MOCK TEST 1

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the sinuses?

A. Ethmoid
B. Turbinate
C. Maxillary
D. Sphenoid

2. The brachial artery is located in the:

A. Head
B. Upper Leg
C. Upper Arm
D. Lower Leg

3. The matrix, hyponychium, and lunula are part of the:

A. Ear
B. Nail
C. Mouth
D. Colon

4. What does MRSA stand for?

A. Methicillin resistant Streptococcus aureus
B. Methicillin resilient Staphylococcus aureus
C. Methicillin resilient Streptococcus aureus
D. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

5. What is a pathologic fracture?

A. A break in a weakened bone caused by disease
B. Any fall from a standing height (fragile)
C. Fracture caused by some type of accident (traumatic)
D. Overuse injury caused by repetitive forces placed on the bone (stress)

6. The prefix leuk/o means?

A. Red
B. Soft
C. Hard
D. White

7. What type of tendon in the hand is found in Zone 2, No Man’s Land?

A. Extensor
B. Palmer
C. Flexor
D. Peroneal
8. Cranial Nerve VII is what type of nerve?
A. Facial Nerve
B. Optic Nerve
C. Vagus Nerve
D. Trigeminal Nerve

9. A Medicare patient is hospitalized three days with pneumonia. Which part of Medicare is
responsible to help cover the hospital stay?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

10. Medicare Administrative Contractors (MAC) are responsible for interpreting national policies
into regional policies. What are these policies called?
A. NCD
B. NCCI
C. LCD
D. ABN

11. The HIPAA Privacy Rule protects the privacy of individually identifiable health information
(PHI). Which of the below is a violation of the Privacy Rule?
A. Disclose PHI to a relative without consent of the patient
B. Disclose PHI for treatment activities of a healthcare provider
C. Disclose PHI to another covered entity for payment
D. Disclose PHI to another covered entity for healthcare operations

12. What does the lab term presumptive mean in code range 83805-80307?
A. The descriptor of a device that measures multiple analytes.
B. Drug test results that indicate possible, but not definitive, presence of drugs and or
drug metabolites.
C. A term used to describe definitive identification definitive identification/quantitation
procedures that are secondary to presumptive screening methods.
D. Specific identification of individual drugs and drug metabolites.

13. Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn or corrosion codes?

A. Nonhealing burns are coded as sequlae codes.
B. When sequencing burn codes the lowest degree is always reported as the primary
code.
C. A burn due to a chemical, use the corrosion code.
D. An infected burn site is reported with one code.

14. According to the Anesthesia guidelines when does anesthesia time start and ends:
Anesthesia Start Time: 7:00 am
(Preparing the patient for induction of anesthesia)
Surgery Start Time: 7:15 am
Surgery End Time: 9:30 am
 Anesthesia End Time: 9:45 am
(Anesthesiologist no longer in attendance)
A. 7:00 am – 9:30 am
B. 7:00 am – 9:45 am
C. 7:15 am – 9:30 am
D. 7:15 am – 9:45 am

15. What CPT® code does not get modifier 51 appended to it?
A. 33221
B. 32674
C. 31653
D. None of the above

16. What is the correct full code description for CPT® code 27077?
A. Radical resection of tumor; innominate bone, total
B. Innominate bone, total
C. Radical resection of tumor; wing of ilium, 1 pubic or ischial ramus or symphysis pubis;
innominate bone, total
D. Radical resection tumor

17. Which one is NOT used to report Anesthesia CPT® codes?

A. General
B. Conscious Sedation
C. Regional
D. All of the above are reported with Anesthesia CPT® codes

18. When a screening colonoscopy is performed and the scope goes beyond the splenic flexure,
but unable to advance all the way to the cecum because the patient had adhesions how is this
coded?
A. 45330
B. 45378-52
C. 45378-53
D. 45378

19. Which is NOT a TRUE statement in reporting the AIDS code (B20) or HIV (Z21)?
A. AIDS (B20) is always reported as a primary code.
B. When a patient is admitted for an HIV related condition code B20 is reported instead
of Z21.
C. Code Z21 is reported when documentation indicates the patient is HIV positive.
D. Once a patient is diagnosed with AIDS never use code Z21.

20. Mrs. Estrada sees her ophthalmologist for a follow-up of glaucoma diagnosed at her last visit.
A complete eye exam is performed that includes measurement of eye pressure, inspection of
the eye’s drainage angle, exam of the optic nerve, testing of peripheral vision, a computer
measure of the optic nerve and measurement of the thickness of the cornea. The results of
the exam determine her glaucoma is stable. She will continue on her medication with no
changes to the prescription. The ophthalmologist documents primary open-angle of both eyes
 with mild stage in the right eye and moderate stage in the left eye. How is the glaucoma
reported?
A. H40.1111, H40.1122
B. H40.2111, H40.2122
C. H40.20X0
D. H40.1132

21. A patient with a long history of hypertension is recently diagnosed with mild hypertensive
chronic kidney disease. Select the correct diagnoses for these conditions.
A. I13.10, N18.2
B. N18.2, I12.9
C. I12.9, N18.2
D. I12.9, N18.30

22. Mr. Lee is diagnosed with secondary diabetes due to acute pancreatitis in which he takes
insulin. The pancreatitis is determined to be alcohol-induced. Daily insulin is prescribed to
bring his blood sugars under control. The patient is to return in one-month and labs were
ordered for one-week prior to the appointment. Select the correct diagnoses for these
conditions.
A. K85.20, E08.9, Z79.4
B. E08.9, K85.20, Z79.4
C. K85.20, E09.9, Z79.84
D. K85.20, E08.9

23. Ms. Johnson is in her provider’s office for two days of wheezing, shortness of breath and
coughing during the night. A rescue inhaler is prescribed for quick relief of the symptoms with
a final diagnosis of asthma. She is to return in three months for follow-up or sooner if the
symptoms increase. Select the correct diagnosis code(s).
A. R06.2, R06.02, R05, J45.909
B. J45.20
C. J45.909, R06.2, R06.02, R05
D. J45.909

24. Mrs. Frederick presents to her primary care provider with wrist pain. It’s been hurting for two
weeks and she has no recollection of any injury. The provider suspects this may be arthritis
but orders an X-ray to rule out any injury. She is to use aspirin for the pain and return in one-
week for follow-up of the X-ray. Any further tests or treatment will be discussed at that visit.
The provider documents a diagnosis of wrist pain. Select the correct diagnosis code(s).
A. M25.539
B. G89.11, M25.539
C. M25.539, G81.21
D. M25.531, M25.532

