) farad 4) joule
44. Which of the following is correct according to rules for writing units in SI? [ ]
1) 9Pa 2) 7kgs 3) 100kgsec 4) 12j
45. The unit of speed is a_____________________. [ ]
1) fundamental unit 2) derived unit
3) neither fundamental nor derived 4) both fundamental and derived unit

46. Newton–second is the unit of [ ]

1) Velocity 2) Angular momentum 3) Momentum 4) Energy
47. The unit of power is [ ]
1) Joule 2) Joule per second only
3) Joule per second and watt both 4) Only watt

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 48. Unit of energy in SI system is [ ]
1) Erg 2) Calorie 3) Joule 4) Electron volt

49. Density of wood is 0.5𝑔𝑚/𝑐𝑐 in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS
units is [ ]
1) 500 2) 5 3) 0.5 4) 5000

50. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of any of the following
1) Length and mass 2) Mass and time
3) Length, mass and time 4) None of these

Chemistry
Note: Attempt All Questions each Question carry 3 Marks 25 X 3 = 75 M
51. The number of groups and periods in the long form of periodic table: [ ]
1) 7, 19 2) 7, 18 3) 18, 7 4) 7, 16
52. s-block contains________________ groups. [ ]
1) III A & IV A 2) I A & II A 3) I B & II B 4) Only I A
53. The elements whose outer electronic configurations vary from ns np to ns 𝑛p
constitute: [ ]
1) d – block of elements 2) f – Block of elements
3) s – Block of elements 4) p – Block of elements
54. Which of the following is not the electronic configuration of a representative element?
1) ns np 2) ns 𝑛np 3) ns 4) ns npp [ ]
55. In iron atom (𝑧 = 26), the differentiating electron enters______ sublevel. [ ]
1) 3𝑑 2) 4d 3) 5𝑝 4) 4𝑝
56. The electronic configuration of the starting and ending elements of fourth period are:
1) 4𝑠 3𝑑 and 4𝑠 4𝑝 2) 4𝑠 and 4𝑠 3𝑑 [ ]
3) 4𝑠 and 3𝑑 4𝑠 4𝑝 4) 4𝑠 3𝑑 and 4𝑠 3𝑑
57. Which statement is incorrect for the d-block elements? [ ]
1) Have variable oxidation states 2) Exhibit catalytic property
3) Have high melting points, boiling points and tensile strength
4) Have atomic radii larger than 𝑠 and p – block elements
58. The order of screening effect of electrons in various orbitals: [ ]
1) 𝑝 > 𝑑 > 𝑠 > 𝑓 2) 𝑓 > 𝑑 > 𝑝 > 𝑠 3) 𝑠 > 𝑝 > 𝑑 > 𝑓 4) None of these
59. The species (atoms or ions) having the same number of electrons are known
as__________________. [ ]
1) Iso - electronic species 2) Isotones 3) Isodiapheres 4) Isosteres
60. Among the following, the correct order of radii is: [ ]
1) Covalent radii > vander waals radii 2) Metallic radii < vander waals radii
3) Vander waal radii < metallic radii 4) None of these
61. The smallest and largest ionic radii species are: ________________. [ ]
1) 𝑀𝑔 , O 2) Na , F 3) 𝐴𝑙 , 𝑁 4) Na, F
62. Among the isoelectronic species K , S , Cl and Ca the radii of the ions decrease as:
_______________________. [ ]

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 1) K = Ca > Cl = S 2) Cl > S > K > Ca
3) S > Cl > K > Ca 4) Ca > K > Cl > S
63. The ionic radius of cation is always: [ ]
1) Equal to atomic radius 2) More than atomic radius
3) Less than atomic radius 4) Cannot be predicted
64. The minimum amount of energy required to remove the outermost electron from an
isolated neutral gaseous atom is called__________________. [ ]
1) Electro positive 2) Electron affinity
3) Electro negativity 4) Ionisation potential
65. Ionisation energy ∝ [ ]
1) Screening effect 2) 3) Nuclear charge 4) Atomic size
atomic size
66. The energy required to remove the second electron from an uni positive ion is: [ ]
1) Third ionization energy 2) Second ionization energy
3) First ionization energy 4) Ionization energy
67. Correct order of first ionization potentials of elements of the second period: [ ]
1) Li < 𝐵𝑒 > 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 < 𝑂 < 𝐹 < 𝑁𝑒 2) Li < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 < 𝑂 < 𝐹 < 𝑁𝑒
3) Li < 𝐵𝑒 > 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 > 𝑂 < 𝐹 < 𝑁𝑒 4) Li < 𝐵𝑒 < 𝐵 < 𝐶 < 𝑁 > 𝑂 < 𝐹 < 𝑁𝑒
68. Statement -I: The highest I.E. in a period is shown by noble gas.
Statement - II: Noble gases are at the extreme right of the period. [ ]
1) Both statement I and II are correct. 2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
69. The element with the highest first ionization potential is: ____________. [ ]
1) Oxygen 2) Carbon 3) Nitrogen 4) Boron
70. The incorrect statement among the following potential is: ____________. [ ]
1) 𝐼. E of Mg > 𝐼 . E of Al 2) I.E of Mg > I. E of Na
3) 𝐼. E of Na < 𝐼 ⋅ E of Mg 4) I.E of Al < 𝐼. E of Mg
71. The element californium belongs to the family [ ]
1) Actinide series 2) Alkali metal family
3) Alkaline earth family 4) Lanthanide series
72. An element of atomic number 29 belongs to [ ]
1) 𝑠 – block 2) 𝑝 – block 3) d – block 4) 𝑓 – block
73. The first element of rare – earth metals is [ ]
1) Cerium 2) Actinium 3) Uranium 4) Lanthanum
74. In the periodic table, the element with atomic number 16 will be placed in the group
1) Third 2) Fourth 3) Fifth 4) Sixth
75. All the s–block elements of the periodic table are placed in the groups … [ ]
1) IA and IIA 2) IIIA and IVA 3) B sub groups 4) VA to VIIA
Biology
Note: Attempt All Questions each Question carry 3 Marks 25 X 3 = 75 M
76. Comprehensive study of the cells [ ]
1) Cell Biology 2) Cytogenetics 3) Histology 4) Cytology

