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ISEE
LOWER LEVEL TEST 1

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ISEE
LOWER LEVEL TEST 1
MARKING INSTRUCTIONS
• Use a #2 or HB pencil only on pages 2 and 3.
• Use a ballpoint pen for your essay on pages 6 and 7.
• Make dark marks that completely fill the circle.
• Erase clearly any mark you wish to change.
• Make no stray marks on this form.
• Do not fold or crease this form.

Correct Mark Incorrect Marks

 

1 VERBAL REASONING
1 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 15 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 29 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
2 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 16 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 30 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
3 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 17 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 31 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
4 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 18 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 32 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
5 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 19 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 33 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
6 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 20 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 34 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
7 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 21 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 35 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
8 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 22 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 36 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
9 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 23 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 37 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
10 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 24 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 38 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
11 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 25 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 39 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
12 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 26 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 40 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
13 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 27 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
14 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 28 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ

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 2 QUANTITATIVE REASONING 4 MATHEMATICS ACHIEVEMENT
1 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 15 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 29 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 1 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 18 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 35 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
2 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 16 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 30 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 2 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 19 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 36 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
3 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 17 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 31 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 3 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 20 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 37 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
4 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 18 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 32 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 4 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 21 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 38 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
5 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 19 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 33 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 5 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 22 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 39 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
6 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 20 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 34 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 6 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 23 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 40 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
7 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 21 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 35 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 7 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 24 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 41 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
8 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 22 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 36 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 8 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 25 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 42 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
9 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 23 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 37 Ⓐ ⒷⒸ Ⓓ 9 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 26 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 43 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
10 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 24 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 38 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 10 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 27 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 44 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
11 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 25 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 11 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 28 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 45 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
12 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 26 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 12 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 29 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 46 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
13 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 27 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 13 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 30 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 47 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
14 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 28 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 14 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 31 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 48 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
15 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 32 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 49 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
16 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 33 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 50 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
17 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 34 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 51 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ

3 READING COMPREHENSION
1 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 15 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 29 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
2 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 16 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 30 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
3 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 17 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 31 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
4 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 18 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 32 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
5 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 19 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 33 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
6 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 20 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 34 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
7 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 21 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 35 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
8 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 22 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 36 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
9 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 23 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 37 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
10 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 24 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 38 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
11 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 25 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 39 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
12 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 26 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 40 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
13 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 27 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 41 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
14 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 28 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ 42 ⒶⒷⒸⒹ

Essay Topic Sheet

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The directions for the Essay portion of the ISEE are printed in the box below. Use the pre-lined pages on pages
6-7 for this part of the Practice Test.

You will have 30 minutes to plan and write an essay on the topic printed on the other side of this page. Do
not write on another topic. An essay on another topic is not acceptable.

The essay is designed to give you an opportunity to show how well you can write. You should try to
express your thoughts clearly. How well you write is much more important than how much you write, but
you need to say enough for a reader to understand what you mean.

You will probably want to write more than a short paragraph. You should also be aware that a copy of
your essay will be sent to each school that will be receiving your test results. You are to write only in the
appropriate section of the answer sheet. Please write or print so that your writing may be read by
someone who is not familiar with your handwriting.

You may make notes and plan your essay on the reverse side of the page. Allow enough time to copy the
final form onto your answer sheet. You must copy the essay topic onto your answer sheet, on page 3, in
the box provided.

Please remember to write only the final draft of the essay on pages 6-7 of your answer sheet and to write
it in blue or black pen. Again, you may use cursive writing or you may print. Only pages 6-7 will be sent to
the schools.

Directions continue on the next page.

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 REMINDER: Please write this essay topic on the first few lines of page 6 of your answer sheet.

Essay Topic

From the stories which you have read recently, who is your
favorite character? Why did you choose this character?

• Only write on this essay question

• Only pages 3 and 4 will be sent to the schools
• Only write in blue or black pen

NOTES

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 STUDENT NAME ____________________________________ GRADE APPLYING FOR _________
Use a blue or black ballpoint pen to write the final draft of your essay on this sheet.

You must write your essay topic in this space.

Use specific details in your response

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VR 1
Section 1
Verbal Reasoning
34 Questions Time: 20 minutes

This section is divided into two parts that contain two different types of questions. As soon as you have
completed Part One, answer the questions in Part Two. You may write in your test booklet. For each answer
you select, fill in the corresponding circle on your answer document.

PART ONE — SYNONYMS

Each question in Part One consists of a word in capital letters followed by four answer choices. Select the one
word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

CHARGE: ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
(A) release
(B) belittle
(C) accuse
(D) conspire

PART TWO — SENTENCE COMPLETION

Each question in Part Two is made up of a sentence with one blank. Each blank indicates that a word or phrase
is missing. The sentence is followed by four answer choices. Select the word or phrase that will best complete
the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS: Sample Answer

It rained so much that the streets were _________. ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
(A) flooded
(B) arid
(C) paved
(D) crowded
ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
The house was so dirty that it took _________.
(A) less than ten minutes to wash it.
(B) four months to demolish it.
(C) over a week to walk across it.
(D) two days to clean it.

STOP. Do not go on STOP

until told to do so.

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VR 1
Directions: Select the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word in capital letters.

1. ERRATIC 6. DUBIOUS
(A) enthusiastic (A) reckless
(B) fortunate (B) industrious
(C) relieved (C) serious
(D) unpredictable (D) skeptical

2. BENIGN 7. IRATE
(A) cunning (A) authentic
(B) harmless (B) intricate
(C) graceful (C) livid
(D) sensible (D) persistent

3. VIGOROUS 8. RELUCTANT
(A) stacked (A) aimless
(B) strong (B) envious
(C) lame (C) unwilling
(D) ridiculous (D) tearful

4. TIMID 9. FLATTER
(A) bland (A) assure
(B) reliable (B) compliment
(C) shy (C) annoy
(D) tragic (D) resemble

5. PUZZLED 10. FRAGILE

(A) confused (A) weak
(B) disgraced (B) lovely
(C) inspired (C) helpful
(D) neglected (D) luxurious

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VR 1
11. INQUIRE 15. FEISTY
(A) acknowledge (A) genuine
(B) imply (B) spirited
(C) confine (C) unique
(D) ask (D) weary

12. ERADICATE 16. REMOTE

(A) censor (A) anxious
(B) destroy (B) distant
(C) insult (C) sleepy
(D) suggest (D) sluggish

13. ALTER 17. REMINISCE

(A) change (A) astonish
(B) conceal (B) deceive
(C) reject (C) reflect
(D) uproot (D) utilize

14. CONTENTED
(A) biased
(B) generous
(C) satisfied
(D) somber

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VR 1
PART TWO – SENTENCE COMPLETION
Directions: Select the word that best completes the sentence.

