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Bundle PDF Sample Exam Reviewers

Nelca Forneste, UAP, LEED AP Homes

This book REVIEWER was made by Nelca Forneste of PALEOR. It is one part of the reviewer collections which will be published
soon. Other reviewers are audio, video, flashcards, and Powerpoint. You may check these other reviewers at www.paleor.net.

PALEOR : Bundle PDF Sample Exam Reviewers

Copyright © 2019 by Nelca Forneste

All rights reserved. Printed in the Philippines. No part of this book may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without
written permission except in the case of brief quotations embodied in critical articles or reviews.
This book is a collection of sample questions from the previous Architecture Board Examination given by the examinees based on what
they remembered during their exam. We do not guarrantee that you will pass the examination by just relying on this reviewer. This
book is just a guideline and cannot be used as a reference material.

For information contact :

Nelca Forneste
+63 949 8225000 (Smart)
+63 927 7005727 (Globe)
[email protected]
[email protected]
http://www.paleor.net

Book and Cover design by Nelca Forneste

ISBN: 123456789

First Edition: 08 August, 2019

10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
 PREFACE

This book will guide you to focus on your goal and will tell you the necessary sacrifices to
achieve it. Passing the board exam is your goal. No matter what happened, that is your main goal
right now.
You might need some push and you may be wondering if you can really do it, and what
happened if you fail? What should you do?
Yes, what should you do next whether you pass the exam or not is the most important question
here. This book will help you. But of course, let us focus on what you should do to pass the exam
first.
Alright, let’s go and let’s do it!

The first part of this book will inspire you to focus. I outlined some topnotchers to give you
some tips and tricks on how to do it.
The next part is about the basic information before you take the board exam. This information
is from Professional Regulation Commission or PRC. You must read it.
The main part is the review materials which are the sample questions from the previous board
exam. If you find some wrong information, please feel free to let us know by sending email to
[email protected] or text to +63 949 8225000 or +63 927 7005727.
The last part is the reference materials where I double check the answers.

To effectively use this reviewer, use tablet not mobile phone so it will not strain your eyes due
to small image and text. Click hyperlinks on the table of contents to go directly to subject and other
hyperlinks inside the reviewer to go directly to the reference material. Better yet, print it so you can
smell the paper and doddle on it. That’s what I did when I review.
Now, move your ass and start reading!

This is for all for you, future Architects!

Have fun and enjoy reviewing!

Nelca Forneste
Antipolo City

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
.
Preface …………………………………………………………………...… i
Message from Board Exam Topnotchers……………………………………ii
Basic information from the PRC ……………………………………………iii

Architectural Design and Communication 1 …………………………….. 16

Architectural Design and Communication 1 …………………………….. 48
Architectural Design and Communication 1 …………………………….. 77
Building Technology and Construction 1…………………………………. 114
Building Technology and Construction 2…………………………………. 146
Building Technology and Construction 3…………………………………. 177
Building Technology and Construction 4…………………………………. 208
Building Technology and Construction 5…………………………………. 240
Building Technology and Construction 6…………………………………. 269
Building Utilities, MEP and Acoustics 1…………………………………. 295
Building Utilities, MEP and Acoustics 2…………………………………. 325
Building Utilities, MEP and Acoustics 3…………………………………. 352
Building Utilities, MEP and Acoustics 4…………………………………. 378
Building Utilities, MEP and Acoustics 5…………………………………. 403
History and Theory of Architecture 1 …………………………………….. 428
History and Theory of Architecture 2 …………………………………….. 478
History and Theory of Architecture 3 …………………………………….. 504
History and Theory of Architecture 4 …………………………………….. 530
History and Theory of Architecture 5 …………………………………….. 554
History and Theory of Architecture 6 …………………………………….. 585
History and Theory of Architecture 7 …………………………………….. 616
Professional Practice and Building Laws 1……………………………….. 651
Professional Practice and Building Laws 2……………………………….. 675
Professional Practice and Building Laws 3……………………………….. 698
Site Planning and Urban Design 1………………………………………… 721
Site Planning and Urban Design 2………………………………………… 749
Site Planning and Urban Design 3………………………………………… 781
Site Planning and Urban Design 4………………………………………… 811
References…………………………………………………………………. 844

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Messages from Board Exam Topnotchers

If you feel that you are feeling down and struggling so hard, read these messages from the
topnotch of architecture board exam. They will inspire you and give you some tips and tricks on
how to review properly and keep focus on the goal.
Let us start with Architect Anthony Asa from Bohol State University. He is Top 6 in the last
June 2018 Architecture Board Exam. He will tell us how he really aimed for Top 10 rank without
mentioning it to his friends and what motivates him to pass the examination in just one take.

