UpSurge

Polity Advance Test

1
 Q1. Through this legislation, Indians were for the first Q4. Which of the following statements are true with
time included in the executive councils of both the reference to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
Viceroy and Governors. In addition, the act also 1.​ Customers under this act shall include persons
established the idea of a 'separate electorate' specifically buying goods physically but not electronically.
for Muslim representatives. Which of the following 2.​ The provisions of this Act cover only goods
acts is best suited for the description given in the but not services.

C
passage? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)​ Charter Act, 1853 (a)​ 1 only

PS
(b)​ Indian Councils Act, 1861 (b)​ 2 only
(c)​ Indian councils Act, 1909 (c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ Government of India Act, 1919 (d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference Q5. Consider the following statements with reference

U
to the Composition of the Constituent Assembly: to the legislative powers of the Parliament:
1.​ The Constituent Assembly was constituted as 1.​ Only the Parliament can make legislation
per the Cripps Proposals. applicable to extra-territorial jurisdiction.
2.​ The British Government nominated a few 2.​ Parliament can make laws on state list when
d members to the Constituent Assembly.
3.​ The nominees of the Princely states were
Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
by simple majority.
an
nominated by the princes. 3.​ A law made by the Parliament during the
How many of the statements given above are not president's rule in a state ceases to exist after
correct? the president’s rule.
(a)​ Only one How many of the statements given above are correct?
(b)​ Only two (a)​ Only one
St

(c)​ All three (b)​ Only two

(d)​ None (c)​ All three
(d)​ None
er

Q3. Which of the following statements are true with

reference to the Preamble of the Constitution of India? Q6. With reference to the Article 3 of the Indian
1.​ It is considered as the supreme power. Constitution, consider the following statements:
2.​ It is considered as part of the Constitution. 1.​ The bill under Article 3 requires the
nd

3.​ It was amended by the 44th Amendment Act, recommendation of the President to be
1976. introduced in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2.​ It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
(a)​ 1 and 2 only 3.​ Parliament is bound by the views of the State
U

(b)​ 2 only Legislature when the views are submitted

(c)​ 2 and 3 only within the prescribed time.
(d)​ 1 and 3 only How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 3
 Q7. Which of the following mentioned directives are Q10. How many of the following are included in both
added to Part IV of the Constitution by 42nd the Second schedule and the Third schedule of the
Constitutional Amendment, 1976? Indian Constitution:
1.​ To provide free legal aid to the poor. 1.​ Judges of Supreme Court and High Court
2.​ To protect and improve the environment. 2.​ Comptroller and Auditor General of India
3.​ To minimize the inequalities in income, status, 3.​ Governor of states
facilities and opportunities. 4.​ Union Ministers
How many of the statements given above are correct? Choose the correct answer using the code below?

C
(a)​ Only one (a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two (b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three (c)​ All three

PS
(d)​ None (d)​ None

Q8. Consider the following statements with reference

to Right to Property: Q11. With reference to Various Doctrines used by the
1.​ It was initially placed under Part III of the Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

U
Indian Constitution.
2.​ The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
Doctrine Meaning
1976 degraded it to the status of legal right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d
(a)​ 1 only
1. Doctrine of
Harmonious
Checking the true nature and
character to ascertain in
(b)​ 2 only Construction which list it falls
an
(c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
2. Doctrine of Direct Prohibition also means
Q9. With reference to Inter-State Water Disputes, Pith and indirect prohibition
St

consider the following statements: Substance

1.​ The President can provide for the adjudication
of any dispute with respect to the distribution 3. Doctrine of Provision of the statute
of waters in any inter state river valley. Colourable should not be interpreted in
er

2.​ Interstate River Water Disputes Act 1956 bars legislation isolation but as a whole
the jurisdiction of the lower courts but not the
Supreme Court over interstate river water
nd

disputes. How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)​ Only one
(a)​ 1 only (b)​ Only two
(b)​ 2 only (c)​ All three
U

(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (d)​ None

(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

UPSURGE-A001 5
 Q12. Consider the following statements with reference Q15. With reference to Central Bureau of Investigation
to Charter Act of 1853: (CBI), consider the following statements:
1.​ The act established an open competition 1.​ The Director of the Central Bureau of
system for selection and recruitment of civil Investigation (CBI) is recommended by a
committee composed of the Prime Minister,
servants and was made available to Indians
Leader of Opposition and a Union Cabinet
also. Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
2.​ It separated the legislative and executive 2.​ The Central Bureau of Investigation is
functions of the Governor-General’s council. supervised by the Department of Personnel &

C
3.​ This act marked the first introduction of local Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel,
representation to the Central Legislative Pension & Grievances in all the matters.
Council. 3.​ The High Court can order the CBI to investigate

PS
How many of the statements given above are not any crime in the country without the consent of
correct? the State.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ Only one
(a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two (b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three (c)​ All three