18. Emily Dickinson’s short poems manage to 22. Not only did he support their ideas,
clearly _________ profound ideas in very Frederick Douglass lent his active _________
few lines. to the leaders of the Women’s Rights
(A) convey Movement whenever he could.

(B) spell (A) assistance

(C) muddle (B) confidence
(D) renounce (C) mischief
(D) taunting
19. Doctors today often have to choose
between working as clinicians or 23. One of the great _________ of solar energy is
conducting research, as it is exceedingly that it produces virtually no pollution.
_________ to perform both these duties.
(A) benefits
(A) alarming (B) hazards
(B) difficult (C) obstacles
(C) liberating (D) tasks
(D) neglectful
24. Frederick Law Olmsted designed many
20. Fans of her work are often surprised that parks, but did not _________ favor them:
Jane Austen only achieved her _________ as Prospect Park was his favorite.
an icon of English literature after her
(A) audibly
death.
(B) unevenly
(A) bias (C) equally
(B) fortune (D) annually
(C) status
(D) viewpoint 25. Queen Elizabeth I’s impressive victory
over the Spanish Armada made the
21. Built at great expense when the Roman English people love and _________ her more
Empire was economically dominant, the than ever.
magnificent Pantheon stands as a
(A) admire
reminder of Rome’s _________.
(B) crave
(A) cunning (C) distort
(B) location (D) impress
(C) prosperity
(D) scenario

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VR 1
26. While we use our vocal cords to produce 30. Because the family picnic was cancelled,
complex sounds, whales lack _________ the _________.
vocal cords yet still produce elaborate
(A) picnic was fun and healthy.
songs without them.
(B) youngest sibling was quite short.
(A) functional (C) family ate inside instead.
(B) graceful (D) rain was cold and unpleasant.
(C) nagging
(D) solitary 31. Biologists used to think that playing had
no important purpose, but today they
27. While many present-day readers think _________.
The Great Gatsby is historically accurate, (A) think that play probably has no useful
readers during the 1930s found it an function.
_________ portrayal of the times.
(B) realize development in puppies is
(A) illiterate different than it is in chimpanzees.
(B) inauthentic (C) research play because they know it
(C) independent affects development.
(D) ingenious (D) continue to ignore this activity in
their research.
28. After their long journey through the
desert, the travelers were relieved to 32. Marissa did not speak French, so she was
reach the cooling waters and fruitful date nervous about visiting Paris and was
trees of a lush _________. pleasantly surprised _________.
(A) aroma (A) to learn that Paris is the capital of
(B) assortment France.
(C) exhibit (B) when people there spoke to her in
(D) oasis English.
(C) when people there spoke mainly in
29. Although Carl Linnaeus is now famous for French.
creating a system for classifying plants (D) by a sudden trip to a different city in
and animals, he _________. France.

(A) was always widely revered for

creating this system.
(B) had always known where to find
certain tree species.
(C) first gained renown by writing a book
about plant reproduction.
(D) taught his students to recognize what
plants should be classified under
what categories.

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VR 1
33. Although people frequently consider 34. Stress can contribute to some serious
deserts as blistering hot environments, health problems, so experts say that
these areas can _________. _________.
(A) experience a variety of temperatures. (A) serious health problems are not
(B) be difficult places for animals to find particularly stressful.
food. (B) cats are probably much healthier
(C) be excellent places to travel for those than dogs.
who enjoy hot climates. (C) we should try to reduce unnecessary
(D) rarely experience temperatures stress.
below freezing. (D) it is important to balance healthy diet
and exercise.

STOP. Do not go on STOP

until told to do so.

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QR 2
Section 2
Quantitative Reasoning
38 Questions Time: 35 minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the four
suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row, mark
the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

EXAMPLE 1: Sample Answer

What is the value of the expression (4 + 6) ÷ 2? ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
The correct answer is 5, so circle C is darkened.

EXAMPLE 2:
A square has an area of 25cm2. What is the length of one of its ⒶⒷⒸⒹ
sides?
(A) 1 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 25 cm

STOP. Do not go on STOP

until told to do so.

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QR 2
1. Which is the largest fraction? 5. A rectangle and its length and width are
shown below.
(A) 3�7

(B) 4�9

(C) 5�10 4m

(D) 6�13

7
2. Which is a value of 𝑥𝑥 in the math equation If the area of a rectangle is length × width,
𝑥𝑥
+ 14 = 16? what is the area of the rectangle above?
4

(A)
1 (A) 4 + 7
2
(B) 4 × 7
(B) 2
(C) 4𝑚𝑚 × 7
(C) 8
(D) 4𝑚𝑚 × 7𝑚𝑚
(D) 26

6. Which diagram represents the associative

3. A pencil costs $1.03 and Alex wants to
property?
purchase 398 pencils. Which expression
gives the best estimate of the total cost of (A) (△ + ⊠) = △⊠
Alex’s purchase in dollars? (B) (△ ⊠) × ⊙ = △ × (⊠⊙)
△ ⊙
(A) 1 × 40 (C) =
⊙ △

(B) 1 × 400 △ ⊙△
(D) ⊙ =
⊠ ⊙⊠
(C) 10 × 390
(D) 130 × 400
7. The total combined cost of a hat, a pair of
4. Brianna has a drawer of socks with five gloves, and a scarf is $14.00. If the hat is
different colors: purple, green, black, twice as expensive as the scarf, and the
white, and pink. The probability of her pair of gloves costs one quarter of the cost
choosing a white sock is 3 out of 7. Which of the hat, how much does the hat cost?
combination of socks is possible? (A) $2
(A) 3 white socks and 7 other socks (B) $4
(B) 6 white socks and 14 other socks (C) $8
(C) 7 white socks and 21 other socks (D) $10
(D) 9 white socks and 12 other socks

