10-08-2025

1015CMD303057250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle (initially in motion) is subjected to different accelerations separately. These

acceleration vary with time as shown. In which of these cases particle will definitely return to its

initial position. (i) (ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) in all cases
(4) in no case

2) A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of v at an angle θ with horizontal. The
average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and highest point of trajectory is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) v cos θ

3) The retardation of a moving particle, if the relation between time and position is t = x2 + x will
be-

(1) 2 (x + 1)–3
(2) 2(2x + 1)–3
(3) 1/2 (x + 1)–3
(4) 1/2 [2x + 1]–3

4) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2i + 3j m/s then its velocity at point B is :
(1) 2i + 3j
(2) –2i – 3j
(3) –2i + 3j
(4) 2i – 3j

5) A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground with velocity v0 and another body B is

0
simultaneously dropped from a height H. They meet at a height if v is equal to.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A particle has initial velocity 15 m/s and retardation 2 m/s2. Distance travelled in 8th second is :-

(1) 2 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 0.5 m
(4) 56 m

7) A cars starts from rest, moves with an acceleration a and then decelerates at a constant rate b for
sometime to come to rest. If the total time taken is t, the maximum velocity of car is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The equation of motion of a projectile is : Given that g = 10 m/s2, what is the

range of the projectile?

(1) 12 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 36 m

9) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration 5 m/s2. Its brakes can produce a
maximum retardation 10 m/[Link] motorcyclist start from point A and reach at point B. What is the
minimum time in which it can cover if distance between A and B is 1.5 km :-
(Given : that motorcycle comes to rest at B)

(1) 30 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 5 sec

10) A cricketer hits a ball with a velocity 25 m/s at 60° above the horizontal. how far above the
ground it passes over a fielder 50 m from the bat (assume the ball is struck very close to the
ground).

(1) 8.2 m
(2) 9.0 m
(3) 11.6 m
(4) 12.7 m

11) A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60o with the horizontal
direction with a velocity of 147 ms–1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is
45o, is :

(1) 15 s
(2) 10.98 s
(3) 5.49 s
(4) 2.745 s

12) A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the last second of its motion as
covered in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for a time of :

(1) 3 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 9 s

13) A particle is projected with velocity v0 along x-axis. The deceleration on the particle is
proportional to the square of the distance from the origin i.e. a = –x2 The distance at which particle
stops is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Length of seconds hand is 5 cm. Find the distance travelled by seconds hand in 27 seconds.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + 5) m/s2.
If it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2s is :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 25 m

16) A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1 second it is moving at
angle 45° with the horizontal and after 2 seconds it is moving horizontally. What is the velocity of
projection of the ball :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The velocity time graph of a moving object is shown in figure. The corresponding acceleration-

time graph representing the motion of the object is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The six hit by CHRIS GAYLE in IPL just misses a building of length 80 m as shown in figure. The

angle of projection with horizontal is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 15°

19) A body goes 30 km south and then 40 km east. What will be the displacement from initial point?

(1) 50 km, 37º South of East

(2) 30 km, 37º South of East
(3) 40 km, 53º South of East
(4) 70 km, 53º South of East

20) Find the displacement of the particle from following position-time graph:
(1) 200 m
(2) 0 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 100 m

21) A particle is moving along a straight line such that square of its velocity varies with time as

shown in the figure. What is the acceleration of the particle at t = 4 s ?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1/4 m/s2
(3) 1/2 m/s2
(4) 0

22) For ground to ground projectile motion with initial velocity u at angle θ from horizontal.

(A) Change in speed from initial to final point (i) u – ucosθ

Magnitude of change in velocity from
(B) (ii) usinθ
initial to final point
(C) Reduction in speed from initial to top (iii) 2usinθ
Magnitude of change in velocity from
(D) (iv) zero
initial to top

Options :-
(1) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv)
(2) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
(3) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)
(4) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i)
23) If a particle is moving along straight line and its x-coordinate as a function of time is given

below x = then find the time when direction of velocity changes

(1) At t = 1 sec
(2) At t = 2 sec
(3) At t = 5 sec
(4) Direction of velocity remains unchange

24) Charge density of a solid sphere is given by . Then total charge of sphere will be (where
R is radius of sphere) :-

(1) 2πR ρ0
3

(2) πR ρ0
3

(3) 4πR ρ0
3

(4)

25) A charge q is placed at a vertex of the given geometry of angle 60°. Then, the flux coming out

from this geometry will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Two balls A and B of same mass (M) and charges Q, –Q are suspended by two strings of same
length from two different suspension points S1 and S2. If S1S2 = 3x and AB = x, then tension in the

string will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

27) If linear charge density of a wire of length L depends on distance x from one end as .

Find total charge on wire :-

(1) λ0L

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) Two parallel infinite long straight wire having linear charge densities +λC/m and –2λC/m linear
are placed at a distance 2R in free space. What is the electric field mid way between the two line
charges ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two charges of equal mass m are suspended with two strings of equal length ℓ, vertically
hanged to a point on a rigid support. At equilibrium, if separation between charges is x; the correct
relation between charge q and x is (if angle between strings is very small) :-

(1) q ∝ x2
(2) q ∝ x3
(3) q ∝ x3/2
(4) q ∝ x1/2

30) Linear charge density of wire is 8.85 µC/m Radius and height of the cylinder are 3m and 4 m.
Then find the flux passing through the cylinder :-

(1) 5 × 106 volt-m

(2) 3 × 106 volt-m
(3) 4 × 106 volt-m
(4) None

31) Two point charges Q1, Q2 are fixed at x = 0 and x = a. Assuming that field strength is positive in
the direction coinciding with the positive direction of x, then, which following option will be correct ?

(1) Both Q1 and Q2 are negative with |Q1| > |Q2|

(2) Q1 is positive and Q2 is negative with |Q1| > |Q2|
(3) Q1 is negative and Q2 is positive with |Q1| = |Q2|
(4) Both Q1 and Q2 are positive with |Q1| > |Q2|

32) Match the first part of a sentence given in Column-I with its second part in Column-II so that
sentence is complete meaningful electrostatically.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Like point charges (i) Of two types

(B) Unlike point charges (ii) Repel each other

(C) Charge can be (iii) Attract each other

Neutralised, if they are

(D) Charges are (iv)
equal and opposite
(1) A- i, B- ii, C- iii, D-iv
(2) A- ii, B- i, C- iii, D-iv
(3) A- iv, B- i, C- iii, D-ii
(4) A- ii, B- iii, C- iv, D-i

33) Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown, find electric field and potential at A.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Force between two identical charges, placed at distance r apart in vacuum, is F. Now a slab of
dielectric constant K = 4 is inserted between these two charges. The thickness of the slab is r/2. The
force between the charges will now become :

(1) F/4
(2) F/2
(3) 3F/5
(4) 4F/9

35) Find flux from Gaussian surface (G.S.) (Radius of sphere is R).