U
(d)​ None (d)​ None

Q13. Consider the following statements: Q16. Which of the following features of the
1.​ The proceeds from fees are always merged into Constitution are unitary in nature?
d the Consolidated Fund of India. 1.​ Single Constitution.
2.​ Cess can be levied by an executive order. 2.​ Division of powers between centre and state.
an
3.​ Independent judicial system.
3.​ It is the discretion of the Union to utilise the
4.​ Indestructible States.
proceeds of the surcharges for whichever Select the correct answer using the code given below:
purpose it deems fit. (a)​ 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are not correct? (b)​ 3 and 4 only
St

(a)​ 1 and 2 only (c)​ 2 and 3 only

(b)​ 1 and 3 only (d)​ 1 and 4 only
(c)​ 1 only
(d)​ All of the above Q17. Consider the following statements with reference
er

to Writs in India:
1.​ Application under the habeas Corpus can only
Q14. With reference to the Article 20 of the Indian
be filed by the family member but not by
Constitution, consider the following statements: stranger.
nd

1.​ The provisions against ex-post facto law do 2.​ Quo Warranto can be issued when the public
not apply to civil liabilities. office is wrongfully assumed by a private
2.​ The protection against double jeopardy does person.
not apply for trial after being acquitted. 3.​ Mandamus can be issued when a corporation
U

3.​ Prohibition against self-incrimination can be has failed to perform its duty.
invoked only in criminal cases. How many of the statements given above are correct?
How many of the statements given above are correct? (a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two
(a)​ Only one
(c)​ All three
(b)​ Only two (d)​ None
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 7
 Q18. Which of the following statements are correct Q21. Which of the following statements correctly
with reference to the temple regulation in India? differentiates between Review Petition and Curative
1.​ Religious endowments and institutions come Petition?
under state list. 1.​ Review petition is filed after the curative
2.​ Christians manage their places of worship and
petition.
religious institutions through boards or trusts
run by the community. 2.​ Review petition is inherently provided in the
3.​ The government exercises considerable Constitution of India but Curative Petition is

C
control in the case of many Hindu and based on the interpretation of the Judiciary.
Buddhist places of worship. 3.​ Ideally, a review petition must be filed within
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
30 days from the dismissal of the Curative

PS
(a)​ 1 and 2 only
(b)​ 2 and 3 only Petition.
(c)​ 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d)​ All of the above (a)​ 1 only
(b)​ 2 only
Q19. Which of the following statements are correct

U
(c)​ 3 only
with reference to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam,
2023? (d)​ None
1.​ It seeks to expand the scope of secondary
evidence.
d
2.​ It bars Courts from inquiring into any
privileged communication between Ministers Q22. With reference to the Committees of the
an
and the President of India. Constituent Assembly, consider the following pairs:
3.​ It provides for admissibility of digital record.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)​ 1 and 2 only Committee: Chairman
St

(b)​ 2 and 3 only

1. Committee on the Rules of Jawaharlal
(c)​ 1 and 3 only
(d)​ All of the above Procedure Nehru

2. Minorities Sub-committee J.B. Kripalani

er

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference

to the Lokpal in India: 3. Order of Business K.M. Munshi
1.​ The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the
Committee
President, Prime Minister and Members of
nd

Parliament. 4. Steering Committee Rajendra Prasad

2.​ The person who is not a resident of India
cannot file a complaint in the office of Lokpal.
3.​ One-third of the members of Lokpal should How many of the pairs given above are correctly
U

come from SCs, STs,OBCs, minorities and matched?

women. (a)​ Only one
How many of the statements given above are not
(b)​ Only two
correct?
(a)​ Only one (c)​ Only three
(b)​ Only two (d)​ All four
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 9
 Q23. Which of the following statements are correct Q26. With reference to the Uniform Civil Code,
with reference to the Family Courts in India? consider the following statements:
1.​ They are set up by the District Courts. 1.​ It has provisions detailed in article 46 of the
2.​ It is mandatory to set up a Family Court for Constitution.
every city exceeding ten million population. 2.​ It comes under Part IV of the Constitution.
3.​ The parties have a right to be represented by a 3.​ Currently, there is no uniform code in any of
legal practitioner. the civil matters.
How many of the statements given above are not
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

C
correct?
(a)​ 1 only
(a)​ Only one
(b)​ 2 only
(b)​ Only two
(c)​ 3 only

PS
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None (d)​ None

Q27. Consider the following statements with reference

Q24. With reference to the Amendment of the to the administration of Scheduled areas and Tribal
Constitution, consider the following statements: areas:

U
1.​ The Private members are not allowed to 1.​ The Provisions related to it are mentioned in
introduce the constitution amendment bill in Part X of the Constitution.
the parliament. 2.​ The Governor can make a law regulating the
2.​ The provisions related to creation of allotment of land to Scheduled Tribe members
d legislative councils in the state can be amended in the Scheduled Area.
by a simple majority. 3.​ The power to amend the fifth schedule rests
an
Which of the following statements given above are not with the State Legislature.
correct? How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ 1 only (a)​ Only one
(b)​ 2 only (b)​ Only two
St

(c)​ All three

(c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ None
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
Q28. Consider the following statements with reference
er

to the Schedules of the Constitution:

Q25. How many of the following matters come under 1.​ The Ninth schedule of the constitution was
the adjudication of tribunals created under article 323B added by the First Amendment Act of 1951.
of the Indian Constitution? 2.​ The distribution of Rajya Sabha seats among
nd

1.​ Labour disputes the states and union territories is covered in

the first schedule.
2.​ Rental disputes
3.​ Fourth schedule provides for the division of
3.​ Taxation disputes powers to make laws between the Center and
U

Select the correct answer using the code given below: State.
(a)​ Only one How many of the statements given above are not
(b)​ Only two correct?
(a)​ Only one
(c)​ All three
(b)​ Only two
(d)​ None (c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 11
 Q29. Consider the following statements with reference Q32. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Attorney General of India: to Parole and Furlough:
1.​ The term of office and remuneration of the 1.​ Parole is granted after serving a stipulated
Attorney General of India is mentioned in the number of years whereas furlough is granted
Constitution. to meet a specific exigency.
2.​ The Attorney General of India has the right to 2.​ Period Spent on parole is counted as remission
take part as well as vote in the proceedings of of sentence but the period of furlough is not.
Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

C
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)​ 1 only
(a)​ 1 only (b)​ 2 only
(b)​ 2 only (c)​ Both 1 and 2

PS
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

Q30. Which of the following statements are correct Q33. Consider the following statements with reference
with reference to the Post Office Act, 2023? to the Sessions of Parliament:

U
1.​ According to the act the Post Office shall 1.​ The President must summon Parliament at
provide such services as the State Government least twice every six months.
may prescribe. 2.​ The power of prorogation rests with the
2.​ The Post Office shall have the exclusive President whereas the power to adjourn rests
d privilege of issuing postage stamps. with the presiding officer of the house.
3.​ The Central Government may prescribe Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
an
standards for addressing on the items, address (a)​ 1 only
identifiers and usage of postcodes. (b)​ 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c)​ Both 1 and 2
(a)​ 1 and 2 only (d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
St

(b)​ 2 and 3 only

(c)​ 1 and 3 only
(d)​ All of the above Q.34 Which of the following statements are added by
an additional amendment to the original anti-defection
er

Q31. Consider the following statements with reference law?

to National Emergency under Article 352: 1.​ A member of theParliament who is disqualified
1.​ It can be declared on the grounds of internal under this law shall also be disqualified to be
nd

disturbance. appointed as a Minister.

2.​ Freedom guaranteed by Article 19 cannot be 2.​ A member of a House who is disqualified
suspended by the President without the under this law shall also be disqualified to hold
approval of the Parliament. any remunerative political post.
U

3.​ The proclamation of emergency requires a 3.​ Exemption from disqualification incase of
special majority whereas the renewal requires merger with another party.
a simple majority. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
How many of the statements given above are correct? (a)​ 1 and 2 only
(a)​ Only one (b)​ 2 and 3 only
(b)​ Only two (c)​ 1 and 3 only
(c)​ All three (d)​ All of the above
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 13
 Q35. Consider the following statements with respect to Q37. How many of the following pairs are correctly
the Ordinance making power of Governor: matched?
1.​ It comes under constitutional discretion of the
Governor.
SOURCE FEATURES ADOPTED
2.​ The Governor cannot make an ordinance
without instruction from the President if the 1. Japan Joint sitting of the two
bill containing the same provisions would have Houses of Parliament
required the previous sanction of the

C
President. 2. South Africa Election of members of Rajya
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Sabha
(a)​ 1 only

PS
(b)​ 2 only 3. Australia Nomination of members to
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 Rajya Sabha
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)​ Only one

U
(b)​ Only two
Q36 Consider the following statements with reference (c)​ All three
to Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution: (d)​ None
d
1.​ They are contained in part IV of the Indian
Constitution.
Q38. Consider the following statements with reference
an
2.​ They were not part of the original constitution
to the National Human Rights Commission in India:
but added by the 24th Constitutional 1.​ It is a constitutional body.
Amendment Act. 2.​ The salaries and service conditions of the
3.​ All of the Fundamental duties were introduced chairperson and other members are
St

by a single Constitutional Amendment. determined by the Central government.

How many of the statements given above are not 3.​ The commission cannot enquire into the
human rights violations one year after the
correct?
er

occurrence of the incident.