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QR 2
8. Mrs. Montgomery’s sewing kit contains 11. There are 48 students in a gym class. If
25 spools of thread: 8 black, 5 white, 6 there are 18 boys, what is the ratio of the
brown, 4 red, and 2 blue. If she randomly number of girls to the total number of
selects a spool of thread without looking, students in the gym class?
which color has a 1 in 5 chance of being
(A) 3�8
selected?
(A) black (B) 5�8

(B) white (C) 5�3

(C) brown
(D) 8�3
(D) blue

9. The points with coordinates (2,4) (2,6) 12. The total number of big and small fish in a
(7,4) (7,6) the vertices of which kind of fish tank is represented by n. The number
quadrilateral? of big fish is represented by b and the
number of small fish is represented by s.
(A) square
Which expression below represents the
(B) trapezoid
ratio of the big fish in the tank to the total
(C) hexagon number of fish?
(D) rectangle 𝑏𝑏
(A)
𝑛𝑛

10. All triangles have three sides. (B)

𝑏𝑏−𝑠𝑠
𝑛𝑛
Equilateral triangles have sides of equal
𝑏𝑏
length. (C)
𝑠𝑠
𝑏𝑏
Which of the following statements is true (D)
𝑛𝑛−𝑏𝑏

based on the information above?

(A) All triangles have sides of equal 13. How many prime numbers are there
length. between 1 and 16?
(B) All triangles are equilateral triangles. (A) 4
(C) All equilateral triangles have three (B) 6
sides. (C) 8
(D) If a shape does not have equal sides, (D) 9
it is not a triangle.

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QR 2
14. If nine 1cm3 unit cubes make up one side 16. Use the diagram to answer the question.
of a larger cube, how many unit cubes
make up the entire larger cube?

Which piece would complete the diagram

to make a square?

(A)
(A) 15
(B) 27
(C) 38
(D) 54
(B)
15. If 30 can be divided by both x and 5
without leaving a remainder, then 30 can
also be divided by which of the following
whole numbers without leaving a
remainder?
(A) 𝑥𝑥 ÷ 5 (C)
(B) 𝑥𝑥 2
(C) 𝑥𝑥 + 5
(D) 𝑥𝑥 × 5

(D)

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QR 2
17. The larger triangle below is divided into 19. Use the Venn diagram to answer the
small triangles. question.

Shapes with
Shapes with
sides of
four sides
equal length

Which of the following shapes could be

found in the center of the Venn diagram?

If the area of the larger triangle is 9cm2, (A) equilateral triangle

what is the area of the shaded region in (B) kite
cm2? (C) parallelogram
(A)
1 (D) square
3

(B) 3
20. Use the table to determine the rule.
(C) 6
Input ∎ Output △
(D) 9
1 3
18. Use the equations below to answer the 4 9
question. 9 19
−10 = 5 15 31
+4 = 9 17 35

What is the value of  – ?

What is the rule for the function?
(A) 25
(A) (∎ × 2) + 1 = △
(B) 14
(B) ∎ × 2 = △
(C) 10
(C) ∎ + 1 = △
(D) 4
(D) (∎ ÷ 2) + 4 = △

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QR 2
21. A survey of 50 students’ favorite seasons 23. Line segment AC is 9 centimeters long.
is displayed in the circle graph shown.

A B C
Point B is 2�3 of the way from point A to
Winter point C. What is the length of line segment
Spring
BC?
Fall
(A) 3 cm
(B) 4.5 cm
Summer (C) 6 cm
(D) 8.5 cm

24. Which of the following expressions has

4
About what fraction of the students chose the same value as 3 × ?
5
either summer or winter as their favorite 3+4
seasons? (A)
5

3 3×4
(A) (B)
8 5

1 4
(B) (C)
2 3×5

5 3×4
(C) (D)
8 3×5

3
(D)
4
25. Jack wrote down a whole number less
than 19 and greater than 13. When
22. Nitya has a map where 1.5 centimeters Charlotte tried to guess the number, Jack
represents 2 city blocks. If her apartment told her it could only be divided by 1 and
is 7.5 centimeters away from the bus stop, itself. What is Jack’s number?
what is this distance in city blocks?
(A) 15
(A) 3
(B) 16.5
(B) 6
(C) 17
(C) 10
(D) 21
(D) 15

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QR 2
26. Nikolai conducted a survey of 10 random students at his school. He used the data to make the table
below.

Height Weight
Student Age (years) ???
(inches) (lbs)
1 65 132 13 ?
2 52 75 10 ?
3 56 90 12 ?
4 61 122 11 ?
5 61 103 15 ?
6 67 152 14 ?
7 59 101 13 ?
8 54 82 12 ?
9 58 93 10 ?
10 60 142 11 ?
Mean: 59.3 109.2 12.1 ?

Which data could complete the last column of Nikolai’s table?

(A) the student’s middle names
(B) the students’ eye colors
(C) the students’ favorite animals
(D) how many siblings the students have

27. Use the number line to answer the question.

A B

1.2 2.7
What is the sum of A and B?
(A) 1.7
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.3
(D) 5.9

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QR 2
28. The trapezoid shown below may be 31. Tori cut pieces of ribbon to use for
1
folded along the dotted lines. decoration. 1 piece of ribbon was 3
2

c inches long, 2 pieces of ribbon were 2

b
d 1
inches long, and 1 piece of ribbon was 4
2
inches long. What was the mean length of
the pieces of ribbon?
a 1
(A) 2 inches
2

(B) 3 inches
1
(C) 3 inches
2
3
(D) 3 inches
4

Which line, when folded, will cause the

sides of the trapezoid to overlap exactly? 32. The perimeter of a quadrilateral is 18
centimeters.
(A) line a
(B) line b 1 cm
(C) line c
(D) line d 4 cm Note: figure is
not to scale.
29. 5 more than Mr. Lehaf’s age is 2 less than
four times his daughter’s age. Which
equation matches this relationship? Let L
represent Mr. Lehaf’s age and D represent
Which of the following combinations
his daughter’s age.
could be the lengths of the two unknown
(A) 𝐿𝐿 + 5 = 2 − 4𝐷𝐷 sides?
(B) 𝐿𝐿 + 5 = 4𝐷𝐷 − 2 (A) 4 cm and 4 cm
1
(C) 𝐿𝐿 − 5 = 𝐷𝐷 + 2 (B) 5 cm and 6 cm
4

(D) 𝐿𝐿 − 5 = 4𝐷𝐷 ÷ 2 (C) 6 cm and 7 cm

(D) 7 cm and 9 cm
30. The first 5 terms of a sequence are shown
below: 33. Which story best fits the equation 48 ÷
1000, 100, 10, 1, 0.1 12 = 4?