25. A 50 year-old female saw her dermatologist for removal of a basal cell carcinoma on her right
arm. An 8.0 cm lesion that included the margins was drawn out and a 15-blade scalpel was
used for full excision of the lesion. A layered closure was performed after the removal. The
specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s)
for this procedure?
 A. 11606
B. 11606, 12004-51
C. 11606, 12034-51
D. 11606, 13121-51, 13122

26. A 30 year-old female has chronic eczema on both arms. The areas are encrusted and scaly
with severe itching. A debridement was performed on the eczematous areas of both arms
totaling 25% body surface. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?
A. 11004
B. 11001, 11000
C. 11000, 11001 x 2
D. 11000

27. A 35 year-old male is diagnosed with a malignant melanoma on his right foot. The surgeon
removed the melanoma using Mohs micrographic surgery. The lesion is mapped and three
tissue blocks were removed in the first stage. Each block was examined by the surgeon for
malignancy. A second stage was performed with 6 tissue blocks; each block was examined by
the surgeon for malignancy. There was a negative result after the final block was examined.
The site is closed with sutures. What procedure codes are reported?
A. 17311, 17314, 17314
B. 17313, 17315
C. 17260, 17311, 17314
D. 17311, 17312, 17315

28. A 52-year-old male with basal cell carcinoma of the forehead has outpatient surgery to excise
the basal cell carcinoma with reconstruction using an advancement flap. The 2.0 cm lesion
with margins was excised with a diameter using a 15-blade scalpel down to the level of the
subcutaneous tissue, totaling a primary defect of 4.0 sq cm. Electrocautery was used for
hemostasis. An adjacent tissue transfer of 5.0 sq cm was taken from the upper right cheek and
was advanced into the primary defect. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?
A. 14040
B. 14040, 11642-51
C. 14040, 11442-51
D. 15574

29. A 31-year-old male with a hypertrophic scar on the left side of his neck to have a skin graft.
The scar is continually irritated by his clothing.
Procedure: After the proper induction of anesthesia, the subcutaneous tissue of the neck
beneath the scar was infiltrated with crystalloid solution containing epinephrine to minimize
blood loss. The scar was then excised down to viable dermis to prepare the site for the skin
graft leaving a 40 cm defect. Hemostasis was obtained with epinephrine soaked pads. Skin
was harvested from the patient’s thigh in a split thickness fashion and was used to cover the
40 sq cm defect created by the surgery. The graft was secured with skin staples, and then
dressed with fine mesh gauze followed by medication-soaked gauze. The donor site was
dressed with mesh followed by Adaptic™, followed by a dry dressing and an Ace wrap. What
is (are) the CPT® code(s)?
A. 15115, 15004-51
B. 15120
 C. 15120, 15004-51
D. 15100

30. A 46-year-old female presents to have multiple lesions destroyed. Five benign lesions on her
face are destroyed and 16 actinic keratoses on her left arm are destroyed. The CPT® code(s)
to report is (are):
A. 17000, 17003, 17110-51
B. 17004, 17110-51
C. 17004
D. 17004 x 16, 17110-51 x 5

31. A 24 year-old with chronic right ankle pain is scheduled to receive an injection at the Pain
Clinic. Under ultrasonic guidance, a 22-gauge spinal needle is introduced into the joint and a
total volume of 40 mg of Kenalog is injected. What are the correct codes?
A. 20606-RT, J3301 x 4
B. 20605-RT, 79642, J3301 x 1
C. 20550-RT, J3301 x 4
D. 20606-RT, 76942, J3301 x 1

32. A 54 year-old male goes to an orthopedic urgent care clinic for severe right knee pain with
swelling and difficulty bearing weight on the right leg. Examination and X-rays determine he
has a bucket-handle tear of the medial and lateral meniscus. Outpatient surgery is schedule
for the following day. The patient is appropriately prepped and anesthetized. Incisions are
made in the knee area and an arthroscope is inserted through one of the incisions into the
knee joint. Saline solution was inserted to expand the area around the knee joint. The joint is
inspected and instruments used to enter the medial compartment and the meniscal tear is
sutured. The lateral compartment entered next and the meniscus is sutured. The area is
irrigated, checked for bleeding, the instruments are removed, and incisions closed. Code the
procedure and diagnosis codes.
A. 29880-RT, S83.251A, S83.211A
B. 29883-RT, S83.251A, S83.211A
C. 29882-RT, S83.281A, S83.241A
D. 29881-RT, S83.241A, S83.251A

33. A 32-year-old female with chronic low back pain is scheduled with a pain specialist for trigger
point injections. The patient is appropriately prepped and the area anesthetized. The provider
palpates the area of muscles to determine the location of the trigger points. Six injections of
a corticosteroid are slowly injected into two muscle groups.
A. 20553
B. 20552 x 6
C. 20551 x 2
D. 20552

34. A 40-year-old woman fractured her second metatarsal of her left foot when a can of
vegetables fell on her foot. The metatarsal neck fracture is 100% volar displaced and will be
treated by an orthopedic surgeon in the outpatient clinic. When the patient is appropriately
prepped and anesthetized, the provider adjusts the fractured fragment by exerting pushing
or pulling force on the foot to reduce the fracture. An x-ray is taken to confirm the reduction
 of the fracture is aligned. Her foot is placed the in a cast. She will return in four weeks for
follow-up. Which CPT® code is reported?
A. 28465-LT
B. 28476-LT
C. 28475-LT
D. 28485-LT

35. A 47-year-old patient was previously treated with external fixation for a Type IIIA left lateral
condyle tibial fracture. There is now nonunion of the left proximal tibia, and he is admitted
for open reduction of tibia with bone grafting. The surgeon makes an incision and exposes the
tibial nonunion and debrides the fibrous tissue. A sliding bone graft from the nearby tibia is
obtained and slid into the defect between the bone fragments. The two ends of the fracture
fragments are joined together and secured with a plate and screws. The bleeding is controlled
and the wound is closed in layers. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
A. 27722-LT, S82.122N
B. 27724-LT, S82.122S
C. 27722-LT, S82.102N
D. 27724-LT, S82.102C