(a)​ Only one
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(b)​ Only two (a)​ Only one
(c)​ All three (b)​ Only two
nd

(d)​ None (c)​ All three

(d)​ None
U

UPSURGE-A001 15
 Q39. Which of the following statements come under Q42. Consider the following statements:
the Representation of the People Act, 1951? Statement-I:
1.​ No person shall be entitled to be registered in Republic day is celebrated on the date of
the electoral roll for any constituency more commencement of the Constitution.
than once. Statement-II:
2.​ Disqualification of a person convicted of an The objective Resolution was introduced by Nehru on
offence punishable under the Protection of December 13.
Civil Rights Act, 1955. Statement-III:

C
3.​ No person can publish the result of any exit The Purna Swaraj resolution was passed by the Indian
poll during such a period as notified by the National Congress on January 26 at the Lahore session.
Election Commission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the

PS
Select the correct answer using the code given below: above statements?
(a)​ 1 and 2 only (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and
(b)​ 2 only both of them explain Statement-I
(c)​ 3 only (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct,
(d)​ 2 and 3 only but only one of them explains Statement-I
(c) Both Statements II and III are correct and none of

U
Q40. Consider the following statements with reference them explains Statement-I
to Finance Commission: (d) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct but
1.​ It is a constitutional body. that does not explain Statement-I
2.​ The recommendations of the Commission are
d legally binding on the Center. Q43. Arrange the following states in the ascending
3.​ It is constituted annually by the Centre to order of their date of getting statehood:
an
decide distribution of funds between Center 1.​ Nagaland
and States. 2.​ Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the statements given above are not 3.​ Jharkhand
correct? 4.​ Himachal Pradesh
St

(a)​ Only one Select the correct answer using the code below:
(b)​ Only two (a)​ 1,4,2 and 3
(c)​ All three (b)​ 2,4,1 and 3
(d)​ None (c)​ 1,2,4 and 3
er

(d)​ 4,2,1 and 3

Q41. Consider the following statements:
1.​ The National Legal Services Authority has Q44. Which of the following bills shall not lapse on the
been constituted under the Legal Services dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
nd

Authorities Act, 1987. 1.​ Bill originated in the Rajya Sabha but pending
2.​ The State Legal Services Authority is headed in the Lok Sabha
by the senior most judge of the respective High 2.​ Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not
Court. yet been passed by the Lok Sabha
U

3.​ A Civil Judge Cadre Judicial Officer is 3.​ A bill for which joint sitting has been
appointed as Secretary for the District Legal summoned by the President
Services Authority. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the statements given above are not correct? (a)​ 1 and 2 only
(a)​ 1 only (b)​ 2 and 3 only
(b)​ 2 only (c)​ 3 only
(c)​ 3 only (d)​ 1 and 3 only
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 17
 Q45. With reference to the 74th Constitutional Q48. Which of the following statements are true with
Amendment Act 1992, consider the following reference to the Co-operative Societies?
statements: 1.​ Part IXB of the Constitution contains
1.​ The Parliament can make provisions regarding provisions related to Co-operative Societies.
matters dealing with the elections to the 2.​ The Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act,
municipalities. 2002 is administered by the Central Registrar
2.​ The President can extend the provisions of this of Cooperative Societies (CRCS).
3.​ The Cooperative Societies with objects not
act to the scheduled areas and tribal areas.

C
confined to one State come under concurrent
3.​ All the seats of the municipalities are filled by
list.
direct elections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
How many of the statements given above are correct?

PS
(a)​ 1 and 2 only
(a)​ Only one (b)​ 2 and 3 only
(b)​ Only two (c)​ 1 and 3 only
(c)​ All three (d)​ All of the above
(d)​ None
Q49. Which of the following statements are not correct

U
with reference to the National Commission for
Q46. Consider the following languages: Backward Classes (NCBC)?
1.​ Odia 1.​ It is elevated to a status of statutory body in
2.​ Marathi 2018.
d
3.​ Pali 2.​ The conditions of service and tenure of office
4.​ Hindi of the members of the Commission is
an
5.​ Sindhi determined by the Parliament.
How many of the above languages got the title of 3.​ The Procedure of the Commission is regulated
classical language in the year 2024? by the Parliament and the Commission has no
(a)​ Only one power to regulate the same.
St

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(b)​ Only two
(a)​ 1 and 2 only
(c)​ Only three
(b)​ 2 and 3 only
(d)​ Only four
(c)​ 1 and 3 only
er

(d)​ All of the above

Q47. Which of the following items come under state
list in the Indian Constitution? Q50. Which of the following statements are included
1.​ Pilgrimages in the Representation of the People Act, 1950?
nd

2.​ Fisheries 1.​ There shall be an electoral roll for every

3.​ Capitation taxes constituency which shall be prepared under
4.​ Electricity the superintendence of the Election
5.​ Criminal law Commission.
U

