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iSQI CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam Question & Answers
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0

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Exam

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Product Questions: 151

Version: 6.1

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Question: 1

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The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

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A. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
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B. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
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C. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid
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D. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Answer: A
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Explanation:
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The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid run faster than the tests at the top layer of the
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pyramid because they are more focused, isolated, and atomic. They usually test individual units or
components of the software system, such as classes, methods, or functions. They are also easier to
maintain and execute, as they have fewer dependencies and interactions with other parts of the
system. The tests at the top layer of the test pyramid, on the other hand, are slower because they
cover larger pieces of functionalities, such as user interfaces, workflows, or end-to-end scenarios.
They also have more dependencies and interactions with other systems, such as databases,
networks, or external services. They are more complex and costly to maintain and execute, as they
require more setup and teardown procedures, test data, and test environments. Reference: ISTQB
Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.2.1, Test Pyramid1

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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Pyramid2

Question: 2

Test automation allows you to:

A. demonstrate the absence of defects

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B. produce tests that are less subject to human errors

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C. avoid performing exploratory testing

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D. increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Explanation:
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Test automation allows you to produce tests that are less subject to human errors, as they can
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execute predefined test scripts or test cases with consistent inputs, outputs, and expected results.
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Test automation can also reduce the manual effort and time required to execute repetitive or tedious
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tests, such as regression tests, performance tests, or data-driven tests. Test automation does not
demonstrate the absence of defects, as it can only verify the expected behavior of the system under
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test, not the unexpected or unknown behavior. Test automation does not avoid performing
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exploratory testing, as exploratory testing is a valuable technique to discover new information, risks,
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or defects that are not covered by automated tests. Test automation does not increase test process
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efficiency by facilitating management of defects, as defect management is a separate activity that

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involves reporting, tracking, analyzing, and resolving defects, which may or may not be related to
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automated tests. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.3.1, Test Automation1

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Automation2

Question: 3

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Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

A. The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated
regression test suites

B. The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C. The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D. The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically

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generate test cases from a model

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Answer: B
Explanation:

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The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests,
which are tests that simulate a large number of concurrent users or transactions on the system under
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test, in order to measure its performance, reliability, and scalability. Performance testing tools can
help testers to generate realistic workloads, monitor system behavior, collect and analyze
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performance metrics, and identify performance bottlenecks. The other statements are false,
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because:
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A test data preparation tool is a tool that helps testers to create, manage, and manipulate test data,
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which are the inputs and outputs of test cases. Test data preparation tools are not directly related to
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running automated regression test suites, which are test suites that verify that the system still works
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as expected after changes or modifications. Regression test suites are usually executed by test
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execution tools, which are tools that can automatically run test cases and compare actual results
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with expected results.

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A bug prediction tool is a tool that uses machine learning or statistical techniques to predict the
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likelihood of defects in a software system, based on various factors such as code complexity, code
churn, code coverage, code smells, etc. Bug prediction tools are not used by testers to track the bugs
they found, which are the actual defects that have been detected and reported during testing. Bugs
are usually tracked by defect management tools, which are tools that help testers to record, monitor,
analyze, and resolve defects.

A continuous integration tool is a tool that enables the integration of code changes from multiple
developers into a shared repository, and the execution of automated builds and tests, in order to
ensure the quality and consistency of the software system. Continuous integration tools are not used
by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model, which are test cases that are derived

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from a representation of the system under test, such as a state diagram, a decision table, a use case,
etc. Test cases can be automatically generated by test design tools, which are tools that support the
implementation and maintenance of test cases, based on test design specifications or test
models. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.4.1, Types of Test Tools

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Performance Testing Tool, Test Data Preparation Tool, Bug
Prediction Tool, Continuous Integration Tool, Test Execution Tool, Defect Management Tool, Test
Design Tool

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Question: 4

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Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

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A. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than
that needed to achieve full statement coverage
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B. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have
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surely been exercised

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C. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table
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have surely been exercised

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D. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures
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achieving full branch coverage

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Answer: D
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Explanation:
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Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving
full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control
flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that
has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control
flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a
loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision,
such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or
the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:

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The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than
that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that
all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because
branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage,
but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-
else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then
branch and the else branch need to be exercised.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not
necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any
decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement,

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etc. Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent
different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage

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criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.

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If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table

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have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the

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logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular
format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision
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outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false,
yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of
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conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To
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exercise all combinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is
needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of
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condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. Reference: ISTQB
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Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based
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on the Structure of the Software

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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision,
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Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage

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Question: 5

Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a
video poker game:

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What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3
states/2 transitions starting In the "Start" state and ending In the "End" state?
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A. 1
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B. 2
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C. 3
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D. 4

Answer: D
Explanation:

The minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2
transitions starting in the “Start” state and ending in the “End” state is 4. This is because there are 4

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unique sequences of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting in the “Start” state and ending in the “End”
state:

Start -> Bet -> End

Start -> Deal -> End

Start -> 1st Deal -> End

Start -> 2nd Deal -> End Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
documents.

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Question: 6

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Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope",

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"Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those

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excluded from the testing represent information that is:
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A. not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified
neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others
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B. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within
"Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned
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C. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within
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"Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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D. usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within
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"Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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Answer: B
Explanation:

The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent
information that is usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be
specified within “Test Scope” rather than in the other two sections mentioned. The test scope defines
the boundaries and limitations of the testing activities, such as the test items, the features to be
tested, the features not to be tested, the test objectives, the test environment, the test resources,
the test assumptions, the test risks, etc. The test scope helps to establish a common understanding of

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what is included and excluded from the testing, and to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or
misunderstanding among the stakeholders. The other two sections, “Testing Communication” and
“Stakeholders”, are also important parts of a test plan, but they do not directly address the features
of the test object. The testing communication describes the methods, frequency, and responsibilities
for the communication and reporting of the testing progress, status, issues, and results. The
stakeholders identify the roles and responsibilities of the people involved in or affected by the testing
activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the
customers, the users, etc. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1

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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Plan, Test Scope2

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Question: 7

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An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one
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numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
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Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value
boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a
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semicolon)
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A. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
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B. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
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C. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

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D. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
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Answer: D
Explanation:

The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set
of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses
on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum
values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses

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two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid
value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower
boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in
option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of
the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one
lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:

1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid

rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid

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3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid

8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect,

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because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not

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meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:

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1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter

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aB11: a 4-character password that is valid
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Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
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7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
(CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design
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Techniques1
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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
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Question: 8
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A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of
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all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single
sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount
of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as
"Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into
the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

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Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table
associated with this scenario?

A. 12

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3

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Answer: B

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Explanation:

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The minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this
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scenario is 6. This is because the decision table has 4 conditions (type of customer and amount of
sale) and 4 actions (bonus percentage). The conditions have 2 possible values each (Basic or
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Premium, and G1, G2 or G3), so the total number of combinations is 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16. However, not
all combinations are valid, as some of them are contradictory or impossible. For example, a sale
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cannot be both less than 300 euros and greater than 2000 euros at the same time. Therefore, we
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need to eliminate the invalid combinations and keep only the valid ones. The valid combinations are:
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Type of customer Amount of sale Bonus percentage

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Basic G1 3%
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Basic G2 5%
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Basic G3 7%
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Premium G1 5%
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Premium G2 7%

Premium G3 10%

These 6 combinations cover all the possible values of the conditions and actions, and they are the
minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table.

Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents,

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Questions and Answers PDF 12/157

Question: 9

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of
defects found by black-box test techniques

B. Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use
cases and business processes

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C. Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been

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targeted by black-box test techniques

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D. The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily

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automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

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Answer: C
Explanation:
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Experience-based test techniques are test design techniques that rely on the experience, knowledge,
intuition, and creativity of the testers to identify and execute test cases that are likely to find defects
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in the software system. Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects
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that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use
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the external behavior and specifications of the software system as the test basis, without considering
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its internal structure or implementation. Experience-based test techniques can complement black-
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box test techniques by covering aspects that are not explicitly specified, such as usability, security,
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reliability, performance, etc. The other statements are false, because:

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Experience-based test techniques do not rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes
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of defects found by black-box test techniques, but rather to identify the potential sources of defects
based on their own insights, heuristics, or exploratory testing. The root causes of defects are usually
identified by debugging or root cause analysis, which are activities that involve examining the code
or the development process to find and fix the errors that led to the defects.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include the source code, the
design documents, the architecture diagrams, and the control flow graphs of the software system.
White-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the internal structure and
implementation of the software system as the test basis, and aim to achieve a certain level of test
coverage based on the code elements, such as statements, branches, paths, etc. User stories, use

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cases, and business processes are examples of test basis used by black-box test techniques, as they
describe the functional and non-functional requirements of the software system from the
perspective of the users or the stakeholders.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is not to design test cases that can be easily
automated using a GUI-based test automation tool, but rather to design test cases that can reveal
defects that are not easily detected by other test techniques, such as boundary value analysis,
equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, etc. Test automation is the use of software tools to
execute test cases and compare actual results with expected results, without human intervention.
Test automation can be applied to different types of test techniques, depending on the test
objectives, the test levels, the test tools, and the test resources. However, test automation is not

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always feasible or beneficial, especially for test cases that require human judgment, creativity, or
exploration, such as those designed by experience-based test techniques. Reference: ISTQB Certified

.c
Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design

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Techniques

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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.2, White-box Test Design
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Techniques

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.3, Experience-based Test Design
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Techniques
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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Experience-based Test Technique, Black-box Test Technique,
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White-box Test Technique, Test Basis, Test Coverage, Test Automation

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Question: 10
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A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some
functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile
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devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These
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tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user
interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the
following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing
images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

A. You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running
which tests you observed the issue

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B. The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you
should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C. You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware
equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D. You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you
observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the
requirements specification

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Answer: A
Explanation:

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As a functional tester, you should open a defect report providing detailed information on which

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devices and by running which tests you observed the issue. A defect report is a document that
records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect detected during testing, and provides
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information for further investigation and resolution. A defect report should include relevant
information such as the defect summary, the defect description, the defect severity, the defect
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priority, the defect status, the defect origin, the defect category, the defect reproduction steps, the
defect screenshots, the defect attachments, etc. Opening a defect report is a good practice for any
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tester who finds a defect in the software system, regardless of the type or level of testing performed.
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The other options are not recommended, because:

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The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality, but that does not mean that as a
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functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed.
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Performance efficiency is a quality characteristic that measures how well the software system
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performs its functions under stated conditions, such as the response time, the resource utilization,
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the throughput, etc. Performance efficiency is an important aspect of the user experience, especially
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for web applications that run on different devices and networks. Even if the functional tests passed,
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meaning that the software system met the functional requirements, the performance issue observed
on some devices could still affect the user satisfaction, the usability, the reliability, and the security of
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the software system. Therefore, as a functional tester, you have the responsibility to report the
performance issue as a defect, and provide as much information as possible to help the developers
or the performance testers to investigate and resolve it.

Question: 11

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and
dependencies on other test cases

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Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and

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allows executing the test cases in priority order?

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A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B. TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

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C. TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3
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D. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Answer: D
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Explanation:
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This answer is correct because it follows the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases
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in priority order. TC4, TC3, and TC2 are executed first because they have the highest priority. TC6 is
executed next because it has a logical dependency on TC2. TC1 is executed next because it has a
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logical dependency on TC5. Finally, TC5 is executed last because it has the lowest priority. Reference:
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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents

Question: 12

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

A. Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of

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test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of
the environment in which the software will be released

B. Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is

the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C. Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in

the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test
environments

D. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software

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items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in
test documentation

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Answer: D

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Explanation:

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This answer is correct because configuration management is a process of establishing and
maintaining consistency of a product’s performance, functional, and physical attributes with its
ex

requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life. Configuration management
id

helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all
al

their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation. This supports
testing by providing traceability, consistency, and control over the test artifacts and the software
.v

under test. Reference: : ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0,
w

Section 2.2.2.2
w
// w

Question: 13
s:
tp

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

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A. Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the

requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B. When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by
the testers can be documented in session sheets

C. Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code
reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

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D. In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability
between these tests and the items of the test basis

Answer: B
Explanation:

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers dynamically design and
execute tests based on their knowledge, intuition, and learning of the software system, without

om
following predefined test scripts or test cases. Exploratory testing can be conducted following a
session-based approach, which is a structured way of managing and measuring exploratory testing.

.c
In a session-based approach, the testers perform uninterrupted test sessions, usually lasting

ps
between 60 and 120 minutes, with a specific charter or goal, and document the issues detected, the

m
test coverage achieved, and the time spent in session sheets. Session sheets are records of the test
activities, results, and observations during a test session, which can be used for reporting, debriefing,

du
and learning purposes. The other statements are false, because:
am
Exploratory testing is not a test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to
detect non testable requirements, but rather a test technique in which testers explore the software
ex

system to detect functional and non-functional defects, as well as to learn new information, risks, or
id

opportunities. Non testable requirements are requirements that are ambiguous, incomplete,
inconsistent, or not verifiable, which can affect the quality and effectiveness of the testing process.
al

Non testable requirements can be detected by applying static testing techniques, such as reviews or
.v

inspections, to the requirements specification, before the software system is developed or tested.
w

Exploratory testing is not a test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find
w

defects by exploring the source code, but rather a test technique used by testers during dynamic
w

testing to find defects by exploring the behavior and performance of the software system, without
//

examining the source code. Informal code reviews are static testing techniques, in which the source
s:

code is analyzed by one or more reviewers, without following a formal process or using a checklist, to
tp

identify defects, violations, or improvements. Informal code reviews are usually performed by
ht

developers or peers, not by testers.

In exploratory testing, testers usually do not produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional
traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis, but rather produce unscripted tests
and adapt them based on the feedback and the findings of the testing process. Scripted tests are
tests that are designed and documented in advance, with predefined inputs, outputs, and expected
results, and are executed according to a test plan or a test procedure. Bidirectional traceability is the
ability to trace both forward and backward the relationships between the items of the test basis,
such as the requirements, the design, the risks, etc., and the test artifacts, such as the test cases, the
test results, the defects, etc. Scripted tests and bidirectional traceability are usually associated with
more formal and structured testing approaches, such as specification-based or structure-based test

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Questions and Answers PDF 18/157

techniques, not with exploratory testing. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL)
v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.3, Experience-based Test Design
Techniques1

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Exploratory Testing, Session-based Testing, Session Sheet,
Non Testable Requirement, Static Testing, Informal Review, Dynamic Testing, Scripted Testing,
Bidirectional Traceability2

om
Question: 14

.c
ps
In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a
heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web

m
application.

du
The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of
am
the following testing quadrants?
ex
id

A. Q1
al

B. Q2
.v

C. Q3
w
w

D. Q4
// w
s:

Answer: C
tp

Explanation:
ht

The unscripted tests produced by the tester’s experience during the two-hour test session belong to
the testing quadrant Q3. The testing quadrants are a classification of testing types based on two
dimensions: the test objectives (whether the testing is focused on supporting the team or critiquing
the product) and the test basis (whether the testing is based on the technology or the business). The
testing quadrants are labeled as Q1, Q2, Q3, and Q4, and each quadrant represents a different
testing perspective, such as unit testing, acceptance testing, usability testing, or performance testing.
The testing quadrant Q3 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the
product from the business perspective, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, user acceptance

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Questions and Answers PDF 19/157

testing, alpha testing, beta testing, etc. The unscripted tests performed by the tester in the given
scenario are examples of exploratory testing and usability testing, as they are based on the tester’s
experience, intuition, and learning of the web application, and they focus on some specific usability
issues, such as the user interface, the user satisfaction, the user feedback, etc. The other options are
incorrect, because:

The testing quadrant Q1 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the
team from the technology perspective, such as unit testing, component testing, integration testing,
system testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by developers or testers who have
access to the source code, the design, the architecture, or the configuration of the software system,
and they aim to verify the functionality, the quality, and the reliability of the software system at

om
different levels of integration.

.c
The testing quadrant Q2 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of supporting the

ps
team from the business perspective, such as functional testing, acceptance testing, story testing,
scenario testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or customers who have

m
access to the requirements, the specifications, the user stories, or the business processes of the

du
software system, and they aim to validate that the software system meets the expectations and the
needs of the users and the stakeholders.
am
The testing quadrant Q4 corresponds to the testing types that have the objective of critiquing the
ex

product from the technology perspective, such as performance testing, security testing, reliability
testing, compatibility testing, etc. These testing types are usually performed by testers or specialists
id

who have access to the tools, the metrics, the standards, or the benchmarks of the software system,
al

and they aim to evaluate the non-functional aspects of the software system, such as the efficiency,
.v

the security, the reliability, or the compatibility of the software system under different conditions or
environments. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
w

documents:
w
w

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software
//

Development Lifecycles
s:

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Testing Quadrant, Exploratory Testing, Usability Testing, Unit
tp

Testing, Component Testing, Integration Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, Acceptance
ht

Testing, Story Testing, Scenario Testing, Performance Testing, Security Testing, Reliability Testing,
Compatibility Testing

Question: 15

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test
project?