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 77. Study of non-vascular embryophytes [ ]
1) Pteridology 2) Bryology 3) Mycology 4) Phycology
78. Study of most highly evolved cryptogams is called [ ]
1) Pteridology 2) Bryology 3) Mycology 4) Phycology
79. The study of relative arrangement of tissues in the plant body is called [ ]
1) Histochemistry 2) Cytology 3) Anatomy 4) Histology
80. The study of fossils is called [ ]
1) Pharmacognosy 2) Fossil systematics 3) Palaentology 4) Palynology
81. Study of reciprocal relationship between the plants and the environment is called [ ]
1) Ecology 2) Phycology 3) Palacobotany 4) Palynology
82. Study of photosynthesis in plants comes under [ ]
1) Palynology 2) Phycology 3) Physiology 4) Pteridology
83. Mycology deals with the study of [ ]
1) Algae 2) Minerals 3) Genes & in heritance 4) Fungi
84. A student is referring to a book that contains information of microsporogenesis
megasporogenesis, formation of gametes, process of fertilization etc. So the book is related
to ________ branch of botany [ ]
1) Morphology 2) Taxonomy 3) Anatomy 4) Embryology
85. Select the incorrect statement [ ]
1) Histology is the study of different tissues
2) Palaeobotany is the study of development, structure and all other aspects related to
microspores of pollen grains
3) Plant ecology is the study of reciprocal relationship between the plants and the
Environment
4) None of the above
86. Root hairs are [ ]
1) Protected by root cap 2) In the maturation region
3) Multicellular 4) Endogenous
87. A stalk by which leaf attaches with the stem is called [ ]
1) Rachis 2) Peduncle 3) Pedicel 4) Petiole
88. In majority of dicot, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of [ ]
1) Tertiary root 2) Secondary root 3) Primary root 4) None
89. Most important vegetative organ for photosynthesis is [ ]
1) Stem 2) leaf 3) root 4) All
90. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two lateral small leaf like
structure called [ ]
1) Lamina 2) Leaflet 3) Leaf blade 4) Stipule
91. Seed is made up of [ ]
1) Embryo 2) Seed coat 3) Both 4) None

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 92. Functions of stem are [ ]
1) Some perform storage food, support and protection
2) Conduct water, mineral and photosynthates
3) Some perform function of vegetative propagation 4) All
93. After fertilization [ ]
1) Ovule develop into seed 2) Ovary matures to fruit
3) Ovary wall changes to fruit wall 4) All
94. Which of the following is incorrect of stem? [ ]
1) It bears nodes and internodes
2) It is developed from plumule of embryo of a germinating seed
3) Its main function is spreading of branches and bear leaves, flowers and fruits
4) It bears only terminal bud not axillary bud
95. Which of the following is correct about leaf? [ ]
1) It is arranged in basipetal order 2) It has originated from root apical meristem
3) It bears a bud in its axil 4) It arises from axillary bud
96. Biology is [ ]
1) Derived from two Greek words ‘Bios’ and ‘logos’
2) Study of living organisms 3) Story of Evolution of organisms on earth
4) All the above are correct
97. Functions of root are [ ]
1) Absorption of water and mineral from soil 2) Anchoring of plant in soil
3) Storage of food material and synthesis of plant growth regulator 4) All
98. Microanatomy is the study of [ ]
1) Tissues 2) Cells 3) Histology 4) Microbes
99. Seed bearing tracheophytes [ ]
A) Pteridophytes B) Gymnosperms C) Angiosperms
1) A only 2) B, C 3) A, B 4) A, B, C
100. Distribution of plants is studied in [ ]
1) Paleobotany 2) Phytogeography 3) Plant Ecology 4) Paleoentology

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