ENT MCQ

Youssef Sabry

This includes:
Past Exams 2020 – 2021

Past Exams 2012 – 2017

 Ear MCQ
1. Indications for Ear Wash Include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ear Wax
b. Non-impacted foreign body
c. Vegetable foreign body
d. Fungal mass

2. A 19-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of itching in the ear. On

examination, the canal was full of white debris with blackish spots. The diagnosis
is:
a. Malignant Otitis Externa
b. Otomycosis
c. Acute Otitis Externa
d. Referred Pain (Otalgia)
e. Acute Mastoiditis

3. In Malignant Otitis Externa:

a. The organism is Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
b. Patient is diabetic with low immunity
c. Pathology is microangiopathy leading to osteomyelitis of skull base
d. Treatment is quinolones
e. All of the above

4. A 20-year-old male suffered a blow to the right side of his head by a blunt
object. Then, he had few drops of blood coming from right ear with diminution of
hearing. On examination, a perforation was seen in his right tympanic membrane.
The edges were ragged and irregular, with blood clots around. Management of
this case is:
a. Nothing per ear until spontaneous healing
b. Ear wash to remove any blood clots or debris
c. Hearing aid fitting
d. Immediate Myringoplasty
e. Ear exploration under general anesthesia

5. Acute Mastoiditis may present by any of the following EXCEPT:

a. Sagging of posterosuperior meatal wall
b. Reservoir Sign
c. Ear drum perforation
d. Granulations on the floor of external auditory meatus
6. Treatment of Auricular Hematoma is:
a. Excision
b. Cautery
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Evacuation

7. Treatment of Otosclerosis is:

a. Radical Mastoidectomy
b. Myringoplasty
c. Myringotomy and ventilation tube insertion
d. Cortical Mastoidectomy
e. Stapedectomy and Teflon piston insertion

8. In left middle ear effusion, Weber’s test will be:

a. Centralized
b. Lateralized to the right
c. Lateralized to the left
d. Reduced positive

9. Medial wall of the middle ear:

a. Separates the attic from the middle cranial fossa
b. Contains the opening of the eustachian tube
c. Separates the middle ear from the jugular bulb
d. Contains both the oval window and the round window
e. None of the above

10. All of the following are characteristic clinical features of Meniere’s Disease
EXCEPT:
a. Fluctuating Deafness
b. Vertigo
c. Tinnitus
d. Loss of Consciousness
e. Vomiting

11. An intracranial complication of CSOM is:

a. Bezold’s abscess
b. Extradural abscess
c. Mastoiditis
d. Labyrinth Fistula
12. Commonest cause of Facial Paralysis is:
a. Bell’s Palsy
b. Mastoid Surgery
c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
d. Trauma to facial nerve

13. A 6-year-old boy was brought by his parents for progressive right ear pain for
two days. This is associated with fever and runny nose. On examination, the
external canal was healthy; however, the right tympanic membrane was reddish.
Management of this condition may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Systemic Antibiotics
b. Local and Systemic pain control
c. Cold fomentation and antipyretics
d. MRI scan petrous bones to stand on the extent of disease
e. Myringotomy if not responsive to medical treatment

14. Pulsatile Tinnitus in ear is due to:

a. Malignant Otitis Externa
b. Osteoma
c. Mastoiditis
d. Glomus Jugulare Tumor

15. Cholesteatoma is characterized by:

a. Continuous mucopurulent ear discharge
b. Foul smelling ear discharge
c. Central Tympanic Membrane perforation
d. None of the above

16. A 4-year-old child presented by his mother complaining of lack of attention,

mouth breathing and hyponasality:
a. Secretory Otitis Media is suspected
b. Adenoid is suspected
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above