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A. The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B. The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C. The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D. The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

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Answer: D
Explanation:

.c
ps
This answer is correct because the test procedures of all test cases that have been executed are not a

m
typical content of a test completion report for a test project. A test completion report is a document

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that summarizes the test activities and results at the end of a test project. It usually includes
information such as the test objectives, scope, approach, resources, schedule, results, deviations,
am
issues, risks, lessons learned, and recommendations for improvement. The test procedures of all test
cases that have been executed are part of the test documentation, but they are not relevant for the
ex

test completion report, as they do not provide a high-level overview of the test project outcomes and
id

performance. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.5.3.2

al
.v

Question: 16
w
w
w

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

//
s:
tp

A. Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software
components are likely to contain defects or not
ht

B. Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what
needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C. Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite
the presence of erroneous inputs

D. Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects
and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

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Answer: D
Explanation:

This answer is correct because error guessing is a test design technique where the experience and
intuition of the tester are used to anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred or are
likely to occur, and to design test cases to expose them. Error guessing can be based on factors such
as the complexity of the system or component, the known or suspected weaknesses of the system or
component, the previous history of defects, or the common types of errors in the domain or
technology. Error guessing can be used as a complementary technique to other more systematic or

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formal techniques, or when there is insufficient information or time to apply them. Reference: ISTQB
Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.5

.c
ps
m
Question: 17

du
Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?
am
ex

A. Determining the people who will be involved in the review

id

B. Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

al
.v

C. Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

w

D. Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

w
// w

Answer: C
s:

Explanation:
tp
ht

This answer is correct because identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review is
one of the tasks the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review. The Author is the
person who creates the work product to be reviewed, such as a requirement specification, a design
document, or a test case. The Author’s tasks include preparing the work product for the review,
identifying potential anomalies in the work product, and fixing the anomalies found in the work
product after the review. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level
Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.1

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Question: 18

The whole-team approach:

A. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test
techniques

B. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

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C. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

.c
D. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest
level of testing independence

ps
m
du
Answer: C
Explanation:
am
ex

This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where
id

all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on
al

delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business
analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and
.v

delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and
w

continuous improvement within the team. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB
w

Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1

// w
s:

Question: 19
tp
ht

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my
account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change
must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a

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Questions and Answers PDF 23/157

new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the
criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5
passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong
current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct
current password, but enters an invalid password

om
Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written
first?

.c
ps
m
A. The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

du
B. The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different
from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail
am
confirming that the password has been successfully changed
ex

C. The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally
views the dedicated error
id
al

D. The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit
.v

card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the
dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful
w
w
w

Answer: B
//
s:

Explanation:
tp
ht

ATDD stands for Acceptance Test-Driven Development, which is a collaborative approach to software
development and testing, in which the acceptance criteria of a user story are defined and automated
as executable tests before the implementation of the software system. ATDD tests are usually written
in a Given-When-Then format, which describes the preconditions, the actions, and the expected
outcomes of a test scenario. ATDD tests are intended to verify that the software system meets the
expectations and the needs of the users and the stakeholders, as well as to provide feedback and
guidance for the developers and the testers. Based on the given information, the ATDD test that is
most likely to be written first is the one that corresponds to option B, which is:

Given the logged-in user is on the Change Password page When the user enters the correct current

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Questions and Answers PDF 24/157

password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), and presses the Change
Password button Then the user receives an email confirming that the password has been successfully
changed

This ATDD test is most likely to be written first, because it covers the main functionality and the
happy path of the user story, as well as the most important acceptance criterion [a]. It also verifies
that the user can change the password with a valid new password that meets the criteria related to
the length, the type of characters, and the history of the passwords, as specified in the acceptance
criterion [c]. The other options are not likely to be written first, because they either cover less critical
or less frequent scenarios, such as entering a wrong current password [d] or an invalid new password
[e], or they are not related to the user story or the acceptance criteria at all, such as submitting a

om
purchase order [d]. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
documents:

.c
ps
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software
Development Lifecycles1

m
ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Acceptance Test-Driven Development, User Story, Acceptance

du
Criterion, Given-When-Then2
am
ex

Question: 20
id
al

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?
.v
w
w

A. Be able to apply test-driven development

w

B. Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

//
s:

C. Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

tp

D. Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

ht

Answer: A
Explanation:

Test-driven development is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing, but rather an
example of a specific technical skill or a development practice that may or may not be relevant for
testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing activities. Test-driven

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development is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers write
automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests pass.
Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of the
code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven
development is not a skill that is generally expected or needed for testers, especially for testers who
are not involved in unit testing or who do not have access to the source code. The other options are
examples of typical generic skills required for testing, which are skills that are applicable and
beneficial for testing in any context or situation, regardless of the specific testing techniques, tools,
or methods used. The typical generic skills required for testing include:

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools: These are tools that help testers to

om
plan, organize, monitor, and control the testing activities and resources, as well as to record, track,
analyze, and resolve the defects detected during testing. These tools can improve the efficiency, the

.c
effectiveness, and the communication of the testing process, as well as to provide traceability,

ps
metrics, and reports for the testing outcomes.

m
Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible: This is a skill

du
that involves the ability to report and describe the defects and failures found during testing in a clear,
concise, accurate, and unbiased manner, using relevant information, evidence, and terminology,
am
without making assumptions, judgments, or accusations. This skill can facilitate the collaboration,
the understanding, and the resolution of the defects and failures between the testers and the
ex

developers, as well as to prevent conflicts, misunderstandings, or blame games.

id

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork: These are skills that involve the
al

ability to interact, cooperate, and coordinate with other people involved in or affected by the testing
.v

activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the
customers, the users, etc. These skills can include communication, negotiation, leadership,
w

motivation, feedback, conflict resolution, etc. These skills can enhance the quality, the productivity,
w

and the satisfaction of the testing process, as well as to foster a positive and constructive testing
w

culture. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
//
s:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software
tp

Development Lifecycle
ht

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and
Test Approaches

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test-driven Development, Test Management Tool, Defect
Tracking Tool, Defect Report, Failure, Social Skill2

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Question: 21

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

A. Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B. Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C. Archive the testware for use in future test projects

om
D. Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

.c
ps
Answer: A

m
Explanation:

du
am
A test task that usually occurs during test implementation is to make sure the planned test
ex

environment is ready to be delivered. The test environment is the hardware and software
configuration on which the tests are executed, and it should be as close as possible to the production
id

environment where the software system will operate. The test environment should be planned,
al

prepared, and verified before the test execution, to ensure that the test conditions, the test data, the
test tools, and the test interfaces are available and functional. The other options are not test tasks
.v

that usually occur during test implementation, but rather test tasks that occur during other test
w

activities, such as:

w
w

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests: This is a test task that
//

usually occurs during test analysis and design, which is the activity of analyzing the test basis,
s:

designing the test cases, and identifying the test data. During this activity, the testers can use
tp

techniques such as root cause analysis, defect prevention, or defect analysis, to find, analyze, and
remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the previous tests, and to prevent or reduce the
ht

occurrence of similar failures in the future tests.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects: This is a test task that usually occurs during test
closure, which is the activity of finalizing and reporting the test results, evaluating the test process,
and identifying the test improvement actions. During this activity, the testers can archive the
testware, which are the test artifacts produced during the testing process, such as the test plan, the
test cases, the test data, the test results, the defect reports, etc., for use in future test projects, such
as regression testing, maintenance testing, or reuse testing.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project: This is a test task that usually occurs
during test monitoring and control, which is the activity of tracking and reviewing the test progress,

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status, and quality, and taking corrective actions when necessary. During this activity, the testers can
gather the metrics, which are the measurements of the testing process, such as the test coverage,
the defect density, the test effort, the test duration, etc., that are used to guide the test project, such
as planning, estimating, scheduling, reporting, or improving the testing process. Reference: ISTQB
Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1

om
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1

.c
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1

ps
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1

m
ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Environment, Test Condition, Test Data, Test Tool, Test

du
Interface, Failure, Root Cause Analysis, Defect Prevention, Defect Analysis, Testware, Regression
Testing, Maintenance Testing, Reuse Testing, Test Coverage, Defect Density, Test Effort, Test
am
Duration2
ex
id

Question: 22
al
.v

Which of the following statements is true?

w
w
w

A. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
//
s:

B. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error
tp

C. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

ht

D. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test
levels

Answer: C
Explanation:

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in

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which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly,
according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the
requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by
defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware
malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc.
Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not
part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is
false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the
states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has

om
the same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature
or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used

.c
feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept

ps
from a defect, but rather a synonym or a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition
and implications as a defect.

m
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A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false,
because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human
am
action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a
requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in
ex

the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc.
id

A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For
example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure
al

in the software behavior.

.v

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test
w

levels. This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather
w

different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another
w

word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as
//

expected due to defects. Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component
s:

testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of
tp

integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing,
ht

and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending
on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. Reference: ISTQB
Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software
Development Lifecycles1

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test

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Level2

Question: 23

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

A. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that

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such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

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B. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage
achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria

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associated with black-box test techniques

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C. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore

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applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-
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critical systems

D. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be
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used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Answer: D
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Explanation:
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This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques
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that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of
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coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much
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of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used
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to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or
non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both
types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more
defects. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0,
Section 2.3.2.2

Question: 24

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Which of the following statements is true?

A. In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual
tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B. Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow
the use of experience-based test techniques

C. In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as
testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

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D. Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model,

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test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Answer: A

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Explanation:
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This answer is correct because in Agile software development, work product documentation, such as
user stories, acceptance criteria, or test cases, tends to be lightweight and concise, as the focus is on
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working software and frequent communication rather than comprehensive documentation. Manual
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tests tend to be often unscripted, as they are often produced using experience-based test
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techniques, such as error guessing or exploratory testing, which rely on the tester’s skills,
knowledge, and creativity to find defects and provide feedback. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level
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Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.2, Section 3.2.1.2

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Question: 25
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Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis
and test work products is not true?

A. Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the
corresponding tests

B. Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the
corresponding tests

C. Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing

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project

D. Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

Answer: C
Explanation:

Traceability is the ability to trace the relationships between the items of the test basis, such as the

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requirements, the design, the risks, etc., and the test artifacts, such as the test cases, the test results,
the defects, etc. Traceability can provide various benefits for the testing process, such as improving

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the test coverage, the test quality, the test efficiency, and the test communication. However, not all

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the statements given are true about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and
test work products. The statement that is not true is option C, which says that test objectives should

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be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary

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significantly. This statement is false, because test objectives are the goals or the purposes of testing,
which can vary depending on the test level, the test type, the test technique, the test environment,
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the test stakeholder, etc. Test objectives can be defined in terms of the test basis, the test coverage,
the test quality, the test risk, the test cost, the test time, etc. Test objectives should be specific,
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measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound, and they should be aligned with the project
id

objectives and the quality characteristics. Test objectives should not be the same for all test levels, as
different test levels have different focuses, scopes, and perspectives of testing, such as component
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testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. The other statements are true
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about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products, such as:
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Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the
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corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to identify which tests are
w

affected by a change in the test basis, such as a new requirement, a modified design, a revised risk,
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etc., and to determine the necessary actions to update, re-execute, or re-evaluate the tests.
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Traceability can also help to estimate the effort, the cost, and the time needed to implement the
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change and to verify its impact on the software system.

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Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the
corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to measure the test
coverage, which is the degree to which the test basis is exercised by the test cases. Traceability can
help to identify which test basis items are covered, partially covered, or not covered by the tests, and
to evaluate the adequacy, the completeness, and the effectiveness of the testing process.
Traceability can also help to identify the gaps, the overlaps, or the redundancies in the test coverage,
and to prioritize, optimize, or improve the test cases.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing: This statement is
true, because traceability can help to provide evidence, documentation, and justification for the

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testing activities, results, and outcomes. Traceability can help to demonstrate that the testing process
follows the standards, the regulations, the policies, and the best practices that are applicable to the
software system, the project, or the organization. Traceability can also help to verify that the testing
process meets the expectations, the needs, and the satisfaction of the users and the
stakeholders. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and
Test Approaches1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1

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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1

.c
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ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Traceability, Test Basis, Test Artifact, Test Objective, Test Level,
Test Coverage, Test Quality, Test Risk, Test Cost, Test Time2

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Question: 26 du
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Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the
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chosen software development model?

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A. Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as
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executable specifications that drive coding

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B. Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for
the next level
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C. Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at
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various levels can vary significantly

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D. Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage
of the early testing principle

Answer: D
Explanation:

The statement that refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software

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development model is option D, which says that involvement of testers in work product reviews
should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle. Work product
reviews are static testing techniques, in which the work products of the software development
process, such as the requirements, the design, the code, the test cases, etc., are examined by one or
more reviewers, with or without the author, to identify defects, violations, or improvements.
Involvement of testers in work product reviews can provide various benefits for the testing process,
such as improving the test quality, the test efficiency, and the test communication. The early testing
principle states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development
lifecycle, and should be performed iteratively and continuously throughout the lifecycle. Applying
the early testing principle can help to prevent, detect, and remove defects at an early stage, when

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they are easier, cheaper, and faster to fix, as well as to reduce the risk, the cost, and the time of the
testing process. The other options are not good testing practices to be applied regardless of the

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chosen software development model, but rather specific testing practices that may or may not be
applicable or beneficial for testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing

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activities, such as:

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Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable

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specifications that drive coding: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with test-driven
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development, which is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers
write automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests
pass. Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of
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the code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven
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development is not a good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software
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development model, as it may not be feasible, suitable, or effective for testing in some contexts or
situations, such as when the requirements are unclear, unstable, or complex, when the test
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automation tools or skills are not available or adequate, when the testing objectives or levels are not
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aligned with the unit testing, etc.

w
w

Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for
the next level: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with sequential software
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development models, such as the waterfall model, the V-model, or the W-model, in which the
software development and testing activities are performed in a linear and sequential order, with
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well-defined phases, deliverables, and dependencies. Test levels are the stages of testing that
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correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing,
integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Test levels should have clear and
measurable entry criteria and exit criteria, which are the conditions that must be met before starting
or finishing a test level. In sequential software development models, the exit criteria of one test level
are usually part of the entry criteria for the next test level, to ensure that the software system is
ready and stable for the next level of testing. However, this is not a good testing practice to be
applied regardless of the chosen software development model, as it may not be relevant, flexible, or
efficient for testing in some contexts or situations, such as when the software development and
testing activities are performed in an iterative and incremental order, with frequent changes,
feedback, and adaptations, as in agile software development models, such as Scrum, Kanban, or XP,

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when the test levels are not clearly defined or distinguished, or when the test levels are performed in
parallel or concurrently, etc.

Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at
various levels can vary significantly: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with uniform
software development models, such as the spiral model, the incremental model, or the prototyping
model, in which the software development and testing activities are performed in a cyclical and
repetitive manner, with similar phases, deliverables, and processes. Test objectives are the goals or
the purposes of testing, which can vary depending on the test level, the test type, the test technique,
the test environment, the test stakeholder, etc. Test objectives can be defined in terms of the test
basis, the test coverage, the test quality, the test risk, the test cost, the test time, etc. Test objectives

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should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound, and they should be aligned
with the project objectives and the quality characteristics. In uniform software development models,

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the test objectives may be the same for all test levels, as the testing process is repeated for each

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cycle or iteration, with similar focus, scope, and perspective of testing. However, this is not a good
testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model, as it may not be

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appropriate, realistic, or effective for testing in some contexts or situations, such as when the

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software development and testing activities are performed in a hierarchical and modular manner,
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with different phases, deliverables, and dependencies, as in sequential software development
models, such as the waterfall model, the V-model, or the W-model, when the test objectives vary
according to the test levels, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and
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acceptance testing, or when the test objectives change according to the feedback, the learning, or
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the adaptation of the testing process, as in agile software development models, such as Scrum,
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Kanban, or XP, etc. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and
documents:
.v
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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software
w

Development Lifecycle1
w

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1
//
s:

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and
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Test Approaches1
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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software
Development Lifecycles1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1

ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1

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ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1

ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Work Product Review, Static Testing, Early Testing, Test-driven
Development, Test Level, Entry Criterion, Exit Criterion, Test Objective, Test Basis, Test Coverage, Test
Quality, Test Risk, Test Cost, Test Time2

Question: 27

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing

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the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically
created during:

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ps
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A. Test monitoring and control

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B. Test implementation
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C. Test design
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D. Test analysis
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
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This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as
//

test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and
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verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test
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execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test
scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created
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during test implementation. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation
Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3

Question: 28

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the
total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

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If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater
than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence
partition?

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A. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

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C. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

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D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Answer: A
Explanation:
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id
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This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the
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input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is
expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the
w

number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input
w

domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€,
w

between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the
//

answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to
s:

produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0,
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ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1

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Question: 29

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

A. testing is used to drive the development of a software

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B. a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C. there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D. a software has been properly covered

Answer: B
Explanation:

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This answer is correct because a typical objective of testing is to ensure that a software has been

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tested using a combination of test techniques, such as black-box, white-box, or experience-based
techniques, that are appropriate for the test objectives, test levels, and test types. Testing using a

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combination of test techniques can increase the effectiveness and efficiency of testing, as different

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techniques can target different aspects of the software quality, such as functionality, usability,

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performance, security, reliability, etc. Testing using a combination of test techniques can also reduce
the risk of missing defects that could be detected by one technique but not by another. Reference:
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ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.1.1, Section 2.3.2
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id

Question: 30
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Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:
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[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the
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applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages
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[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to
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system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a
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system of systems
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[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required
by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation,
making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

A. [I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

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B. [I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

C. [II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

D. [IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

Answer: B
Explanation:

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This answer is correct because product risks are risks that affect the quality of the software product,

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such as defects, failures, or non-compliance with requirements or standards. Project risks are risks
that affect the project’s schedule, budget, resources, or scope, such as delays, cost overruns, skill

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gaps, or scope changes. In this case, [I] and [IV] are product risks, as they relate to the accessibility

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and security of the software product, which are quality attributes. [II] and [III] are project risks, as

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they relate to the delivery time and the test automation skills of the test team, which are project
factors. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0,
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Section 2.1.1.1
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id

Question: 31
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Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a
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high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test
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effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following
three initial estimates:
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• most optimistic = 6 person hours

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• most likely = 30 person hours

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• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test
estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

A. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely
estimate as the final estimate

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C. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of
the three initial estimates as the final estimate

Answer: A
Explanation:

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The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three
initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a

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weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the

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expected value. The formula for the expected value is:

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Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6

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Using the given values, the expected value is:
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Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours
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However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The
technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty
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of the estimates. The formula for the standard deviation is:

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Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6

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w

Using the given values, the standard deviation is:

w

Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours

// w

The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based
s:

on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
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Expected value ± standard deviation

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Using the calculated values, the range is:

30 ± 8 person hours

Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.

Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25;
ISTQB® Glossary v4.02, page 33.

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Question: 32

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

A. are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B. are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role],
I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

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C. can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as
confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

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D. must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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m
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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ex

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story are the conditions that must be met for the user
id

story to be considered done and to deliver the expected value to the user. They are often written in
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different formats, such as rule-oriented, scenario-oriented, or table-oriented, depending on the

nature and complexity of the user story. They represent an aspect of a user story referred to as
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confirmation, which is one of the so called “3 C’s” of user stories. The other two aspects are card and
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conversation. Card refers to the concise and informal description of the user story, usually following
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the template: “As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]”. Conversation refers to the ongoing
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dialogue between the stakeholders and the team members to clarify and refine the user story and its
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acceptance criteria. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

s:
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Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 3.2.2, page 35-36;
ISTQB® Glossary v4.02, page 37.
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Question: 33

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The
architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to
reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document
in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by
step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software

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architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

A. Inspection

B. Audit

C. Walkthrough

D. Informal review

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.c
ps
Answer: C
Explanation:

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This answer is correct because a walkthrough is a type of review where the author of the work
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product leads the review process and explains the work product to the reviewers. The reviewers are
not required to prepare for the review in advance, and the main objective of the walkthrough is to
ex

establish a common understanding of the work product and to identify any major defects or issues. A
id

walkthrough is usually informal and does not follow a defined process or roles. In this case, the
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review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect matches the
characteristics of a walkthrough. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation
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Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.2

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Question: 34
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s:
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Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

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A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely

on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that
avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like
environment

C. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the
lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

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D. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the
introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

Answer: D
Explanation:

This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing
activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects

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faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a
practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software

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components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes.

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Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection,

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thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the
functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus

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v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
am
ex

Question: 35
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The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a
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software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:
w
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A. is a false myth
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B. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

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C. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

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D. is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

Answer: C
Explanation:

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a
software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle, is expressed by
the testing principle referred to as ‘Defects cluster together’. This principle states that a small

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Questions and Answers PDF 43/157

number of modules contain most of the defects detected, or that a small number of causes are
responsible for most of the defects. This principle can be used to guide the test analysis and design
activities, by prioritizing the testing of the most critical or risky modules, or by applying more
rigorous test techniques to them. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.2.1, page 11; ISTQB®
Glossary v4.02, page 16.

Question: 36

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Which of the following statements is true?

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ps
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A. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the

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internal structure of the system am
B. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than
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testers who perform non-functional tests

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D. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010
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standard
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w
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Answer: B
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Explanation:
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s:
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Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics.
Non-functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as
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performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level
and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both
technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical
aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct
answer.

Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 1.3.1, page 13; ISTQB®
Glossary v4.02, page 40.

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Question: 37

Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?

A. Test plans

B. Source code

C. Compiled code

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D. Formal models

.c
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Answer: A

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Explanation:

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am
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing
ex

activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products,
such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static
id

analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy,
al

resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a
way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
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Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.2.1, page 20; ISTQB®
w

Glossary v4.02, page 45.

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s:

Question: 38
tp
ht

Confirmation testing is performed after:

A. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a
result of such fix

B. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus
appears to be reproducible

C. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the

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test results

D. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such
fix can be executed

Answer: D
Explanation:

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Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the
regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as

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re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that

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originally detected the defect. Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which
is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of

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changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

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Reference: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.4.1, page 28; ISTQB®
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Glossary v4.02, page 15.
ex
id

Question: 39
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Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?
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A. Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed
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without specialized tools

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B. Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

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C. Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on
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detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-
functional characteristics

Answer: D
Explanation:

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This answer is correct because static testing and dynamic testing are both types of testing that can be
used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics, such as usability,
performance, security, reliability, etc. Static testing is a type of testing that involves the analysis of
software work products, such as requirements, design, code, or test cases, without executing them.
Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves the execution of software work products, such as
code or test cases, using inputs and verifying outputs. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be
applied to different test levels and test types, and can use different test techniques and tools, to
evaluate the non-functional characteristics of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of
Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.1.1, Section 2.2.1.2

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Question: 40

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ps
Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from

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stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable

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language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive
development?
am
ex

A. Test-Driven Development (TDD)

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B. Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

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C. Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

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w

D. Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

w
// w

Answer: C
s:

Explanation:
tp
ht

This answer is correct because Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) is a test-first approach, where
tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to
work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and
then made executable to drive development. BDD is a collaborative approach that involves testers,
developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in defining the expected
behavior of the application using scenarios that describe the preconditions, actions, and outcomes of
the application. BDD scenarios are written using a domain-specific language (DSL) that can be
translated into executable test cases using tools such as Cucumber or SpecFlow. BDD aims to improve
communication, collaboration, and feedback among the team members, and to deliver software that

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meets the customer’s needs and expectations. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0,
ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.4

Question: 41

Which of the following statements is not correct?

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A. Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

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B. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

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C. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

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D. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity
am
ex

Answer: A
id

Explanation:
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.v
w

Looking for defects in a system does not require ignoring system details, but rather paying attention
to them and understanding how they affect the system’s quality, functionality, and usability. Ignoring
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system details could lead to missing important defects or testing irrelevant aspects of the system.
// w

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product, especially by the developers or
s:

stakeholders who are invested in the product’s success. However, identifying defects is not meant to
tp

be a personal attack, but rather a constructive feedback that helps to improve the product and
ensure its alignment with the requirements and expectations of the users and clients.
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Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity, as testers need to
anticipate and explore the possible ways that the system could fail, malfunction, or behave
unexpectedly. Professional pessimism means being skeptical and critical of the system’s quality and
reliability, while curiosity means being eager and interested in finding out the root causes and
consequences of the defects.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity, as it involves finding and
reporting the flaws and weaknesses of the system, rather than creating or enhancing it. However,
testing is actually a constructive activity, as it contributes to the system’s improvement, verification,

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validation, and optimization, and ultimately to the delivery of a high-quality product that meets the
needs and expectations of the users and clients.

Question: 42

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

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.c
A. Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

ps
B. Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

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C. Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

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D. Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
am
ex

Answer: A
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Explanation:
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State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of
w

the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require
w

the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing
w

techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections,
//

walkthroughs, and static analysis. Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the
s:

development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic
tp

testing. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section
4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
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Question: 43

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing
dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

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A. The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after
performing the dynamic testing.

B. The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a
full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C. The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D. The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing
the overall cost of testing and development

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Answer: D

.c
Explanation:

ps
m
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It

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includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and
am
models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more
expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software
or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can
ex

complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and
id

checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing
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may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues. However, dynamic testing alone is
not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore,
.v

a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring
w

the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or
w

efficient enough to find and prevent defects. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
w

Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0,
//

2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.
s:
tp
ht

Question: 44

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A. Test design specification

B. Project plan

C. Requirements specification

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D. Test plan

Answer: D
Explanation:

Test exit criteria are the conditions that must be fulfilled before concluding a particular testing
phase. These criteria act as a checkpoint to assess whether we have achieved the testing objectives
and are done with testing1. Test exit criteria are typically defined in the test plan document, which is

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one of the outputs of the test planning phase. The test plan document describes the scope,
approach, resources, and schedule of the testing activities. It also identifies the test items, the

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features to be tested, the testing tasks, the risks, and the test deliverables2. According to the ISTQB®

ps
Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, the test plan document should include the following

m
information related to the test exit criteria3:

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The criteria for evaluating test completion, such as the percentage of test cases executed, the
percentage of test coverage achieved, the number and severity of defects found and fixed, the
am
quality and reliability of the software product, and the stakeholder satisfaction.
ex

The criteria for evaluating test process improvement, such as the adherence to the test strategy, the
efficiency and effectiveness of the testing activities, the lessons learned and best practices identified,
id

and the recommendations for future improvements.

al

Therefore, the test plan document is the most appropriate test document to find the test exit criteria
.v

described. The other options, such as test design specification, project plan, and requirements
w

specification, are not directly related to the test exit criteria. The test design specification describes
w

the test cases and test procedures for a specific test level or test type3. The project plan describes the
w

overall objectives, scope, assumptions, risks, and deliverables of the software project4. The
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requirements specification describes the functional and non-functional requirements of the software
s:

product5. None of these documents specify the conditions for ending the testing process or
tp

evaluating the testing outcomes. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus
v4.0, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing | Baeldung on Computer Science, Entry And Exit
ht

Criteria In Software Testing - Rishabh Software, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing Life Cycle -
STLC [2022 Updated] - Testsigma Blog, ISTQB® releases Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 (CTFL).

Question: 45

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

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Questions and Answers PDF 51/157

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence
partitioning?

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A. -100; 100:1000; 1001

B. -500; 0; 100; 1000

.c
ps
C. -99; 99:101; 1001

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D. -1000; -100; 100; 1000

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am
Answer: D
Explanation:
ex
id
al

The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning.
Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software
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unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given
w

equivalence classes are:

w

(x \leq -100)
// w

(-100 < x < 100)

s:
tp

(100 \leq x < 1000)

ht

(x \geq 1000)

Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:

For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.

For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.

For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.

For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.

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So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.

Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents available
at ISTQB and ASTQB.

1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38

2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39

: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40

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Question: 46

.c
ps
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test
cases?

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A. Can't be determined

B. Covering all transitions at least once

ex

C. Covering only start and end states

id
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D. Covering all states at least once

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w
w

Answer: B
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Explanation:
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s:
tp

Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test
cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that
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all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the
transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least
once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the
lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or
component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because
the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on
the number of transitions and states covered. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page 49-
50.

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Question: 47

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

A. skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B. skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining
the right requirements.

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C. problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality
characteristics.

.c
D. poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

ps
m
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Answer: A
Explanation:
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ex

Project risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the project objectives, such as scope,
id

schedule, cost, and quality. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
al

syllabus, some of the factors that contribute to project risks are:

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Skill and staff shortages: This factor refers to the lack of adequate or qualified human resources to
w

perform the project tasks. This may result in delays, errors, rework, or low productivity.
w

Problems in defining the right requirements: This factor refers to the difficulties or ambiguities in
w

eliciting, analyzing, specifying, validating, or managing the requirements of the project. This may
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result in misalignment, inconsistencies, gaps, or changes in the requirements, affecting the project
s:

scope and quality.

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Contractual issues: This factor refers to the challenges or disputes that may arise from the
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contractual agreements between the project parties, such as clients, suppliers, vendors, or
subcontractors. This may result in legal, financial, or ethical risks, affecting the project delivery and
satisfaction.

The other options are not correct because they list factors that contribute to PRODUCT risks, not
project risks. Product risks are the uncertainties or threats that may affect the quality or functionality
of the software product or system. Some of the factors that contribute to product risks are:

Poor software quality characteristics: This factor refers to the lack of adherence or compliance to the
quality attributes or criteria of the software product or system, such as reliability, usability, security,

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performance, or maintainability. This may result in defects, failures, or dissatisfaction of the users or
stakeholders.

Software does not perform its intended functions: This factor refers to the deviation or discrepancy
between the expected and actual behavior or output of the software product or system. This may
result in errors, faults, or malfunctions of the software product or system.

Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 1: Fundamentals of
Testing, Section 1.5: Risks and Testing, Pages 14-16.

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Question: 48

.c
ps
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure
depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

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am
ex
id
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A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
.v
w

B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
w

C. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
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D. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
s:
tp
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Answer: D
Explanation:

According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect
typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0
(New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not
fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed
(S4). Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.

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Question: 49

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-
contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in
completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

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A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

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B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now

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managing it

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C. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely

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completion of the tests
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D. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the
product
ex
id
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Answer: D
Explanation:
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A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed
w

or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and
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maintenance of the software product2.

s:
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The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a
delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the
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release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it
reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.

The other options are not correct because:

A . It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks
could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project,
such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project
stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.

B . It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is

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managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are
completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor
and control the sub-contractor’s performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and
mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.

C . It is not clear what is meant by “object” in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software
system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect
the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the
object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency,
maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software
system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.

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Reference =

.c
1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97

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2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98

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3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
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4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100

5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101

ex

6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102

id
al
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Question: 50
w
w
w

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be
automated?
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s:
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A. The developer
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B. The customer

C. The development manager

D. The test leader

Answer: D
Explanation:

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Questions and Answers PDF 57/157

The test leader is the person who is responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the test
activities and resources in a test project. The test leader should have the best knowledge of the test
objectives, scope, risks, resources, schedule, and quality criteria. The test leader should also be
aware of the test automation criteria, such as the execution frequency, the test support, the team
education, the roles and responsibilities, and the devs and testers collaboration1. Based on these
factors, the test leader can decide which tests are suitable for automation and which are not, and
prioritize them accordingly. The test leader can also coordinate with the test automation engineers,
the developers, and the stakeholders to ensure the alignment of the test automation strategy with
the test project goals and expectations. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL)

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v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, Page 152; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 403;
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 6, Section 6.1.1, Page 514; Top

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8 Test Automation Criteria You Need To Fulfill - QAMIND1

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Question: 51 am
Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?
ex
id

A. Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating
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ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

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B. Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage
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and reporting, Test closure activities

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C. Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution,
Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities
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D. Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit
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criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Answer: A
Explanation:

The ISTQB fundamental test process consists of five main phases, as described in the ISTQB
Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15:

Test planning and control: This phase involves defining the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources,

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schedule, risks, and metrics, as well as monitoring and controlling the test activities and results
throughout the test process.

Test analysis and design: This phase involves analyzing the test basis (such as requirements,
specifications, or user stories) to identify test conditions (such as features, functions, or scenarios)
that need to be tested, and designing test cases and test procedures (such as inputs, expected
outcomes, and execution steps) to cover the test conditions. This phase also involves evaluating the
testability of the test basis and the test items (such as software or system components), and selecting
and implementing test techniques (such as equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, or
state transition testing) to achieve the test objectives and optimize the test coverage and efficiency.

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Test implementation and execution: This phase involves preparing the test environment (such as
hardware, software, data, or tools) and testware (such as test cases, test procedures, test data, or

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test scripts) for test execution, and executing the test procedures or scripts according to the test plan

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and schedule. This phase also involves logging the outcome of test execution, comparing the actual
results with the expected results, and reporting any discrepancies as incidents (such as defects,

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errors, or failures).

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Evaluating exit criteria and reporting: This phase involves checking if the planned test activities have
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been completed and the exit criteria (such as quality, coverage, or risk levels) have been met, and
reporting the test results and outcomes to the stakeholders. This phase also involves making
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recommendations for the release or acceptance decision based on the test results and outcomes,
and identifying any residual risks (such as known defects or untested areas) that need to be
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addressed or mitigated.
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Test closure activities: This phase involves finalizing and archiving the testware and test environment
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for future reuse, and evaluating the test process and the test project against the test objectives and
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the test plan. This phase also involves identifying any lessons learned and best practices, and
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communicating the findings and suggestions for improvement to the relevant parties.
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Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.2, page 15;
//
s:

ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 37-38; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam -
Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 88, page 32.
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Question: 52

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

A. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B. Potentially endless loops

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C. Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D. Security vulnerabilities

Answer: A
Explanation:

Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing

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it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security
vulnerabilities, and potential bugs12. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that

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depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time

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Between failure)3. MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by
dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or

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component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because

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they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing,
which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures4.
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Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools. The other
options, such as potentially endless loops, referencing a variable with an undefined value, and
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security vulnerabilities, are issues that can be identified by static analysis tools. Static analysis tools
id

can detect potentially endless loops by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the program and
checking for conditions that may never become false5. Static analysis tools can detect referencing a
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variable with an undefined value by checking the scope and initialization of variables and reporting
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any use of uninitialized variables6. Static analysis tools can detect security vulnerabilities by checking
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for common patterns of insecure code, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting,
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and weak encryption. Reference = What Is Static Analysis? Static Code Analysis Tools - Perforce
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Software, How Static Code Analysis Works | Perforce, Static Code Analysis: Techniques, Top 5
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Benefits & 3 Challenges, What is MTBF? Mean Time Between Failures Explained | Perforce, Static
s:

analysis tools - Software Testing MCQs - CareerRide, ISTQB_Chapter3 | Quizizz, [Static Code Analysis
for Security Vulnerabilities | Perforce].
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Question: 53

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is
NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

A. Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

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B. Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C. Train all testers on using the tool

D. Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Answer: C
Explanation:

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A pilot project is a small-scale experiment or trial that is conducted to evaluate the feasibility,

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effectiveness, and suitability of a test automation tool before implementing it on a larger scale1.