Architect Anthony Asa from Bohol State University.

Top 6 in the last June 2018 Architecture Board Exam.

1. Did you review on your own or with review center or group review?
I did the three review styles in the span of 9 months. I reviewed on my own at the
first 3 months while working which helped me set my mood for reviewing. Then, I reviewed
on JPT and Atlas CPED for the last remaining 6 months. While on the review center, I made
new friends which became my review group for the last 1 month.

2. Do you have a study room or you just review in your bedroom?

I just reviewed in my bedroom since it has a study table.

3. Can you describe or sketch your study room/bedroom? (Please show where you read,
where you watch, where you listen, your posters on walls, etc.)
I only have a small room since I am staying with my uncle in Cavite. It is about less
than 6-sqm, but with enough windows for comfort. It only have a study table, chair and
some cabinets for storage of his daughter's toys and other things, and a sleeping mat on the
floor which I can use for sleeping.

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4. Do you play music while reviewing?
No. I don't really used to play music while reviewing because I get easily distracted to
noise and lost focus.

5. Where did you get your review materials? Did you prepare it, search on-line or bought
it?
I prepared two types of review materials. First is electronic/digital reviewers which
composed of pdfs, word documents, excels, applications which I have downloaded on every
arki review group files. Second are printed reviewers, which I have already printed before
deciding to start my review and also I bought some printed reviewers and refresher notes
from the review center.

6. Do you have a vision board? If yes, can you sketch? Or can you share some pics? Can
you tell us the contents of your vision board?
I didn't have a vision board but I always keep in mind that I should work harder so
that I can be what I want to be on the future.

7. When do you feel that you need to review? Or when do you feel that you need to
become a licensed architect? Who told you and who inspires you?
When I realized that I don't want to be an apprentice/draftsman forever. I realized that
it is hard when there are some people above you which don't have good talents and know-
how about architecture who take the credits of your work.

8. What is your target? To become top 10 or just pass the exam?

To become one of the top 10 was really my target. I had denied this goal from my
friends whenever they asked me about the chance to top the boards. I just keep it to myself
and silently worked hard for it.

9. What motivates you to really push hard in reviewing and pass the exam? Or you
already confident that you will pass the exam without reviewing?
My family, relatives, loves ones and poverty motivates me to really push hard and
step on review preparations to another level so that I can pass the exam with just a single
take.

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10. What do you eat every day? Do you exercise during the review? What is your
schedule? Tell us the story or your daily activities.
I just ate what my family brings to the table but I ensure that I ate enough
carbohydrates and also keep myself hydrated since it is important to keep my body and mind
healthy. Biking every late afternoon was my only way to exercise since it helps my mind to
be calm and it reduces stress. My schedule is to review on daytime (since the exam is day
time) which helps my body system to be working well at day. I did this every Monday to
Friday, and weekends at the review center. I made a schedule which take up all subjects in a
week or 1 subject per day for 8 to 12 hours per day plus I also made sure to study other
subject for at least 2 hours per day.

11. How long did you review?

Around 9 months.

12. When did you feel that you are "now ready" to take the exam?
That’s when I felt confident in answering questions during seat-works, pre-boards,
and everyday answering practice. I began to notice it when I always get more than 83% on
every practice exams and pre-boards I took.
My review professor said it is nice to target averages of 83% above during your quizzes, pre-
boards and practices since 83% is the common average on the ALE topnotchers.

Here is another inspiration from Ar. Marc Henrich Go from University of Santo
Tomas University. He got 85.40% last January 2018 exam and he is the Top 1!
Let’s find out how he used digital materials and cloud for his review and how he
arranged his room for effective learning space. We will also find out how he targeted to
become one of the Top 10 in the board exam.

Architect Marc Henrich Go from University of Santo

Tomas University. Top 1 in the last January 2018
Architecture Board Exam.