17. A child with retracted drum and conductive deafness after inadequate
treatment of Acute Suppurative Otitis Media is suffering from:
a. Chronic Tubotympanic Otitis Media
b. Chronic Atticoantral Otitis Media
c. Otitis Media with Effusion
d. None of the above
18. Throbbing and severe earache is present in the following stage of Acute Otitis
Media
a. Stage of salpingitis
b. Stage of Catarrhal Otitis Media
c. Stage of Suppurative Otitis Media
d. Stage of Tympanic Membrane Perforation

19. The first line of treatment in a child who develops LMN Facial Paralysis after
AOM is:
a. Antibiotics and Corticosteroids
b. Decompression of Facial Nerve
c. Exploration of Facial Nerve
d. Myringotomy

20. Which of the following statements is wrong concerning Myringotomy

operation
a. It is indicated in Acute Suppurative Otitis Media with bulging drum
b. It is indicated in Secretory Otitis Media after failure of medical treatment
c. It is better done in the postero-superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane
d. Residual perforation of the tympanic membrane is one of its complications

21. The commonest cause of Sensorineural Deafness in children is:

a. Post-meningitic
b. Congenital Cholesteatoma
c. Secretory Otitis media
d. Cochlear Otosclerosis

22. The following are manifestations of Meniere’s disease EXCEPT:

a. Vertigo
b. Posterior Reservoir Sign
c. Sensory Hearing Loss
d. Tinnitus

23. The causative organism in ear furuncle is:

a. Proteus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staph. Aureus
d. E.coli
24. In otosclerosis, the following is true EXCEPT:
a. Usually affects both ears
b. Shows more progress during pregnancy
c. Shows type As curve on Tympanometry
d. Tympanoplasty is the operation of choice
e. Family history is commonly positive

25. Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane is characterized by:

a. Irregular edges
b. Purulent discharge
c. Attic perforation
d. Congested middle ear mucosa

26. The primary goal of surgery for cholesteatoma is:

a. Hearing improvement
b. Reconstruction of the ossicular chain
c. Removal of all the disease
d. Reconstruction of the tympanic membrane

27. Treatment of a small dry Traumatic Rupture of tympanic membrane is:

a. Antibiotic ear drops
b. Myringoplasty
c. Ear pack
d. Protection of ear against water

28. The most common cause of bilateral Conductive Deafness in a child is:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Congenital Cholesteatoma
c. Adhesive Otitis Media
d. Secretory Otitis Media

29. The following have an Ototoxic effect EXCEPT:

a. Gentamycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Quinine

30. Uncontrolled diabetes in an elderly patient may predispose to

a. Cholesteatoma
b. Malignant Otitis Externa
c. Meniere’s Disease
d. Vestibular Neuritis
31. A 30-year-old female presented by bilateral gradual hearing loss, more in the
right ear. Her older sister had the same problem. On examination, a healthy intact
tympanic membrane was seen. Rinne test was negative on the right and positive
on the left. Weber test was lateralized to the right. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Ototoxicity
c. Presbycusis
d. Early Middle Ear Effusion
e. Glomus Tympanicum

32. The following fibers are present in the facial nerve EXCEPT:
a. Secreto-motor fibers to the lacrimal gland through the GSPN
b. Secreto-motor fibers to the submandibular gland through the Chorda Tympani
c. Taste sensation fibers to the anterior third of the tongue through the Chorda Tympani
d. Motor fibers to the tensor tympani muscle

33. A 35-year-old male presented with right ear discharge in the last five years.
The discharge is intermittent and profuse in nature. On examination, the right
external canal was seen full of mucopurulent discharge. Suction revealed a
central kidney-shaped perforation in the ear drum. If this condition is left
untreated, the most probable consequence will be:
a. Repeated attacks of mucopurulent discharge
b. Progressive hearing loss up to complete deafness
c. Right sided Facial Paralysis
d. Spread of infection to the intracranial cavity
e. Septicemia secondary to septic focus in the ear