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The objectives of a pilot project may vary depending on the context and scope of the test automation
initiative, but some common ones are2:

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To get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool
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To check how the tool fits to the existing test processes and environment

To assess the benefits and challenges of using the tool

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To decide upon standards and guidelines for tool implementation and usage
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To estimate the costs and resources required for tool deployment and maintenance
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Therefore, option C is not a valid objective of a pilot project, as it is not necessary to train all testers
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on using the tool at this stage. Training all testers on using the tool would be more appropriate after
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the tool has been selected and approved for full-scale implementation, and after the standards and
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guidelines have been established. Training all testers on using the tool during the pilot project would
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be inefficient, costly, and premature, as the tool may not be suitable or effective for the intended
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purpose, or may be replaced by another tool later.

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Reference:
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1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82

2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85

Question: 54

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Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

A. Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers
parameters

C. The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

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D. Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating
system

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ps
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Answer: A

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Explanation:
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A new navigation system compared with a previous system is the most suitable application for
ex

testing by use cases, because it involves a high level of interaction between the user and the system,
id

and the expected behavior and outcomes of the system are based on the user’s needs and goals. Use
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cases can help to specify the functional requirements of the new navigation system, such as the
ability to enter a destination, select a route, follow the directions, receive alerts, etc. Use cases can
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also help to compare the accuracy and usability of the new system with the previous system, by
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defining the success and failure scenarios, the preconditions and postconditions, and the alternative
w

flows of each use case. Use cases can also help to design and execute test cases that cover the main
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and exceptional paths of each use case, and to verify the satisfaction of the user’s expectations.
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s:

The other options are not the most suitable applications for testing by use cases, because they do not
involve a high level of interaction between the user and the system, or the expected behavior and
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outcomes of the system are not based on the user’s needs and goals. A billing system used to
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calculate monthly charge based on a large number of subscriber parameters is more suitable for
testing by data-driven testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and performance of a
system or component by using a large set of input and output data. The ability of an antivirus
package to detect and quarantine a new threat is more suitable for testing by exploratory testing,
which is a technique for testing the functionality and security of a system or component by using an
informal and flexible approach, based on the tester’s experience and intuition. The suitability and
performance of a multimedia (audio video based) system to a new operating system is more suitable
for testing by compatibility testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and
performance of a system or component by using different hardware, software, or network
environments. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.1.1, page 28-29; Section 4.1.1, page 44-45;

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Section 4.2.1, page 47-48.

Question: 55

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer
belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there
are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester
attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

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Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

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A. Code coverage

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B. Data flow coverage

C. Statement coverage
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D. Branch Coverage
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id

Answer: D
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Explanation:
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Branch coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of branches or
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decision outcomes that are executed by the test cases. A branch is a point in the code where the
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control flow can take two or more alternative paths based on a condition. For example, an if-else
s:

statement is a branch that can execute either the if-block or the else-block depending on the
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evaluation of the condition. Branch coverage ensures that each branch is taken at least once by the
test cases, and thus reveals the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Branch coverage
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is also known as decision coverage or all-edges coverage.

Branch coverage is suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed, because it can
verify that the test cases cover all the possible outcomes of the conditions that determine the action.
For example, if the program has a condition that checks if the manufacturing stage can be stopped,
then branch coverage can ensure that the test cases cover both the cases where the stage can be
stopped and where it cannot be stopped. This way, branch coverage can help identify any missing or
incorrect branches that may lead to undesired or unsafe actions.

The other options are not correct because they are not suitable for testing the cases where a specific

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action is not allowed. Code coverage is a general term that encompasses various types of coverage
metrics, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, data flow coverage, etc. Code coverage does
not specify which type of coverage metric is used for the analysis. Data flow coverage is a type of
structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of data flow paths that are executed by the
test cases. A data flow path is a sequence of statements that define, use, or kill a variable. Data flow
coverage is useful for testing the correctness and completeness of the data manipulation in the
software, but not for testing the conditions that determine the actions. Statement coverage is a type
of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of statements or lines of code that are
executed by the test cases. Statement coverage ensures that each statement is executed at least
once by the test cases, but it does not reveal the behavior of the software under different scenarios.

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Statement coverage is a weaker criterion than branch coverage, because it does not account for the
branches or decision outcomes in the code. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level

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(CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-
54.

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Question: 56
am
What is test oracle?
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A. The source of lest objectives

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B. The source for the actual results

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C. The source of expected results

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D. The source of input conditions

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s:
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Answer: C
Explanation:
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A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed
behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various
sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable
systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1,
Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.

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Question: 57

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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D. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can

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enhance quality.

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Answer: B

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Explanation:
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The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of
defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove
id

that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and
al

behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the
software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
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The other options are correct because:

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A . Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system, as they verify that the
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system meets the expected quality attributes and satisfies the needs and expectations of the users
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and clients4. Risk is the potential for loss or harm due to the occurrence of an undesirable
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event5. Testing can help to identify, analyze, prioritize, and mitigate the risks associated with the
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software product and project6.

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C . Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities, as they
provide feedback on the quality of the software and the effectiveness of the development
processes7. Defects are flaws or errors in the software that cause it to deviate from the expected or
required results or behavior. Testing can help to detect, report, track, and resolve the defects, and
prevent them from recurring in the future.

D . Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can
enhance quality, as it can ensure that the requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and
aligned with the needs and expectations of the users and clients. Requirements are the specifications
of what the software should do and how it should do it. Testing can help to validate that the

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requirements are met by the software, and verify that the software is implemented according to the
requirements.

Reference =

1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10

2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11

3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12

4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13

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5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97

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6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98

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7 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14

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[8] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15

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[9] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
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[10] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
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[11] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18

id

[12] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19

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Question: 58
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Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

s:

I . Retesting of a fixed defect

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II . Testing of an already tested program

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III . Testing of new functionality in a program

IV . Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

A. II, IV, V

B. I, III, IV

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C. II

D. I, IV

Answer: C
Explanation:

Regression testing is the re-running of functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously

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developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 It does not involve
retesting of a fixed defect, testing of new functionality, or applying only to functional testing. Tests

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that are used for regression testing should be repeatable, because they are used to verify the

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stability of the software after each change2 Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
(CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2, Page 291; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page

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292

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Question: 59
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id

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

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The user noticed that the result given is 6.

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This is an example of;

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A. Mistake
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B. Fault
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C. Error
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D. Failure

Answer: D
Explanation:

According to the ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 18, a failure is “an event in
which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits”. In this

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Questions and Answers PDF 67/157

case, the calculator software does not perform the required function of calculating the correct result
for 5+6 within the specified limits of accuracy and precision. Therefore, this is an example of a failure.

The other options are incorrect because:

A mistake is “a human action that produces an incorrect result” (page 25). A mistake is not an event,
but an action, and it may or may not lead to a failure. For example, a mistake could be a typo in the
code, a wrong assumption in the design, or a misunderstanding of the requirement.

A fault is “a defect in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to
perform its required function” (page 16). A fault is not an event, but a defect, and it may or may not

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cause a failure. For example, a fault could be a logical error in the code, a missing specification in the
design, or a contradiction in the requirement.

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An error is “the difference between a computed, observed, or measured value or condition and the

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true, specified, or theoretically correct value or condition” (page 15). An error is not an event, but a
difference, and it may or may not result in a failure. For example, an error could be a rounding error

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in the calculation, a measurement error in the observation, or a deviation error in the condition.

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Reference = ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 15-18, 25; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 -
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Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 96, page 34.
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id

Question: 60
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A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics
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are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the
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requirements set for the diagnostics module:

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'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following
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is a failure related to the specified requirement?

s:
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A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

Answer: B
Explanation:

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Questions and Answers PDF 68/157

A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within
specified limits1. A requirement is a condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or
achieve an objective2. In this case, the requirement is that the diagnostics tests should execute in
less than 2 seconds. Therefore, any event that violates this requirement is a failure. The only option
that clearly violates this requirement is B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute. If the
diagnostic tests take more than 2 seconds to complete, then they do not meet the specified limit and
thus fail. The other options are not necessarily failures related to the specified requirement. Option
A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset is a failure, but not related to the time limit. It
is related to the functionality of the self-diagnostics module. Option C. The diagnostic tests that

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measure the speed of the memory, fail is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related
to the accuracy of the memory tests. Option D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect

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implementation of the test code is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the

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quality of the test code. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus
v4.0, Requirements Engineering Fundamentals.

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Question: 61
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Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

id
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A. A test leader writes a test summary report

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B. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

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C. A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

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D. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

s:
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Answer: D
Explanation:

The question is about identifying an example of testing contributing to higher quality. Quality is the
degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or
user/customer needs and expectations1. Testing is the process consisting of all lifecycle activities,
both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products
and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate
that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects2.

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Therefore, testing contributes to higher quality by verifying and validating that the software products
and related work products meet the specified requirements, are fit for purpose and have no defects,
or at least have a reduced number of defects. Testing also provides information about the quality of
the software products and related work products to the stakeholders, who can make informed
decisions based on the test results3.

Out of the four given statements, only option D is an example of testing contributing to higher
quality, as it shows that testing has detected a defect (a flaw in a component or system that can
cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function4) and that the defect has
been resolved (fixed and confirmed) prior to release (delivery of the software product to the
customer or end user). This means that testing has prevented a potential failure (an event in which a

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component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits) from occurring in
the operational environment, and thus has improved the quality of the software product.

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Option A is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a reporting activity that
summarizes the test results and evaluates the test objectives, but does not directly affect the quality

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of the software product or related work products. A test summary report is a document that records

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and communicates the outcomes of testing activities, including test completion criteria, test results,
incident reports, test summary and evaluation, and lessons learned.
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Option B is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a planning activity that
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estimates the resources and time needed for testing activities, but does not directly affect the quality
of the software product or related work products. A test effort estimate is an approximation of the
id

amount of work and/or the duration of time required to perform testing activities.
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Option C is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a preparation activity that
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sets up the test environment (an environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators,
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software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test), but does not directly affect
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the quality of the software product or related work products. A test environment installation is a
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process of installing and configuring the test environment according to the test environment
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specification.
s:

Reference:
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1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 10

2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 11

3: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 12

4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 77

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 78

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Questions and Answers PDF 70/157

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 79

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 80

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 81

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 86

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 87

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 88

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 89
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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 90

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 91

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 92

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 93

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 94

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 95

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 96

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 97

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 98

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 99

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 100

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 101

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 102

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 103

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 104

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: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 105

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 106

: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 107

Question: 62

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is

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that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the
criticality of the artifact.

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A. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all

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artifacts.

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B. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on
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their CMM level.
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C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
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D. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review
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methods
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Answer: C
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Explanation:
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The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can
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be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the
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criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits
and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback
and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0
Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and
level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget
constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover,
the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the
development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and
expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an
informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and

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developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the
completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company
should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review
methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule. Reference = CTFL 4.0
Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.

Question: 63

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What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the
tests?

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A. Acceptance testing

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B. Structural testing am
C. Integration testing

D. Exploratory testing
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Answer: B
Explanation:
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Structural testing is a type of testing that measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code
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were executed by the tests. Structural testing, also known as white-box testing or glass-box testing, is
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based on the internal structure, design, or implementation of the software. Structural testing aims to
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verify that the software meets the specified quality attributes, such as performance, security,
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reliability, or maintainability, by exercising the code paths, branches, statements, conditions, or data
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flows. Structural testing uses various coverage metrics, such as function coverage, line coverage,
branch coverage, or statement coverage, to determine how much of the code has been tested and to
identify any untested or unreachable parts of the code. Structural testing can be applied at any level
of testing, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, or acceptance testing, but it is
more commonly used at lower levels, where the testers have access to the source code.

The other options are not correct because they are not types of testing that measure their
effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests. Acceptance testing is a type
of testing that verifies that the software meets the acceptance criteria and the user requirements.
Acceptance testing is usually performed by the end-users or customers, who may not have access to
the source code or the technical details of the software. Acceptance testing is more concerned with

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the functionality, usability, or suitability of the software, rather than its internal structure or
implementation. Integration testing is a type of testing that verifies that the software components or
subsystems work together as expected. Integration testing is usually performed by the developers or
testers, who may use both structural and functional testing techniques to check the interfaces,
interactions, or dependencies between the components or subsystems. Integration testing is more
concerned with the integration logic, data flow, or communication of the software, rather than its
individual lines of code. Exploratory testing is a type of testing that involves simultaneous learning,
test design, and test execution. Exploratory testing is usually performed by the testers, who use their
creativity, intuition, or experience to explore the software and discover any defects, risks, or
opportunities for improvement. Exploratory testing is more concerned with the behavior, quality, or

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value of the software, rather than its internal structure or implementation. Reference = ISTQB
Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3:

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Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54; Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Testing, Section 1.4: Testing
Throughout the Software Development Lifecycle, Pages 11-13; Chapter 3: Static Testing, Section 3.4:

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Exploratory Testing, Pages 40-41.

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Question: 64 du
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The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate
what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y
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A)

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B)

C)

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D)

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A. Option A
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B. Option B
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C. Option C
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D. Option D
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Answer: D
Explanation:

Option D correctly explains what is represented by the lines A, B and the axes X, Y in a testing metrics
chart. According to option D:

X-axis represents Time

Y-axis represents Count

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Line A represents Number of open bugs

Line B represents Total number of executed tests

This information is essential in understanding and analyzing the testing metrics of a completed
project.

Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.5.1, Page 35.

Question: 65

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Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

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A. Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

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B. Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.
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C. Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.
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D. Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Answer: C
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Explanation:
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Effort estimate does not depend on the budget of the project, but rather on the scope, complexity,
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and quality of the software product and the testing activities1. Budget is a constraint that may affect
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the feasibility and accuracy of the effort estimate, but it is not a factor that determines the effort
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estimate. Effort estimate is the amount of work required to complete the testing activities, measured
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in terms of person-hours, person-days, or person-months2.

The other options are correct because:

A . Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up, as
they are interrelated aspects of the test planning process3. Resources are the people, tools,
equipment, and facilities needed to perform the testing activities4. Schedule is the time frame and
sequence of the testing activities, aligned with the project milestones and deadlines5.

B . Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known, as
it affects the number and severity of the defects that may be found and the rework that may be

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needed to fix them6. Quality is the degree to which the software product satisfies the specified
requirements and meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients7.

D . Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques, which relies on the judgment
and expertise of the testers and other project stakeholders to estimate the test effort based on
similar projects or tasks done in the past. Experience based estimation can be useful when there is a
lack of historical data, formal methods, or detailed information about the software product and the
testing activities.

Reference =

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1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 154

2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 155

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3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 156

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4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 157

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5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 158
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6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 159
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7 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16

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[8] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 160
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[9] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 161
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Question: 66
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You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room
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(increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s
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eligible for an upgrade.

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Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

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What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

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Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

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Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

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A. Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room
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B. Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.
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C. Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade
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D. Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.
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Answer: C
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Explanation:
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According to the decision table in the image, a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room is
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eligible for an upgrade to Gold Luxury (YES), while a non-Preferred Guest Card holder, regardless of
room type, is not eligible for any upgrade (NO). Therefore, Customer A (a Preferred Guest Card
holder with a Silver room) would be offered an upgrade to Gold Luxury, and Customer B (a non-
Preferred Guest Card holder with a Platinum room) would not be offered any upgrade. Reference =
The answer is derived directly from the decision table provided in the image; specific ISTQB Certified
Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents are not referenced.

Question: 67

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The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of
the following statements is correct?

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A. It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the

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system under test

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B. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

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C. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means
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definite poor product quality

D. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of
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the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Answer: D
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Explanation:
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The V-model is a software development life cycle model that defines four test levels that correspond
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to four development phases: component (unit) testing with component design, integration testing
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with architectural design, system testing with system requirements, and acceptance testing with user
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requirements. The V-model emphasizes the importance of verifying and validating each phase of
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development with a corresponding level of testing, and ensuring that the test objectives, test basis,
and test artifacts are aligned and consistent across the test levels. Therefore, an organization that
wants to follow the V-model cannot do away with integration testing, as it would break the
symmetry and completeness of the V-model, and compromise the quality and reliability of the
software or system under test. Integration testing is a test level that aims to test the interactions and
interfaces between components or subsystems, and to detect any defects or inconsistencies that
may arise from the integration of different parts of the software or system. Integration testing is
essential for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as
a whole, and for identifying and resolving any integration issues early in the development process.
Skipping integration testing would increase the risk of finding serious defects later in the test

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process, or worse, in the production environment, which would be more costly and difficult to fix,
and could damage the reputation and credibility of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is
D.

The other options are incorrect because:

A . It is not allowed as organizations can decide on the test levels to do depending on the context of
the system under test. While it is true that the choice and scope of test levels may vary depending on
the context of the system under test, such as the size, complexity, criticality, and risk level of the
system, the organization cannot simply ignore or skip a test level that is defined and required by the
chosen software development life cycle model. The organization must follow the principles and

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guidelines of the software development life cycle model, and ensure that the test levels are
consistent and coherent with the development phases. If the organization wants to have more

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flexibility and adaptability in choosing the test levels, it should consider using a different software

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development life cycle model, such as an agile or iterative model, that allows for more dynamic and
incremental testing approaches.

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B . It is not allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed

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with. This statement is false and misleading, as integration testing is a very important test level that
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cannot be dispensed with. Integration testing is vital for testing the interactions and interfaces
between components or subsystems, and for ensuring the functionality, performance, and
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compatibility of the software or system as a whole. Integration testing can reveal defects or
inconsistencies that may not be detected by component (unit) testing alone, such as interface errors,
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data flow errors, integration logic errors, or performance degradation. Integration testing can also
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help to verify and validate the architectural design and the integration strategy of the software or
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system, and to ensure that the software or system meets the specified and expected quality
attributes, such as reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. Integration testing can also
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provide feedback and confidence to the developers and stakeholders about the progress and quality
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of the software or system development. Therefore, integration testing is a crucial and indispensable
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test level that should not be skipped or omitted.