36. A 45 year-old male patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis L3 to L5 level presents for an
arthrodesis and laminectomy. The patient is prepped and anesthetized and placed in the
prone position. Using a posterior interbody technique, the provider makes an incision in the
lower back over the L3-L5. With retractors, the soft tissues are separated to gain access to the
vertebrae. Fragments from nearby cortical bone and articular cartilage are excised. The lamina
was excised and the bone chips were inserted to fuse L3-L4 interspace and L4-L5 interspace.
The area was irrigated and a layered closure was used to close the incision. What CPT® codes
are reported?
A. 22630, 22632 x 3
B. 22630, 22632
C. 22633, 22634 x 2
D. 22612, 22614

37. A patient has CABG surgery. A sequential saphenous vein graft is tacked to two arteries:
obtuse marginal and left circumflex. The left subclavian artery is used for a sequential arterial
graft and is tacked to these three arteries: ramus, the diagonal, and the left anterior
descending coronary arteries. What CPT® codes are reported.
A. 33535, 33510-51
B. 33533, 33517
C. 33535, 33518
D. 33534, 33518-51

38. Patient presents for diagnostic bronchoscopy. Under general anesthesia, flexible
bronchoscopy is performed and both the right and left bronchus are examined. Following this
two transbronchial lung biopsies are taken from the right upper lobe, and one transbronchial
biopsy is taken from the right middle lobe. Another transbronchial biopsy is taken from the
left upper lobe. All are submitted separately to pathology. Report the CPT® codes.
A. 31628 x 2, 31632 x 2
B. 31628, 31632 x 2
 C. 31628, 31632 x 2, 31622-59
D. 31628 x 2, 31632 x 2, 31622-59

39. A patient presents to his oncologist with difficulty breathing. He is currently being treated for
left lung cancer. He is diagnosed with left pleural effusion due to lung metastasis to the pleura
and a decision is made to perform a left thoracentesis. Using imaging guidance, a needle is
inserted into the pleural and 300 cc of fluid is drained. Because there is so much fluid, the
oncologist decides to insert a tunneled pleural catheter with cuff. Using the same
thoracentesis needle, a guidewire is inserted and the catheter is threaded over the guidewire
and placed into the pleural cavity under fluoroscopic guidance. The distal end of the catheter
is then tunneled and the cuff is inflated. The cuff is secured with two silk sutures and a
bandage is applied. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?
A. 32550
B. 32556
C. 32550, 75989-26
D. 32557

40. A lesion was found in the upper left lung. The patient presents for a biopsy. After induction
of general endotracheal anesthesia, the patient was placed in semi-lateral position with left
side up and prepped. A thoracoscope was introduced and a diagnostic wedge biopsy was
performed and the specimen was sent for frozen section. The report came back as cancer, and
a thoracoscopic left lung segmentectomy was performed. Report the CPT® code(s).
A. 32663-LT
B. 32669-LT
C. 32669-LT, 32608-59
D. 32666-LT

41. Report removal and replacement of a permanent implantable defibrillator system with dual
transvenous leads.
A. 33249
B. 33249, 33243-51, 33241-51
C. 33249, 33244-51, 33241-51
D. 33262

42. A patient receiving chemotherapy for left upper-inner quadrant breast cancer via a left
tunneled central venous catheter with port is admitted to outpatient surgery for a check of
the line which is partially obstructed. Using fluoroscopy a fibrin sheath is removed via a
separate puncture. Removal of the fibrin sheath does not increase the central line flow, so the
decision is made to replace the tunneled central line with subcutaneous port, through the
same venous access. Report the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes.
A. 36561, 36596-51, T80.219A, C50.212
B. 36582, 36595-51, T82.598A, C50.212
C. 36582, T82.598A, C50.212
D. 36563, T80.219A, C50.212
43. A 55 year-old male presents to the outpatient surgery center for ERCP with cholangiography.
A stricture of the common bile duct is found and the decision is made to perform balloon
dilation and placed two side-by-side stents in the common bile duct. Report the service.
A. 43277, 43274
 B. 43275 x 2, 43274 x 2
C. 43276
D. 43274, 43274-59

44. The patient is a 68 year-old male with morbid obesity that presented with small bowel
obstruction. He had laparoscopic surgery with partial bowel resection seven days ago. He has
returned with complications having severe abdominal pain and concern of another bowel
obstruction. He has returned to the operating room where a midline incision is made and he
is found to have necrosis of the anastomosis site. The anastomosis was reopened and
approximately 6 inches of large intestine was removed from each end. Reanastomosis was
then performed and the abdomen was closed. Report the CPT® code.
A. 44130-58
B. 44202-58
C. 44204-78
D. 44140-78

45. A gastroenterologist performs a screening colonoscopy on a 55 year-old patient. All parts of

the colon up to and including the terminal ileum were examined. Four polyps were found in
the descending colon, varying from 8 mm to 10 mm. These were resected by snare technique.
Two smaller polyps in the descending colon were removed by hot biopsy forceps. Report the
CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes.
A. 45385 x 4, 45384-59 x 2, Z12.11, D12.4
B. 45385, 45384-59, Z12.11, D12.4
C. 45385, 45384-59, 45378-59, D12.4, Z12.11
D. 45385, 45384-59, D12.4

46. A 44-year-old female presents for a hemorrhoidectomy. A rubber band ligation of two internal
hemorrhoids is performed. After this a thrombosed external hemorrhoid was excised.
Bleeding is controlled with cautery, and the area is left open for drainage. Report the CPT®
codes.
A. 46945, 46255-51
B. 46221, 46250-51
C. 46221, 46320-51
D. 46945, 46320-51

47. A 66-year-old patient is anesthetized and draped. The radiologist places a catheter through
the skin into the bile duct to drain the bile. Contrast is then injected and cholangiography is
performed. Using ultrasound imaging the radiologist documents the presence of sludge and a
stone in the common bile duct. The radiologist secures the external end of the catheter with
a suture and attaches the catheter to an external drainage bag. Report the CPT® code(s).
A. 47536
B. 47531, 76942-26
C. 47533, 76942-26
D. 47533

48. A 42 year-old is in the OR for emergent surgery to remove her appendix. The surgeon makes
an incision around the umbilicus and two in the lower abdomen with insertion of trocars. A
laparoscope is inserted and severs the appendix removing it with forceps. She is diagnosed
 with acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are
reported?
A. 44970, K35.80, K65.9
B. 44960, K35.20
C. 44970, K35.30
D. 44950, K35.30

49. A 37 year-old female is in the hospital ambulatory surgery center for treatment of two tumors
on her right kidney. The patient is placed in a prone position in the CT scanner and local
anesthetic is injected in the kidney area of the lower back. Using CT guidance, the physician
inserts a cryoprobe into the tumor. Cryotherapy is applied for 10 minutes. The cryoprobe is
adjusted to another location of the tumor and cryotherapy applied for 10 minutes. The probe
is removed and a dressing is applied to area where the cryoprobe was inserted. The correct
CPT® code is:
A. 50592, 77013-26
B. 50593, 77013-26
C. 50593 x 2, 77013-26
D. 50593-50, 77013-26