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In the given diagrams the direction of electric field at point O is given in list-II (O is
circumcenter of the given regular polygon). Charge Q is positive. Match the direction of electric field
for the given arrangement:-

List-I List-II
 (P) 1.

(Q) 2.

(R) 3.

(S) 4.

Code :-
P Q R S
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 3 2 1 4
(4) 1 4 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Figure shows an imaginary cube of side a. A uniformly charged rod of length moves towards
right at a constant speed v. At t = 0, the right end of the rod just touches the left face of the cube.

Plot a graph between electric flux passing through the cube versus time :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Find total number of electric field lines originate from +2.15 μC charge.

(1) 2.5 × 105

(2) 5 × 105
(3) 8 × 105
(4) None of these

39) Two identical small spheres carry charge of Q1 and Q2 with Q1 >> Q2. The charges are d distance
apart. The force they exert on one another is F1. The sphere are made to touch one another and then

separated to distance 'd' apart. The force they exert on one another now is F2, then is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Electric field on the axis of ring is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

41) Find relation between EA, EB & EC .

(1) EA = EB > EC
(2) EA = EB = EC
(3) EA > EB > EC
(4) EA < EC

42) In which of the following figure, electric field at point O is non zero ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (2) and (3) both are correct

43) There exists a uniform electric field N/C in a region. Calculate the flux of
electric field through a circle of radius R. (equation of circle ⇒ x2 + y2 = 4)

(1) α β γ
(2) 4πγ
(3) 2πα
(4) 2πβ

44) A point charge q is placed at origin. Find the flux of electric field, produced due to this charge,
through a circle of radius R with the help of fig. (R >>>x)

(1)

(2) ER2

(3)

(4) E . 4πR2

45) The figure shows four situations in which charged particles are at equal distances from the
origin. E1, E2, E3 and E4 are the magnitude of fields at the origin in each case. Select the correct
alternative.

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4

(2) E1 < E2 < E3 < E4
(3) E1 = E2 = E3 = E4
(4) E1 > E2 < E3 < E4

CHEMISTRY

1) Total number of carbon atom present in parent chain is :-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) None
2) IUPAC name of compound is :-

(1) 4, 6-diamino cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

(2) 2, 4-diamino cyclohex-4-en-1-ol
(3) 4-hydroxy cyclohex-3-en-1, 5-diamine
(4) 1, 5-diamino-4-hydroxy cyclohex-2-ene

3) Which of the following have only 1° Hydrogen atom :-

(1) Cyclopropane
(2) 2-methyl propene
(3) Isobutane
(4) 2-methyl butene

4) Which one of the following represent correct order of functional groups according to priority table
?

(1) –SO3H > –CN > –CONH2 > –OH

(2) –COX > –OH > –CHO > CN
(3) –COOR > –CN > –CHO > –NH2
(4) –SO3H > –COOH > CHO > –CN

5) Pent-4-en-2-one is the correct IUPAC name for:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 3,3-Diformyl propanoic acid

(2) 3-Formyl-4-oxobutanoic acid
(3) 3,3-Dioxo propanoic acid
(4) 3,3-Dicarbaldehyde propanoic acid
7) The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 4–Amino-2–methoxy–1–amino–2–butene
(2) 4–Amino–3–methoxy–2–butenamide
(3) 2–Methoxy–1,4–diamino–2–butenal
(4) 1–Amino–2–methoxy–3–amino propene

8) Following compound is named as :-

(1) 6–Mercaptocyclohex–4–ene–1,3–diol
(2) 1–Mercaptocyclohex–2–ene–4,6–diol
(3) 1–Mercaptocyclohex–5–ene–2,4–diol
(4) 4–Mercaptocyclohex–2–ene–1,5–diol

9) How many carbon present in P.C.C of given structure.

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

10) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 2–Ethyl cyclobut 3–en–1–ol

(2) 4–Ethyl cyclobut–2–en–1–ol
(3) 3–Ethyl cyclobut–1–en–4–ol
(4) 4–Ethyl cyclobut–1–en–3–ol

11) Which is correct IUPAC name :-

(1)
cyclohexane-1,3,5-trione

(2)
Ethyl methanoate
(3)

6-Bromo-1-chloro cyclohexene
(4) All of these

12) Which of the following molecules have only sp2 Hybridised carbon atoms ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) s-block metal oxides are basic in nature except BeO which is amphoteric.
(2) P-block non-metal oxides are acidic in nature except NO, N2O, CO.
(3) In d-block all elements are metals
(4) In p-block all elements are metals

14)

Which of the following is amphoteric oxide?

Mn2O7, CrO3, Cr2O3, CrO, V2O5, V2O4 :-

(1) V2O5, Cr2O3
(2) Mn2O7, CrO3
(3) CrO, V2O5
(4) V2O5, V2O4

15)

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) With the decrease the electronegativity in a group the metallic character increases
(2) Smaller ionization energy value indicates that electropositive character is more
(3) Electronegativity depend upon stability of e– configuration
(4) Successive ionization energies always increase for an element

16)
Which of the following is wrong?

(1) Zero EA : He, N, Be

(2) IE : O+ > S+
(3) IE : O– > S–
(4) EN : B > Tl > In > Ga > Al

17) Assertion : F atom has less electron affinity than Cl atom.

Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more strongly by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
electrons in F atom.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is correct for the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

18) Assertion : Electron affinity of oxygen is less than that of fluorine but greater than that of
nitrogen.
Reason : Order of Ionisation energy is the following:
N>O>F

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) Which of the following species is neither hypervalent nor hypovalent?

¯
(1) ClO4
(2) BCl3
2–
(3) SO4
2–
(4) CO3

20) Which is not possible :-

(1) ICl3
–
(2) I3
–2
(3) CCl6
–2
(4) BeF4

21)

IF3 is formed in :-

(1) 1st excited state of iodine

(2) 2nd excited state of iodine
(3) Ground state of iodine
(4) All wrong

22) Correct statement is :-

(1) Chlorine can show covalency 3, 5 & 7.