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s:

C . It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means
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definite poor product quality. This statement is partially true, as integration testing is a very
important test level that should not be ignored, and skipping it could result in poor product quality.
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However, this statement is too strong and absolute, as it implies that integration testing is the only
factor that determines the product quality, and that ignoring it would guarantee a poor product
quality. This is not necessarily the case, as there may be other factors that affect the product quality,
such as the quality of the requirements, design, code, and other test levels, the effectiveness and
efficiency of the test techniques and tools, the competence and experience of the developers and
testers, the availability and adequacy of the resources and environment, the management and
communication of the project, and the expectations and satisfaction of the customers and users.
Therefore, while integration testing is a very important test level that should not be skipped, it is not
the only test level that matters, and skipping it does not necessarily mean definite poor product
quality, but rather a higher risk and likelihood of poor product quality.

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Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.3, pages
16-18; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 38-39; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample
Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 104, page 36.

Question: 68

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following
coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

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A. 100% Stale transition coverage

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B. 100% Equivalence class coverage

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C. 100% Boundary value coverage

D. 100% Statement coverage

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Answer: D
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Explanation:
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Statement coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of executable
statements in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is another
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structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of decision outcomes (such as branches or
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conditions) in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is a stronger
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metric than statement coverage, because it requires that every possible outcome of each decision is
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tested, while statement coverage only requires that every statement is executed at least once2.
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Therefore, if a test suite achieves 100% decision coverage, it also implies that it achieves 100%
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statement coverage, because every statement in every branch or condition must have been
executed. However, the converse is not true: 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100%
decision coverage, because some branches or conditions may have multiple outcomes that are not
tested by the test suite2. For example, consider the following pseudocode:

if (x > 0) then print(“Positive”) else print(“Non-positive”) end if

A test suite that executes this code with x = 1 and x = -1 will achieve 100% statement coverage,
because both print statements are executed. However, it will not achieve 100% decision coverage,
because the condition x > 0 has only been tested with two outcomes: true and false. The third
possible outcome, x = 0, has not been tested by the test suite. Therefore, the test suite may miss a

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potential bug or error in the condition or the branch.

The other options, such as stale transition coverage, equivalence class coverage, and boundary value
coverage, are not guaranteed to be 100% by achieving 100% decision coverage. Stale transition
coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of transitions between states
in a state machine that are executed by a test suite3. Equivalence class coverage is a functional
coverage metric that measures the percentage of equivalence classes (or partitions) of input or
output values that are tested by a test suite4. Boundary value coverage is another functional
coverage metric that measures the percentage of boundary values (or extreme values) of input or
output ranges that are tested by a test suite4. These metrics are independent of decision coverage,
because they are based on different aspects of the system under test, such as its behavior,

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functionality, or specification. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving
100% of any of these metrics, and vice versa. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level

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Syllabus v4.0, Test Coverage in Software Testing - Guru99, Structural Coverage Metrics - MATLAB &

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Simulink - MathWorks India, Test Design Coverage in Software Testing - GeeksforGeeks.

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Question: 69
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Mark the correct sentences:

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* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"
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* A human mistake may produce a defect

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* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

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* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

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* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

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A. II, IV
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B. I, II

C. IV, V

D. II, III, IV

Answer: A
Explanation:

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The question is about marking the correct sentences among the given statements related to defects,
failures, and mistakes. According to the ISTQB glossary, the definitions of these terms are1:

Defect: A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform
its required function, e.g. an incorrect statement or data definition. A defect, if encountered during
execution, may cause a failure of the component or system.

Failure: An event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within
specified limits.

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Mistake: A human action that produces an incorrect result.

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Therefore, out of the five given statements, only two are correct, namely:

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A human mistake may produce a defect: This is true, as a mistake is a source or cause of a defect, e.g.

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a programmer may make a mistake in writing a code statement, which results in a defect in the
software component.

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When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure: This is true, as a defect is a potential or
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actual cause of a failure, e.g. a defect in the software component may cause the system to fail to
perform a required function when the defect is encountered during execution.
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The other three statements are incorrect, namely:

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Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as “Failures”: This is false, as
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defects are not a result of environmental conditions, but of mistakes or other factors, and defects are
not the same as failures, but rather the causes of failures.
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w

A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it: This is false, as a system may
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not necessarily fail completely or stop operating when a failure occurs, but may continue to operate
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with reduced functionality or performance, or with incorrect results.

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Defects occur only as a result of technology changes: This is false, as defects can occur due to various
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reasons, not only technology changes, such as human mistakes, design flaws, requirement changes,
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hardware failures, etc.

Reference:

1: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms 4.0, 2023, available at ISTQB) and ASTQB).

Question: 70

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?

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A. Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as
an exit criterion helps avoid this

B. No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an
exit criterion

C. Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the
desired quality level defined for the project

D. No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit

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criterion

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Answer: A

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Explanation:

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Cost can be regarded as an exit criterion for testing, because it is a factor that affects the profitability
and feasibility of the software product. Testing is an investment that aims to improve the quality and
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reliability of the software product, but it also consumes resources, such as time, money, and human
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effort. Therefore, testing should be planned and executed in a way that balances the cost and benefit
of testing activities. Having cost as an exit criterion helps to avoid spending too much money on
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testing, which may result in an unprofitable product or a loss of competitive advantage. Cost can also
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help to prioritize and focus the testing efforts on the most critical and valuable features and functions
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of the software product. However, cost should not be the only exit criterion for testing, as it may not
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reflect the true quality and risk level of the software product. Other exit criteria, such as defect rate,
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test coverage, user satisfaction, etc., should also be considered and defined in the test plan.
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The other options are incorrect, because they either deny the importance of cost as an exit criterion,
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or they make false or unrealistic assumptions about the cost of testing. Option B is incorrect, because
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the financial value of product quality can be estimated, for example, by using cost-benefit analysis,
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return on investment, or cost of quality models. Option C is incorrect, because going by cost as an
exit criterion does not necessarily constrain the testing project or help achieve the desired quality
level. Cost is a relative and variable factor that depends on the scope, complexity, and context of the
software product and the testing project. Option D is incorrect, because the cost of testing can be
measured effectively, for example, by using metrics, such as test effort, test resources, test tools, test
environment, etc.

Question: 71

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A typical test objective is to:

A. determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases

B. verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements

C. plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct
creation and configuration of the test environment

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Answer: B

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Explanation:

ps
m
In the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, it is stated that a key objective of testing is to verify that the test object

du
meets regulatory requirements. This is crucial as compliance with regulatory standards ensures that
the software adheres to necessary laws, guidelines, and safety standards which are often mandatory
am
in various industries such as healthcare, finance, and aviation. Ensuring regulatory compliance helps
prevent legal issues and promotes user safety and trust.
ex
id
al

Question: 72
.v
w

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

w
// w

A. It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task
s:

board at an acceptable rate during an iteration

tp

B. It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualizing the amount of
ht

work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C. It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to
master all types of test techniques

D. It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration
more effective for the benefit of the project

Answer: D

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Explanation:

The "whole team approach" in Agile methodologies emphasizes collaboration and communication
among all team members, including developers, testers, and business representatives. This approach
fosters better relationships and effective collaboration, which ultimately benefits the project by
leveraging diverse skills and perspectives. It helps ensure that everyone is aligned with the project's
goals and quality standards, thus improving the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the team.

om
Question: 73

.c
ps
An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a
performance test. While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down,

m
which results in a requirement not being met. This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the

du
application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no
longer needed.
am
Which of the following statements is true?
ex
id

A. The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

al
.v

B. The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error

w

C. The slowdown is an error the memory leak is a defect

w
w

D. The slowdown is a defect the memory leak is a failure

//
s:
tp

Answer: A
Explanation:
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In the ISTQB terminology:

A defect (also known as a bug or fault) is an issue in the code that can cause a failure.

A failure is the observable incorrect behavior or output of the software due to a defect.

In this scenario, the memory leak is the defect in the application code that causes the application not
to release dynamically allocated memory properly. The observable effect of this defect, which is the

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slowdown in response time, is considered a failure because it is the manifestation of the defect that
prevents the application from meeting its performance requirements.

Question: 74

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to

involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to
ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users’ expectations. This approach is

om
especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which
one?

.c
ps
A. Tests wear out

m
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B. Absence-of-errors fallacy am
C. Working software over comprehensive documentation

D. Defects cluster together

ex
id
al

Answer: B
Explanation:
.v
w
w

The absence-of-errors fallacy is one of the seven testing principles mentioned in the ISTQB syllabus.
w

This principle states that even if no defects are found in the software, it does not guarantee that the
//

software is usable and meets the user needs and expectations. By involving users early in the
s:

development process through practices like prototyping, the team can gather feedback to ensure
tp

that the software aligns with user expectations, thereby addressing the risk of this fallacy.
ht

Question: 75

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity
estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

A. test execution

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B. test design

C. test analysis

D. test planning

Answer: D
Explanation:

om
Test planning is a critical phase in the software testing life cycle where the schedule for each testing

.c
activity and test milestones for a test project are determined. This involves using activity estimates,
available resources, and other constraints to outline a comprehensive plan for the entire testing

ps
process. The main objective of test planning is to ensure that all testing activities are well-

m
coordinated and that the testing process is efficient and effective. This phase sets the foundation for

du
subsequent phases such as test analysis, test design, and test execution by providing a clear roadmap
and allocation of resources.
am
Reference:
ex

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 5.1, page 47: Test Planning
id
al

Question: 76
.v
w
w

A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among
w

other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed
//

according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This

s:

document is a typical work product produced as part of:

tp
ht

A. test design

B. test analysis

C. test implementation

D. test monitoring and control

Answer: C

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Explanation:

The document that describes the test procedures, including the order in which test cases are to be
executed according to dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions, is typically
produced during the test implementation phase. During this phase, detailed test procedures and
scripts are developed, organized, and prioritized for execution. The main goal of test implementation
is to ensure that all test cases are prepared and structured in a way that supports efficient and
effective test execution.

om
Reference:

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 5.1.6, page 49: Test Implementation

.c
ps
m
Question: 77

du
am
Which of the following statements about traceability is false?
ex

A. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them,
id

makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed
al

test cases
.v

B. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them,
w

enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

w
w

C. Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them,
enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis
//
s:

items
tp

D. Traceability can be established and maintained through all test documentation for a given
ht

test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts

Answer: B
Explanation:

Traceability is an essential aspect of software testing that ensures each test case can be traced back
to its corresponding test basis items, such as requirements, design documents, or user stories. This
linkage helps in determining which test basis items have been covered by executed test cases,

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identifying the impact of changes, and maintaining overall test documentation. However, the
statement that traceability enables experience-based test techniques to be applied is false, as
experience-based test techniques, such as exploratory testing, rely on the tester's skills and
experience rather than documented traceability.

Reference:

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 1.4.4, page 19: Importance of Traceability

Question: 78

om
.c
A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

ps
m
A. take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

du
B. assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team
am
C. use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient
ex

D. determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test
id

plan
al
.v

Answer: C
w

Explanation:
w
// w
s:

One of the generic skills required for the role of a tester is the ability to use tools to make the
execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient. This includes using various test automation tools
tp

to streamline the testing process, reduce manual effort, and improve the consistency and accuracy of
ht

test results. Testers should be proficient in leveraging these tools to enhance productivity and ensure
comprehensive test coverage.

Reference:

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 1.5.1, page 20: General Skills Required for Testing

Question: 79

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Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software
development lifecycles?

A. Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the
software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses

B. Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all
system components are available for testing

C. The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development

om
team is face-to-face conversation

.c
D. All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every

ps
software change

m
du
Answer: A
am
Explanation:
ex

Good testing practices that apply to all software development lifecycles include having specific test
id

objectives for each test level that align with the phase of the software development lifecycle and the
al

type of activities being addressed. This approach ensures that testing activities are relevant and
.v

appropriate for the specific stage of development, enhancing the effectiveness and efficiency of the
testing process.
w
w

Reference:
w

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, page 24: Software Development Lifecycle and Good Testing
//
s:

Practices
tp
ht

Question: 80

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is true?

A. Refactoring is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code
written to satisfy those tests

B. ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level

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C. BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are
directly written at unit/component test level

D. ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration
process

Answer: A
Explanation:

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Test-Driven Development (TDD) includes refactoring as a key practice. After writing tests and the

.c
code to satisfy those tests, refactoring is performed to improve the code and test quality without

ps
changing the functionality. This continuous process helps maintain clean, efficient, and manageable
code.

m
du
Reference: am
ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, page 25: TDD, ATDD, and BDD Practices
ex

Question: 81
id
al

Which of the following statements is true?

.v
w
w

A. Unlike functional testing, non-functional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not
w

artificial intelligence-based system

//
s:

B. Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses
tp

on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

ht

C. Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only
to system and acceptance test levels

D. Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both
functional testing and non-functional testing

Answer: D
Explanation:

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Both black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques can be applied to functional
and non-functional testing. Functional testing focuses on what the system does, while non-functional
testing examines how the system performs. These techniques provide flexible and effective methods
for assessing various aspects of the system.

Reference:

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 4.4, page 42: Experience-Based Testing Techniques

om
Question: 82

.c
ps
After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned

m
as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal

du
obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state
archive.
am
Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is
true?
ex
id
al

A. No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced

.v

B. Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

w
w

C. Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing

w

D. Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

//
s:
tp

Answer: B
ht

Explanation:

When a document management system is decommissioned, maintenance testing must include data
migration testing to ensure that all documents are correctly transferred to a state archive, meeting
legal requirements for long-term storage. This process verifies that data integrity is maintained
during migration.

Reference:

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ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 2.3, page 29: Maintenance Testing and Data Migration

Question: 83

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is true?

A. Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other

om
roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions
that really help identify process improvements

.c
B. Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very

ps
efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up

m
activities

du
C. On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team
am
reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for daily stand-up meetings

D. During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants

ex

should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context
id

of the project, such as the software development lifecycle

al
.v

Answer: D
w

Explanation:
w
// w

Retrospectives are critical for continuous improvement in Agile projects. They involve not only
s:

identifying process improvements but also planning their implementation and ensuring they are
tp

retained, considering the specific context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.
ht

This holistic approach ensures that improvements are practical and sustainable.

Reference:

ISTQB® CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, page 26: Retrospectives and Process Improvement

Question: 84

Which of the following statement about the shift-left approach is false?

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A. The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B. The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices

C. The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D. The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools

om
Answer: A
Explanation:

.c
ps
The statement that the shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation is false.

m
The shift-left approach emphasizes early testing activities in the software development lifecycle to

du
detect and address defects as soon as possible. While test automation can support shift-left
practices, it is not the only method. The shift-left approach can also involve practices such as static
am
analysis, early requirement reviews, and integrating security vulnerability assessments early in the
development process.
ex
id
al

Question: 85
.v
w

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action
w

items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?
// w
s:

A. Review leader
tp

B. Facilitator
ht

C. Recorder

D. Moderator

Answer: C
Explanation:

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In a typical formal review process, the role usually responsible for documenting the findings, such as
action items, decisions, and recommendations, made by the review team is the recorder. The
recorder ensures that all discussions and conclusions are accurately captured and documented for
future reference and follow-up.

Question: 86

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

om
.c
A. All participants to the review will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

ps
B. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting

m
C. All participants to the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives

D. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

du
am
ex

Answer: C
id

Explanation:
al
.v
w

A factor that contributes to a successful review is ensuring that all participants are trained to
understand the review type and its objectives. This training helps participants to effectively
w

contribute to the review process, identify issues, and suggest improvements. Proper training also
w

fosters a constructive and collaborative review environment.

//
s:
tp

Question: 87
ht

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

A. Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate
inappropriate code modularization

B. Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be
applied to non-executable work products

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C. Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are
usually easier and cheaper to analyze

D. Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they
can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

Answer: B
Explanation:

om
Dynamic testing requires the execution of the software to evaluate its behavior and performance. In

.c
contrast, static testing involves examining the software's code, design, and documentation without

ps
executing the software. This makes static testing applicable to non-executable work products such as
requirement documents, design documents, and source code.

m
du
am
Question: 88
ex

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?
id
al

A. Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to
.v

cover at the review meeting

w
w

B. Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are
w

described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

//

C. Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review
s:

planning
tp

D. One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their
ht

roles and responsibilities in the review process

Answer: C
Explanation:

During the review planning phase of a formal review process, decisions are made regarding which
standards and procedures will be followed. This planning ensures that the review process is

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Questions and Answers PDF 97/157

structured, consistent, and aligned with organizational or project-specific guidelines, thereby

enhancing the effectiveness and reliability of the review outcomes.

Question: 89

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing
techniques?

om
A. Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and

.c
white-box test techniques

ps
B. Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing

m
test cases

du
C. Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce
am
than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D. Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box
ex

and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic
id

techniques
al
.v

Answer: D
w

Explanation:
w
// w

Experience-based testing techniques are adopted for several reasons, most importantly because they
s:

can identify defects that might be missed by more systematic approaches like black-box and white-
tp

box testing. While systematic techniques follow predefined procedures and cover specific criteria,
ht

experience-based techniques leverage the tester's knowledge, intuition, and experience, which can
be especially effective in uncovering subtle and complex issues.