50. A five-week old male is seen for a circumcision. After local anesthesia, the foreskin is pulled
away from the body of the penis and the foreskin is surgical excised. An antibiotic ointment
was applied to the penis and bandage placed. Select the appropriate code for this surgery:
A. 54150
B. 54160
C. 54161
D. 54164

51. A 35 year-old male has been seeing the urologist for infertility. The urologist schedules an
examination of the right and left vas deferens for possible blockage. After the patient is
prepped and anesthetized, the surgeon makes an incision in the scrotum. The vas deferens is
incised to provide access for the injection of contrast media. The vas deferens is separated
from adjacent spermatic cord structures and isolated. He then inserts a Foley catheter and an
air-filled balloon is used to prevent reflux of contrast medium into the bladder. Contrast media
is injected into the seminal vesicles and epididymis to determine any obstruction. At the
conclusion, the surgeon irrigates the area, checks for bleeding, removes any instruments, and
closes the incision. Select the appropriate code for this procedure.
A. 55300-50, 74440-26
B. 55300-22, 74440-26
C. 55300, 74440-26
D. 55300-RT, 55300-LT, 74440-26

52. A 26-year-old female, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to hospital for the planned delivery
of her second child. Her first pregnancy resulted in a cesarean delivery. Her wish is to attempt
a vaginal delivery, and after a short labor a healthy baby girl was delivered. The obstetrician
who delivered the baby also provided the antepartum care and will follow the patient for
postpartum care. Code the delivery and the diagnoses for the maternal record.
A. 59610, O34.219, Z37.0, Z3A.37
B. 59618, O34.219, Z38.00, Z3A.37
 C. 59620, O34.219, Z38.00, Z3A.37
D. 59612, O34.219, Z37.0, Z3A.37

53. A patient presents to the operating suite for a transurethral resection of bladder tumors. A
cystourethroscope is passed through the urethra into the bladder revealing the right trigone
and lateral wall of the bladder and two tumors are visualized. The smallest tumor is 2.5 cm
and the largest tumor measures 5.5 cm. The tumors are excised with no perforations to the
bladder. What CPT® code is (are) reported?
A. 52240 x 2
B. 52235
C. 52240, 52235
D. 52240

54. A 35-year-old with an abnormal pap smear of the cervix is scheduled for a cervical conization.
The provider determines the size of the lesion and places a grounding pad. Lidocaine is
injected into the cervix. A loop electrode is used to excise the lesion. Bleeding is controlled
with electrocautery and the patient is taken to the recovery room. Code the procedure and
the diagnosis.
A. 57520, R87.619
B. 57460, R87.618
C. 57522, R87.619
D. 57461, R87.618

55. A patient with chronic lower back pain is seen in the outpatient clinic for L4-L5 facet joint
denervation bilaterally. Two nerves innervating L4-L5 facet joint on the right were targeted
with cooled radiofrequency with a default setting of 60 degree Celsius with fluoroscopic
guidance. The procedure was repeated on the left. Report the CPT® code(s)?
A. 64999-50
B. 64635-50, 64636-50
C. 64635-50
D. 64999

56. A 70 year-old with severe cervical stenosis with right arm pain and numbness presents for C5
and C6 laminoplasties. Report the CPT® code(s).
A. 63050 x 2
B. 63045, 63048
C. 63045-50, 63048-50
D. 63050

57. The patient was diagnosed with nuclear sclerotic cataract in the right eye. She was taken to
the operating room and an extracapsular cataract extraction using a cutting and suction
technique with an intraocular lens insertion in the right eye was performed. Capsule support
was insufficient and the surgeon had to suture the lens behind the iris to keep it in place. What
CPT® code is reported?
A. 66982-RT
B. 66984-RT
C. 66940-RT
D. 66985-RT
58. A CT scan reveals that a 30-year-old man has a posterior fossa abscess. Six months ago, he
was crossing a parking lot and was hit by a car and sustained a head injury with loss of
consciousness for two days. He has regained his pre-existing mental state. During his hospital
stay he developed pneumonia, and the abscess is due to his traumatic injury and his
complication of pneumonia. He underwent craniotomy for excision of the posterior fossa
brain abscess. Pathology identified the abscess as MSSA staphylococcus aureus. What CPT®
and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
A. 61522, G06.0, B95.61, B94.8, S06.9X5S
B. 61321, G06.0, A49.01, B94.8, S06.9X5S
C. 61320, G06.0, B95.61, B94.8, S06.9X5S
D. 61514, G06.0, A94.01, B94.8, S06.9X5

59. A patient two weeks ago had a right partial thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. He has a planned
return to the OR in undergoing complete removal of the remaining right thyroid by the same
surgeon, because the margins were not clear of cancer for the last surgery. Report the CPT®
and ICD-10-CM.
A. 60271-58, C73, Z85.850
B. 60240-78-RT, Z85.850
C. 60260-58-RT, C73
D. 60260-78, C73

60. This patient had a lumbar laminectomy with fusion five years ago and has been treated during
the last year in the pain clinic for chronic low back pain. She underwent a trial program with a
neurostimulator which helped, and she now presents for placement of a permanent lumbar
neurostimulator generator. Under MAC anesthesia, the patient is placed in prone position.
After infiltration with local anesthetic, a small incision is made in the upper right buttock area.
The previously placed leads are tunneled under the skin and attached to the new generator.
The generator is placed in the skin pocket and the skin is closed with two-layer closure and
subcuticular skin sutures. Report the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes.
A. 63685, G89.29, M54.5, Z98.1
B. 63663, G89.29, M54.4, Z98.1
C. 63650, G89.29, M54.4, Z98.1
D. 63688, G89.29, M54.5, Z98.1

61. The patient is 25 weeks pregnant with triplets. The OB/GYN performs a transabdominal
ultrasound to assess heart rate and fetal position. How is this service coded?
A. 76816 x 3
B. 76815 x 3
C. 76815
D. 76801, 76802 x 3

62. A urologist suspects hydronephrosis in a 45 year-old female and performs an ultrasound in his
office. An ultrasound is performed on both kidneys, the ureters and the bladder. The urologist
owns his equipment and interprets the ultrasound and writes a report in the patient’s chart.
His findings confirm hydronephrosis of the left renal pelvis and he schedules the patient for
cystoscopy and ureteropyleography. The physician will bill the service as:
A. 76770-26-TC
 B. 76770-26
C. 76770-TC
D. 76770