(2) Maximum covalency of 'N' can be 4.
(3) exist but does not exist.
(4) All are correct

23) In which of the following molecular ions number of ℓ.p are same in central atom and terminal
atom.

(1)
(2)
(3) XeF2
(4) All of these

24)

Identify correct match

Type of Bond
Internuclear axis
overlapping formed

(1) px + px π X

(2) px + dxz π X

(3) py + dxy π X

(4) s + pz π X
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25)

Element IP1 IP2 IP3 IP4

A 5.390 75.6 122.4 –

B 8.2 25.1 37.9 259.2

C 9.3 18.2 217.6 217.6

Select correct option (If A, B & C are II period element) :
(1) A(g) + e → (g) = +ve
(2) ZB > ZCZ = Atomic number
(3) Oxide of B = Amphoteric

(4) is non-spontaneous

26) Assertion (A) : Al(OH)3 soluble in NaOH but Fe(OH)3 is insoluble in NaOH.
Reason (R) : NaOH forms water soluble complex Na[A1(OH)4].

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

27) Which is/are correct about electro-negativity order of the following elements ?

(1) A1 > Ga
(2) C > N
(3) C < Br
(4) Sr > Ca

28)

The hydroxide of which metal ion is not soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution :

(1) A1+3
(2) Cr3+
(3) Be+2
(4) Cu2+

29) Which of the following oxide is different than other ?

(1) SO2
(2) Cl2O7
(3) PbO2
(4) Mn2O7

30) Incorrect statement about valency is :

(1) It increases from IA to IVA with respect of hydrogen.

(2) It increase from IA to VIIA with respect to Hydrogen.
(3) Maximum covalency of second period elements is four.
(4) Third period element can extend their covalency (more than 4).

31) Incorrect statement about nitrogen is :

(1) General covalency = 3

(2) Maximum covalency = 4
(3) Maximum oxidation state = +5
(4) In N2O4 and N2O5, covalency = 3, 4

32) The combination of orbital that produce non-bonding molecular orbital is (inter nuclear axis is Z-
axis).

(1) Pz + Pz
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Which pair of element can form multiple bond with itself and oxygen ?

(1) F, N
(2) N, C1
(3) N, P
(4) N, C

34) Which is correct entry in blanks ?

Internuclear
Orbits Bond
axis

i. dxy, dxy A π

ii. px, px Y B

iii. px, C Z π

iv dxy, py D π
(1) A – all axis
(2) B = σ or π bond
(3) C = px
(4) D = y axis

35) Select the incorrect orders of IP ?

(1) O– < S–
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) For a first order reaction

3A(g) → 2B(g) + 3C(g) + D(g)
if initial pressure of A is P0 and after time 't' the pressure of gaseous mix is Pt the Rate Constant is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

37) For the reaction A + 2B + 3C → D

following data was obtained. Using the data calculate the order of reaction

Rate of
Experiment [A] [B] [C] reaction
(M/sec)

1 0.6 M 1.2 M 0.3 M 0.5

2 0.6 M 2.4 M 0.3 M 1

3 1.2 M 2.4 M 0.3 M 2

4 0.6 M 1.2 M 0.9 M 4.5

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

38)

Column-I Column-II

P. Zero order reaction 1.

Q. First order reaction 2.

Involves at least
R. Second order reaction 3.
two reactants

Pseudo unimolecular –kt

S. 4. [A]t = [A]0e
reaction
Code :
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 3 2 1 4
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
39) The accompanying figure depicts the change in concentration of species X and Y for the reaction
X → 3Y as a function of time the point of intersection of the two curves represents.

(1) t1/2
(2) t3/4
(3) t1/4
(4) Data insufficient to predict

40) The rate of first order reaction is 1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 at 0.5 M concentration of the
reactant. The half life of the reaction is

(1) 7.53 min

(2) 0.383 min
(3) 23.1 min
(4) 8.73 min

41) Which is/are correct statements :

(a) On Increasing temperature rate of reaction increases for endothermic and decreases for
exothermic reaction.
(b) On Increasing temperature rate of reaction increase due to increase in number of effective
collisions.
(c) Collision that can cross energy barrier as well as orientation barrier are effective collision.
(d) For complex molecules rate =
e–Ea/RT acc. to collision theory

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) b,c,d
(4) a,b,c,d

42) For two unimolecular reaction

k1 = 1012 e–4000/T
k2 = 1013
Then at which temperature both reaction will have same ROR.

(1) 432.32
(2) 651.32 k
(3) 215.71k
(4) 912.52k

43) Which is/are statement are correct.

(a) On comparing two reaction, higher Ea reaction will be slower compare to lower Ea reaction (same
arrhenius factor)
(b) Reaction having lower Ea values are more sensitive toward temperature.
(c) Value of rate constant depend on activation energy, catalyst and temperature.

(d) Slope of log10 K and is equal to

(1) a,b,c,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) a,c
(4) b,d

44) For a reaction A D

Steps (i) A → B Ea = 40 KJ/mole
A = 106 sec–1
(ii) B → C Ea = 60 KJ/mole
A = 102 sec–1
(iii) C → D Ea = 30 KJ/mole
A = 104 sec–1

If
Then value of Aoverall and (Ea)overall are :

(1) 104 sec–1 and 40 KJ/mole

(2) 1014 sec–1 and 30 KJ/mole
(3) 1010 sec–1 and 10 KJ/mole
(4) 106 sec–1 and 60 KJ/mole

45) Which is/are statement correct.

(a) If Ea = 0 then rate constant is same at
25°C and at 45°C.
(b) For a reaction if frequency factor is
1.5 × 1014 sec–1 and rate constant at 25°C is
5.3 × 10–9 sec–1. Then rate constant at
T = ∞ is 1.5 × 1014 sec–1

(c) If reaction obey log K = 6 – then

Ea = 9.212 k cal

(1) a,b only

(2) a only
(3) a,b,c
(4) b,c only

BIOLOGY

1) A child born with a tail like structure is an example of

(1) Mutation
(2) Variation
(3) Atavism
(4) Acquired character

2) The site of fertilization in human females is usually the:

(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Cervix
(4) Ampullary region of fallopian tube

3) Hormone responsible for milk ejection after delivery:

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin

4) Vasectomy is a method of contraception involving cutting of:

(1) Urethra
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Epididymis
(4) Testis

5) Which of the following organisms connects reptiles and birds in terms of features ?