Experience-based testing techniques include methods such as error guessing and exploratory testing.
These methods rely on the tester’s background and intuition to predict where defects might be
located and how the system might fail. These techniques are particularly useful in situations where
the requirements and specifications are incomplete or ambiguous, and where creative and ad-hoc
approaches can provide significant value.

Reference:

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Questions and Answers PDF 98/157

The official ISTQB® CTFL syllabus emphasizes that experience-based techniques can find defects that
more systematic techniques might miss, which makes them valuable complements to other testing
methods.

Question: 90

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is true?

om
A. Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved

.c
B. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used

ps
without being initialized

m
C. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

du
D. Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code
am
have been exercised
ex
id

Answer: D
al

Explanation:
.v
w

Statement coverage, also known as line coverage, is a metric used in white-box testing to measure
w

the percentage of executable statements in the source code that have been executed by the test
w

suite. Achieving a certain percentage of statement coverage means that an equivalent percentage of
//

the executable statements in the code have been executed during testing.
s:
tp

For example, achieving 80% statement coverage indicates that 80% of the lines of code have been
run through during the testing process. This metric helps in identifying parts of the code that have
ht

not been tested and may contain undetected defects.

It's important to note that achieving high statement coverage does not necessarily guarantee that all
possible paths or scenarios within the code are tested, nor does it ensure the detection of all types of
defects. Other coverage metrics, such as branch coverage or condition coverage, might also be
necessary to achieve a more thorough testing process.

Reference:

The official ISTQB® CTFL syllabus clearly defines statement coverage and explains that it ensures that
the corresponding percentage of all executable statements have been tested.

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Question: 91

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is false?

A. Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews

B. White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on

om
objective measures

.c
C. Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

ps
D. Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase
confidence in the code

m
du
am
Answer: C
Explanation:
ex
id

The statement "Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been
al

fully tested" is false because achieving full code coverage does not necessarily mean that all possible
.v

defects have been identified or that the system is free of bugs. Code coverage metrics, such as
w

statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, only measure the extent to which the
w

source code has been executed during testing, but they do not guarantee that all logical paths or use
w

cases have been exercised or that the code behaves correctly under all conditions.
//

Full code coverage indicates that every line of code has been executed at least once, but it does not
s:

account for the quality of the test cases or their ability to detect defects. There can still be issues
tp

related to performance, usability, security, and other non-functional aspects that are not addressed
ht

by code coverage alone.

Reference:

The official ISTQB® CTFL syllabus outlines the limitations of code coverage and emphasizes that while
it is an important metric, it does not guarantee the absence of defects or that the software is fully
tested.

Question: 92

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Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique:

A. Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation: while the developer
actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects

B. That can be organized into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide
the testers' exploration

C. Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most
suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project

om
D. That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input

.c
values and preconditions

ps
m
Answer: B

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Explanation:
am
ex

Exploratory testing is an experience-based testing technique where test design and test execution
occur simultaneously. It is characterized by the tester actively exploring the application, using their
id

intuition and experience to uncover defects. Exploratory testing sessions are often guided by test
al

charters, which are brief documents outlining the test objectives, scope, and areas to be explored
.v

during the session.

w

These test charters provide a flexible framework that directs the tester's exploration without being
w

overly prescriptive, allowing testers to adapt and investigate new areas as they uncover issues. This
w

approach is particularly useful in dynamic and complex systems where predefined test cases might
//

not cover all scenarios.

s:

Reference:
tp
ht

The official ISTQB® CTFL syllabus explains the structure and benefits of exploratory testing,
highlighting how test charters guide the testing process while allowing for flexibility and adaptability
in identifying defects.

Question: 93

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is true?

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A. Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in
those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews

B. Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where
reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C. In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test
cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D. Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over
time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects

om
.c
Answer: B

ps
Explanation:

m
du
Checklist-based testing, as defined in the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, is indeed a review technique used
am
within formal review processes. During these reviews, reviewers individually inspect work products
to identify defects based on predefined checklists. These checklists serve as guidelines to ensure
thorough examination and to cover important aspects consistently.
ex
id

The other options do not accurately describe the checklist-based testing technique. Option A
describes a technique for managing review meetings rather than the checklist-based testing itself.
al

Option C incorrectly emphasizes the level of detail in checklists as a factor in reproducibility of test
.v

cases, which is not the primary focus of checklist-based testing. Option D, while true about the
w

necessity of periodic review, is not the core aspect of the checklist-based testing technique itself.
w

Reference:
// w

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, section on static testing and review techniques.

s:
tp
ht

Question: 94

Which of the following statements is true?

A. User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user
stories

B. Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by
describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

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C. Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios
should be excluded

D. Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing
quadrants

Answer: B
Explanation:

om
Acceptance criteria for user stories are crucial in defining the specific requirements that a piece of

.c
software must meet to be accepted by the user or stakeholder. These criteria often include data

ps
definitions such as format, allowed values, and default values, ensuring that the software behaves
correctly with the expected data inputs.

m
du
Option A is incorrect because user acceptance tests are not usually automated; they are often
conducted manually by end-users. Option C is incorrect because acceptance criteria should cover
am
both positive and negative scenarios to ensure comprehensive testing. Option D is incorrect because
tests derived from acceptance criteria can indeed be included in the testing quadrants, particularly in
ex

the quadrant related to business-facing tests that critique the product.

id

Reference:
al

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, section on user acceptance testing and acceptance criteria.
.v
w
w

Question: 95
// w
s:

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must
tp

contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to
apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply
ht

equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within
the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

A. 7

B. 6

C. 5

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D. 3

Answer: A
Explanation:

To determine the number of partitions using one-dimensional equivalence partitioning, we need to

consider each aspect of the ID requirement individually.

om
Length of the ID:

.c
Valid partitions: 5 to 10 characters (1 partition)

ps
Invalid partitions: Less than 5 characters, more than 10 characters (2 partitions)

m
Type of characters:

du
Valid partitions: Alphanumeric characters (1 partition)
am
Invalid partitions: Non-alphanumeric characters (1 partition)
ex

Type of first character:

id

Valid partitions: First character is a letter (1 partition)

al

Invalid partitions: First character is not a letter (1 partition)

.v
w

Adding these together, we have a total of 1 (valid length) + 2 (invalid lengths) + 1 (valid type) + 1
w

(invalid type) + 1 (valid first character) + 1 (invalid first character) = 7 partitions.

w

Reference:
//
s:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, section on equivalence partitioning and test design techniques.
tp
ht

Question: 96

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate
seller is 300000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount
agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this
requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300000)". The application of
the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is
an integer variable):

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TC1 = 299999 TC2=300000 TC3=300001

Which of the following statements is true?

A. TC1 would highlight the fault

B. TC2 would highlight the fault

C. TC3 would highlight the fault

D. None of the three test cases would highlight the fault

om
.c
ps
Answer: C
Explanation:

m
du
The problem described involves a software implementation error in a decision statement for
am
calculating a bonus based on the Total Amount of Sales (TAS). The requirement states that if TAS is
300,000€ or more, a bonus should be paid. However, the software incorrectly implements this with
ex

"IF (TAS = 300000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300000)".

id

Applying Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) to this situation involves selecting test cases at the
al

boundaries of the input domain, including just below, at, and just above the boundary conditions.
.v

Explanation:
w
w

Test Case TC1 = 299999:

w

This value is just below the boundary (300,000).

//
s:

Expected Result: No bonus should be paid.

tp

Actual Result: No bonus paid.

ht

TC1 does not highlight the fault because the implemented condition "IF (TAS = 300000)" and the
correct condition "IF (TAS >= 300000)" both yield the same result (no bonus).

Test Case TC2 = 300000:

This value is exactly at the boundary.

Expected Result: Bonus should be paid.

Actual Result: Bonus paid.

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TC2 does not highlight the fault because the implemented condition "IF (TAS = 300000)" and the
correct condition "IF (TAS >= 300000)" both yield the same result (bonus paid).

Test Case TC3 = 300001:

This value is just above the boundary.

Expected Result: Bonus should be paid.

Actual Result: No bonus paid due to the incorrect implementation.

TC3 highlights the fault because the implemented condition "IF (TAS = 300000)" fails to pay the

om
bonus, whereas the correct condition "IF (TAS >= 300000)" would pay the bonus.

Boundary Value Analysis (BVA):

.c
ps
BVA focuses on the edges of input ranges where errors are more likely.

m
The critical values are just below, at, and just above the boundary.

du
Verification:
am
According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, BVA is an essential technique for identifying potential errors at
the boundaries of input ranges. This is because developers are more likely to make mistakes at these
ex

extremes.
id

Therefore, TC3 (300001) is the test case that would highlight the fault in the software's
al

implementation of the decision condition.

.v
w
w

Question: 97
// w

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe
s:

for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean
tp

conditions and six actions:

ht

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om
.c
ps
Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is true?

m
du
am
A. Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B. Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

ex

C. Columns 2, 4. 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

id
al

D. Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

.v
w

Answer: A
w

Explanation:
// w
s:
tp

In the given decision table, Column 7 represents the following conditions and actions:
ht

The patient is over 18 years old: True

The patient is allergic to Penicillin: True

The patient is taking anticoagulant therapy: True

When analyzing this column:

If the patient is over 18 years old, allergic to Penicillin, and taking anticoagulant therapy, the decision
table suggests consultation with a hematologist and prescribing half of the full recommended dosage
for 10 days.

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This column does not represent an impossible situation based on the conditions provided. However,
upon deeper inspection and understanding of medical practices, it can be argued that such a specific
combination of conditions could be highly unlikely, making it appear unnecessary or an edge case
that might be considered for deletion.

Given the constraints of the conditions and the requirements of the decision table, the provided
answer needs to be verified against real-world medical guidelines to confirm if this scenario is indeed
impossible or just

om
Question: 98

.c
ps
An anti-intrusion system is battery powered and is activated by pressing the only available button. To

m
deactivate the system, the operator must enter a PIN code. The system will stay in alert mode within

du
a configurable timeout and an alarm bell will ring if the system is not deactivated before the timeout
expires. The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of the system:
am
ex
id
al
.v
w
w
// w
s:
tp
ht

What is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4
states/3 transitions starting and ending in the “Inactive” state? (note that “Inactive” is not a final
state in the diagram)

A. 1

B. 2

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C. 3

D. 4

Answer: C
Explanation:

In the given state transition diagram, we need to identify the minimum number of test cases

om
required to cover every unique sequence of exactly 4 states/3 transitions starting and ending in the
"Inactive" state.

.c
The states are:

ps
Inactive

m
du
Active
am
Alert Mode

Alarm bell rings

ex

Test Case Analysis:

id
al

Inactive -> Active -> Inactive -> Active -> Inactive

.v

Sequence: Press Button, Enter PIN, Press Button, Enter PIN

w
w

Inactive -> Active -> Alert Mode -> Inactive

w

Sequence: Press Button, Sensor Activated, Enter PIN

//
s:

Inactive -> Active -> Alert Mode -> Alarm bell rings -> Inactive
tp

Sequence: Press Button, Sensor Activated, Timeout expired, Press Button

ht

These sequences cover every unique combination of exactly 4 states and 3 transitions starting and
ending in the "Inactive" state.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus Section 4.2 on state transition testing.

Question: 99

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Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only
allows registered users to make purchases:

“As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online”

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name,
last name, date of birth, password and repeat password

om
[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration
form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions

.c
[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to

ps
create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new

m
user when an invalid address is entered

du
[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must
be between 2 and 80 characters long. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the
am
new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered
ex

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the
confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form
id
al

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written
.v

first?
w
w

A. The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email
w

address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to
//

create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue
s:
tp

B. The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name,
where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed
ht

by the website about this issue

C. The user accesses the website with username and password, and successfully places a purchase
order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card EV

D. The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the
terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the
confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

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Answer: D
Explanation:

Based on the given user story and acceptance criteria, the ATDD (Acceptance Test-Driven
Development) approach focuses on defining acceptance tests before development begins. The first
test written typically covers the "happy path" or the most straightforward scenario to ensure the
primary functionality works as expected.

Given Acceptance Criteria:

om
The registration form must be filled with valid values.

.c
The user must accept terms and conditions.

ps
An email with a confirmation link must be sent after submission.

m
The most likely first ATDD test would ensure that a new user can successfully register by filling in all

du
fields with valid data and confirming the registration through an email link. This ensures that the
am
basic and most crucial functionality of the registration feature is working correctly before handling
edge cases or error conditions.
ex

Reference:
id

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus Section 2.3 on acceptance test-driven development (ATDD).

al
.v
w

Question: 100
w
w

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is true?

//
s:
tp

A. Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality characteristic
ht

B. The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within
the layer tends to cover

C. The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the
layer tends to be

D. The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the
layer tends to be

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Answer: B
Explanation:

The test pyramid is a concept that illustrates the different levels of testing and their relative
quantities. The pyramid suggests that there should be more low-level unit tests than high-level end-
to-end tests. As you move up the pyramid, the scope of each test increases, meaning each higher
level test typically covers more of the production code.

Explanation:

om
Unit Tests: Form the base of the pyramid and cover individual units of code. They are numerous
because they are quick to write and execute.

.c
ps
Service/Integration Tests: Sit in the middle of the pyramid and cover interactions between integrated
units or services.

m
du
UI/End-to-End Tests: At the top of the pyramid, these tests cover entire workflows and user
interactions, making them fewer in number due to their complexity and execution time.
am
Option B accurately describes that the higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production
code a single automated test tends to cover because these higher-level tests involve broader
ex

functionalities and interactions compared to unit tests.

id
al
.v

Question: 101
w
w

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is false?
// w
s:

A. The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or
tp

test activities
ht

B. The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered
completed

C. The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution

D. The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and
resumed

Answer: C

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Explanation:

A test plan is a document detailing the objectives, resources, schedule, and scope of testing
activities. It also outlines the test strategy, environment, tools, and criteria for test completion and
suspension.

Explanation:

Option A: Correct as it indicates resource planning which is a crucial part of a test plan.

om
Option B: Correct as it describes exit criteria which are essential for test completion.

Option C: Incorrect because a test plan typically addresses known risks and mitigation strategies but

.c
does not list unmitigated risks post-test execution.

ps
Option D: Correct as it mentions suspension criteria which are also a part of a test plan.

m
du
Therefore, option C is false as it does not reflect the typical information found within a test plan.
am

Question: 102
ex
id

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

al
.v
w

A. The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this
w

quadrant are
w

B. Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2
//
s:

C. Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous
tp

integration process
ht

D. Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology
facing

Answer: B
Explanation:

The testing quadrants, as defined in the context of agile testing, help categorize different types of

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tests based on their goals and who they serve.

Explanation:

Q1: Technology-facing tests that support the team (e.g., unit tests).

Q2: Business-facing tests that support the team (e.g., automated acceptance tests, BDD, ATDD).

Q3: Business-facing tests that critique the product (e.g., exploratory testing).

Q4: Technology-facing tests that critique the product (e.g., performance and load tests).

Option B correctly places automated acceptance tests from BDD and ATDD in quadrant Q2.

om
.c
ps
Question: 103

m
du
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I] . It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to
am
the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads
ex

[II] . A user’s session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity
(configured by the system administrator) of the user
id
al

[III] . The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many
.v

requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin
according to the test plan
w
w

[IV] . Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation
w

and some data becomes corrupted

//

Which of the following statements is true?

s:
tp
ht

A. [II] and [IV] are product risks: [I] and [III] are project risks

B. [II] and [III] are product risks, [I] and [IV] are project risks

C. [I], and [IV] are product risks: [II] and [III] are project risks

D. [I], [II] and [III] are product risks; [IV] is a project risk

Answer: A

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Explanation:

Product Risks: Relate to the quality of the software product itself, such as functionality,
performance, security, and user experience.

II: A session management issue affects the product's security and functionality.

IV: Inability to maintain operation and data corruption directly affects the product's reliability and
data integrity.

om
Project Risks: Relate to the circumstances and activities within the project, such as schedule,
resources, and planning.

.c
I: Poor hardware equipment for performance testing impacts the project's ability to conduct

ps
performance tests.

m
III: Inadequate requirement specifications affect the project timeline and the ability to design tests.

du
am
Question: 104
ex
id

A test status report should:

al
.v

A. specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the
w

corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

w
w

B. be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support
//

the decision whether or not to release the product

s:

C. always be based on the same template within an organization, as its structure and contents should
tp

not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented

ht

D. specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the
organization that were chosen at the outset of the test project

Answer: A
Explanation:

A test status report communicates the current status, progress, and issues encountered during

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testing to stakeholders. It is crucial for effective test management and decision-making.

Explanation:

Option A: Correct as it involves reporting impediments and solutions, which are essential for ongoing
test activities.

Option B: Incorrect because test status reports are not limited to test completion activities and focus
more on ongoing test status rather than final unmitigated risks.

Option C: Incorrect as the structure and contents of reports should be tailored to the audience's
needs to ensure effective communication.

om
Option D: Incorrect because specifying communication lines is typically done in the test plan, not the

.c
status report.

ps
Thus, option A best describes a key aspect of a test status report.

m
Question: 105
du
am
ex

From a testing perspective, configuration management:

id
al

A. allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results

.v

B. allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware

w
w

C. includes all activities that direct and control an organization with regard to quality
w

D. focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of
//

analysis
s:
tp
ht

Answer: B
Explanation:

Configuration management (CM) in the context of testing involves the process of managing changes
to the software and its associated artifacts, such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, and test results.
It ensures that all changes are systematically tracked and controlled throughout the software
development lifecycle.