63. A bilateral mammogram was performed on the left and right breasts to analyze lesions
detected on a screening mammogram. What CPT® code is reported?
A. 77065-50
B. 77066
C. 77066-50
D. 77067-50

64. Patient is undergoing radiation treatment. He has two treatments daily for 5 days at 8 AM and
4 PM and then one treatment per day at 8 AM for five days. The entire radiation treatment
started on Monday, June 1 and ended on Friday, June 12th with a total of 15 treatments. The
oncologist examined the patient, reviewed port films, reviewed the dosimetry, dose delivery,
and treatment parameters, and patient set up and signed all documentation for the treatment
on each day of treatment. How are these services for the entire span of the treatment
reported?
A. 77427
B. 77427 x 3
C. 77427 x 15
D. 77427 x 5

65. A patient is taken to the inpatient cardiac cath lab and after 1% Lidocaine injection, a left
femoral artery puncture is performed. A catheter is advanced into the aorta to a position just
above the renal arteries. Contrast is injected and aortography is performed. The catheter is
then manipulated into the right common iliac and contrast is injected. The catheter then is
pulled back to the left common iliac and contrast is injected. The physician documents that
there is moderate arteriosclerosis of the abdominal aorta with a 5 cm aneurysm just below
the renal arteries. Both the right and left iliacs of the lower extremities show stenosis of 50%
in the common iliacs. There is narrowing of 40% in the right superficial femoral artery. What
CPT® codes are reported for the physician’s services?
A. 36245, 75630-26, 75716-26
B. 36245, 75625-26, 75716-26
C. 36245, 75630-26, 75710-26
D. 36245, 75625-26, 75710-26

66. Magnetic resonance imaging of the heart for morphology and function is first performed
without contrast followed by contrast, with stress imaging. Velocity flow mapping was also
performed. A cardiologist contracted by the hospital (not an employee of the hospital)
provided the supervision and interpretation for the procedure. What are the CPT® codes
reported for the cardiologist?
A. 75561-26, 75565-26, 93015
B. 75563-26, 75565-26, 93016, 93018
C. 75563-26, 75565-26, 93015
D. 75561-26, 75565-26, 93016, 93018
67. Sharon Smith’s new employer requires drug screening for amphetamines, opiates and TCH.
The lab performs a presumptive drug test that is read by instrument assisted direct optical
observation. How will the lab code for this test?
A. 80305, Z02.83
B. 80306, Z02.83
C. 80306, Z02.1
D. 80306 x 3, Z02.1

68. A surgeon excised a breast lesion on patient with suspected breast cancer. The lesion was
removed and sent to the lab for stat evaluation. The surgeon will keep the patient in the OR
until the results are determined by the pathologist. Using gross and microscopic examination,
with microscopic evaluation of the surgical margins, the lesion was determined to be
malignant. The margins were clear. The pathologist contacted the surgeon in the OR to discuss
the results and a report was immediately generated. What codes are reported for this
encounter?
A. 88307, 88329
B. 88305, 88329
C. 88305, 88331
D. 88307, 88325

69. A female patient has jaw pain and sharp upper body pain. An EKG was performed showing
elevated S-T segments. Lab orders are given for one serial, total CPK enzyme levels and two
more subsequent labs of the total CPK. How do you code for the lab procedures?
A. 82550, 82550-76 x 2 units
B. 82552, 82552-91 x 2 units
C. 82550, 82550-91 x 2 units
D. 82550 x 3 units

70. A 40-year-old woman has been trying to get pregnant for 3 years. After consultation with her
gynecologist, she decides to begin in vitro fertilization (IVF). During one of her IVF cycles, an
embryo is harvested for cryopreservation and storage. What CPT® codes are used for this
procedure?
A. 89258, 89342
B. 89352, 89356
C. 89258, 89346
D. 89342, 89346

71. A comprehensive metabolic panel to evaluate metabolic process in the body and a 24–hour
urine for total protein for a patient that has Type 1 diabetes with complications are sent to
the lab. What CPT® coding is reported by the lab?
A. 80053
B. 80053, 84156
C. 80053, 84160
D. 80053, 84155

72. A 32-year-old female was poisoned. An autopsy is performed to gather and preserve evidence
for the police investigation and court of law. What code is reported?
A. 88040
 B. 88036
C. 80500
D. 88323

73. A patient with meningitis receives an intravenous infusion of 1000mg of Rocephin. The
infusion time is two hours. How is this reported?
A. 96365, J0715 x 2
B. 96369, J0715 x 2
C. 96369, 96370, J0715 x 2
D. 96365, 96366, J0715 X 2

74. Mr. Baker sees the ophthalmologist for the first time for an eye exam. The ophthalmologist
obtains medical history from Mr. Baker and performs a general medical examination which
includes an external and ophthalmoscopic exam, gross visual fields, biomicroscopy,
tonometry and refraction. The correct CPT® codes for this encounter are:
A. 92014, 92015
B. 92004, 92015
C. 92004, 92015, 92081
D. 92014, 92015, 92081

75. Anna will be studying in Panama during the fall term of her senior year in college. It is
recommended she be up-to-date on her immunizations and receive Hep A and Typhoid as
well. She verifies she is up-to-date with her immunizations and makes an appt to get the Hep
A and Typhoid vaccines. At her visit, the MA administers the Hep A adolescent dosage-2 dose
schedule, IM and typhoid vaccine, IM. What codes are reported for the vaccinations?
A. 90634, 90691, 90471 x 2
B. 90633, 90690, 90460, 90461
C. 90633, 90691, 90471, 90472
D. 90634, 90690, 90471, 90472

76. Mary was recently divorced after 20 years of marriage. She is having trouble adjusting to this
new lifestyle and schedules an appointment with a clinical psychologist to help her with this
transition. Her first psychotherapy visit is 45 minutes. How would the psychologist code the
visit?
A. 90833-AH
B. 90839-AH
C. 90832-AH
D. 90834-AH

77. Mark returned from a 3-day business trip with an itchy rash on his scalp, trunk, arms and legs.
The OTC treatments he tried have not helped. He suspects he is allergic to something from his
hotel room. He makes an appointment with an allergist to see if he can get some relief and to
determine what he’s allergic to. The allergist applies three patches to Mark’s back containing
a group of test substances. Mark is to return in 48 hours for the allergist to remove the patches
and examine the skin. The results indicate Mark has allergic contact dermatitis caused by
laundry soap. The laundry soap used by the hotel is most likely the cause. What CPT® coding
is reported?
A. 95052 x 3
 B. 95044
C. 95052
D. 95044 x 3