(1) Icthyosaurus
(2) Peripatus
(3) Archaeopteryx
(4) Neopilina

6) One ovum is released during:

(1) Menstruation
(2) Ovulation
(3) Fertilization
(4) Implantation

7) Part of sperm that contains enzymes to penetrate ovum:

(1) Tail
(2) Head
(3) Acrosome
(4) Midpiece
8) Which hormone is secreted only during pregnancy?

(1) LH
(2) hCG
(3) FSH
(4) Estrogen

9) The correct sequence is:

(1) Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Implantation

(2) Zygote → Blastocyst → Morula → Implantation
(3) Zygote → Implantation → Morula → Blastocyst
(4) Morula → Zygote → Blastocyst → Implantation

10) Spermatogenesis starts at:

(1) Childhood
(2) Puberty
(3) Birth
(4) Menopause

11) Identify a permanent method of contraception:

(1) Condom
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Oral pill

12) The organ that stores and matures sperm:

(1) Testis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Epididymis
(4) Urethra

13) Placenta performs all EXCEPT:

(1) Gas exchange

(2) Nutrient transport
(3) WBC production
(4) Hormone secretion

14) Which organ is showing evolutionary loss of function ?

(1) Pancreas
(2) Intestine
(3) Lungs
(4) Wisdom teeth

15) Marsupials of Australia and placental mammals elsewhere develop similar adaptations
independently. This represents

(1) Atavism
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

16) What is the function of FSH in males?

(1) Induce ovulation

(2) Stimulates testosterone release
(3) Stimulates spermatogenesis
(4) Maintain corpus luteum

17) Which hormone initiates milk production?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Prolactin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Relaxin

18) Which is NOT a part of the male accessory glands?

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Bulbourethral gland
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Testis

19) Duration of human gestation is approximately:

(1) 240 days

(2) 10 months
(3) 9 months
(4) 300 days

20) Which layer of uterus is shed during menstruation?

(1) Myometrium
(2) Perimetrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Chorion
21) Which hormone causes ovulation?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

22) Darwin finches evolved different types of beak on the Galapagos Islands to adapt to different
food sources. This is an example of

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Atavism
(4) Fossil history

23) Structure that nourishes the embryo in early stages:

(1) Uterus
(2) Endometrium
(3) Placenta
(4) Fallopian tube

24) Match the column:

Column A Column B

a Vas deferens 1. Enzyme release

b Acrosome 2. Sperm transport

c LH 3. Ovulation trigger

d Amnion 4. Embryo protection

(1) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(2) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(3) a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1
(4) a-3 b-4 c-1 d-2

25) Identify the incorrect pair:

(1) Saheli - Centchroman

(2) Condom - Barrier
(3) Copper-T - Hormonal method
(4) Tubectomy - Surgical method

26) Which of these contraceptives prevents ovulation?

(1) Copper-T
(2) Condom
(3) Oral pills
(4) Diaphragm

27) Which of the following is NOT part of male reproductive system?

(1) Epididymis
(2) Uterus
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Prostate

28) Hormone released from corpus luteum:

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Progesterone
(4) HCG

29) Which of the following is an example of biochemical evidences of evolution

(1) Similar bone structure in vertebrates

(2) embryonic similarities
(3) Similarity in DNA and protein
(4) Fossil

30) Abiogenesis was experimentally proven by

(1) Aristotle
(2) Urey-miller
(3) Oparin-Haldene
(4) Muller

31) Barrier method of contraception includes:

(1) Saheli
(2) Copper-T
(3) Condom
(4) Injectable

32) Semen is alkaline due to:

–
(1) HCO3 secretion
(2) Seminal plasma
(3) Cowper's gland
(4) All of these
33) In males, testosterone is secreted by:

(1) Sertoli cells

(2) Leydig cells
(3) Spermatogonia
(4) Spermatids

34) Menstrual phase is triggered by:

(1) High progesterone

(2) Low FSH
(3) Decrease in estrogen and progesterone
(4) High LH

35) Implantation occurs about how many days after fertilization?

(1) 1-2
(2) 3-4
(3) 6-7
(4) 10-12

36) If no fertilization occurs, which hormone decreases?

(1) LH
(2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen
(4) FSH

37) Identify the labeled structure "A" in male reproductive system . What is its function?

(1) Sperm production

(2) Spermatid nourishment
(3) Sperm storage and maturation
(4) Testosterone production

38) Number of vestigeal organs given below are

Nictitating membrane
Appendix
Wisdom teeth
Pinna
Nails

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 5

39) Which is incorrect?

(1) Copper-T prevents implantation

(2) Condom prevents STDs
(3) Saheli causes ovulation
(4) Prolactin helps in milk production

40) Identify from graph when ovulation occurs.

(1) Day 1
(2) Day 7
(3) Day 14
(4) Day 28

41) Male reproductive system includes paired testes, accessory ducts, and glands. Name the gland
that contributes fructose and prostaglandins to semen.

(1) Prostate
(2) Bulbourethral
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Epididymis

42) Assertion (A) : Placenta is an endocrine structure.

Reason (R) : It secretes hCG, progesterone, and estrogen

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

43) Arrange the following :

1. Molecules
2. Prebiotic soup
3. Protobionts
4. Chemo heterotrophs
5. Autotrophs

(1) 1-2-3-4-5
(2) 2-1-3-4-5
(3) 1-3-2-4-5
(4) 3-1-2-4-5

44) Match the Column

a Saheli i Oral hormonal

b Condom ii IUCD

c Copper-T iii Barrier

d Tubectomy iv Surgical
(1) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv
(2) a-ii,b-i,c-iv,d-iii
(3) a-iii,b-i,c-ii,d-iv
(4) a-i,b-iii,c-ii,d-iv

45) Statement 1: Spermatogenesis requires both FSH and testosterone.

Statement 2: Sertoli cells are stimulated by LH.

(1) Both correct

(2) Both incorrect
(3) Only 1 correct
(4) Only 2 correct

46) Which of the following is correct ?

(1) S = exponential growth, C = Y intercept. Z = Unknown factor, A = area

(2) S = species richness, C = Y intercept, Z = regression coefficient, A = area
(3) S = Logistic growth, C = carrying capacity Z = Environmental resistance, A = area
(4) S = Semi arid species, C = Y intercept. Z = regression coefficient, A = area

47) Which of the following is considered a hot- spot of biodiversity in India?