What is the 6th term of this sequence? (A) I have 12 books and 48 fit in each
box. How many boxes do I need?
(A) 1.0
(B) I have 60 boxes and 48 books. How
(B) 0.10
many books will go in each box?
(C) 0.01
(C) I have 48 books and 12 fit in each
(D) 0.001 box. How many boxes do I need?
(D) I have 48 books and my friend has 12
books. How many more books do I
have?

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QR 2
34. It takes Jane 10 minutes to ride her bike 2 35. Samantha asked her friends to each bring
miles. Corwin rides his bike twice as some juice to her party so she could make
slowly. How many miles can Corwin ride punch. She added all of the juice to one
in 1 hour and 15 minutes? bowl:
(A) 5 miles 2 gallons apple juice
(B) 7.5 miles 5.5 gallons grape juice
(C) 9.5 miles 0.5 gallons grapefruit juice
(D) 15 miles 3 gallons orange juice
1 gallon pineapple juice
Then, she poured equal amounts into
cups for her guests. How many gallons of
punch will each of the 48 guests get to
drink?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.25

36. A rectangle (left) and a trapezoid (right) are shown with their side lengths below.

6 cm

A 9 cm X

3 cm 3 cm 9 cm

B Y

If the rectangle and trapezoid were joined along line segments AB and XY, what would be the
perimeter of the resulting six-sided figure?
(A) 27
(B) 38
(C) 42
(D) 48

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QR 2
37. The chart below shows the water levels in 38. Pete did the problem shown with his
feet of two tanks over the course of four calculator.
weeks. 60
× 145.5
13
Approximately what was his answer?
Tank 1 Tank 2
(A) between 400 and 600
Start 120 ft 200 ft (B) between 600 and 800
(C) between 800 and 1000
1 week 130 ft 198 ft
(D) between 1000 and 1,200
2 week 140 ft 194 ft

3 week 150 ft 188 ft

4 week 160 ft 180 ft

According to the patterns from these data,

how high will the water level of tank 2 be
at week 6?
(A) 150 ft
(B) 158 ft
(C) 160 ft
(D) 172 ft

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RC 3
Section 3
Reading Comprehension
25 Questions Time: 25 minutes

This section contains five short reading passages. Each passage is followed by five questions based on its
content. Answer the questions following each passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You may write in your test booklet.

STOP. Do not go on STOP

until told to do so.

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 RC 3
Questions 1–5

1 The Voyager spacecraft, launched from 22 this ocean of vastness, then how do we
2 Earth in 1977, recently left the solar system 23 communicate something about who we are?’”
3 and headed into interstellar space. As it did, 24 It made them think carefully about how
4 the ship carried an unusual calling card, 25 they might convey the greetings, the art and
5 designed to introduce Earth to any alien being 26 the talent of all humanity – not just the nation
6 that the Voyager might pass. Traveling now 27 that sent the spacecraft up. “There is music on
7 billions of kilometers out in space are the 28 the record from Europe and the United States,”
8 voices and sounds of life on Earth. They are 29 said Tim Ferris, who mixed the audio that went
9 bolted to the side of Voyager 1 in the form of a 30 on the record. "But also from Africa, the South
10 gold-plated phonograph record. 31 Pacific, South America, Georgia, Russia, China,
11 Shortly after American astronauts 32 and India."
12 returned from space in 1968, NASA released a 33 The record contains greetings in 59
13 photograph of the Earth rising from behind the 34 human languages. It has 118 pictures of life on
14 Moon. According to Margaret Weitekamp, a 35 earth, and 27 pieces of music exemplifying the
15 curator at the Smithsonian National Air and 36 diversity of human creation. According to
16 Space Museum, that photo deeply touched the 37 Ferris, “The Voyager record represents a step
17 creators of the gold record project. She said, 38 along a long process of humans realizing that
18 “Knowing that that picture was taken by a 39 we are not at the center of the universe and
19 human being profoundly changed the thoughts 40 that our story is probably far from being the
20 of these people and really made them start 41 only story.”
21 thinking about ‘If we are this pale blue dot in

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RC 3
1. The main purpose of this passage is to 4. The passage provides enough information
(A) detail how a gold-plated phonograph to answer which question?
record is manufactured. (A) Who mixed the audio on the record?
(B) inform the reader about the gold (B) How long did it take to make the
record carried by the Voyager and record?
examine why the creators included it (C) What forms of extraterrestrial life do
onboard. the creators think the Voyager will
(C) analyze the pieces of music on the confront?
Voyager gold record and explain why (D) Which languages are not included on
they were included. the gold-plated record?
(D) compare life on Earth in 1977 to
contemporary times. 5. The quote by Tim Ferris that concludes
the passage suggests that
2. In line 19, the word “profoundly” most (A) technology has allowed us to
nearly means represent the diversity of human life
(A) jealously and creation.
(B) ignorantly (B) the record is important because it
(C) partially captures the spirit of America, and it
(D) deeply will demonstrate to extraterrestrials
America’s achievements.

3. The gold-plated record is intended to be (C) the story of the Earth is extremely
important, so it is crucial that we
(A) the theme music of the Voyager
have a means of communicating it to
launch when it is broadcast on
other life forms in the universe.
television.
(D) human civilization is probably not the
(B) a sentimental memento for the
only civilization in the universe.
designers of the Voyager.
(C) a representation of life on Earth for
any extraterrestrials who might find
it.
(D) a part of the museum display that
commemorates the Voyager
spacecraft.