78. A 55 year-old female has experienced several episodes of chest tightness. Her provider
ordered a PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty) of the left circumflex
coronary artery. The procedure revealed atherosclerosis in the native vessel and an
atherectomy and insertions of a stent are also performed. What procedure code(s) is (are)
reported?
A. 92920-LC, 92928-LC, 92933-LC
B. 92933-LC, 92934-LC
C. 92933-LC
D. 92924-LC

79. Edward, a 71 year-old patient with hypertensive heart disease and diabetes, requires coronary
artery bypass with pump oxygenator. Dr. Blake, the anesthesiologist, documents PS 4 and
performs general endotracheal anesthesia. Report Dr. Blake’s service.
A. 00562-AA-P4, 99100
B. 00562-QY-P4
C. 00567-AA-P4
D. 00567-AA-P4, 99100

80. A 42 year-old male with type 2 diabetes (PS 2) undergoes ERCP for stent placement in the
common bile duct under general anesthesia. The anesthesia was provided by a CRNA under
the medical direction of an anesthesiologist directing 4 other CRNAs concurrently. What does
the CRNA report?
A. 00732-QK-P2
B. 00811-QK-P2
C. 00732-QX-P2
D. 00811 QX-P2

81. A 25 year-old patient had anesthesia for a craniectomy to drain a subdural hematoma under
general anesthesia. The anesthesiologist performed all required steps for medical direction
while directing one CRNA. What modifier(s) and CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the
anesthesiologist and CRNA services?
A. 00211-QY and 00211-QX
B. 00210-AA
C. 00210-QK and 00210-QZ
D. 00211-QK and 00211-QX

82. A 55-year-old with PS 3 had the insertion of a dual pacemaker performed under MAC
anesthesia provided by an anesthesiologist. The total anesthesia time was one hour and 15
minutes. Report the services of the anesthesiologist.
A. 00530-AA-QS-P3
B. 00530-AA-P3
C. 00530-QY-QS-P3
D. 00530-AD-P3
83. Two-year old Mitchell is brought to the ED with a foreign body lodged in his left ear. Mitchell
is uncooperative and moderate sedation is needed to remove the foreign body. The ED
physician uses Ketamine IV for sedation and a registered nurse is present to monitor the
patient. The patient was monitored for 30 minutes of sedation and the ED physician was
successful in removing a glass bead from Mitchell’s ear. What moderate sedation codes are
reported for the ED physician?
A. 99155, 99157
B. 99156, 99157
C. 99151, 99153
D. 99152, 99153

84. This 60 year-old female patient is seen on day three of her hospitalization for pneumonia and
dehydration. She is responding well to antibiotics and is tolerating oral fluids. I will keep her
here for two more days and consider discharge at that time. An expanded problem focused
interval history, a detailed exam and low medical decision making was documented in the
patient’s chart. What E/M service is reported?
A. 99221
B. 99233
C. 99232
D. 99234

85. Anna is a healthy 3 year-old who is seeing Dr. Baker for the first time for a well-child visit. The
mother says the child recently started pre-school two days a week and cries when she leaves.
She was assured this will most likely be temporary until Anna becomes familiar with the
teacher and other students. Dr. Baker advised the mother that Anna will be exposed to more
childhood diseases now that she is in pre-school and to call the office if she has any concerns.
A comprehensive exam was documented and a review of Anna’s immunization record from
her previous pediatrician. She is up to date on her immunizations. The next well-child visit
will be at 4 years. A vision and hearing screening will be done at that visit as well as DTaP, IPV,
Varicella, MMR immunizations. What E/M service is report?
A. 99392
B. 99205
C. 99202
D. 99382

86. A 23-month-old critically ill child is admitted to the PICU from the ER with respiratory failure
by the admitting provider. The provider performs endotracheal intubation and pharmacologic
support along with cardiovascular monitoring in the PICU. The provider documents a
comprehensive history and exam and orders are written after treatment is initiated. What is
the CPT ® code for this encounter?
A. 99471
B. 99291
C. 99285-25, 31500
D. 99475-25, 31500

87. A 55 year-old patient is seen in an office visit by an otolaryngologist, Dr. Nettles, at the request
of her primary care provider for sudden hearing loss. The patient experienced sudden vertigo
 ten days ago accompanied by hearing loss in the right ear. The patient has no history of vertigo
or ear infections. An MRI of the brain is ordered. Dr. Nettles suspects her vertigo may be due
to a virus of the 8th cranial nerve and with time, her hearing may return. Quarterly hearing
tests are recommended to monitor hearing in the left ear. If there is little or no improvement,
a bone anchored hearing aid is an option. A report is sent to the primary care provider. A
comprehensive history, expanded problem focused exam and moderate medical decision
making was documented. What E/M service is reported?
A. 99204
B. 99252
C. 99244
D. 99242

88. A teenage soccer player hits her head during a game and is admitted to observation to watch
for signs of head trauma. The patient was observed for 6 hours, and other than a headache,
she displayed no other signs of a head injury such as confusion, lightheadedness, nausea, dizzy
or ringing in her ears. She was discharged with information on head trauma and the
symptoms and told to go to the ER if she has any further symptoms.
Observation Admit date/time: 06/10/20XX 4:00 PM
Detailed History, Comprehensive Exam, High MDM
Observation Discharge date/time: 06/10/20XX 10:15 PM
What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the Observation Care?
A. 99234
B. 99236
C. 99218, 99217
D. 99221, 99238

89. A physician provided a limited follow-up inpatient telehealth consultation. How would this be
reported?
A. G0407
B. G0425
C. G0408
D. G0406

90. John noticed several small, crusty bumps on his scalp and made an appointment with a
dermatologist. The dermatologist diagnosed the bumps as actinic keratoses and
recommended treatment with a combination of Aminolevulinic Acid HCL and photodynamic
therapy. What HCPCS Level II code and route of administration is used for Aminolevulinic Acid
HCL?
A. J0280, IV
B. J7309, IM
C. J7309, SC
D. J7308, OTH
91. Tom was recently diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. His physician recommends he attend self-
management training and schedules it for the following week. Tom attends a one hour
individual self-training at the hospital outpatient department. How would this be reported?
A. G0109 x 2
B. G0108
 C. G0109
D. G0108 x 2