Explanation:

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Option A: Incorrect. While CM supports consistency in test environments, it is not specifically about
comparing expected and actual results.

Option B: Correct. CM allows tracking all changes to versions of testware, ensuring that the correct
versions are used and any changes are documented and managed.

Option C: Incorrect. This describes quality management, not configuration management.

Option D: Incorrect. Configuration management does not focus on configuring static analysis tools.

om
Question: 106

.c
Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Membl,..., Memb6) uses the

ps
planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set

m
of cards with the following values: 1. 2, 3, 5, 8,13, 21. Below is the outcome of the first round of

du
estimation for this session: am
Membl = 3 Memb2 = 3 Memb3 = 3

Memb4 = 21 Memb5 = 3 Memb6 = 1

ex

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?
id
al
.v

A. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point
w

estimation technique with the following input values: most optimistic estimate = 1, most likely
w

estimate = 3, and most pessimistic estimate = 21

w

B. Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having
//

the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points
s:
tp

C. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value
between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4) and the most pessimistic estimate
ht

of 1 story point (Memb6)

D. Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates
respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all
members before to proceed to another estimation round

Answer: D
Explanation:

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Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique used in Agile. It involves team members
selecting cards with their estimate for a user story, then discussing the differences in estimates.

Explanation:

Option A: Incorrect. While three-point estimation is valid, planning poker focuses on team consensus
rather than individual estimation techniques.

Option B: Incorrect. The goal of planning poker is not to force unanimity but to reach a reasonable
consensus.

om
Option C: Incorrect. Averaging estimates is not how planning poker works.

.c
Option D: Correct. The members with the highest and lowest estimates discuss their reasoning to

ps
foster understanding and adjust estimates accordingly in subsequent rounds.

m
Question: 107
du
am
ex

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required
configuration of the test environment for running such test case:
id
al
.v
w
w
// w
s:
tp
ht

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption,
which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified
dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of
the test environment?

A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B. TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

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C. TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D. TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

Answer: A
Explanation:

To determine the correct execution order that minimizes the number of configuration switches and

om
respects the dependencies, we need to consider the following:

.c
Initial Configuration: CONF1.

ps
Dependencies:

m
TC1 depends on nothing.

du
TC2 depends on TC4.
am
TC3 depends on TC4.
ex

TC4 depends on nothing.

id

TC5 depends on TC1.

al

Configuration Requirements:
.v
w

TC1 requires CONF2.

w

TC2 requires CONF2.

// w

TC3 requires CONF1.

s:

TC4 requires CONF1.

tp

TC5 requires CONF2.

ht

Given the initial configuration is CONF1, start with test cases that can run on CONF1 and respect the
dependencies. Then switch to CONF2 only when necessary. The optimal order to minimize
configuration switches is:

Start with TC4 (no dependencies, CONF1).

Continue with TC3 (depends on TC4, CONF1).

Switch to CONF2.

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Execute TC2 (depends on TC4, CONF2).

Continue with TC1 (no dependencies, CONF2).

Finally, execute TC5 (depends on TC1, CONF2).

Therefore, the correct order is:

TC4 (CONF1)

TC3 (CONF1)

TC2 (CONF2)

om
TC1 (CONF2)

.c
ps
TC5 (CONF2)

m
Thus, the answer is A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

du
am
Question: 108
ex

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if
id

a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and
al

after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall
.v

ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device.
However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on
w

the device. Consider the following items:

w
w

[I] . Test environment

//

[II] . Expected result

s:
tp

[III] . Actual result

ht

[IV] . Test level

[V] . Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly
specify in a defect report?

A. [I] and [IV]

B. [II] and [III]

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C. [II]. [Ill] and [V]

D. [I]. [IV] and [V]

Answer: B
Explanation:

In the V-model project described in the question, the tester can identify the following based on the

om
provided information:

.c
Expected result (II): The requirements specification clearly states that the app should only ask for
access permissions to the camera and photos stored on the device during and after installation. This

ps
expected behavior is defined by the requirements.

m
Actual result (III): The tester observes that the app also requests access to all contacts on the device,

du
which deviates from the expected result. This actual observation can be recorded accurately.
am
Given these details, the tester can specify the expected result (II) and the actual result (III) in the
defect report. However, without more information, the tester cannot determine the test
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environment (I), the test level (IV), or the root cause (V).
id

Reference:
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ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.5 on Defect Reporting

.v
w

Typical contents of a defect report as mentioned in the syllabus include the expected result and the
w

actual result observed during testing.

// w
s:

Question: 109
tp
ht

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

A. Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B. Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C. Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D. Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

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Answer: D
Explanation:

One of the typical potential risks associated with using test automation tools is the underestimation
of the effort required to maintain test scripts. While test automation can reduce test execution times
and provide more consistent and repeatable tests compared to manual testing, maintaining test
scripts can be labor-intensive and often requires significant effort. Changes in the application under

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test can lead to frequent updates in the test scripts to keep them functional and relevant.

Reference:

.c
ps
ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 6.2 on the benefits and risks of test automation tools

m
The syllabus outlines that while automation can improve efficiency, it also introduces maintenance

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challenges. am
Question: 110
ex
id

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the
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guidelines provided by a coding standard?

.v
w
w

A. Containerization tool
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B. Fault seeding tool

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s:

C. Static analysis tool

tp

D. Test data preparation tool

ht

Answer: C
Explanation:

A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines
provided by a coding standard. Static analysis tools analyze code without executing it, checking for
adherence to coding standards, potential errors, and code quality issues. They are designed to detect

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deviations from predefined coding standards and ensure that the code conforms to best practices
and guidelines.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.3 on Static Analysis and its applications

The syllabus explains that static analysis tools are used to enforce coding standards and improve code
quality by detecting issues early in the development process.

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CTFL NEW

.c
ps
Question: 111

m
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An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has
distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders
am
including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements
seems to be correct with regards to the communication?
ex
id
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A. Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are
critical.
.v
w

B. Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work
w

better.
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C. Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be
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documented and shared in a formal manner

s:
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D. Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific
frequency works better.
ht

Answer: B
Explanation:

In an agile software development environment with distributed teams, effective communication is

crucial. Given the distributed nature and the time zone differences, asynchronous communication
methods such as emails are more practical and effective. They ensure that information can be shared

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and accessed by team members and stakeholders at their convenience, regardless of time zone
differences. Regular email updates also provide a documented trail of communication, which can be
reviewed and referred back to as needed. Formal face-to-face meetings can be challenging to
coordinate across time zones and are not as flexible as email communications.

Question: 112

You are working on creating test cases for a user story -

om
As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose
my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.

.c
ps
The acceptance criteria for this :

m
1. The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future

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2. Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM
am
GMT

3. Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should
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become unavailable
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4. First timeslot should have a 10% discount.

al

Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?
.v
w
w

A. Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot. Expected result: You should get
w

10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be
//

removed
s:
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B. Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked.
Book 6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount
ht

should be given.

C. Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected. Change the
time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked

D. Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown.
Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should
become visible.

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Answer: A
Explanation:

The best example of a test case for this user story should cover the acceptance criteria
comprehensively. Option A addresses the critical aspects of the acceptance criteria:

Verifying the discount for the first timeslot (8 AM GMT) - ensuring it provides a 10% discount.

Verifying that changing the time slot removes the discount - ensuring the discount logic is correctly
applied.

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This test case effectively validates the functionality related to both the discount and the ability to

.c
change time slots, which are key parts of the user story's requirements.

ps
m
Question: 113

du
am
A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is
the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations.
ex

Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?

id
al

A. Retirement testing
.v
w

B. System integration testing

w

C. Beta testing
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D. Maintenance testing
s:
tp
ht

Answer: D
Explanation:

Maintenance testing is performed to ensure that the application continues to function correctly after
changes have been made. These changes can include modifications due to new regulations, bug
fixes, enhancements, or any other updates. In this case, the change in the protocol for connecting to
the payment gateway due to new regulations falls under maintenance testing, as it involves testing
the application to ensure it works correctly after the implementation of the required changes.

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Top of Form

Bottom of Form

Question: 114

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation
technique-

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Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days

.c
Most likely effort (m) -180 person days

ps
Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

m
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A. 20
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B. 180
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C. 197
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D. 120
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.v
w

Answer: A
w

Explanation:
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s:

A test-first approach involves writing tests before writing the code. In this approach, initially, the
tp

tests fail because the corresponding functionality is not yet implemented. Afterward, the code is
written or modified to make the tests pass. This cycle is repeated iteratively. This method ensures
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that the code is developed based on predefined tests and helps in identifying issues early in the
development process.

Question: 115

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

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A. First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

B. Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

C. Application behaviour is written in Given/When/Then format and tests are then written and run

D. Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

Answer: A
Explanation:

om
.c
A test-first approach involves writing tests before writing the code. In this approach, initially, the

ps
tests fail because the corresponding functionality is not yet implemented. Afterward, the code is
written or modified to make the tests pass. This cycle is repeated iteratively. This method ensures

m
that the code is developed based on predefined tests and helps in identifying issues early in the

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development process.
am
ex

Question: 116
id
al

Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System

.v

Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very
w

High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox

w

Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system
w

does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has been cancelled.
//
s:

Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for
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reproducing the defect easily?

ht

A. Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of
them

B. Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem
for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.

C. Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the
exams can be booked without any problem.

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D. The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.

Answer: B
Explanation:

To reproduce a defect easily, the defect report should include detailed steps that clearly describe
how to encounter the issue. This includes the specific actions taken, the expected result, and the
actual result observed. In the given defect report, it is not clear if the issue occurs for any scheduled

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exam or if it is user-specific. Providing exact steps helps developers and testers replicate the issue
and understand its context better, leading to quicker and more effective resolution.

.c
ps
m
Question: 117

du
am
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of
the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?
ex
id

A. Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
al

B. Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
.v
w

C. Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much
w

time if you split it into multiple reviews.

w

D. Defect reports should be created for every review found

//
s:
tp

Answer: C
ht

Explanation:

In a structured review process, it is essential to plan reviews carefully and manage them effectively.
Reviewing large work products in one go is not recommended because it can lead to oversight of
issues due to fatigue or information overload. It is more efficient to break down large work products
into smaller, manageable parts and review them incrementally. This ensures a thorough and effective
review process. Additionally, other practices such as planning for the review, starting discussions
during review initiation, and creating defect reports for found issues are standard recommendations
for an effective review process.

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Top of Form

Bottom of Form

Question: 118

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

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A. A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to

.c
ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

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B. A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for
communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be

m
written as

mandated by the test policy.

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am
C. A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager
ex

assign tasks to different people

id

D. A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure
al

responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

.v
w

Answer: B
w

Explanation:
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s:

A test plan serves multiple purposes, such as defining the scope, approach, resources, and schedule
tp

of the testing activities. It also helps in communicating important information and managing
ht

stakeholder expectations. In agile projects, test plans might be concise to align with agile principles
of simplicity and flexibility. A one-page test plan can effectively communicate broad activities and
strategic decisions, such as not writing detailed test cases due to the project's agile nature. This
approach ensures that essential information is conveyed without unnecessary documentation
overhead, adhering to the agile manifesto's value of "working software over comprehensive
documentation".

Question: 119

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Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1. Risk register

2. Risk information

3. Test cases

4. Test conditions

Category of work products:

om
A. Test planning work products

.c
ps
B. Test analysis work products.

m
C. Test design work products

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D. Test monitoring and control work products
am

A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

ex
id

B. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

al

C. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

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D. 1-B. 2-D. 3-A, 4-C

w
w
w

Answer: C
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Explanation:
s:
tp
ht

Risk register is a test planning work product as it documents identified risks and their mitigation
strategies.

Risk information falls under test monitoring and control work products as it involves ongoing
evaluation and reporting of risks.

Test cases are part of test design work products as they are derived from test conditions and
designed to execute the testing scenarios.

Test conditions belong to test analysis work products as they define the items or events of a system
that are to be tested.

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Question: 120

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which
deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk
mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation
options?

om
A. Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

.c
B. Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

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C. Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

m
D. Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

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am
Answer: C
ex

Explanation:
id
al

Selecting a tester with the required knowledge related to compliance and standards is a correct
.v

mitigation option, especially in a highly regulated domain like healthcare. This approach ensures that
w

the tester understands the specific regulatory requirements and standards applicable to the
w

software, thereby reducing the risk of non-compliance. This is more effective than just increasing the
w

number of testers, as it directly addresses the knowledge and expertise needed to mitigate specific
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product risks.
s:
tp

Question: 121
ht

A tester created a decision table(DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the
given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile, which of the given
conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?

Condition C1 C2 C3 C4

Is the user logged in? Yes Yes No No

Is the user authorized to view the profile? Yes No Yes No

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Action

Display the user’s profile Yes No Yes Yes

Display an error message Yes Yes No No

A. C3

B. C4

C. C2

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D. C1

.c
ps
m
Answer: C

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Explanation: am
The decision table provides conditions and corresponding actions. For C2:
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The user is logged in (Yes).

id

The user is not authorized to view the profile (No).

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.v

The correct action should be not to display the profile (No) and to display an error message (Yes).
w

This matches the actions listed for C2, making it the correct condition with the proper actions.
w
// w

Question: 122
s:
tp
ht

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form
has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be
processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers
can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for
EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

A. 9,5001

B. 10,5000

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C. 9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D. 9,10,5000,5001

Answer: C
Explanation:

Boundary value analysis involves testing at the boundaries between partitions. The most efficient

om
boundary values to test are those at the edge of the input ranges:

.c
Just below the minimum value (9)

ps
At the minimum value (10)

m
Just above the minimum value (11)

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Just below the maximum value (4999)
am
At the maximum value (5000)
ex

Just above the maximum value (5001)

id

Testing these values ensures that the program handles the boundaries correctly, covering both valid
al

and invalid input scenarios.

.v

Top of Form
w
w

Bottom of Form
// w
s:

Question: 123
tp
ht

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software
development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and
installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of
the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

A. It is an example of collaboration tool

B. It is an example of DevOps related tools

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C. It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D. It is an example of test implementation tool

Answer: B
Explanation:

The tool described in the question supports the automated creation and installation of builds and the

om
execution of various types of automated tests. This aligns with the practices and tools typically found
in DevOps environments, which aim to integrate and automate the processes between software

.c
development and IT teams. DevOps tools facilitate continuous integration (CI) and continuous

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delivery (CD), enabling automated building, testing, and deployment of applications. Therefore, the
correct answer is that this is an example of DevOps related tools.

m
du
am
Question: 124
ex

Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control
id

(QC)?
al
.v

A. QA is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.

w
w

B. QA is the responsibility of everyone on a project, while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated

w

team.
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C. QA is preventive, while QC is corrective.

s:
tp

D. QA is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement.

ht

Answer: A
Explanation:

Quality Assurance (QA) and Quality Control (QC) are both essential aspects of a comprehensive
quality management system but they serve different purposes:

Quality Assurance (QA): QA is a process-oriented approach that focuses on preventing defects by

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improving the processes used to develop and test products. It involves setting up processes,
methodologies, and standards to ensure that the product meets quality requirements.

Quality Control (QC): QC is a product-oriented approach that focuses on identifying defects in the
final products. It involves activities such as inspection, testing, and review to ensure that the product
meets the specified requirements and standards.

Thus, the main difference is that QA is process-oriented and preventive, while QC is product-oriented
and corrective.

om
Question: 125

.c
ps
Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?

m
To provide for disaster recovery a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system

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(designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time. When A goes down, B becomes active.
When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is
am
down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A
comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.
ex
id

A. A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the
al

active system and B should be inactive

.v

B. A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active
w
w

C. A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.

w

D. A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.
//
s:
tp

Answer: A
ht

Explanation:

According to the description provided, when both systems A and B come back up at the same time,
the process should involve a decision about which system should become active. However, the
description states that if both systems come up simultaneously, one should become active based on
a specific condition or precedence. Generally, in disaster recovery systems, there are protocols to
avoid both systems becoming active simultaneously to prevent conflicts. Therefore, the transition
where both A and B come back up at the same time and A becomes active while B becomes inactive

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without any conflict or decision-making step is incorrect.

Question: 126

Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know
that:

• If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

om
• If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

.c
• If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

ps
Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?

m
du
A. There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for
am
numbers up to 200

B. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for
ex

two partitions is exactly same

id

C. The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping
al
.v

D. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers
close to 200 will be very large
w
w
w

Answer: C
//
s:

Explanation:
tp
ht

Equivalence partitioning involves dividing input data into partitions that are treated the same by the
system under test. The given specifications create overlapping partitions:

For n<0n < 0n<0, an error message "Value out of range" is issued.

For 0<n<1000 < n < 1000<n<100, the factorial is calculated.

For 100<n<200100 < n < 200100<n<200, the same error message "Value out of range" is issued.

However, the range between 0 and 100 is exclusive of 0 and 100, meaning that the partitions overlap
and create ambiguity for the boundary values. Thus, the correct statement is that the requirements

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are not correct because the partitions are overlapping.

Question: 127

What does the "absence-of-defects fallacy" refer to in software development?

A. The belief that thoroughly testing all requirements guarantees system success.

om
B. The need for constant system quality assurance and improvements.

.c
C. A misconception that software verification is unnecessary

ps
D. The idea that fixing defects is NOT important to meeting user needs.

m
du Answer: A
am
Explanation:
ex
id

The "absence-of-defects fallacy" in software development refers to the mistaken belief that if a
al

software system has been thoroughly tested and all requirements have been met without any
.v

defects, it guarantees the success of the system. However, this is not necessarily true. Even if no
w

defects are found, the system might still fail to meet the user's needs or business objectives. This
fallacy highlights the importance of validation in addition to verification to ensure that the system
w

fulfills the intended use and requirements.