(1) Indo- Gangetic Plain

(2) Eastern Ghats
(3) Aravalli Hills
(4) Western Ghats

48)

Match the column-I with column-II and III :-

I II III

Kaziranga
(1) National (a) White tiger (i) Uttarakhand
park

Gir Great
(2) National (b) indian (ii) Rajasthan
park bustard

(3) Sundarbans (c) Asiatic lion (iii) Assam

Desert
(4) National (d) Tiger (iv) Gujarat
park

Nanda West
(5) (e) Rhinoceros (v)
Devi Bengal
(1) 1–b–iii, 2–c–iv, 3–d–v, 4–a–ii, 5–e–i
(2) 1–d–v, 2–b–ii, 3–e–iii, 4–c–iv, 5–a–i
(3) 1–e–iii, 2–c–iv, 3–d–v, 4–b–ii, 5–a–i
(4) 1–a–i, 2–d–v, 3–c–iv, 4–b–ii, 5–e–iii

49) Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our
country :-

(1) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch

(2) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(3) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(4) Kerala and Punjab

50) Which one of the following is known as "Lungs of the planet" ?

(1) Amazon rain forest

(2) Western ghats
(3) Indo Burma region
(4) Eastern ghats

51) All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except

(1) Wildlife safari parks

(2) Sacred groves
(3) Botanical gardens
(4) Seed banks

52) Which of the following is not concerned with loss of biodiversity ?

(1) Alien species invasion

(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Deforestation
(4) Ex-situ conservation

53) The organization which publishes the Red List of species is :-

(1) ICFRE
(2) IUCN
(3) UNEP
(4) WWF

54) Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park ?

(1) Jim Corbett

(2) Ranthambore
(3) Sunderbans
(4) Gir

55) Which one of the following represents a renewable source of energy ?

(1) Petroleum
(2) Coal
(3) Nuclear fuel
(4) Trees

56) Which of the following is true :-

(1) 32% of amphibian species face the threat of extinction.

(2) Lichen have higher biodiversity than algae and Fungi together.
(3) Ganga basin have higher biodiversity than Amazon rain forest.
(4) A stable community should show huge variation in productivity from year to year.

57)
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the above mentioned graph?
(A) A show more species diversity than B and C
(B) Value of Z is less for C in comparison to A and B
(C) Value of Z is maximum for A
(D) C show maximum species diversity

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A and C

58) What is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction ?

(1) Habitat loss & fragmentation

(2) Over - exploilation
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) Co-extinction

59) Assertion: The Amazon rain forest is so huge that it is called the lungs of the planet.
Reason: The Amazon rain forest is estimated to produce 20% of the total oxygen in the earth's
atmosphere.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60) Assertion: India is one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
Reason: India shares of the global species diversity is an impressive 8.1 percent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

61) Assertion: Bioprospecting is exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for the
product of economic importance.
Reason: More than 25 percent of the drugs currently sold in the market world wide are derived
from plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Assertion: Nature's biological library is burning even before we catalogue the titles of all the
books stocked there.
Reason: A large fraction of species diversity is facing the threat of becoming extinct even before we
discover them.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

63) In the below graph relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa is
shown. On a logarithmic scale, the relationship shown by straight line, In which area slope of line to

be much steeper ? Here Area (A) = 1 km2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64) How many genetically different strains of rice and varieties of mango are present in India ?

(1) 10,000 and 50,000 respectively

(2) 10,000 each
(3) 50,000 each
(4) 50,000 and 1,000 respectively

65) The given figure shows global biodiversity of proportionate number of species of major taxa of
vertebrates. Identify A,B, C and D correctly :-

A-Mammals ; B – Birds ;
(1)
C – Reptiles ; D – Amphibians
A-Amphibians ; B – Reptiles ;
(2)
C – Birds; D – Mammals
A-Mammals ; B – Reptiles ;
(3)
C – Birds ; D – Amphibians
A-Fishes ; B – Mammals ;
(4)
C – Birds ; D – Reptiles

66) Refer the given figure representing different zones of a biosphere reserve.

Choose the correct answer as the statements given below.

(i) Limited human activity is allowed such as for research and education.
(ii) An active co-operation occurs between reserve management and local people for activities like
cropping, settlements etc.
(iii) No human activity is allowed.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) A B C

(2) B C A

(3) C A B

(4) C B A
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) The four (A, B, C and D) given about the indian map, find out the national park/santuaries, and
conserved animal :-

National
Conserved
Location Park/ Location
Animal
Sancturies

Royal
A (a) Gir (i) P Gujarat
bengal tiger

One
B (b) Jim corbett (ii) horn Q Kerala
rhino

Asiatic
C (c) Periyar (iii) R Assam
lion

D (d) Kaziranga (iv) Elephent S Uttarakhand

(1) A-b-iii-P, B-d-i-S, C-a-ii-R, D-c-iv-Q
(2) A-b-i-S, B-d-ii-R, C-a-iii-P, D-c-iv-Q
(3) A-d-i-R, B-a-iii-Q, C-b-iii-P, D-c-ii-S
(4) A-c-ii-P, B-b-iv-Q, C-d-iv-R, D-a-iii-S

68)
In above diagram four areas are given. In which Area has maximum species diversity

(1) A
(2) C
(3) B
(4) D

69) Statement-I : Among animals, insects are the most species rich taxonomic group.
Statement-II : The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the
species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

70) Two honey bees species are competing for the same nectar of a flower in a garden to survive and
co-exist together, they may avoid competition in the same garden by :

(1) Predating on each other.

(2) Increasing time spent on attacking each other.
(3) Choosing different foraging patterns.
(4) Feeding at the same time.

71) Statement-I : Alien species invasion is the most important cause driving animals and plant to
extinction.
Statement-II : Many species extinctions in the last 500 years (Steller's Sea cow, Passenger Pigeon)
were due to Habitat loss and fragmentation.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

72) Statement-I : National park, Wild life sanctuaries and biosphere reserves are the example of
Ex-situ conservation.
Statement-II : Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for the products of economic
importance known as bioprospecting.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

73) Statement-I :- The conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying microbial
species.
Statement-II :- The rate of extinction in sixth episode of extinction is less than the previous
episodes of extinction.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I & II are correct.