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2.​ A person shall be disqualified for registration
(a)​ 1,2 and 4 only in an electoral roll if he is of unsound mind.
(b)​ 1,2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c)​ 2,3 and 5 only (a)​ 1 only
(d)​ 3,4 and 5 only (b)​ 2 only
(c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

UPSURGE-A001 19
 Q51. Which of the following statements can be held Q54. Which of the following statements are true in
true in case of President’s rule? case of advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1.​ The maximum limit of the President’s rule is 1.​ The court can refuse to advise the President in
five years. case of question of law but it cannot refuse
2.​ It has no effect on part III of the Constitution. incase of disputes arising out of pre
3.​ During the President’s rule, the President is constitution treaties.
allowed to terminate any statutory obligation 2.​ The decision of the Supreme Court is not
binding in the case of question of law but is
relating to the High Court.

C
binding in the case of pre constitution treaty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
disputes.
(a)​ 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b)​ 2 only

PS
(a)​ 1 only
(c)​ 3 only (b)​ 2 only
(d)​ None (c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
Q52. With reference to the Government of India act of
1935, consider the following statements: Q55. With reference to the Prime Minister, consider

U
1.​ Apart from the establishment of the Federal the following statements:
Public Service Commission, the act also laid 1.​ Any individual who does not hold a seat in
provisions for the establishment of Provincial either House of Parliament can be made prime
Public Service Commission. minister for a maximum term of six-month.
d
2.​ The act introduced dyarchy in the provinces 2.​ The term of the Prime Minister is of five years
and abolished the same at the Centre. from the date of oath.
an
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the following statements given above are not
(a)​ 1 only correct?
(b)​ 2 only (a)​ 1 only
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (b)​ 2 only
St

(c)​ Both 1 and 2

(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2
Q53. Consider the following statements with respect to
Q56. With reference to the Vice President, consider the
er

the disqualification of members of Parliament: following statements:

1.​ The disqualification dispute with reference to 1.​ The Vice-President is elected by the electoral
the office of profit will be decided by the college of the members of the two Houses of
Parliament and the elected members of the
nd

Election Commission of India.

legislative assemblies of the states.
2.​ The disqualification in the cases of tenth
2.​ Whenever the president dies in the office, the
schedule is decided by the Presiding officer of vice president acts as president for the
the house. remainder of the term.
U

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3.​ The Vice-President can be removed through
the process of impeachment.
(a)​ 1 only
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(b)​ 2 only (a)​ Only one
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (b)​ Only two
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2 (c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 21
 Q57. Which of the following items come under Q60. Consider the following statements with reference
expenditure charges on the Consolidated Fund of to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
India? 1.​ He is appointed by the President.
1.​ debt charges for which the Government of 2.​ The Constitution prescribes the removal
India is liable procedure of the Officer.
2.​ salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or 3.​ He submits his reports relating to the
in respect of judges of the High Court safeguards for linguistic minorities to the
Parliament.
3.​ emoluments and allowances of the President

C
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)​ Only one
(a)​ 1 and 3 only
(b)​ Only two
(b)​ 3 only

PS
(c)​ All three
(c)​ 2 and 3 only (d)​ None
(d)​ None of the above
Q61. Consider the following statements regarding the
Supreme Court Judges in India:
Q58. Consider the following statements with respect to 1.​ The strength of the Supreme Court is

U
the administrative tribunals under article 323A of the determined by the President.
Constitution: 2.​ The minimum age prescribed for appointment
1.​ It was enforced along with the other articles in as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 50 years.
1949. 3.​ The Constitution of India provides the
d
2.​ Only Parliament can establish administrative grounds for the removal of the Supreme Court
tribunals. Judges.
an
3.​ It is possible to have a common administrative How many of the statements given above are correct?
tribunal for more than one state. (a)​ Only one
How many of the statements given above are not (b)​ Only two
correct? (c)​ All three
St

(d)​ None
(a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two
Q62. Consider the following pairs with reference to the
(c)​ Only three
Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
(d)​ None
er

Q59. Consider the following statements with respect to Words Meaning

the Custodian of Enemy Property for India: 1. Sovereign The head of state is elected and not a
nd

1.​ It is an executive body. hereditary monarch

2.​ It comes under the Ministry of Minority
Affairs. 2. Liberty Absence of special privileges to any
3.​ The Custodian may dispose of enemy section of the society
U

properties without prior approval of the

3. Fraternity Sense of brotherhood
central government.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a)​ 1 and 2 only How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(b)​ 2 and 3 only matched?
(a)​ Only one
(c)​ 1 and 3 only
(b)​ Only two
(d)​ All of the above
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 23
 Q63. Which of the following best describes the term Q66. With reference to Central Vigilance Commission
Nazool land? (CVC), consider the following statements:
(a)​ Land owned by religious organizations and 1.​ The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was
used to promote their religion established as a statutory body in 1964 on the
(b)​ Land given to refugees in India who came recommendations of the Santhanam
from neighbouring countries Committee.
(c)​ Land owned by the government but not 2.​ All the officers of Grade 'D' and above in
Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI
directly administered as state property