34. A 6-year-old boy was brought by his parents for progressive right ear pain of
two days duration. This is associated with fever and runny nose. On examination,
the external canal was healthy. However, the right tympanic membrane was
obviously reddish. Management of this condition may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Systemic antibiotics
b. Local and systemic pain control
c. Cold fomentations
d. CT scan petrous bones to stand on the extent of the disease
e. Myringotomy if not responsive to medical treatment
35. Otitis Media with Effusion in children should be initially treated by:
a. Medical treatment in the form of systemic steroids for several weeks
b. Medical treatment in the form of systemic steroids only for 48 hours
c. Adenoidectomy and Myringotomy
d. Adenoidectomy and placement of Ventilation Tubes
e. Long term Penicillin till the age of 15 years

36. The following are true in Otosclerosis EXCEPT:

a. The condition is hereditary and more common in females
b. Conductive Deafness is due to fixation of Stapes Footplate
c. Sensorineural Hearing Loss never occur in this disease
d. The Stapes is the only ossicle that is involved
e. Stapedectomy is a good treatment option

37. Cholesteatoma is characterized by:

a. Scanty offensive ear discharge
b. Marginal tympanic membrane perforation
c. Possibility of intracranial complications
d. Erosion of the ossicles to cause conductive deafness
e. All of the above

38. The most common cause of diminution of hearing in a 5-year-old child is

a. Bilateral Middle Ear Effusion
b. Congenital Deaf Mutism
c. Tympanosclerosis with ossicular fixation
d. Frequent exposure to loud sound
e. Traumatic rupture of the tympanic membrane

39. Which one of the following statements truly represents Bell’s Palsy
a. Hemiparesis and contralateral Facial Nerve Paralysis
b. Combined paralysis of the facial, abducent, and trigeminal nerves
c. Bilateral Facial Palsy due to congenital anomaly of the facial nerve
d. Idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve that recovers completely in most cases
e. Facial nerve paralysis following ear surgery

40. A positive Kernig’s sign means:

a. Reflex inhibition of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed
b. Inability to extend the knee completely when the hip is flexed on the abdomen
c. Inability to do rapid alternating movements
d. None of the above
Question Answer
1 C
2 B
3 E
4 A
5 D
6 D
7 E
8 C
9 D
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 D
15 B
16 C
17 C
18 C
19 D
20 C
21 A
22 B
23 C
24 D
25 A
26 C
27 D
28 D
29 C
30 B
31 A
32 D
33 A
34 D
35 B
36 C
37 E
38 A
39 D
40 B
 Nose MCQ
1. “Little’s Area” is a known spot on the nasal septum vulnerable to bleeding. This
is because it is formed of an anastomotic network of branches of the following
blood vessels EXCEPT:
a. Superior Labial Artery
b. Greater Palatine Artery
c. Nasolabial Artery
d. Anterior Ethmoidal Artery
e. Sphenopalatine Artery

2. The following facts regarding “Deviated Nasal Septum” are true EXCEPT:
a. It may be caused by an old trauma
b. A sharp septal deviation may be a cause of nasal bleeding
c. The treatment of choice is septoplasty
d. Surgery is contraindicated to avoid septal perforation

3. A 20-year-old female presented with right unilateral watery nasal discharge.

This condition is exaggerated on leaning forward. Management of her condition
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Biochemical analysis of discharge
b. MRI scan of the nose and paranasal sinuses
c. CT cisternography using intrathecal contrast
d. Nasal vaso-constrictive drops
e. Systemic Antibiotics

4. Regarding antro-choanal polyp, which is the true statement?

a. It usually indicates an underlying fungal infection
b. It arises primarily from the ethmoidal sinus
c. The primary treatment is endoscopic sinus surgery
d. It is precancerous if left untreated

5. Infections in the dangerous area of the face include:

a. AOM
b. Infected preauricular cyst
c. Furunculosis of the nasal vestibule
d. CSOM
6. Invasive fulminant fungal sinusitis
a. Occurs in immunocompromised individuals
b. Mucormycosis is the causative organism
c. Treated by Amphotericin B
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