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1. Did you review on your own or with review center or group review?
I reviewed with two review centers so I can have two perspectives on the exam. It
gave me a broader outlook and thus allowed me to be better prepared for the exam. Of
course, this was complemented by intense solo review and occasional group study to get a
feel on how others are doing, as well as verifying items which I was unsure of.

2. Do you have a study room or you just review in your bedroom?

For review, I used different space from my typical study room. Rather than carrying
over old habits associated with familiar areas, a change of environment allowed me to start
with a clean slate. I was able to define a new pattern and behavior in that new space that
coincided with the pace I wanted for my review.

3. Can you describe or sketch your study room/bedroom? (Please show where you read,
where you watch, where you listen, your posters on walls, etc.)
My study room was very clean compared to the typical “floor to ceiling notes”
wherein all wall are already covered. I only had a main desk where I reviewed the topic on
hand, while I had another collapsible table where I piled my notes, books, and referent
materials. My review materials were arranged by subject. Seeing them piled on a table
allowed me to visualize my progress and better understand my pace. By separating them,
I’m not distracted to keeping switching between topics in the middle of a review session.
During the course of my review, I was often out of town for work. So, my notes were mostly
digital, I sketched and took notes on a tablet. Whatever digital reference I could find— e-
books, pdfs, images, offline webpages— I saved to a tablet, laptop, and uploaded them to the
cloud. This way, wherever I was— whether stuck in traffic, waiting for a meeting, or in
between classes— I could review. I felt if I was heavily reliant on physical material only, I
would be limited to review only in my dedicated study room, which isn’t always the case.
Having both digital and physical references allows flexibility.

4. Do you play music while reviewing?

With light reviewing, yes. But when I delve deeper into studying, I prefer silence.

5. Where did you get your review materials? Did you prepare it, search on-line or bought
it?
A combination of both. Majority of the materials I got from the review centers, while

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 some were from previous examinees. Other references, especially books, I bought since they
would be good references for the architecture practice, not only for review. Online is also a
good source of information, you just have to cross reference it with other materials to make
sure that they’re consistent. Doing your own condensed notes as reference is always good
but hard to begin, so I used gathered notes from others as the jump of point for my own.

6. Do you have a vision board? If yes, can you sketch? or can u share some pics? Can you
tell us the contents of your vision board?
It’s not really a vision board, more of a vision list. I keep several lists on my phone
breaking down what I still needed to study. I have a general list that was based on the scope
of the exam. Another one based on DK Ching’s A Visual Dictionary of Architecture.
Another one with any questions or topics I am unsure of, and so on. The goal was to check
off these lists as much as I can.

7. When do you feel that you need to review? Or when do you feel that you need to become
a licensed architect? Who told you and who inspires you?
I took my exam 4 years after I graduated from architecture school, while the typical
pace is after 2 years only. So seeing that majority of my batch-mates and schoolmates
already licensed architects, including many several years my junior, convinced me I needed
to catch up already.
The reason I took my exam later than usual, is because I pursued my passion of photography
as a professional photographer for 2 years. Considering my background, I specialized in
architectural photography. Being exposed to good architecture and design made me realize
that I wanted to go beyond capturing them, but also design myself. This inspired me for the
exam.

8. What is your target? To become top 10 or just pass the exam?

Everyone starts review on an ambitious note, hoping to perform very well in the exam
and place in the top 10. I was one of those. But through the course of review and facing the
reality of the enormous task of even just passing, I realized how difficult that ambition would
be. So I did my best, hoped to do good, but ultimately just expected to pass.

9. What motivates you to really push hard in reviewing and pass the exam? Or you are
already confident that you will pass the exam without reviewing?

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 Definitely, being confident of passing without reviewing is over confidence; and over
confidence is what you have to avoid. My dad, a licensed civil engineer, placed in the top 10
when he took his exam. That motivated me to do my best in the exam too.

10. What do you eat every day? Do you exercise during the review? What is your
schedule? Tell us the story or your daily activities.
I eat three meals a day, and use that time as a break from review to relax the mind and
body. I set goal on what I want to accomplish for the day, and I break down that into tasks—
before lunch, before dinner, after dinner. I refrain from eating meals till my scheduled task is
done, so it’s sort of an incentive for me to finish so that I can eat. Also, because taking a
pause in reviewing for a meal would break my train of thought on that subject. The trick is to
set achievable goals.
If I get stressed during review, I run.