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 RC 3
Questions 6–10

1 Wind tunnel testing of a feathered 16 the creature was probably able to climb high
2 dinosaur model has added evidence to the 17 enough to glide around 100 meters, the
3 theory that modern day birds evolved from 18 scientists say.
4 ancient reptiles. Scientists at the University of 19 Some scientists had wondered if the
5 Southampton in England built a full-scale, 20 position and orientation of the Microraptor’s
6 anatomically correct model of a Microraptor, a 21 legs and wing shape could have impeded
7 five-winged creature that lived in the early 22 possible flight, but the testing revealed it not to
8 Cretaceous period about 130 million years ago. 23 be a factor. According to the paper, published
9 The dinosaur is believed to be a precursor to 24 in Nature Communications, "Microraptor did
10 birds and the first two-footed dinosaur to have 25 not require a sophisticated, 'modern' wing
11 feathers on its body, which could have 26 shape to undertake effective glides. Symmetric
12 provided lift during brief gliding or flight. 27 feathers first evolved in dinosaurs for non-
13 The wind tunnel tests revealed that the 28 aerodynamic functions, later being adapted to
14 Microraptor was a good glider, but likely spent 29 form lifting surfaces."
15 most of its time foraging on the ground. Still,

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RC 3
6. The passage is primarily concerned with 9. The quotation in the last paragraph
(A) scientific testing that supports the supports the claim that
evolutionary link between dinosaurs (A) the Microraptor’s wing shape did not
and birds. prevent it from gliding successfully.
(B) the lifespan and extinction of a (B) the Microraptor’s wings – unlike the
dinosaur known as the Microraptor. modern-day bird – were completely
(C) the importance of wind tunnel testing featherless.
in modern day science. (C) designers of contemporary aircraft
(D) a new museum exhibit that should imitate the wing shape of the
demonstrates how dinosaurs were Microraptor because it is very
able to fly. effective for flight.
(D) the feathers on the Microraptor’s
7. In line 21, the word “impeded” most wings served no purpose other than
nearly means decoration.

(A) supported
10. According to the passage, wind tunnel
(B) confused
testing utilized
(C) revealed
(A) a full-scale model of the Microraptor.
(D) disrupted
(B) samples of DNA from the
Microraptor.
8. Wind tunnel tests show that the
Microraptor (C) the entire biology department at the
University of Southampton.
(A) could fly for hours at a time at
(D) an accurate anatomical sketch of the
extremely high altitudes.
Microraptor drawn by a team of
(B) survived on a diet similar to modern-
scientists.
day birds.
(C) probably could glide for about 100
meters.
(D) had wings identical to those of
modern-day birds.

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 RC 3
Questions 11–15

1 When I was ten years old, my family and 21 racing to the beach to even notice. My father
2 I drove to the New Jersey shore on an 22 eventually caught up to us and halted our
3 exceptionally hot and sunny day during the 23 frenzied rush to the ocean.
4 peak of summer. My father packed a huge 24 Finally, order was restored, and after we
5 suitcase filled with towels, goggles, sunscreen, 25 had laid down the towels on the warm, soft
6 extra bathing suits, and a mountain of beach 26 sand and my mother had finished carefully
7 toys. From the size of the suitcase, one might 27 applying our sunscreen, we were free to jump
8 have surmised that we were making a 28 in the ocean. I ran to the deep blue waves,
9 permanent move to the shore, but in fact, we 29 which danced along the shoreline, with
10 were only going for the afternoon. 30 boundless enthusiasm and vigor, until my
11 Despite the hour of bickering that filled 31 father hollered to me in a deep baritone,
12 the car ride, we were really all very excited to 32 “Sandra, what are you doing? You don’t know
13 spend the day on the beach. The instant my 33 how to swim! You’ll drown!” Suddenly, the
14 father parked the car and shut off the engine, 34 graceful twirls and ripples of the dancing
15 my brother, sister, and I scrambled out of the 35 waves transformed into monstrous tidal
16 car towards the ocean. I inhaled the crisp and 36 waves, thunderous crashes, and vicious roars.
17 salty ocean air, and I immediately set my eyes 37 Without saying a word, I turned around and
18 on the sand. My parents yelled at my siblings 38 immediately ran back to the safety of the dry
19 and me, demanding that we slow down, but we 39 sand and into the arms of my mother.
20 were too busy fighting over the beach toys and

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RC 3
11. The primary purpose of the passage is to 13. In line 8, “surmised” most nearly means,
(A) recount of the author’s memory of a (A) testified
day at the beach with her family (B) inferred
when she was younger. (C) complimented
(B) warn the reader about safety (D) scolded
precautions that should be taken
when visiting the shore.
14. Based on the information in the passage,
(C) advertise the New Jersey shore and which of the following statements is true?
describe the many attractions of this
(A) The author’s sister and brother are
tourist destination.
excellent swimmers.
(D) discuss the importance of family
(B) Her family plans on moving to the
bonding through shared experiences,
shore sometime in the future.
such as traveling together.
(C) This was the first time the author
ever went to the beach.
12. What can be inferred from the last three
sentences? (D) The author and her siblings did not
behave well on the car ride to the
(A) The narrator wanted to swim in the
beach.
water, but she was afraid that her
father would punish her if she did.
15. When the author describes the
(B) The narrator decided that it would be
transformation of the waves in lines 33-
more fun to make a sandcastle
36, she is suggesting that
because the ocean water was too
cold. (A) the tide changed drastically in that
moment, and the waves suddenly
(C) The narrator’s father was teasing her,
became much harsher.
because he knew that she is an
excellent swimmer. (B) her fear of the waves made them
seem much more violent and
(D) The narrator forgot that she could not
threatening.
swim until her father reminded her.
(C) she was dreaming, and in her dream,
the waves were dancing and twirling.
(D) she put on her glasses and noticed
that the waves were very strong.