7. The middle meatus drains all of the following sinuses EXCEPT:

a. Maxillary Sinus
b. Frontal Sinus
c. Anterior Ethmoidal Air Cells
d. Middle Ethmoidal Air Cells
e. Posterior Ethmoidal Air Cells

8. Endoscopic Sinus Surgery is indicated in the following EXCEPT:

a. Allergic Fungal Sinusitis
b. Extensive Sinonasal Polyposis
c. Atrophic Rhinitis
d. Antrochoanal Polyp
e. Inverted Papilloma

9. A 28-year-old male presented to the Emergency Room 30 minutes after

sustaining a blow to his face. Bleeding was noted from the nose. His nose was
found to be deviated to the left side. There were no obvious facial edema or
ecchymosis. X-ray showed fractured nasal bone. Reduction of this fracture should
be performed:
a. Within a week
b. After 3 weeks
c. After 3 months
d. Should never be performed

10. In the atrophic stage of Rhinoscleroma

a. The middle and inferior turbinates are markedly swollen
b. Excessive watery nasal discharge is seen
c. The patient has nasal itching and excessive sneezing
d. There are bilateral nasal masses
e. The nose is roomy with considerable crusts
11. A 10-year-old girl presented to the Emergency Room with swollen left eye lid.
Her condition stared one week earlier by fever, nasal discharge, and facial pain.
This progressed to pain around the left eye and edema of both eyelids. The most
informative investigation in her case is:
a. Culture and sensitivity of her nasal discharge
b. Measurement of serum IgE levels
c. Complete blood picture
d. Ocular ultrasonography
e. CT scan of the nose and paranasal sinuses

12. A 4-year-old child presented with unilateral nasal offensive purulent

discharge. The likely diagnosis is:
a. CSF Rhinorrhea
b. Antro-choanal Polyp
c. FB in the nose
d. Allergic Rhinitis

13. What is not true about Septal Hematoma?

a. It might cause Saddle Nose
b. Treated by decongestants and anti-histamines
c. Needs surgical drainage
d. Can cause secondary infection

14. The most common cause of Oro-antral fistula is:

a. Acute sinusitis
b. Car accident
c. Dental extraction of upper second molar tooth
d. Radical antrum operation

15. Unilateral clear watery nasal discharge reducing Fehling’s solution is

suggestive of:
a. CSF Rhinorrhea
b. Allergic Rhinitis
c. Viral Rhinitis
d. Nasal Diphtheria

16. The most common complication associated with acute ethmoid sinusitis in
children is:
a. Orbital cellulitis
b. Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone
c. Subdural abscess
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
17. Bilateral choanal atresia in a neonate is best treated by:
a. Transnasal puncture
b. Inserting an oral airway
c. Transpalatal repair
d. Transnasal by endoscope

18. All the following is true about CSF Rhinorrhea EXCEPT:

a. Clear fluid drips from the nose
b. Initial treatment is to pack the nose
c. Fluid contains glucose
d. Fluid has salty taste

19. Unilateral offensive blood-tinged purulent rhinorrhea in a 3-year-old is more

likely due to:
a. Rhinoscleroma
b. Lupus
c. Foreign body
d. Atrophic Rhinitis

20. A patient with anosmia will still respond to inhalation of:

a. Coffee
b. Vanilla
c. Ammonia
d. Garlic

21. Rhinolalia Aperta (hypernasality) is caused by the following EXCEPT:

a. Cleft palate
b. Rhinoscleroma
c. Palatal Paralysis
d. Fistula of the palate

22.The middle meatus drains all of the following sinuses EXCEPT:

a. Maxillary sinus
b. Frontal sinus
c. Anterior ethmoidal air cells
d. Middle ethmoidal air cells
e. Posterior ethmoidal air cells