11. How long did you review?

I started going to review class around 5 months before the exam. But serious review
was around for 3 months till the exam.

12. When did you feel that you are "now ready" to take the exam?
I don’t think anyone is ever ready to take the exam. There’s always something that
you haven’t covered, something you have to go back to, something else that might come out.
Just make sure you covered the basics well, and you have a good understanding of it.
Context clues can be found all over the exam.
Reviewing for the exam is like training as an athlete. If you train too little, you’re not
in top shape for the competition. If you train too much, you get over fatigue and not perform
great as well. You have to pace yourself to make sure you are in peak condition when the
date of the exam arrives.

13. And lastly, what is your next goal? (Travel the world, build your own office, etc.)
Next goal is to learn more, put my knowledge into practice, and figure out where I
want to be in 10 years, and strive each day to get there.

That is very inspiring info and message from Marc. Let’s see what other tips and tricks we
can get from Karl.

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 Karl Diocales ranked 4th last June 2018 architecture board exam. He got 82.90% overall rating
in the exam. He is from UST. He will give us the best tips on how to pass the exam and how you
prevent yourself from believing in Facebook group. Read his interesting specific tips and additional
tips below.

Architect Karl Diocales from University of Santo Tomas University.

Top 4 in the last June 2018 Architecture Board Exam.

1. Did you review on your own or with review center or group review?
I enrolled in a review center. Group studies did not work for me so I usually study on
my own during my free time.

2. Do you have a study room or you just review in your bedroom?

We have a lounge area in our condominium where I spent most of my time studying
because nobody uses it. It is really quiet and is also air conditioned. I also prefer studying at
my room if the lounge area is not available or if a lot of people are in it.

3. Can you describe or sketch your study room/bedroom? (Please show where you read,
where you watch, where you listen, your posters on walls, etc.)
It is a wide space with 2 glass meeting tables and a toilet. It also has a view of Ortigas
skyline and the amenity floor of the condo. As for my room, it is just a typical 1 bedroom
unit. I always study at the dining table. I also do not post posters or review materials on the
wall.

4. Do you play music while reviewing?

No. Not saying that it is better not to listen to music. Some people need that to focus.

5. Where did you get your review materials? Did u prepare it, search on-line or bought it?
I borrowed most of my review materials from my friends. You don't need to spend a
lot.

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6. Do you have a vision board? If yes, can you sketch? or can u share some pics? Can you
tell us the contents of your vision board?
I don't have a vision board to be honest. I guess people have their own style of doing
things. In this case I didn't make one. For me, being determined and knowing yourself
(capacity) is enough to get you through the exam.

7. When do you feel that you need to review? Or when do you feel that you need to become
a licensed architect? Who told you and who inspires you?
I took the exam after I finished my required working experience. No one told me to
take the exam. I just wanted to take that step as early as possible. For my inspiration, I'm
driven by the desire to practice architecture on my own. That's the ultimate goal. Also, my
family and better half are my inspirations.

8. What is your target? To become top 10 or just pass the exam?

Just to pass the exam. Rankings do not matter to me. It doesn't define how good you
are as an architect. If you pass, you pass. Nothing more nothing less. I'm really fortunate to
be one of the top ten and to me it is just a bonus.

9. What motivates you to really push hard in reviewing and pass the exam? Or you are
already confident that you will pass the exam without reviewing?
No one is confident enough (I think). What drives me is the eagerness to become and
architect and the fear of not getting through. I don't want to spend longer time to become an
architect. So I made sure that I’m doing my best at all times so as not to regret anything.

10. What do you eat every day? Do you exercise during the review? What is your
schedule? Tell us the story or your daily activities.
My diet is a bit embarrassing. I didn't come from a rich family and I'm the one who
shouldered all of the expenses during that time. So I always buy cheap food at the
convenience store or karinderya. I probably ate almost all of the food served by Ministop and
7-eleven. And sometimes I treat myself with good food usually if we go out on a date. Yes I
did exercise during my review. I have no schedule for that. I usually exercise when I get
really nervous and stressed.