92. Preoperative Diagnosis: Tumor of the left tongue.

Operative Diagnosis: Tumor of the left tongue.
Procedure: Glossectomy to a portion of left side of tongue
Anesthesia: General
Procedure: After adequate general anesthesia was obtained and the patient intubated with a
nasal tracheal tube, the tongue was grasped with a towel clip and a self-retaining mouth
retractor inserted. The tongue was retracted from the oral cavity and a suture ligature was
placed at the far side of the lesion at the anterior tonsillar pillar, and a second traction suture
was placed on the anterior portion of the tongue opposite the towel clip. Then using the
carbon dioxide laser on medium high wattage, the lesion was excised taking a through-and-
through incision, with the carbon dioxide laser in which less than half of the left side of the
tongue. Hemostasis was assured by individual ligature of 2-0 black silk and use of the carbon
dioxide laser as the electrosurgical unit. Frozen sections were taken. The tumor was sent as a
frozen section to the pathologist. The defect of the tongue is closed with sutures. The patient
tolerated the procedure well and left the operating room in good condition. What is the CPT®
code reported?
A. 41120
B. 41110
C. 41140
D. 41135

93. PROCEDURE: Lumbar epidural corticosteroid injection.

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSES:
Displacement with myelopathy.
Degeneration of lumbar disc.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSES:
Displacement with myelopathy.
Degeneration of lumbar disc.
ANESTHESIA: Local
PROCEDURE IN DETAIL: The patient was then placed is sitting position on the table in the
outpatient surgical suite. The lumbar area was prepped with a Betadine solution and draped
in the usual sterile fashion. The lumbar vertebrae were identified. The L3-L4 interspace was
identified and skin infiltrated with 1 cc of 1% lidocaine. An 18-gauge Tuohy needle was used
to enter the epidural space with loss of resistance technique. No heme, CSF, or paresthesia
were noted during needle placement. Total volume of 5 cc of 80 mg methylprednisolone and
preservative free saline were injected with ease. Motor function was monitored by having
patient move toes. The needle was removed without difficulty.
The patient tolerated procedure without difficulty and was tested and found to be without
sensory or motor deficits.
What procedure code(s) is (are) reported?
A. 62322, 77003-26
B. 62323
C. 62322
D. 62326
 94. Chief Complaint: Rash
HPI: A 30-year-old male patient is seen in our office today for a rash on his arms and chest for
the last 3 days. We last saw this patient 4 years ago for removal of a skin lesion. The patient
has an ongoing sinus infection and was seen by his PCP last week who prescribed Amoxicillin.
The rash started 1 day after he started the medication.
ROS: No nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No dizziness or headaches.
Past History: Tonsillectomy
Family History: Mother is a diabetic
Physical Exam
Vitals: T-98.6 BP-120/80
Constitutional: No acute distress
Eyes: PERRL
Respiratory: Clear
Skin: Both arms has red patches. Rest of body is clear
Assessment: Amoxicillin drug reaction, discontinue use of Amoxicillin
Plan: I advised the patient to contact his PCP to see if a change in the antibiotic should be
considered and to purchase an over-the-counter antihistamine to relieve the itching and
redness from the rash.
Which E/M service is reported for the office visit?
A. 99213
B. 99202
C. 99203
D. 99212

95. Chief Complaint: Right knee pain

History: A 55-year-old female returning to the orthopedic office still complaining of right knee
pain. She has had knee pain since her knee replacement 6 months ago and the pain has been
increasing. No other muscle pains.
Exam
Constitutional: No acute distress
Right Knee: Full range of motion. No tenderness.
The patient is concerned about the thrombosis or joint infection. 25-minutes of total time was
spent in counseling the patient on what the symptoms would be if she had an infection or
thrombosis and answering further questions. She was reassured that her pain was an overuse
condition, and she was instructed to ice her knee twice a day and avoid stairs.
Assessment: Right knee pain.
What E/M service is reported for this established office visit?
A. 99212
B. 99213
C. 99214
D. 99215
96.
Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same.
Operation: Mohs micrographic surgery.
Indications: The patient has a biopsy proven basal cell carcinoma on the nasal tip measuring 8 x 7 mm. Due
to its location,
Mohs surgery is indicated. Mohs surgical procedure was explained including other therapeutic options, and
the inherent risks
 of bleeding, scar formation, reaction to local anesthesia, cosmetic deformity, recurrence, infection, and
nerve damage. Informed
consent was obtained and the patient underwent fresh tissue Mohs surgery as follows.
STAGE I: |5| The site of the skin cancer was identified concurrently by both the patient and doctor and
marked with a surgical pen; the margins of the excision were delineated with the marking pen. The patient
was placed supine on the operating table. The area identified for excision was cleaned, draped and
infiltrated with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000. The area of the tumor and margins were marked
for excision. Additional soft tissue markings were created to keep the specimen oriented with the excision
site. Hemostasis was obtained by electrocautery. A pressure dressing was placed. The tissue was divided
into two tissue blocks| which were mapped, color coded at their margins, and sent to the technician for
frozen sectioning. The surgeon examined the tissue and no microscopic tumor was found persisting in the
tumor margins on the tissue blocks. Following surgery, the defect measured 10 x 13 mm to the
subcutaneous tissue. Closure will be done by the Dr. Hill from Plastics with a Burow’s graft.
Condition at Termination of Therapy: Carcinoma was removed.
Pathology report is on file.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A. 17311, C34.311 B. 17313, C34.311 C. 17311, 17312 C34.312,C34.311 D. 17313,

17314

97.

Preoperative Diagnosis: Painful L2 vertebral non-traumatic compression fracture.

Postoperative Diagnosis: Painful L2 vertebral non-traumatic compression fracture.

Name of Operation: L2 kyphoplasty.

Findings Preoperatively: She had compression fractures at T11 and L1 for which she previously underwent a
kyphoplasty. She initially had very good results, but then developed back pain once again. The repeat MRI
two weeks later showed that she had fresh high intensity signal changes in the body of L2 and some scalloping
of the superior end plate, consistent with a compression fracture at L2. After some preoperative discussions
and patience to see if she would get better, she was admitted to the hospital for L2 kyphoplasty when she did
not improve. At surgery, L2 had some scalloping of the superior end plate. Most of the softness was in the
back part of the vertebral body.