23. Inverted Papilloma of the nose:

a. Is a locally malignant tumor
b. Arises from the nasal septum in most cases
c. Is best diagnosed by Carotid Angiography
d. Should be treated by “wide surgical resection” to avoid recurrence
e. Surgery should be followed by “radiation therapy” to avoid recurrence
24. A 3-year-old boy was brought to you by his parents for right sided offensive
nasal discharge of two weeks. They tried several courses of antibiotics and anti-
allergic medications with no success. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Unilateral choanal atresia
b. Neglected foreign body
c. Deviated nasal septum
d. Rhinoscleroma
e. Angiofibroma

25. A 28-year-old male presented to the Emergency Room 30 minutes after

sustaining a blow to his face. Bleeding was noted from the nose. His nose was
found to be deviated to the left side. There were no obvious facial edema or
ecchymosis. X-ray showed fractured nasal bone. Reduction of this fracture should
be performed:
a. Immediately
b. After 24 hours
c. After 48 hours
d. After 1 week
e. After 3 months

26. A 10-year-old girl presented to the ER with swollen left eye lid. Her condition
started one week earlier by fever, nasal discharge, and facial pain. This
progressed to pain around the left eye and edema of both eye lids. The most
informative investigation in her case is:
a. Culture and Sensitivity of her nasal discharge
b. Measurement of the serum IgE levels
c. Complete blood picture
d. Ocular ultrasonography
e. CT scan of the nose and paranasal sinuses

27. A 15-year-old boy presented with history of recurrent epistaxis and protrusion
of the eye ball that started one year ago. On examination there was a unilateral
fleshy nasal mass on the side of the proptosis. The first important step to do is:
a. Schedule the patient for urgent surgery to remove the mass
b. Do CT of the nose and paranasal sinuses and angiography if found to be vascular
c. Take biopsy from the mass to reach a histological diagnosis
d. Do ophthalmology consultation to assess the condition of the eye and orbit
e. Give blood transfusion to correct anemia
28. A 4-year-old child presented with offensive blood-stained nasal discharge 4
days ago. The likely diagnosis is:
a. Unilateral Choanal Atresia
b. Antrochoanal Polyp
c. Foreign body
d. CSF Rhinorrhea
e. Allergic Fungal Sinusitis

29. In the atrophic stage of Rhinoscleroma:

a. The middle and inferior turbinates are markedly swollen
b. Excessive watery nasal discharge is seen
c. The patient heavily smells a bad odor
d. There is recurrent severe epistaxis
e. The nose is roomy with considerable crusts
Question Answer
1 C
2 D
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 D
7 E
8 C
9 A
10 E
11 E
12 C
13 B
14 C
15 A
16 A
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 E
23 D
24 B
25 A
26 E
27 B
28 C
29 E
 Pharynx MCQ
1. The following are true for Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma EXCEPT:
a. Radiotherapy is considered the treatment of choice
b. It causes unilateral middle ear effusion
c. The first cranial nerve to be affected is the facial nerve
d. Sends metastases to the cervical lymph nodes
e. The mass may extend into the nasal cavity

2. A common cause of Hypopharyngeal Carcinoma:

a. Esophageal Atresia
b. Zenker’s diverticulum
c. Plummer Vinson’s Syndrome
d. Occult primary

3. Accumulation of pus in Ludwig’s Angina occurs in the:

a. Parapharyngeal space
b. Retropharyngeal space
c. Submandibular space
d. Prevertebral space

4. A 30-year-old female, otherwise healthy, presented with odynophagia of few

days duration. On examination of the oral cavity, multiple ulcers were seen in the
soft palate, inner cheeks and oropharyngeal walls. The most probable
pathogenesis of such ulcers is:
a. Aphthous ulcers
b. Leukoplakia
c. Diphtheria
d. Carcinoma in situ
e. Candida

5. “Beck’s Triad include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Swelling in the lateral pharyngeal wall pushing a normal tonsil medially
b. Tender firm external swelling in the lateral side of the neck
c. Trismus
d. White spots on the surface of the tonsil
6. The main cause of Secondary Post-Tonsillectomy Bleeding is:
a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Slipped ligature in the tonsillar bed
c. Coagulation factors deficiency
d. Infection in the operative bed