74) Match the column I and coloumn II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Dodo (i) Africa

 (b) Quagga (ii) Bali, Javan, Caspian

(c) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(d) Steller's Sea Cow (iv) Australia

(e) Tiger sub species (v) Russia

(1) (a)- iv (b)- ii (c)- i (d)- v (e) -iii
(2) (a)- iii (b)- iv (c)- ii (d)- i (e) -v
(3) (a)- iii (b)- i (c)- iv (d)- v (e) -ii
(4) (a)- iii (b)- v (c)- iv (d)- i (e) -ii

75) In which of the following both pairs have correct combination :-

In situ conservation – Seed Bank

(1)
Ex-situ conservation – National park
In-situ conservation – Cryopreservation
(2)
Ex-situ conservation – Wild life santuary
In-situ conservation – Biodiversity hot spot
(3)
Ex-situ conservation – Wild life safari park
In-situ conservation – Tissue culture
(4)
Ex-situ conservation – Sacred groves

76) Match the Column-I and Column-II with correct options -

Column-I Column-II
Biodiversity
(A) Kyoto Protocol (i)
Conservation
Montreal Climate
(B) (ii)
Protocol Change
The Earth Sustainable
(C) (iii)
Summit development
Ozone
(D) World Summit (iv)
Protection
Wetland
(v)
Conservation
(1) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (i); (D) - (iii)
(2) (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (v); (D) - (iii)
(3) (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (v); (D) - (i)
(4) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (iii); (D) - (i)

77)

Match the following column :

Column-I Column-II
A. Rivet-Poper Hypothesis (i) Edward Wilson
Alexander
B. Biodiversity term (ii)
Von Humboldt
 Species-area
C. (iii) [Link]
relationship
D. Ecosystem term (iv) Paul Ehlrich
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

78) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 190 billion tons

(2) 160 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 150 billion tons

79) Which of the following statement(s) regarding energy flow is/are false ?
(I) Detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter
(II) In aquatic ecosystem, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow
(III) In terrestrial ecosystem a larger fraction of energy flows through grazing food chain
(IV) Producers belong to the first trophic level of the food chain

(1) II and III only

(2) III and IV only
(3) I and IV only
(4) I and II only

80) What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR), in the incident solar
radiation :-

(1) 100%
(2) 50% or less
(3) 1-5%
(4) 2-10%

81) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Trophic level represent functional level not a species as such.

(2) A same species may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem at same time.
(3) In most ecosystem, pyramids of number, or energy and biomass are upright.
(4) Energy at higher trophic level is more as compared to lower levels.

82) If you were to count the number of insects feeding on a big tree and number of small birds
depending on the insects as also the number of larger birds eating the smaller.
What kind of energy pyramid would you get for food chain :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

83) Ecosystem is an open system for :-

(1) Energy
(2) Minerals
(3) Both 1 and 2 given above
(4) Water

84) What can be correct for following food web :-

(1) J is primary consumers

(2) C is herbivore
(3) I is primary carnivore
(4) F is carnivore

85) Read statements regarding population interacton:

(A) Biological control methods are adopted in agricultural pest control based on predation
(B) In the rocky intertidal areas of American pacific coast starfish is an important predator.
(C) Some species of frog & insect show camouflagae
(D) Host specific Parasite and host show co-evolution
How many of above statements are correct ?

(1) Statement A, B, C, D
(2) Only statement D
(3) Only statement C, D
(4) Only A, B and D

86) Which one of the following is most appropriately defined ?

(1) Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected.
(2) Predator is an organism that catches, kills & eats other organisms for food.
(3) Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and kill it.
(4) Female Anopheles mosquito is considered as parasite

87) Which of the following species relation is not an example of detrimental relation ?
(1) Copepods ↔ Marine fishes
(2) Sparrow ↔ seed
(3) Ticks ↔ Dog
(4) Glomus ↔ Root

88) Identify the correct match from the coloumn I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Plant pollinator
1 Predation a i +/–
Relation

2 Commensalism b Cuckoo & Crow ii +0

Biological
3 Mutualism c iii +/+
control method

Brood Sea-anemone
4 d iv +–
Parasitism Clown fish
(1) 1-b-i, 2-a-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv
(2) 4-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-d-i
(3) 1-c-i, 2-d-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-b-iv
(4) 1-c-i, 2-b-iv, 3-a-iii, 4-d-ii

89) Which one is incorrect :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A – Interference competition

(2) B – Showing Gause competitive exclusion principle
(3) C – Showing intra specific competition
(4) D – Showing resources partitioning

90) Population interactions :-

Organism A Organism B Name of interaction

+ + Mutualism

– – A

+ – Predation

+ – B

+ 0 Commensalism

– 0 C

Find out what could be A, B and C.

(1) A-Amensalism, B-Parasitism, C-Competition
(2) A-Competition, B-Parasitism, C-Amensalism
(3) A-Competition, B-Amensalism, C-Parasitism
(4) A-Amensalism, B-Competition, C-Competition
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 3 3 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) In question it is clearly written that "definitely return". Since scaling is not done, in all the
cases we can find atleast a situation in which the particle can not return to its initial position.

2)

Average velocity =

vavg =
Here. H = maximum height

R = range =

and T = time of flight =

∴ vavg =
Alternate solution :

<Vx> = = V cos θ

<Vy> =

<V> = =

<V> =

3)

As t = x2 + x ⇒ dt/dx = 2x + 1
⇒ v = (2x + 1)–1 … (i)
[as dx/dt = v], Now by chain rule
⇒ a = (2x + 1)–1 (2x + 1)–1
= – 2 (2x + 1)–3
So, Retardation = – a = 2 (2x + 1)–3

4)
So,

5)

Time of meeting

…(1)
For ball from ground using eq. (2)

…(2)

V02 = gH

6)

v = u + at
0 = 15 – 2t
t = 7.5 sec
from 7.5 sec to 8 sec

S=

Distance travelled in 8th sec. = = 0.5 m

7)

Question Asking About:

In this question we have to find the maximum velocity of car for given conditions

Given Data:
Initial velocity of car (starts from rest) m = 0

Acceleration of car = a

Deceleration of car = b

Total time taken = t

Key Concept:
Equation of motion with constant acceleration.