C
are under the jurisdiction of the Commission.
(d)​ Land vacated by people who left for pakistan
3.​ The CVC report of 2023 finds the highest
during the Partition
corruption complaints were against the public

PS
sector banks.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Q64. With reference to the 73rd Constitutional (a)​ Only one
Amendment Act 1992, consider the following (b)​ Only two
statements: (c)​ All three
1.​ The act added Part IX-A to the Constitution of (d)​ None

U
India which gives constitutional status to the
Panchayati Raj institutions.
2.​ The act mandatorily provides for a three-tier Q67. Consider the following statements with reference
system of Panchayati Raj in every state. to the veto power of the President:
d
3.​ The chairperson and members of panchayats at 1.​ The state legislature can override the
the intermediate level are directly elected by suspensive veto of the President.
an
the people. 2.​ The President can exercise his suspensive veto
How many of the statements given above are not in the case of the Money Bill.
correct? 3.​ The President has only pocket veto in the case
(a)​ Only one of Constitutional amendment bills.
St

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(b)​ Only two
(a)​ Only one
(c)​ All three
(b)​ Only two
(d)​ None
(c)​ All three
er

(d)​ None
Q65. This Parliamentary committee was constituted for
the first time in 1950. It consists of 30 members in the Q68. Consider the following statements with reference
Lok Sabha. The Chairperson of the Committee is to the Governor of a State:
nd

appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. A 1.​ Governors can be removed based on the
Minister cannot be elected as a member of the grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
Committee. Which of the following Parliamentary 2.​ He appoints the judges of the High Court.
Committee is described in the Passage? 3.​ According to the Constitution, the same
U

(a)​ Public accounts Committee person can be the Governor for a maximum of
two states.
(b)​ Estimates Committee
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(c)​ Business advisory Committee
(a)​ Only one
(d)​ Committee on empowerment of Women (b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 25
 Q69. Consider the following statements with reference Q71. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: to the Presidential election:
1.​ He is appointed by the President by warrant 1.​ It is held in accordance with the system of
under his hand and seal. proportional representation by means of single
2.​ He is not eligible for further office either under transferable vote.
the Government of India or under the 2.​ The voting in the Presidential election shall be
Government of any State after he has ceased to by open ballot.
hold his office. 3.​ According to the Constitution of India, the

C
3.​ He submits the reports relating to the accounts Secretary General of Lok Sabha is appointed as
of a State to the State Legislature. Returning Officer for Presidential election.
How many of the statements given above are correct? 4.​ It is compulsory for an elector to mark his

PS
(a)​ Only one preference for all candidates in a ballot paper
(b)​ Only two to make it valid.
(c)​ All three How many of the statements given above are correct?
(d)​ None (a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two

U
(c)​ Only three
(d)​ All four
Q70. Consider the following statements with reference
d
to the new Criminal laws in India:
1.​ Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita bans Q72. Consider the following statements with respect to
additional and acting Judges of the High Court:
an
handcuffing.
1.​ Both of them are appointed by the Chief
2.​ Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) has introduced
Justice of the High Court.
community service as a punitive measure for 2.​ They can not be appointed as additional or
minor offences. acting Judge after attaining 65 years.
St

3.​ Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita 2023 law 3.​ Acting Judges are appointed due to the
allows trial in absentia. increase in the workload whereas additional
How many of the statements given above are correct? Judges are appointed due to absence of
Permanent Judges.
er

(a)​ Only one

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(b)​ Only two (a)​ Only one
(c)​ All three (b)​ Only two
nd

(d)​ None (c)​ All three

(d)​ None
U

UPSURGE-A001 27
 Q73. Consider the following statements with reference Q75. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Parliamentary system: to the Central Council of Ministers:
1.​ The parliamentary system provides for 1.​ According to the Constitution, there is a limit
responsible government but unstable on the total strength of the Council of
government. Ministers.
2.​ In the parliamentary system, there is a 2.​ According to the Constitution, the advice
separation of powers between the executive tendered by the ministers to the President shall
not be inquired into in any court.
and the legislature.