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 11. How long did you review?
I reviewed for 5 months (in accordance with the review center schedule). The first
few months of studying are just like the "mind setting" phase wherein I'm still not in the zone
to study. I just attend classes for the sake of just being there and getting attendance. In depth
studying probably started 2 months before the exam. I study 5 days a week and dedicate my
weekends for family time. I also do not stay up late. My schedule for weekday self-review
starts from 9:00 am up to 10:00 pm (it could go shorter if I get tired). Staying up late to study
for me is a big no because it is not healthy for your mind and always remember that the
exams are in the morning. Sleeping late will make you dizzy and forgetful on the day of the
exam. Sleep early!

12. When did you feel that you are "now ready" to take the exam?
You will not feel ready until the exam day where you have no choice but to become
ready.

Additional tip:
We are now in the digital information age and data transfers are becoming really easy. We
always get fed with different information especially through social media. We see photos of people
posting photos of their rooms filled with posters and illustrations of the things they study and then
suddenly we conclude that those are the things you have to do to pass the exam. I'm not against that.
What I'm trying to say is that it is not always like that. Study according to your level of comfort
because we have different ways to absorb information. For some they need to listen to music to
enable them to remember things. One common strategy is to associate the topics with a song or a
taste or create abbreviations to memorize information.
Do not copy other people's way of reviewing if it doesn't work for you. All of those notes you
posted will be wasted. For me, just get all the things that are necessary. You don't need a lot of stuff
to pass. Minimizing time, effort and resources without compromising accuracy was my mantra
during my board exam journey.

Specific tips:
1. Don't use social media to acquire knowledge. Most of the times, information on Facebook are
wrong.
2. Avoid debates on Facebook groups. It creates confusion. I'm also not a member of any
reviewing group in FB.

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 3. Sleep early, wake up early.
4. Make time for family. It is just an exam. Don't forget the people you love.
5. Eat on time. Bring lunch on the exam days.
6. Use strategies such as Associative learning. Associate the things you study with other things
that help you remember.
7. If you do not know the answer, skip it because you might get the answers on the succeeding
questions or problems.
8. Learn how to give up. If you do not know the answer, just go and guess. If you have not
studied that part, accept it. You cannot memorize all of the things.
9. Go for Elimination Strategy with guessing
10. Avoid being overly focused during the exam. Breathe most of the time and relax. It helps.
Also stretch a little bit and try not to slouch extensively.

Last words:
The exam does not define you. It doesn't dictate how good you are as a designer. You just have
to pass it to be able to practice architecture. Your end goal should always be to become a good
architect/designer and not just to become topnotcher. There is a huge difference between topnotcher
and a good architect.

I hope you learn the Tips & Tricks from these 3 topnotchers on how to review efficiently,
from the way they arrange their room or space to eating the right meal and scheduling their time.
I also hope that you get inspired by their messages on what motivates them to pass the exam
and become architect.
In the next reviewers, I will add more interviews from examinees who passed the board exam
the hard way. These are architects who took the exam twice, thrice, and even more. Let us see how
they cope up with the failure and what they did to keep on going and take one more time.

Now, let’s go and start reviewing! Enjoy!

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Basic Information from the PRC

We know that you are excited to read the reviewers now, but before you do that, let us check
first what are the things you need to know before taking the board exam from the Professional
Regulation Commission or PRC. We would like to suggest that you visit their website and read the
following:
1. How you will apply for the board exam. The application is now online, so better
check it. There is procedure on how to do it and you need to register first. Click
on this link to register.
2. What are the requirements to take the board exam. See this link.
3. What are the subjects or topics included in the exam. Download this PDF. This
reviewer is guaranteed that it covers everything.
4. When are the scheduled dates for the board exam
5. Where are the exam locations

We cannot just copy and paste the information from the PRC website here because they keep
on updating the information. It is much better if you read from their website itself. Visit this link to
read everything.

Don’t skip on this one. Visit their website now!