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 RC 3
Questions 16–20

1 Whether for escape, enlightenment, or 23 disability that makes it difficult to hold a book.
2 pure joy, books allow us to connect to other 24 Thousands of bestsellers, classics, biographies,
3 places and times. Fortunately for the millions 25 nonfiction works, and more can be
4 of Americans who have impaired vision or a 26 downloaded from the Internet or ordered for
5 physical disability, there are braille and talking 27 home delivery through a nationwide network
6 books from NLS. 28 of cooperating libraries.
7 NLS is the National Library Service for 29 Those with cerebral palsy, multiple
8 the Blind and Physically Handicapped, part of 30 sclerosis, loss of the use of their arms or hands,
9 the Library of Congress. Established in 1931, 31 or prolonged weakness can access the NLS
10 the organization’s mission is to enrich the lives 32 collection. So, too, can people with temporary
11 of its patrons by offering them books, 33 limitations resulting from strokes or accidents.
12 magazines, music scores, and other materials 34 Now avid readers like San Francisco resident
13 in audio and braille at no charge. Unlike 35 Ivana Kirola, 38, who suffers from cerebral
14 traditional audiobooks that are provided at 36 palsy, can continue to satisfy their interests,
15 public libraries or sold at retail bookstores, 37 which for Kirola range from politics, to travel,
16 audiobooks offered by NLS are unabridged, 38 to music. “I really appreciate the services from
17 extensive and diverse, and are designed 39 NLS,” Kirola says. “They help me in my daily
18 specifically for people who are unable to read 40 life, in understanding people and keeping up to
19 regular print. 41 date with the news. My favorite part of NLS is
20 NLS provides its services to any U.S. 42 the widened horizons that reading audiobooks
21 resident or U.S. citizen living abroad who is 43 gives to me.”
22 blind, has low vision, or has a physical

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RC 3
16. The main purpose of the passage is to 18. The quotation by Ivana Kirola suggests
(A) inform the reader about a service that that she finds the NLS audiobooks
offers braille and talking books to the (A) frustrating
blind and physically handicapped. (B) worthless
(B) explain why reading should be a part (C) hilarious
of every person’s life, regardless of (D) enriching
disabilities.
(C) argue that the rise of television has 19. According to the information in the
caused people to read less than they passage, what is the alternative to
should. audiobooks for those who have impaired
(D) compare traditional audiobooks with vision or are physically disabled?
the audiobooks provided by NLS.
(A) They can find someone to read to
them.
17. Which of the following questions can be
(B) They can listen to the radio.
answered with information from the
(C) They can have braille books delivered
passage?
to their homes.
(A) What is Ivana Kirola’s favorite book?
(D) There is no alternative.
(B) What type of book offered by NLS is
most popular?
20. In line 11, “patrons” most nearly means
(C) When was the NLS established?
(A) users
(D) Who was the founder of NLS?
(B) enemies
(C) strangers
(D) sponsors

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 RC 3
Questions 21–25

1 Benjamin Franklin – a renowned 18 1746 publication of Poor Richard, Franklin

2 inventor, politician, and publisher and one of 19 wrote, “I know as well as thee, that I am no
3 the Founding Fathers of the United States – 20 poet born; and it is a trade I never learnt, nor
4 was also known as the publisher of Poor 21 indeed could learn. Why then should I give my
5 Richard’s Almanac. He published the almanac 22 readers bad lines of my own, when good ones
6 annually from 1732 to 1758 under the 23 of other people’s are so plenty?”
7 pseudonym “Poor Richard” or “Richard 24 Franklin’s proverbs generally promoted
8 Saunders.” Franklin’s almanac was very 25 hard work, frugality, and virtue, and some of
9 popular in the American colonies, and its sales 26 these proverbs are still famous today. For
10 reached 10,000 per year, which was an 27 example, you might have heard the saying,
11 impressive amount at the time. The almanac 28 “Early to bed and early to rise makes a man
12 contained diverse content, including weather 29 healthy, wealthy and wise.” Centuries later, his
13 forecasts, puzzles, and proverbs. It offered 30 advice remains relevant and useful. While the
14 both practical insight and entertainment. 31 popularity of most almanacs from that era was
15 Most of the content in Poor Richard’s 32 transient, the legacy of Poor Richard’s Almanac
16 Almanac was not original, and its material 33 is enduring.
17 came from a wide range of sources. In the

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RC 3
21. The main purpose of this passage is to 23. According to the information in the
(A) compare Poor Richard’s Almanac to passage, Benjamin Franklin
other almanacs popular in the (A) considered himself to be an excellent
American colonies. poet.
(B) analyze the greatest (B) stole the content from his childhood
accomplishments of Benjamin friend named Richard.
Franklin’s life. (C) did not write most of the content in
(C) inform the reader about Poor his almanac.
Richard’s Almanac. (D) advised his readers to procrastinate
(D) prove that Benjamin Franklin is the and to live extravagantly.
most important Founding Father of
the United States. 24. Benjamin Franklin published his almanac
under the name
22. As it is used in line 32, “transient” most (A) George Washington
nearly means
(B) Founding Father
(A) short-lived (C) King Franklin
(B) permanent (D) Richard Saunders
(C) intense
(D) unusual 25. According to the passage, which of the
following was NOT contained in the
almanac?
(A) Proverbs
(B) Weather forecasts
(C) Puzzles
(D) Political speeches

STOP. Do not go on STOP

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MA 4
Section 4
Mathematics Achievement
30 Questions Time: 30 minutes

Each question is followed by four suggested answers. Read each question and then decide which one of the four
suggested answers is best.

Find the row of spaces on your answer document that has the same number as the question. In this row, mark
the space having the same letter as the answer you have chosen. You may write in your test booklet.

SAMPLE QUESTION: Sample Answer

Which of the numbers below is NOT a factor of 364? ⒶⒷⒸⒹ

(A) 13
(B) 20
(C) 26
(D) 91
The correct answer is 20, so circle B is darkened.

STOP. Do not go on STOP

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MA 4
1 1
1. Which fraction is between and ? 5. Which number is divisible by 9 with a
5 2
remainder of 1?
1
(A)
10 (A) 181
3
(B) (B) 180
10
4 (C) 179
(C)
5 (D) 178
9
(D)
10
6. Shown below is a plan for a parking lot
that a grocery store is building. All angles
2. Use the set of numbers shown to answer
shown in the plan are 90°.
the question.
{6, 9, 12, 15, 18, … } 50 ft

Which describes this set of numbers?

30 ft
(A) odd numbers 40 ft
40 ft
(B) even numbers
10 ft
(C) prime numbers
(D) multiples of 3
According to the grocery store’s plan,
3. What is the sum of 3.14 and 1.6? what will be the perimeter of the parking
(A) 3.6 lot? (P = s+s+s+s+s+s)

(B) 3.74 (A) 300 ft

(C) 4.7 (B) 260 ft
(D) 4.74 (C) 200 ft
(D) 160 ft
4. What is the name of a polygon with four
sides and four right angles?
(A) rectangle
(B) pentagon
(C) kite
(D) rhombus

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MA 4
7. What is the mode of this set of data?