7. A middle aged female with gradually progressive dysphagia, koilonychia,

hypochromic anemia, and glazed tongue is suffering from
a. Plummer Vinson’s Syndrome
b. Hypopharyngeal Carcinoma
c. Esophageal Carcinoma
d. Achalasia

8. In a teenager male with recurrent severe left epistaxis, pallor, and conductive
deafness on the left ear, you should suspect:
a. Antrochoanal polyp
b. Inverted papilloma
c. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
d. Septal hematoma

9. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma can cause paralysis of the following nerves

EXCEPT:
a. Vagus
b. Facial
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Abducent

10. The commonest cause of obstructive sleep apnea in adults is:

a. Allergic Rhinitis
b. Allergic Nasal Polyp
c. Marked Obesity
d. Elongated Uvula

11. Polysomnography is a method to investigate a case with:

a. Sinusitis
b. Sleep Apnea Syndrome
c. Acute Rhinitis
d. Nasal Allergy
12. A 20-year-old man with fever & increasing sore throat with drippling saliva &
trismus for only 2 days. On examination, the right tonsil is pushed medially &
forward. No response to antibiotics. Rapid relief can be obtained by:
a. Short course radiotherapy
b. Assurance & rest
c. Antidiphtheric serum
d. Incision and Drainage

13. In diphtheria, the antitoxic serum is given:

a. To neutralize the circulating exotoxin
b. To neutralize the fixed exotoxin
c. To kill the diphtheria bacilli
d. All of the above

14. Tonsillectomy is absolutely contraindicated in:

a. Chronic tonsillitis
b. Quinsy
c. Hemophilia
d. Below 5 years

15. Quinsy is due to:

a. Blood disease
b. Peritonsillar infection
c. Pharyngoscleroma
d. Retropharyngeal Suppuration

16. The most common presenting sign or symptom of nasopharyngeal cancer is:
a. Nasal obstruction
b. Nasal bleeding
c. Neck mass
d. Facial pain

17. All of the following about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is true EXCEPT:

a. Occurs exclusively in males
b. Epistaxis and nasal obstruction are common
c. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice
d. Arises from the sphenopalatine foramen

18. An apnea is defined as cessation of breathing for:

a. 10 seconds
b. 12 seconds
c. 15 seconds
d. 18 seconds
19. Plummer Vinson’s syndrome is characterized by all the following EXCEPT:
a. Koilonychia
b. Dysphagia
c. Glossitis
d. Hematemesis

20. In which of the following locations there is collection of pus in Quinsy?

a. Parapharyngeal space
b. Retropharyngeal space
c. Peritonsillar space
d. Within the tonsil

21. A 20-year-old male presented to the Emergency Room complaining of severe

throbbing pain in the right of his throat. His pain started two days ago and rapidly
progressed and became throbbing in nature. On examination, his temperature was
38. He could not open his mouth properly during oral examination. His palate was
found to be swollen and the tonsil was pushed medially and downwards. His
upper deep cervical LNs were enlarged and tender. The initial line of treatment is:
a. IV broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Incision and Drainage under local anesthesia
c. CT scan to diagnose the extension of the disease
d. IV Fluids to avoid dehydration
e. Tracheostomy to avoid any airway compromise

22. The following spaces can be the site of “abscess formation” in the area of the
head and neck EXCEPT:
a. Peritonsillar space
b. Paraglottic space
c. Parapharyngeal space
d. Retropharyngeal space
e. Submandibular space

23. A 5-year-old boy presented to the emergency room with bleeding from the
mouth. He underwent tonsillectomy one week ago. His surgery went uneventful
and he was discharged home at the same day in a stable condition. Six days later,
he started to spit few blood drops. Then, bleeding gradually progressed. His Hb
on admission was 11.5. Management of this case should be:
a. Surgical intervention in the form of ligation of the bleeders
b. Admission to the hospital, observation, and IV antibiotics
c. Immediate tracheostomy to save his airway
d. Immediate blood transfusion to replace his blood loss
e. Angiography and embolization of the bleeding vessels
24. Secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is most commonly seen:
a. During the surgery
b. Immediately after the surgery
c. 24 hours after surgery
d. 6 days after surgery
e. 4 weeks after surgery