Procedure: The patient was taken to the operating room and placed under general endotracheal anesthesia
in a supine position.She was then placed prone on the Jackson table and her back was prepped and draped in
the usual sterile fashion. Using biplane image intensifiers, the skin incision sites were marked. 0.5% Marcaine
with epinephrine was injected. Initially on the left side,A Kyphon trocar was passed down to the superior
lateral edge of the pedicle, through the pedicle, and into the vertebral body in the usual fashion. The drill was
placed into the vertebral body followed by the Kyphon bone tamp. In a similar fashion, the same thing was
done on the other side. Balloons were inflated uneventfully. The balloons were then deflated and removed,
and the cement (when it was in the doughy state) was injected into the two sides in the usual fashion. This
was done carefully and sequentially to make sure there were no cement extrusions, which, after inspection,
there were none. There was a good fill to the vertebral body edges, up towards the superior end plate, and
across the midline. The bone filling devices were removed, and the trocars were removed. Pressure was
applied after which the skin was sutured with 4-0 nylon. Band-Aids were applied and she was taken to
recovery in stable condition.

Complications: There were no complications.

Blood Loss: Minimal blood loss.

Counts: Sponge and needle counts were correct.

What are the CPT codes Reported ?

A. 22514 B. 22513 C. 22511 D. 22224

98.
Preoperative Diagnosis: Malignant neoplasm glottis.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Malignant neoplasm glottis. |1|
Procedure: An incision is made low in the neck. The trachea is identified in the middle and an opening
is created to allow for the new breathing passage. A tracheostomy |2| tube is inserted and secured
with sutures. The patient tolerated the procedure well and was sent to recovery without
complications. What are the CPT codes Reported ?
A. 31603 B. 31610 C. 31600 D. 31605

99. Preoperative Diagnosis: Sinus of Valsalva aneurysm on the left coronary sinus.
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same.
Operation: Repair sinus of Valsalva aneurysm with pericardial patch.
Procedure: The patient was taken to the operating room and placed supine on the table. After general
endotracheal anesthesia was induced, rectal temperature probe, a Foley catheter and TEE probe
were placed. The extremities were padded in the appro priate fashion. Her neck, chest, abdomen,
and legs were prepared and draped in standard surgical fashion. The chest was opened through a
standard median sternotomy. The patient was fully heparinized and placed on cardiopulmonary
bypass. At this point, we started to open the pericardium. We were met with a large amount of
dense adhesions and some fluid that was blood-tinged, salmon colored, and it was cultured. Tonsil
clamps were placed on the inferior portion of the pericardial sac and we used Bovie cautery and
Metzenbaum scissors to take down all the adhesions laterally, exposing the right atrium first and
then the aorta. There were some lighter adhesions over the left ventricle, which were broken with
finger dissection. There was a moderate amount of fluid in different pockets that were suctioned
free. There was no evidence of frank blood. After dissecting out the right atrium, we dissected out
the aorta circumferentially using Bovie cautery and Metzenbaum scissors. We then freed up the
entire LV and the apex, as well as the inferior and lateral borders of the heart. After this, we then
checked the activated clotting time (ACT), which was greater than 550. The ascending aorta was
cannulated without difficulty. A dual stage venous cannula was placed in the right atrium. Retrograde
cardioplegia was placed in the right atrium through the coronary sinus, and antegrade cardioplegia
was placed in the ascending aorta. After the patient was on bypass, we completed dissection. We
looked through the superior pulmonary vein. It appeared to be densely adhesed, so we opted to vent
through the apex of the LV. We proceeded to flush our lines, cooled to 32 degrees. Once we had a
nice arrest we opened the aorta. An aortotomy was created in standard fashion, the area was tacked
back, and we were able to identify the aneurysm in question. There was a large amount of thrombus
and it was removed. There was also some mural thrombus which was laminar and stuck to the
aneurysm, and I elected not to debride this area. This defect apparently took up the entire left of the
sinus of Valsalva. The coronary was probed and there was approximately 2–3 mm rim of tissue
beneath the coronary to sew to, and the valve was intact. The aortic valve was intact, and there was
a rim of tissue just lateral to the annulus for us to sew to. After debriding and irrigating, we sized a
bovine pericardial patch and sutured it in place with 4-0 Prolene suture. This was done in a running
fashion, working from the annulus up towards the coronary artery underneath the coronary, and
then around laterally and superiorly, sewing through the aortic tissue. We now successfully excluded
the aneurysm and packed the entire sinus. We gave cardioplegia in a retrograde fashion, with nice
flow back from the left main. We inspected the repair and it was competent. We irrigated one more
 time and closed the We irrigated one more time and closed the aorta, de-aired the heart with
standard maneuvers, and removed the cross-clamp. We then weaned the patient off of bypass
and re-warmed the patient. There was no aortic insufficiency, good function of the aortic valve, and
no flow into the aneurysm anymore, with a nice patch repair. We closed the chest with stainless steel
wires, the fascia was closed with Vicryl sutures, and subcutaneous tissue and skin were closed in
similar fashion aorta, de-aired the heart with standard maneuvers, and removed the cross-clamp.
We then weaned the patient off of bypass and re-warmed the patient. There was no aortic
insufficiency, good function of the aortic valve, and no flow into the aneurysm anymore, with a nice
patch repair. We closed the chest with stainless steel wires, the fascia was closed with Vicryl sutures,
and subcutaneous tissue and skin were closed in similar fashion. What are the cpt codes reported ?
A. 33720 B. 33702 C. 33722 D. 33710

100.Operative Note

Preoperative Diagnosis: Desire for circumcision.

Postoperative Diagnosis: Desire for circumcision.

Procedure: Circumcision. Anesthesia: General.

Indications: The patient is a 19 year-old white male, sexually active for two years. He requests
circumcision. He understands the risks and benefits of circumcision.

Procedure Description: The patient is a 19-year-old, white male, sexually active for two years. He requests
circumcision. He understands the risks and benefits of circumcision.

Procedure description: The patient was brought to the operating room and placed on the operating room
table in the supine position. After adequate LMA anesthesia was accomplished, he was given a dorsal
penile block and a modified ring block with 0. 25% Marcaine plain.

Two circumferential incisions were made around the patient’s penis to allow for the maximal aesthetic
result. Adequate hemostasis was then achieved with the Bovie, and the skin edges were re-approximated
using 4-0 chromic simple interrupted sutures with a U-stitch at the frenulum.

The patient was extubated and taken to the recovery room in good condition.

Disposition: The patient was taken to the post anesthesia care unit and then discharged home.

What are the cpt codes reported?

A. 54160 B.54161 C. 54150 D. 54162