C
3.​ According to the Constitution, the salaries and
Which of the statements given above are correct?
allowances of Ministers shall be determined by
(a)​ 1 only
the President.
(b)​ 2 only

PS
Which of the statements given above is/are not
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2 (a)​ 1 only
(b)​ 2 only
(c)​ 3 only
(d)​ None

U
Q74. With reference to Central Information Q76. How many of the following fundamental rights
Commission (CIC), consider the following statements: come under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1.​ Right to shelter
d
1.​ A committee composed of the Prime Minister,
2.​ Right to travel abroad
the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
3.​ Right to privacy
an
and the Chief Justice of India recommends the 4.​ Right to fly the national flag
appointment of the Chief Information Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Commissioner and Information (a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two
Commissioners.
St

(c)​ Only three

2.​ The salaries and allowances of the State Chief (d)​ All four
Information Commissioner is decided by the
state government. Q77. Consider the following statements with reference
er

3.​ Both the Chief Information Commissioner and to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1.​ The resolution for removal of the speaker shall
Information Commissioners shall be
be passed by a majority of all the then
appointed for a term of five years from the members of the house.
nd

date on which he enters upon his office. 2.​ He cannot preside over the house during the
How many of the statements given above are correct? resolution for his removal but he can vote in
(a)​ Only one the first instance.
3.​ His conduct in regulating the procedure in the
(b)​ Only two
U

House is subject to the jurisdiction of the

(c)​ All three Supreme Court.
(d)​ None How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ Only one
(b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three
(d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 29
 Q78. Which of the following are the compulsory Q81. With reference to the High Courts in India,
provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment consider the following statements:
Act,1992? 1.​ The President has the power to establish a
1.​ Reservation of seats for backward classes. common High Court for two or more states.
2.​ Reservation of seats for women. 2.​ The strength of the High Court is decided by
3.​ Constitution of municipal corporations in very the Parliament after consulting the Governor
big urban areas. of the concerned state.
4.​ Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes/ 3.​ The Judge of a High Court is appointed by the

C
Scheduled Tribes. President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ 1, 2 and 4 only (a)​ Only one

PS
(b)​ 2, 3 and 4 only (b)​ Only two
(c)​ 3 and 4 only (c)​ All three
(d)​ None (d)​ None

Q82. Consider the following statements, with reference

U
Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019:
to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair 1.​ The Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019
Means) Act, 2024: provides citizenship to undocumented people
1.​ All offences under this act shall be cognizable belonging to the hindu community from
d and non-bailable. Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.
2.​ According to the act, an officer not below the 2.​ The district-level committee to scrutinise all
an
rank of Sub-Inspector shall investigate the applications will be headed by the Senior
offence under this act. Superintendent or Superintendent of Posts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3.​ The Citizenship (Amendment) Act of 2019 will
(a)​ 1 only be applicable across the country.
St

(b)​ 2 only How many of the statements given above are correct?
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (a)​ Only one
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2 (b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three
er

Q80. Which of the following statements are correct (d)​ None

with reference to the GST Council in India?
1.​ It is a Constitutional body. Q83. Which of the following do not come under the
nd

2.​ It is chaired by the Finance Secretary. definition of law for the purposes of Article 13?
3.​ In general, the GST Council takes decisions 1.​ Ordinance
through a consensus-based approach during its 2.​ Bye-law
meetings. 3.​ Constitutional Amendment
U

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 4.​ Custom having the force of law
(a)​ 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b)​ 1 and 3 only (a)​ 1,2 and 3 only
(c)​ 3 only (b)​ 1,2 and 4 only
(d)​ 2 and 3 only (c)​ 3 and 4 only
(d)​ 3 only

UPSURGE-A001 31
 Q84. Which of the following matters come under the Q87. Which of the following Cabinet Committees are
Money Bill? not headed by the Prime Minister?
1.​ Imposition and abolition of tax 1.​ Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
2.​ Payment of money into the Consolidated Fund 2.​ Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
of India 3.​ Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
3.​ Imposition of fines Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a)​ 1 only
(a)​ 1 and 2 only (b)​ 2 only

C
(b)​ 2 and 3 only (c)​ 3 only
(c)​ 1 and 3 only (d)​ None
(d)​ All of the above

PS
Q88. Consider the following statements:
Q85. Consider the following statements with reference Statement-I:
to the Gram Nyayalayas in India: The Council of States is a Permanent body.
1.​ They are established at intermediate panchayat Statement-II:
level. Nearly half of the members of the Council of States

U
2.​ They can try civil cases but not criminal cases. retire on the expiration of every second year.
3.​ They are guided by the principles of natural Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
justice rather than Indian Evidence Act, 1872. above statements?
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
d
(a)​ 1 and 3 only Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b)​ 2 and 3 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
an
(c)​ 1 only Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
(d)​ None Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is Correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Q86. Consider the following statements: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
St

Statement-I:
The strength of the Legislative Council is almost the Q89. Which of the following statements are considered
true with respect to the Election Commission of India?
same for every state.
1.​ It is a permanent constitutional body
er

Statement-II:
responsible for conduction of elections to the
According to the Constitution, the total number of Union, states and Municipalities.
members in the Legislative Council shall not be less 2.​ The members of the Election Commission can
nd

than forty. be removed through the same process which

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the removes a judge of the Supreme Court.
above statements? 3.​ The Commission has the power to disqualify a
candidate, failing to lodge an account of his
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
U

election expenses within the prescribed time

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I period.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for (a)​ 1 only
Statement-I (b)​ 2 only
(c) Statement-I is Correct but Statement-II is incorrect (c)​ 3 only
(d)​ None
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