Formula:

V = μt at

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Let at acceleration for time t1 and deceleration for time t2 then

t1 + t2 = t ….(1)

from v = μ + at

v = final velocity

μ = Initial velocity

a = acceleration

t = time

for acceleration

vmax = 0 + at1 (v = vmax)

vmax = at1 ...(2)

for deceleration :

The velocity at the end of time t1 i.e vmax will be the initial velocity for time internal t2 and final
velocity will be 0.

for acceleration

from v = m + at

⇒ 0 = vmax + (-b / t2)

⇒ 0 = at1 – bt2 [vmax = at1 → from – 2, a = -b]

⇒ t2 =

Putting value of t2 in equation (1)

⇒ t1 + t2 ⇒ t1 + =t

⇒ = t ⇒ t1 = ….(3)

Putting value of t1 in equation (2)

Vmax = at1 ⇒

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

8)
compare with

R = 16 m

9)
t = 30 s

10)
VX = 25 cos 60° = 12.5 m/s
Vy = 25 sin 60° =

Time to cover 50 m distance

The vertical height y is
11) and
If its inclination with the horizontal is 45o then vx = uy

So,

12)

13)

Given initial velocity = ν0

Final velocity = 0
α = –x2

Now we know that

νdν = –x dx
2

Integrating we get

14) Let r be the length of seconds hand.

Distance travelled in 1 sec

Now, we want to know the distance travelled in 27 seconds

15)

∵ a = 6t + 5 ∴
∴ v = 3t2 + 5t
∴

16) T = ⇒ 2=
Uy = 20 m/s
at t = 1 vy = 10 m/s
vx = 10 m/s

v=

17)
Slope : negative ⇒ zero ⇒ Positive
Slope : First decrease them increases

18) ∵ T = 3+5
⇒ u sin θ = 40 ......(1)
and u cos θ × 2 = 80
⇒ u cos θ = 40 ......(2)
from equation (1) and (2)
tan θ = 1, θ = 45º

19)

tanθ =
θ = 37º South of east

20) Displacement = 0
as initial & final position of object is same.

21)
y = mx ⇒ V2 =

22)

= Initial speed = u
= final speed = u
= speed at top = u cos θ (A)
(B) &

(C) = u – u cos θ
(D)

23) which is always positive so direchon of velocity remains

unchanged.

24)

Total charge = (4πr2)dr =

25) To cover the charge we need 12 surface,

26)

⇒
27)

Total charge =

28)

At mid point P

29) for small angle

tanθ sinθ =

=
so, q2 ∝ x3 or q ∝ x3/2

30)
 V-m

31) Concept
The electric field due to a away from the charge; while the electric field due to a toward the
charge. We are looking for the combination of charges where the field is positive along the x-
axis
Formula
The direction of the field depends on the sign of the charge.
• For a positive charge, the electric field points away from the charge.
• For a negative charge, the electric field points towards the charge.
Calculation
To ensure the electric field is negative at a point between Q1 and Q2, the direction of the fields
due to both charges must add up in the negative direction of x. This can happen if Q1 is
negative and Q2 is positive and the graph is symmetric so |Q1| =|Q2|
Answer: Option 3 (Q1 is negative and Q2 is positive with |Q1| = IQ2|

32)

• (A) Like charges – (ii) Repel each other

• (B) Unlike charges – (iii) Attract each other

• (C) Charge can be – (iv) Neutralised if they are equal and opposite

• (D) Charge are – (i) of two types.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

33) Electric Field Calculation

The electric field at point A is the vector sum of the electric fields due to all charges at the
vertices of the hexagon.

Enet ⇒

Calculation of Electric Potential:

The potential at point A is the sum of the potentials due to each charge.
• For charge Q at distance a:

• For charge 2Q at distance 2a:

Total potential at point A:

34)

For vacuum, F = ..(1)

For partial filling of dielectric, reff =

reff =

35)

ϕ=
qin = λ . 2x

2x = 2

So, ϕ =

36)
37)

38) =
5
2.5 × 10

39)

40)

41) Electric field lines are equidistant and parallel. Electric field is uniform.

42)

43) x2 + y2 = R2 in x-y plane

(∵ R = 2 m)
 44)

R⇒∞

3rd option correct.

45)
3rd option correct.

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Nu. Starts from OH group.

48)

49)

Priority sequence of functional groups.

50)

51)

COOH is PFG. one CHO is included in PCC.

52)

CONH2 is PFG

53)

– OH is functional group

54)

Open chain part is PCC.

55)

Nu starts from OH group.

56)

Cyclohexane-1,3,5-trione

Ethyl methanoate

6-Bromo-1-chloro cyclohexene

57) All C-atom are sp2

58)

In p-block all type's of element's are present.

59)

Amphoteric oxide : CrO3, V2O5, MnO2

60)

1) In a group M.C decrease

2) Electropositive α
3) EN > Zeff (does not depend on stability)
4) IP1 < IP2 < IP3 < ...

61)

IE

62)

In Cl-atom additional e– get less repulsion.

63)

EA : O < F
EA : O < N (dneto soluble 2s2 2p3 configuration of N)

64)

CO32– follows octet rule ⇒ neither hypo valent nor hyper valent.

65)

CCl6–2 does not exist.

66) Iodine's ground state has only one unpaired electron. To form IF3, iodine needs three
unpaired electrons. which occurs in the first excited state.
Final Answer - Option (1)

67)

Since all the individual statements are correct, this option is also correct.

68) :

69)

(1) px + px along X-axis: This results in head-on overlap, forming a σ bond, not a π bond.
(2) px + dxz along X-axis: The px orbital is along the X-axis. The dxz orbital has lobes in the XZ
plane. Sideways overlap is not possible, forming a σ bond.
(3) py + dxy along X-axis: The py orbital is along the Y-axis. The dxy orbital has lobes between
the X and Y axes. Sideways overlap is possible, forming a π bond.
(4) s + pz along X-axis: The s orbital is spherical. The pz orbital is along the Z-axis. There will
be no effective sideways overlap to form a π bond along the X-axis. forming a σ bond, not a π
bond.
Answer option 3

70)

71)

Al(OH)3 - Amphoteric
Fe(OH)3 - Basic

72)

Al = 1.5, Ga = 1.6, C = 2.5, N = 3.0

Br = 28

73)

Cu(OH)2 – Basic nature

74)

PbO2 – Amphoteric
SO2, Mn2O7, Cl2O7 – Acidic

75)

Valence with respect to hydrogen

1234 321

76)

77)
 78)

N ≡ N, –C ≡ C –/ >C = C<

79)

80)

81)

3 A(g) → 2B(g) + 3C(g) + D(g)

P0

0
P –x x

0 0
Pt ⇒ P – x + +x+ =P +x
x = (Pt – P0)

K=

K=

82)

overs all order = 4

83)

→ tt/2 ∝
→ At = A0 e–kt first order

→ Pseudo unimolecular molecularity = 2 order = 1

84)

x → 3y
t=0 a 0
teq a–x 3x
a – x = 3x
a = 4x

x=

85)

r = K(A)'
1.5 × 10–2 = K × 0.5
K = 3 × 10–2

t1/2 =

86) (a) Incorrect

(b) T ↑ effective collision ↑ ROR ↑ correct
(c) correct
(d) correct

87)

1012 e–4000/T = 1013

= 2.303 log10

T= = 651.32 k

88) a, c are correct, b, d incorrect.