25. The following are true about Plummer Vinson’s syndrome EXCEPT:
a. More common in females
b. There is iron deficiency anemia
c. There is glossitis with spooning of the nails
d. Dysphagia is present due to upper esophageal web
e. Laryngeal carcinoma may occur if left untreated

26. The following conditions cause a membrane on the tonsils EXCEPT:

a. Acute follicular tonsils
b. Peritonsillar abscess
c. Vincent’s Angina
d. Diphtheria
e. Infectious Mononucleosis

27. Adenoid enlargement may result in any of the following EXCEPT:

a. Bilateral middle ear effusion
b. Recurrent epistaxis
c. High arched palate as a feature of adenoid facies
d. Snoring and sleep apnea
e. Recurrent AOM

28. A 55-year-old male with blood-stained discharge and conductive deafness.

Examination revealed large nasopharyngeal mass. CT showed an enhancing mass
in the nasopharynx. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Angiofibroma
c. Rhinoscleroma
d. Maxillary sinus carcinoma
e. Inverted papilloma

29. Trotter’s Triad consists of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Unilateral CHL
b. Ipsilateral Earache and facial pain
c. Ipsilateral proptosis
d. Ipsilateral immobilization of the soft palate
Question Answer
1 C
2 C
3 C
4 A
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 C
9 B
10 C
11 B
12 D
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 C
21 B
22 B
23 B
24 D
25 E
26 B
27 B
28 A
29 C
 Larynx MCQ
1. The following benign lesion in the larynx can be pre-cancerous
a. Leukoplakia
b. Reinke’s edema
c. Laryngeal nodule
d. Laryngoscleroma
e. Juvenile onset recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

2. T3 Cancer Larynx means:

a. Extra-laryngeal spread
b. Fixed vocal cord
c. Multiple ipsilateral lymph nodes in the neck less than 6 cm
d. Tumor involving two regions in the larynx
e. None of the above

3. A 3-year-old girl was brought to the ER after swallowing a coin. She has been
vomiting and drooling since then. On examination, there were no signs of airway
compromise. The first step in management of this girl is:
a. Barium Swallow
b. Neck ultrasound
c. Plain X-ray of the neck and chest
d. MRI of the neck
e. Bronchoscopy

4. Subglottic Stenosis is a condition that could occur as a result of any of the

following EXCEPT:
a. Neglected laryngeal trauma with thyroid cartilage fracture
b. Rhinolaryngoscleroma
c. Leukoplakia
d. Prolonged endotracheal intubation
e. High tracheostomy with cricoid injury

5. High Tracheostomy
a. Is usually done in emergency cases
b. Has the risk of cricoid injury with subsequent subglottic stenosis
c. Rapid and easy
d. Is done in the first two tracheal rings
e. All of the above
6. The treatment of advanced cancer larynx with neck lymph nodes metastasis is:
a. Partial laryngectomy
b. Antibiotics
c. Total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection
d. Laser cordectomy

7. The following statements about Vocal Cord Nodules are true EXCEPT:
a. Caused by voice abuse
b. Presented by hoarseness of voice
c. Can be treated conservatively by voice therapy
d. If not treated may present late by respiratory distress

8. All of the following is correct about leukoplakia of the larynx EXCEPT:

a. It is caused by excessive smoking
b. It never turns malignant
c. It causes gradual hoarseness of voice
d. It is white in color

9. A 3-year-old boy complained of sudden acute respiratory distress with

spasmodic cough, cyanosis & and acting accessory respiratory muscles is most
probably due to:
a. Acute Follicular Tonsillitis
b. Foreign body inhalation
c. Adenoid hypertrophy
d. Vocal cord nodule