TIME SPENT READING (IN MINUTES)

Week: Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday Sunday

1 12 30 18 40 25 30 30

2 30 15 45 20 30 40 30

3 20 30 30 35 45 30 25

(A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 45

8. Use the number sequence to answer the 10. The chart below shows Anne’s purchases
question. at the store.
1, 4, 7, ___, 13, 16
Item Price of 1 Quantity
What is the missing number in the
sequence? jar of peanut $2.99 3
butter
(A) 9
(B) 10 loaf of bread $1.49 2
(C) 11
(D) 12 1 pack of $4.99 1
paper plates

9. Brendan tried to fill an empty vase with

jar of jelly $3.49 1
1
6 cups of water, but he accidentally
6
2
spilled 1 cups of water onto the floor. If
3 What is the total estimated cost?
he poured the rest of the water into the
(A) between $0 and $8
vase, how many cups of water ended up
(B) between $8 and $16
in the vase?
2
(C) between $16 and $24
(A) 2
3 (D) between $24 and $32
1
(B) 3
2
1
(C) 4
3
1
(D) 4
2

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MA 4
11. What is the value of the expression 14. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 60 ft,
3,100 − 255? which equation below can be used to
determine the length of the rectangle?
(A) 3,845
(𝑃𝑃 = 2𝑙𝑙 + 2𝑤𝑤, where P = perimeter, l =
(B) 2,945
length, and w = width.)
(C) 2,845
(A) 𝑙𝑙 = 30 − 𝑤𝑤
(D) 2,745
(B) 𝑙𝑙 = 60 − 𝑤𝑤

12. What is the standard form for eight (C) 𝑙𝑙 = 𝑤𝑤 + 30

𝑤𝑤
hundred sixty-two thousand fourteen? (D) 𝑙𝑙 =
60

(A) 862,404
(B) 862,014 15. Which fraction is equivalent to 0.25?
(C) 814,620 25
(A)
10
(D) 800,624
1
(B)
2.5
13. Jessica asked 100 third-graders at her 1
(C)
school where they want to go on the next 4
4
school field trip. The table shows the (D)
25
results.

Field trip location Number of votes 16. If (∎ × 2) + 60 = 300, what number does
∎ stand for?
art museum 17 (A) 180
(B) 120
public library 13
(C) 110
animal shelter 45 (D) 80

police station 25 17. Mrs. Grayson has 6 boxes of crayons. Each

box contains 12 crayons. If C represents
What fraction of the students wanted to the total number of crayons, which
go to either the animal shelter or the equation would tell her how many
police station? crayons she has?
1 (A) 12 × 6 = 𝐶𝐶
(A)
2
(B) 𝐶𝐶 + 6 = 12
7
(B) 𝐶𝐶
10 (C) 12 =
6
3
(C) 12
4 (D) 𝐶𝐶 =
6
4
(D)
5

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MA 4
18. Sabra asked 100 students what their favorite seasons were. The chart below shows her results.

FAVORITE SEASONS
60

50
Number of Students

40

30

20

10

0
summer spring fall winter
Favorite season

How many more students prefer summer than fall and winter combined?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 30

19. Use the number line to answer the question.

15 30

What number is represented by point W on the number line?

(A) 32
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 55

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MA 4
1
20. If the area of a triangle is × base × 23. Use the coordinate graph below.
2
height, what is the area of the triangle 8
ABC?
7
A 6
5
4
7 cm 3
2
1
B C 0
4 cm
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(A) 7 cm2
(B) 11 cm2 Chelsea plotted the following points on
(C) 14 cm2 the coordinate graph:
(D) 28 cm2 Point A (1,1); Point B (6,1); Point C (6,6)
Where on the coordinate graph should
21. What is the value of the expression (6 + she plot Point D so that her points form a
3 × 4) ÷ 2? square with vertices A, B, C, and D, and
(A) 32 sides AB, BC, CD, and DA?
(B) 18 (A) (1, 4)
(C) 12 (B) (1, 6)
(D) 9 (C) (6, 1)
(D) (6, 8)
22. Which of the following numbers is
divisible by 4 without a remainder, but 24. Which of the following expressions is
NOT by 3? 3
equal to 5 × ?
7
(A) 12
5+3
(B) 24 (A)
7

(C) 40 (B)
5×3
5×7
(D) 48
3
(C)
5×7
5×3
(D)
7

Go on to the next page 

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MA 4
25. The graph shows the number of pies sold 28. In Mr. Cluff’s class of 30 students, 3
at a school bake sale. students are allergic to bees. If a bee flies
into the classroom and stings a student at
Hours since start Pies sold random, what is the probability that the
of sale student is allergic to the bee?
1
1  (A)
100
1
2  (B)
10
1
(C)
3  3

(D) 3
4 
29. Use the coordinate grid to answer the
5 
question.
 = 5 pies sold
8
7
How many pies were sold at the bake
6
sale? K
5
(A) 16
4
(B) 80
3
(C) 160
2
(D) 220
1

26. What is the value of the expression 191 + 0

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
223?
(A) 424
What are the coordinates of point K in the
(B) 414 figure above?
(C) 404
(A) (5,5)
(D) 314
(B) (5,3)
(C) (3, 5)
27. Mrs. Rattan is 5.5 feet tall. There are 12
(D) (3, 1)
inches in 1 foot. How many inches tall is
Mrs. Rattan?
30. Which of the following numbers is a
(A) 55
multiple of 15?
(B) 60
(A) 3
(C) 66
(B) 6
(D) 67
(C) 30
(D) 33

STOP. Do not go on STOP

until told to do so.