UPSURGE-A001 33
 Q90. With reference to the Digital Personal Data Q93. Consider the following statements with reference
Protection Act, 2023, consider the following to the Financial Bills:
statements: 1.​ They are mentioned in article 117 of the
1.​ The provisions of the act apply to personal Constitution.
data that is made publicly available by the Data 2.​ Rajya Sabha can amend the financial bill which
Principal. involves only expenditure and does not include
2.​ The Data Fiduciary shall take consent of the any of the matters included in Money Bill.
guardian before processing any personal data 3.​ In case of disagreement, the constitution

C
of a person with disability. provides for joint sitting to resolve the dispute.
3.​ The act does not recognize the right of the How many of the statements given above are correct?
Data Principal to nominate other individuals (a)​ Only one

PS
in the event of incapacity. (b)​ Only two
How many of the statements given above are correct? (c)​ All three
(a)​ Only one (d)​ None
(b)​ Only two
(c)​ All three Q94. Consider the following statements with reference

U
(d)​ None to the Lok Adalats in India:
1.​ The award given by Lok Adalats is binding on
Q91. Consider the following statements: all parties.
1.​ The Prime Minister is the supreme 2.​ The appeal to the order given by Lok Adalat
d Commander of the Armed Forces of India. lies in the High Court of the respective State.
2.​ The President can not pardon the punishment 3.​ They have jurisdiction in respect of family
an
given by a Military Court. matters including divorce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a)​ 1 only (a)​ Only one
(b)​ 2 only (b)​ Only two
St

(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (c)​ All three

(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2 (d)​ None

Q92. Consider the following statements with reference Q95. Which of the following statements are correct
er

to the Regulating Act of 1773: with reference to the Basic Structure of the
1.​ The act created an executive council to assist Constitution?
the Governor-General of Bengal. 1.​ It was defined in the Constitution only after
nd

2.​ It made it legal for the Company’s servants to the Kesavananda Bharati case.
engage in private trade. 2.​ Currently it is placed in Part III of the
3.​ The act made governors of the Bomaby and Constitution.
Madras presidencies independent to the 3.​ No more new elements can be added to the
U

Governor-General of Bengal. doctrine as it contains an exhaustive list.

How many statements given above are not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)​ Only one (a)​ 1 only
(b)​ Only two (b)​ 2 only
(c)​ All three (c)​ 3 only
(d)​ None (d)​ None

UPSURGE-A001 35
 Q96. With reference to the Citizenship Act 1955, Q98. Consider the following statements, with reference
consider the following statements: to the Fundamental rights and Directive Principles of
1.​ The Citizenship Act (1955) originally provided State Policy (DPSP):
for Commonwealth Citizenship. 1.​ In general, fundamental rights are negative
2.​ The children of foreign diplomats posted in since they forbid the State from taking certain
India are eligible for Indian citizenship by actions, whereas the Directive Principles of
birth. State Policy are positive.
2.​ Directive Principles of State Policy aims to
3.​ The persons granted citizenship through the

C
establish political democracy while
incorporation of territory are required to take
Fundamental rights aims to establish
an oath of allegiance.
socio-economic democracy.
How many of the statements given above are not

PS
3.​ Both the fundamental rights and directive
correct? Principles of State Policy are enforceable in the
(a)​ Only one courts.
(b)​ Only two Which of the following statements given above are not
(c)​ All three correct?
(d)​ None (a)​ 1 and 2 only

U
(b)​ 2 and 3 only
(c)​ 3 only
(d)​ None
Q97. Consider the following statements with reference
d
to the Legislative Council: Q99. Which of the following statements are not correct
with respect to the Delimitation Commission in India?
an
1.​ The removal of the Legislative Council
1.​ It is an executive body.
requires a constitutional amendment under 2.​ The orders of the Commission can be modified
article 368. only by Lok Sabha but not by Legislative
2.​ The resolution for the creation of the Assembly of any state.
St

Legislative Council requires a Special majority 3.​ Till now, five such Commissions have been
constituted.
in the respective Legislative Assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)​ 1 and 2 only
er

(a)​ 1 only (b)​ 2 and 3 only

(b)​ 2 only (c)​ 1 and 3 only
(c)​ Both 1 and 2 (d)​ All of the above
nd

(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

Q100. Consider the following statements:
1.​ No court in India has the authority to ascertain
parliamentary contempt.
2.​ The Chairman can himself inquire into a
U

breach of privilege matter instead of referring

it to the Committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct?
(a)​ 1 only
(b)​ 2 only
(c)​ Both 1 and 2
(d)​ Neither 1 nor 2

UPSURGE-A001 37