(a) K = Ae–E /RT Ea↑ K↓
a

(b)

89)

Aoverall =

Ea =

90) (a) k = Ae–Ea/Rt when Ea = 0 ∴ k = A constant

(b) T = ∞ ∴ K = A = 1.5 × 014
 (c) log k = log A –

So ⇒ 9.212 kcal

BIOLOGY

91) Its an ancestral charecter

92) Ampullary-isthmic junction is typical fertilization site.

93) Oxytocin stimulates uterine and breast contraction.

94) It prevents sperm from reaching urethra.

95) It connecting link

96) LH surge causes ovulation.

97) Acrosome has hydrolytic enzymes.

98) Secreted by trophoblast cells.

99) Sequential development post-fertilization.

100) Initiated by FSH and LH after puberty.

101) Fallopian tubes are cut and tied.

102) Also helps gain motility.

103) No hematopoiesis in placenta.

104) It is a vestigial organ

105) Closely related groups evolve similarly in different region.

106)
NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 31
Helps in spermiogenesis

107)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 38

Prolactin promote lactogenesis

108)

Testis from gametes

109)

9 months 10 days

110)

Mucosa of uterus

111)

Responsible for estivation of collagenase

112) One ancestor given many new species indifferent habitats is adaptive radiation.

113)

Made of Meternal of and Foetal Tissue

114)

Function of structures

115)

Its an IUCD

116)

Contains progesterone

117)

Uterus is female reproductive organ.

118)

These are sex hormone

119) Protein & DNA show similar sequence pattern.

120)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 111, 112

Life originates from inorganic substance

121)

Prevent fusion of gamete

122)

Neutralise H+

123)

Interstitial cell of testis

124)

Breakdown of CL

125)

Days after fertilization

126)

Breakdown of CL

127)

Epididymis

128)

NCERT (XII) ; Page No. # 113

Pinna & Nails are not vestigeal organ.

129)
Anti estrogen drug prevent implantation

130)

LH surge promote ovulation

131)

Fructose is source of energy to sperm.

132)

Placenta release hormones in blood.

133)

Oparin Haldane theory

134)

Match method of contraception

135)

Spermatogenesis is sperm formation.

136)

S = species richness, C = Y intercept, Z = regression coefficient, A = area

The Correct answer is: 2

137)

Question Explanation :
The question is asking to identify which of the given options is a hot spot of Biodiversity in
India.

Concept :
Question is based on in situ conservation.

Solution :
The correct option is (4) ; Western Ghats.

Final Answer :
Option (4)
138)

Module - 8, Pg. No. # 111

139)

Explaining the Question :-

The question is asking which pair of geographical areas in India exhibits the maximum
biodiversity. To answer this, we need to look at regions that are known for their diverse
ecosystems, endemic species, and varied flora and fauna.
Concept:-
Solution :-
This is the correct answer. Both the Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats are
biodiversity hotspots. The Eastern Himalayas are rich in flora and fauna, with many endemic
species and unique ecosystems. The Western Ghats are a UNESCO World Heritage site and
are known for their rich biodiversity, including many endemic species of plants, animals, and
insects.

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 224

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 225

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except.
Solution :
Secred groves are an example of in-situ conservation because they are areas where
biodiversity is conserved within its natural habitat, often due to cultural or religious
significance.
The other option (Wildlife safari parks, Botanical gardens and seed banks) are all examples of
ex-situ conservation, where species are conserved outside their natural habitats.
Final Answer : Option (2)

142)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 225

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 217

144)

Module-8, Pg. No. # 111

145)

Module - 8, Pg. No. # 108

146)

Explaining the Question :-

The question asks which of the statements regarding biodiversity and ecological
characteristics is true. You need to evaluate each option for its accuracy.
Concept:-
Solution :-
1. 32% of amphibian species face the threat of extinction.
This statement is true. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN), about 32% of amphibian species are currently facing the threat of extinction due to
factors like habitat loss, climate change, and diseases

147) NCERT XII, Pg. # 262, Para 15.1.2

148) NCERT XII Pg.# 264

149) NCERT XII, Pg. # 224, 222

150) NCERT-Page No. 261

151) NCERT-Page No. 265

152) NCERT Pg. # 261, 287 (4)

153)

The correct answer is : 4

154)

Explaining the Question :-

This question asks for the number of genetically different strains of rice and varieties of mango
found in India. It highlights the genetic diversity present in these two important agricultural
crops in the country.
Concept:-
Solution :-
• India is home to about 50,000 genetically distinct strains of rice and around 1,000 varieties
of mango. These figures reflect the rich biodiversity and agricultural heritage of the country,
showcasing the diverse cultivation practices and adaptations in different regions.

155)

Solution :

A-Mammals ; B – Reptiles ;
C – Birds ; D – Amphibians
The correct Answer -3

156)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 224

157)

Module - 8, Pg. No. # 111

158)

Module - 8, Pg. No. # 74

159)

Explain Question : asking about two statements

Concept : This question is based on Number of Species On Earth And Pie Chart
Explanation : Correct Answer: 1. Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
Explanation:
Statement-I: Correct
Insects are the most species-rich animal group, making up more than half of all described
animal species.
Statement-II: Correct
The estimated number of fungal species (~1.5 million) exceeds the combined total of fishes,
amphibians, reptiles, and mammals.
Final Answer: 1 Correct Answer

160) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 235

161) NCERT XII, Pg. # 223

162) NCERT Pg # 267

163)

NCERT - XII, Pg.# 260, 264

164)

Explain Question : asking about disappearance of species

Concept : This question is based on Loss Of Biodiversity And Jhum Cultivation
Explanation : In the context of biodiversity and extinction reports, it's often stated that 37
species have disappeared in the last twenty years.
Correct Answer : 4. 37 species.

165) NCERT - Pg. # 224, 225

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 225

167)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 220

168)

NCERT page no. 207

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 210

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 209

171)
NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 209

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 213

173)

Module - 8, Pg. No. # 107

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 210

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 233,235

177)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 201

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198

180)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197