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 ANSWER KEY
ISEE LOWER LEVEL TEST 1
 ISEE LOWER LEVEL
TEST 1

SECTION 1 – VERBAL REASONING

1. D 6. D 11. D 16. B 21. C 26. A 31. C
2. B 7. C 12. B 17. C 22. A 27. B 32. B
3. B 8. C 13. A 18. A 23. A 28. D 33. A
4. C 9. B 14. C 19. B 24. C 29. C 34. C
5. A 10. A 15. B 20. C 25. A 30. C

SECTION 2 – QUANTITATIVE REASONING

1. C 6. B 11. B 16. C 21. C 26. D 31. B 36. C
2. C 7. C 12. A 17. B 22. C 27. D 32. C 37. B
3. B 8. B 13. B 18. C 23. A 28. C 33. C 38. B
4. D 9. D 14. B 19. D 24. B 29. B 34. B
5. C 10. C 15. D 20. A 25. C 30. C 35. D

SECTION 3 – READING COMPREHENSION

1. B 5. D 9. A 13. B 17. C 21. C 25. D
2. D 6. A 10. A 14. D 18. D 22. A
3. C 7. D 11. A 15. B 19. C 23. C
4. A 8. C 12. D 16. A 20. A 24. D

SECTION 4 – MATHEMATICS ACHIEVEMENT

1. B 5. A 9. D 13. B 17. A 21. D 25. B 29. C
2. D 6. B 10. C 14. A 18. D 22. C 26. B 30. C
3. D 7. C 11. C 15. C 19. C 23. B 27. C
4. A 8. B 12. B 16. B 20. C 24. D 28. B

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 SCORING YOUR TEST

On the ISEE, you receive one point for every question you answered correctly, and you receive no points
for questions you answered incorrectly or skipped. In each section, the ISEE also includes 5 or 6
experimental questions that do not count towards your score. You won’t be told which questions are
unscored, and for this reason, these practice tests do not have specific questions marked as experimental.
This also means that it isn’t possible to determine an exact score for each section of these practice tests,
but you can estimate your score using the procedures below.

To estimate your raw score for your practice test, first count up the number of questions you answered
correctly in each section. Then, follow the table below to subtract 3, 4, or 5 points for each section,
accounting for the experimental questions that would not be scored on your actual ISEE exam.

MY RAW SCORE

Section # of Questions Correct Raw Score

Verbal Reasoning −4=

Quantitative Reasoning −3=

Reading Comprehension −5=

Mathematics Achievement −5=

SCALED SCORE

Once you have found your raw score, convert it into an approximate scaled score using the scoring charts
that follow. These charts provide an estimated range for your ISEE scaled score based on your
performance on this practice test. Keep in mind that this estimate may differ slightly from your scaled

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score when you take your actual ISEE exam, depending on the ISEE’s specific scaling for that exam and
any differences in your own test-taking process.

LOWER LEVEL SCALED SCORE RANGES

Quantitative Reading Mathematics

Raw Score Verbal Reasoning
Reasoning Comprehension Achievement

35 875 – 905

34 875 – 905

33 870 – 900

32 865 – 895

31 865 – 895

30 875 – 905 860 – 890

29 870 – 900 860 – 890

28 865 – 895 855 – 885

27 865 – 895 850 – 880

26 860 – 890 850 – 880

25 855 – 885 845 – 875 875 – 905

24 850 – 880 840 – 870 875 – 905

23 845 – 875 840 – 870 870 – 900

22 845 – 875 835 – 865 860 – 890

21 840 – 870 830 – 860 860 – 890

20 835 – 865 830 – 860 885 – 905 855 – 885

19 830 – 860 825 – 855 875 – 905 850 – 880

18 830 – 860 820 – 850 870 – 900 845 – 875

17 825 – 855 820 – 850 865 – 895 845 – 875

16 820 – 850 815 – 845 860 – 890 840 – 870

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 15 820 – 850 815 – 845 855 – 885 835 – 865

14 815 – 845 810 – 840 845 – 875 830 – 860

13 810 – 840 805 – 835 840 – 870 830 – 860

12 805 – 835 805 – 835 835 – 865 825 – 855

11 800 – 830 800 – 830 830 – 860 820 – 850

10 800 – 830 800 – 830 825 – 855 820 – 850

9 795 – 825 795 – 825 815 – 845 815 – 845

8 790 – 820 790 – 820 810 – 840 810 – 840

7 785 – 815 790 – 820 805 – 835 805 – 835

6 780 – 810 785 – 815 800 – 830 805 – 835

5 780 – 810 780 – 810 790 – 820 800 – 830

4 775 – 805 780 – 810 785 – 815 795 – 825

3 770 – 800 775 – 805 780 – 810 790 – 820

2 765 – 795 770 – 800 775 – 805 790 – 820

1 765 – 795 770 – 800 770 – 800 785 – 815

0 760 – 790 765 – 795 765 – 795 780 – 810

PERCENTILE
When you take your actual ISEE exam, you will receive a percentile ranking comparing your performance
against the performance of other students in the same grade who have taken the ISEE that year. For
example, a percentile of 62 means that you scored higher than 62% of other ISEE test-takers applying to
the same grade. Because your percentile ranking shows how well you performed according to your own
grade level, these rankings are frequently given high consideration by admissions offices.

The following charts provide an estimate of your ISEE percentile rankings for this practice test, compared
against other students applying to the same grade. For example, if you are scoring at or above the 75th
percentile, you are scoring higher than 75% of other ISEE test-takers applying to the same grade. Keep in
mind that these percentiles are estimates only, and your actual ISEE percentile will depend on the specific
group of students taking the exam in your year.

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 LOWER LEVEL VERBAL REASONING PERCENTILES

Grade Applying To 75th percentile 50th percentile 25th percentile

Grade 5 857 840 821

Grade 6 871 856 837

LOWER LEVEL QUANTITATIVE REASONING PERCENTILES

Grade Applying To 75th percentile 50th percentile 25th percentile

Grade 5 859 843 828

Grade 6 870 856 840

LOWER LEVEL READING COMPREHENSION PERCENTILES

Grade Applying To 75th percentile 50th percentile 25th percentile

Grade 5 854 834 815

Grade 6 868 848 828

LOWER LEVEL MATHEMATICS ACHIEVEMENT PERCENTILES

Grade Applying To 75th percentile 50th percentile 25th percentile

Grade 5 863 848 833

Grade 5 876 863 848

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STANINE
When you receive the score report for your actual ISEE exam, your percentile score will also be broken
down into a stanine. A stanine is a number from 1-9 obtained by dividing the entire range of students’
scores into 9 segments, as shown in the table below:

PERCENTILE RANK STANINE

1–3 1

4 – 10 2

11 – 22 3

23 – 39 4

40 – 59 5

60 – 76 6

77 – 88 7

89 – 95 8

96 – 99 9

Although it isn’t possible to calculate your exact stanine from this practice test, you can estimate a stanine
score range by looking at your estimated percentile score on each section. For example, if you scored
between the 50th and 75th percentile in one of your test sections, your stanine score would be between 5
and 6.

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