// w
s:

Question: 128
tp
ht

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the
order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1
is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test Case Priority Dependencies

Test A 3 -

Test B 1 TestD

TestC 2 Test A

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Test D 3 •

A. D-C- B-A

B. D-B-A-C

C. D-A-B-C

D. C-B-A-D

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Answer: B

.c
Explanation:

ps
m
du
When deciding on the order of test execution based on priorities and dependencies, the correct
sequence should consider both the priority levels and any dependencies between test cases. Here’s
am
the analysis:

Test B has the highest priority (1) and depends on Test D.

ex

Test D should be executed before Test B.

id
al

Test C has a medium priority (2) and depends on Test A.

.v

Test A can be executed at any time since it has no dependencies.

w
w

Considering these dependencies and priorities, Test D should be executed first, followed by Test B.
After that, Test A and finally Test C. Therefore, the correct sequence is D-B-A-C.
// w
s:
tp

Question: 129
ht

In branch testing, what is the significance of a conditional branch in a software program?

A. It marks a point where the program’s execution will terminate bringing the program to a halt.

B. It indicates a decision point where the program can follow different paths based on specific
conditions.

C. It represents a programming error and therefore a conditional branch should be avoided.

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D. It signifies a comment or documentation within the code and it doesn't indicate a defect.

Answer: B
Explanation:

In branch testing, a conditional branch represents a decision point in the software program where
the flow of execution can take different paths based on specific conditions. For example, this could be
an "if-else" statement, a "switch-case" statement, or loops where different execution paths are taken

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depending on the evaluated condition. This type of testing ensures that all possible paths and
conditions are executed at least once, which helps in identifying any potential defects in different

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branches of the code.

ps
m
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Question: 130 am
Which of the following types of bug are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic
ex

testing?
id
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A. A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

.v

B. Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

w
w

C. Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

w

D. Crashes of the application

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s:
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Answer: B
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Explanation:

Static testing involves reviewing the code, requirements, and design documents without executing
the code. It is effective in finding certain types of bugs that do not require the code to be run. One
common example of such a bug is variables that are declared but not initialized. These issues can be
detected through code inspections or static analysis tools, which can identify uninitialized variables,
missing declarations, and other coding standard violations without the need to execute the code.

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Question: 131

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

A. Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100
characters

B. An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report.

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C. The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the
data used and an optional text file

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D. A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be

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directly shown the report of last test run.

m
du Answer: D
am
Explanation:
ex
id

Scenario-oriented acceptance criteria describe how a system should behave in a specific situation or
al

scenario. These criteria are typically written from the end-user's perspective and focus on user
interactions and system responses. Option D fits this description as it outlines a specific scenario
.v

where a user is already logged in and describes the expected behavior when the user navigates to a
w

particular page, which is to show the report of the last test run. This type of criterion ensures that the
w

system meets user expectations in that scenario.

// w
s:

Question: 132
tp
ht

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv. Extensive product documentation

v. More use of exploratory testing

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Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

A. i, ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and
incremental models

B. i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii, iii and v are characteristics of
iterative and incremental models

C. ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i, iii and v are characteristics of

iterative and incremental models

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D. iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i, ii and v are characteristics of iterative

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and incremental models

ps
m
Answer: B

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Explanation:
am
ex

Sequential models, such as the Waterfall model, typically involve completing the requirements
review before moving on to test analysis, as well as producing extensive product documentation (i
id

and iv). Iterative and incremental models, like Agile and Spiral models, often involve both static and
al

dynamic testing at the unit testing level, frequent regression testing due to continuous integration
.v

and changes, and more use of exploratory testing (ii, iii, and v).
w

Reference:
w
w

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 2.1 on software development lifecycle models and their impact on
testing, which discusses the characteristics and testing practices of different lifecycle models.
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s:
tp

Question: 133
ht

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software
development lifecycle followed?

A. Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B. Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

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C. Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D. Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

Answer: B
Explanation:

Independent of the software development lifecycle followed, it is a good practice to ensure that each

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test level (e.g., unit testing, integration testing, system testing) has clear and appropriate objectives.
This ensures that the testing is focused and effective at each level. Other options either contradict

.c
good practices or are not applicable across all lifecycle models.

ps
Reference:

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ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.4.1 on test levels and objectives, emphasizing the importance of

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defining clear test objectives for each level of testing.
am
ex

Question: 134
id
al

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

.v
w

A. While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases
w

might contain
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B. Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct
s:

defects
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C. Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

ht

D. Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss
the possible defects

Answer: C
Explanation:

Error guessing is a testing technique where experienced testers anticipate potential defects based on

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their knowledge of the application and past experiences. Fault attacks, which involve focusing on
areas where defects are likely to occur based on previous failures, are a practical implementation of
error guessing.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 4.4.1 on error guessing and fault attacks, explaining how testers
use their experience to anticipate and target likely defects.

Question: 135

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.c
Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

ps
m
A. Evaluate test basis and test object

B. Create test completion report

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am
C. Assess testability of test object
ex

D. Define test environment requirements

id
al
.v

Answer: D
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Explanation:
w
w

In the context of software testing roles, tasks typically performed by someone in a testing role
//
s:

include evaluating the test basis and test object, creating test completion reports, and assessing the
testability of the test object. These tasks are directly related to ensuring the quality and effectiveness
tp

of the software testing process.

ht

Evaluate test basis and test object: This involves reviewing and analyzing the documents and artifacts
that are used as the basis for testing. This is a fundamental task for testers to understand what needs
to be tested and to ensure that the test objects are adequately covered by the test cases.

Create test completion report: This is part of the test closure activities. Testers are responsible for
summarizing the testing activities, outcomes, and lessons learned, which are compiled into a test
completion report. This report is crucial for stakeholders to understand the test results and make
informed decisions.

Assess testability of test object: This task involves evaluating how easily a test object (such as a piece

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of software) can be tested. This includes considering aspects such as the availability of test data, the
ability to isolate the object for testing, and the clarity of the requirements. Testers often perform this
assessment to identify potential challenges and mitigate them before testing begins.

On the other hand:

Define test environment requirements: While testers may provide input on the test environment, the
primary responsibility for defining and setting up the test environment usually falls to roles such as
system administrators or infrastructure specialists. They ensure that the necessary hardware,
software, and network configurations are in place for testing to proceed. This task is less likely to be
the sole responsibility of a tester.

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.c
Question: 136

ps
m
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

du
am
A. White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage
ex

B. White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into
id

account the code.

al

C. White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage
.v

D. White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures
w
w
w

Answer: A
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Explanation:
s:
tp
ht

White-box testing, also known as structural testing, involves testing the internal structures or
workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality (which is tested by black-box testing). The
correct statement about white-box testing is that it helps find defects by measuring aspects such as
statement coverage.

Statement Coverage: White-box testing techniques like statement coverage measure whether each
statement in the code has been executed at least once. This helps ensure that all parts of the code
are tested and can reveal defects in areas that might not be reached by black-box testing alone.

Other statements are less accurate in the context of white-box testing:

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Specifications being vague: White-box testing is code-focused, not requirement-focused. If

specifications are vague, it affects both white-box and black-box testing. The main advantage of
white-box testing is that it allows testers to create tests based on the code's structure and logic.

Requirements-based coverage: This is typically associated with black-box testing, which derives tests
from specifications and requirements. White-box testing, on the other hand, derives tests from the
code itself.

Focus on defects rather than failures: Both white-box and black-box testing aim to identify defects,
but white-box testing does this through code coverage and examining the code paths directly. It does
not focus exclusively on defects rather than failures; it is just another method to identify potential

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issues.

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ps
Question: 137

m
du
Given some statements about independence of testing
am
i. Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii. Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work
ex
id

iii. Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

al

iv. Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses Which of the following
.v

CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

w
w
w

A. ii and iv
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B. i and iv
s:
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C. i and iii
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D. iii and iv

Answer: A
Explanation:

Independence in testing provides several benefits. Firstly, it helps remove the biases that might be
introduced by the person who developed the code or created the tests (ii). This is because an

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Questions and Answers PDF 145/157

independent tester can evaluate the software without being influenced by their prior work. Secondly,
different people bring different perspectives and assumptions to the testing process, which can help
uncover different types of weaknesses (iv).

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.5.3 on the benefits of independence in testing, which
emphasizes the reduction of bias and the introduction of diverse viewpoints.

Question: 138

om
.c
Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

ps
m
A. Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B. Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

du
am
C. Test cases are written once the specifications become available
ex

D. Testing without defined time-boxes

id
al
.v

Answer: A
w

Explanation:
w
w

Exploratory testing is characterized by its reliance on the skills and experience of the tester. The
//
s:

effectiveness of exploratory testing depends heavily on the tester's ability to design and execute
tests based on their intuition and knowledge of the application. This type of testing is often
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performed without predefined test cases, making the individual tester's expertise crucial.
ht

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 4.4 on experience-based testing techniques, including exploratory
testing, which highlights the importance of the tester's skills.

Question: 139

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the

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team?

A. Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B. It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the
basis of user scenarios

C. It is the quadrant that component testing.

D. It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

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.c
Answer: D

ps
Explanation:

m
du
The business-facing quadrant that supports the team is focused on tests that validate the system
am
against user stories. These tests ensure that the system delivers the value and functionality described
by the user stories, which are central to agile methodologies.
ex

Reference:
id

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.7 on the testing quadrants, particularly the business-facing
al

tests that support the team and are based on user stories.
.v
w
w

Question: 140
// w
s:

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release
planning?
tp
ht

A. The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B. The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C. The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D. The tester writes acceptance criteria

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Answer: B
Explanation:

During release planning, a tester adds value by assessing the testability of user stories. This involves
evaluating whether the user stories are clear, concise, and testable. The tester ensures that the
acceptance criteria are well-defined and that the stories can be effectively tested within the given
timeframe.

Reference:

om
ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.2 on the tester's contribution to iteration and release planning,
which includes assessing the testability of user stories.

.c
ps
m
Question: 141

du
am
In a review, which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?
ex

A. Organizing the logistics of the review meeting

id
al

B. Measuring the performance of each reviewer

.v

C. Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review

w

D. Performing detailed review based on past experience

w
// w
s:

Answer: C
tp

Explanation:
ht

In a review process, the manager's responsibility is to ensure that sufficient time is allocated for the
review activities. This includes planning and scheduling the review sessions, making sure that the
team has enough time to conduct a thorough and effective review.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.3 on the roles and responsibilities in a review process,
specifically mentioning the manager's role in ensuring adequate time for reviews.

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Question: 142

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

A. DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

B. DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C. DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

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D. DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

.c
ps
Answer: A

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Explanation:

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am
DevOps practices emphasize the importance of testing non-functional characteristics such as
ex

performance, security, and reliability. This focus ensures that the system not only meets functional
requirements but also performs well under various conditions and is secure. DevOps promotes a
id

continuous testing approach, which includes both functional and non-functional testing integrated
al

into the development and deployment pipelines.

.v

Reference:
w

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 2.1.4 on DevOps and testing, which highlights the role of DevOps
w

in emphasizing non-functional characteristics.

// w
s:

Question: 143
tp
ht

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

A. Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B. Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

C. There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable
library.

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D. Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

Answer: C
Explanation:

Performing static testing on a commercially available executable library can raise legal issues,
primarily related to the ownership and licensing of the software. These libraries are often
proprietary, and analyzing them without permission may violate software licenses or intellectual

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property laws. Static testing typically involves analyzing source code, which may not be accessible for
such libraries without appropriate permissions.

.c
ps
Reference:

m
ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 3.2.2 on legal and ethical considerations in static testing.

du
am
Question: 144
ex

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

id
al
.v

A. Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the
w

input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

w

B. Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing
w

whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.
//
s:

C. Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing
tp

whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box
testing techniques.
ht

D. Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas
testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.

Answer: D
Explanation:

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White-box testing involves testing the internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed
to the functionality exposed to the end user. Experience-based testing, such as exploratory testing,
involves testers using their knowledge, experience, and intuition to test the system without
predefined test cases, often focusing on the input-output behavior of the system.

Question: 145

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test

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automation tool?

.c
ps
A. The number of found bugs is reduced.

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B. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.

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C. Test coverage is increased.
am
D. The total cost of the test project always decreases
ex
id

Answer: B
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Explanation:
.v
w

One of the primary benefits of using test automation tools is the reduction in time spent on
w

repetitive tasks. Automation allows tests to be run quickly and consistently, freeing up testers to
w

focus on more complex and exploratory testing tasks. While automation can help increase test
//

coverage and improve efficiency, it does not necessarily reduce the number of found bugs or always
s:

decrease the total cost of the test project.

tp

Reference:
ht

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 6.2 on the benefits of test automation.

Question: 146

Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?

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A. Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway

B. Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system

C. Testing an application in development environment which is similar to the production

environment

D. Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs

Answer: A

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Explanation:

.c
ps
System Integration Testing (SIT) involves testing the interactions between different systems or
components. Testing an e-commerce website's integration with a third-party payment gateway is an

m
example of SIT, as it checks the correct functioning of the integrated systems. This ensures that the e-

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commerce platform can successfully interact with external systems to process payments.
am
Reference:
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ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 2.2.2 on system integration testing.

id
al

Question: 147
.v
w

Which of the following IS the BEST example of whole team approach

w
// w
s:

A. Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

tp

B. Sharing same physical workspace is a must

ht

C. Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and
developers

D. Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

Answer: A
Explanation:

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The whole team approach in testing means that the responsibility for testing is shared among all
members of the team, not just the testers. This concept is emphasized in agile methodologies where
collaboration and collective ownership of quality are key principles. Each team member, including
developers, business analysts, and testers, contributes to the testing process, ensuring that quality is
built into the product from the beginning.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.5.2 on the "whole team approach" which describes the collective
responsibility of the team for testing.

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Question: 148

.c
ps
Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic

m
testing?

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am
A. Reproducing the failure
ex

B. Adding new test cases

id

C. Fixing the cause

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D. Diagnosing the root cause

.v
w
w

Answer: B
w

Explanation:
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s:
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Debugging activities typically include reproducing the failure, diagnosing the root cause, and fixing
ht

the cause of the failure. Adding new test cases, while important in the overall testing process, is not a
direct part of debugging. Debugging focuses on understanding and correcting the issue that caused
the failure, rather than expanding the test suite.

Reference:

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.5 on debugging activities, which lists reproducing the failure,
diagnosing the root cause, and fixing the cause as core activities.

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Question: 149

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing
processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about
them?

A. The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test
manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not

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need to change

B. The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors

.c
such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

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C. Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the

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hallmark of a mature testing company.

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D. They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for
am
efficiency
ex
id

Answer: B
Explanation:
al
.v
w

A mature software testing company, especially one certified at TMMi level 5, is expected to have
w

well-defined and adaptable processes. These companies recognize that test design techniques
w

should be chosen based on the specific context of the project, including the domain and stakeholder
//

expectations, rather than using a one-size-fits-all approach. This ensures that the testing is effective
s:

and aligned with project requirements.

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Reference:
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ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1 on test design techniques and their selection based on context.

Question: 150

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

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Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available
back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost
forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

A. Configuration Management Tool

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B. Incident Management Tool

C. Backup tool

.c
ps
D. Test Execution tool

m
du Answer: A
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Explanation:
ex

A configuration management tool helps in maintaining and managing changes to software, including
id

test cases. It ensures that changes are tracked and can be retrieved if needed. In this scenario, using
al

a configuration management tool would have allowed Sam's updates to be stored in a central
.v

repository, preventing the loss of his work even if his PC's hard disk crashed.
w

Reference:
w
w

ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.4 on configuration management, which describes the role of
//

configuration management tools in maintaining control over changes.

s:
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ht

Question: 151

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing
a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome
produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

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Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

A. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the

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estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further
rounds of estimation

.c
ps
m
B. The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate
value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1,

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Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of
am
estimation
ex

C. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the
id

most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4)
al

during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation
.v
w
w

D. Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates
w

respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team
//

members before to proceed to another round of estimation

s:
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Answer: D
ht

Explanation:

In Agile estimation sessions, particularly during Planning Poker, the goal is to reach a consensus on
the effort required for a user story. The process encourages discussion and collaboration among team
members to understand the story's requirements and complexities fully. Here’s a breakdown of the
options and why D is the correct choice:

Option A: Calculating the arithmetic mean of all estimates.

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This method is straightforward but does not facilitate team discussion or consensus-building. It
merely averages out the estimates without addressing the reasons behind the varying estimates.
Thus, important insights and understanding of the task complexity might be missed.

Option B: Selecting the most frequent estimate value.

While this approach acknowledges the majority’s opinion, it ignores the minority views, which might
highlight significant aspects of the story that need consideration. It doesn't ensure that all
perspectives are considered and discussed.

Option C: Calculating the mean of the most optimistic and pessimistic estimates.

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This approach considers the extremes but again lacks the team discussion and consensus aspect. It
also assumes that the extreme values alone can balance out the estimate, which might not always

.c
capture the true complexity or simplicity of the task.

ps
Option D: Discussing the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates.

m
This approach fosters team collaboration and understanding. Memb4 and Memb6 explain their

du
reasoning for the highest and lowest estimates, respectively, which can reveal different perspectives
am
on the task's complexity. This discussion helps the team align their understanding and often leads to
a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate in subsequent rounds.
ex

In conclusion, the main goal of Agile estimation techniques like Planning Poker is to encourage team
id

communication and collaboration to ensure that all aspects of the user story are considered. Option
D best aligns with this goal by promoting discussion and consensus.
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