10. The commonest presentation of Laryngoscleroma is:

a. Vocal cord paralysis
b. Stridor & Hoarseness
c. Pain & Night Sweating
d. Metastatic LNs

11. Stridor is a characteristic feature of the following diseases EXCEPT:

a. Laryngeal Diphtheria
b. Angioneurotic Edema
c. Adenoid Hypertrophy
d. Bilateral Abductor VC Paralysis

12. Surgical Emphysema after tracheostomy is corrected by:

a. Taking more stitches of the wound
b. Cold compress
c. Widening of the wound by removal of some stitches
d. Antihistaminic intake
13. The most common laryngeal site of involvement in Laryngoscleroma is:
a. True vocal cords
b. Epiglottis
c. Subglottis
d. Arytenoids

14. The most important function of the larynx is:

a. Voice production
b. Protection during swallowing
c. Cough production
d. Increasing subglottic pressure

15. An infant is noticed to have stridor and a hoarse cry. All the following
diagnoses are possible EXCEPT:
a. Laryngeal web
b. Laryngeal paralysis
c. Congenital laryngeal cyst
d. Laryngomalacia

16. Malignancy is suspected in enlarged LN if it has the following EXCEPT:

a. Hard
b. Painful
c. Progressive
d. Fixed

17. Hot potato voice is caused by the following EXCEPT:

a. Supraglottic Carcinoma
b. Epiglottis
c. Glottic carcinoma
d. Tonsillar Hypertrophy

18. A 7-year-old boy presented to the ER with stridor. He had hoarseness of voice
for a year. On examination, his temperature was 37 C. Nasal and oral examination
showed no evidence of disease. Laryngeal examination showed warty growths
affecting both vocal cords reducing the respiratory shink. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a. Juvenile Onset Recurrent Respiratory Papillomatosis
b. Laryngeal Nodules
c. Laryngoscleroma
d. Laryngomalacia
e. Chronic laryngitis secondary to GERD
19. Laryngeal SCC is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Smoking is a predisposing factor in carcinogenesis
b. It seldom arises from the subglottic area
c. Invasion of the laryngeal cartilages is staged as T4 disease
d. It commonly sends distant metastases to the lungs, bone, and liver

20. A 6-year-old boy presented to the Emergence Room with Stridor. Examination
of the larynx showed swollen epiglottis blocking the laryngeal inlet. The most
common organism in such a case is:
a. B-hemolytic streptococcus
b. Penicillinase producing Staphylococcus
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Hemophilus influenzae
e. EBV

21. The following benign lesion in the larynx can be pre-cancerous:

a. Leukoplakia
b. Reinke’s edema
c. Laryngeal nodule
d. Laryngoscleroma
e. Juvenile onset recurrent respiratory papillomatosis

22. A 60-year-old male, chronic heavy smoker presented with hoarseness of voice
of several months not responsive to medical treatment. Laryngeal examination
showed a fungating mass arising from the right vocal cord, which was found fixed.
CT scan in such case is indicated in order to determine:
a. The exact site of the tumor
b. The exact size of the tumor
c. Extension of the tumor to the hypopharynx
d. Extension of the tumor to tongue base
e. Extension of the tumor to the cartilage and/or intralaryngeal spaces

23. The following are indications of Tracheostomy EXCEPT:

a. Expected prolonged intubation in the ICU
b. Before resection of large Oro-mandibular tumor
c. Extensive leukoplakia affecting both vocal cords
d. Bilateral vocal cord paralysis after total thyroidectomy
e. Advanced supraglottic laryngeal cancer obstructing the laryngeal inlet

24. Choose the correct statement regarding Laryngomalacia:

a. Starts in infancy and persists till adulthood
b. There is hoarseness of voice in all cases
c. Stridor decreases on lying on the back and increases on lying on face
d. Most cases need only observation as the condition resolves spontaneously