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN AND COMMUNICATION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. At what stage should you consider Tropical Design Concepts?
a. At the very onset, during the Pre-design stage
b. Anytime, during the design development stage
c. During contract documentation
d. None of these

2. Identify the Lot 1 shown in the figure below.

a. Inside lot
b. Cornet lot
c. Corner through lot
d. Interior lot

3. What is the purpose of Bahay Kubo’s silong?

a. Ventilation and drying of clothes
b. Protection against insects
c. Protection against animals
d. All of the above
4. The best way to lessen noise created by traffic.
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 2

a. Tall trees
b. Ground grass cover
c. 3ft wall fence
d. Bushes

5. What would be the most effective design for air to enter the structure in the image
below?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

6. In planning, bedrooms are usually oriented in what direction?

a. North
b. East
c. West
d. South

7. What is the main cause of migration from rural to urban places / cities?
a. Opportunities in the city is greater
b. Presence of educational, health, recreational facilities
c. Tired of agricultural life
d. All of these

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 3

8. From the figure above, what type of lot is Lot 2?

a. Through lot
b. Corner lot
c. Inside lot
d. End lot

9. Which is a noble color for an office?

a. Dark blue
b. Black
c. Gray
d. White

10. For a lakeside development, which is least desired?

a. 1.50 canopy
b. 0.30m sun breakers
c. 3.0 eaves
d. 1.20m balcony

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 4

DESIGN PROBLEM 1

A Proposed Paradise Travelers Inn:

A. A Proposed One (1) Paradise Travelers Inn, on a Project site with 1:1 slope downhill
towards east direction.

B. STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

From one of the most well-known tourist spots in our country, a paradise that will give not
only a view and great atmosphere but as well as superb convenient and satisfaction to
pamper every beast of their desire.
The Project development shall provide all services that will pamper them from head to toe.
Consider day-in/day-out and night-in/night-out of transient. Let the transient feel the humid of
the location even within the premises. All rooms should be within the unilateral corridor to
enjoy the wonderful Taal view. Provide alternative options on room accommodations for
travelers that will suit their needs. All rentable rooms should have toilet & bath. Provide
administrative office with information counter, Restaurant with coffee shop on open deck
facing tall lake view with access in all rooms and common toilet facilities. Provide bilateral 90
degrees parking for visitors and guest at the north side of the lot that will make the restaurant
& coffee shop open even for the by-passers.

C. PROJECT FEATURES
The Project Site is an inside lot, located in Tagaytay City with 76-meter wide frontage that
is facing National Highway with 12-meter wide road toward north going to people’s park and
2-meter sidewalk. The 56-meter depth is within 1:1 slope downhill toward east direction.
Consider setback requirement as set forth by the local authorities, 5-meter front setback.

D. DESIGN OBJECTIVES
a) To plan/design the Project that will consider indigenous materials with
application of natural stone that will create a paradise ambiance.
b) To plan/design the Project that will consider security & safety of tourist for
their peace of mind.
c) The Project should consider asbestos shingles on wooden trusses with built-
up beams.
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 5

d) Provision of viewing deck in all room accommodation on the rear side.

QUESTIONS:
11. The proposed traveler’s inn is located in what type of land?
a. Flat land
b. Rocky mountain
c. Slope downhill
d. Beach side

12. In Design Planning, room accommodation of travelers, corridors and room entrance
should face on what side of the orientation?
a. West
b. East
c. North
d. South

13. Along the 76.0 meters frontage of the lot, the main vehicular entry should be place at
the south side, at what side of the lot should be the location of the parking?
a. Northwest
b. Southwest
c. Northeast
d. Southeast

14. Site Development should consider landscaping to create a paradise atmosphere.

Landscaping should consider the following.
a. Stone, green & water
b. Stamped pavement
c. Artificial Plants & Trees
d. All of these

15. In Design Planning, restaurant and open deck coffee shop should be place at what
side of the orientation?
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 6

a. Southeast
b. Southwest
c. Northwest
d. Northeast

16. A downhill lot having 45° slope should consider the right Site Development, in grading
design, balancing of the entire site as closely as possible is very important to eliminate
the need for hauling earth on or offsite. This situation needs?
a. Flat grading
b. Cut and Fill
c. Provision of substructure
d. None of these

17. Transient need safe and secured parking, Site Development consider provision of
parking inside the premises but still need to provide barrier to separate city into a
paradise ambiance, parking area should be?
a. On flat area
b. Within the basement
c. Goes within the contour of the site
d. None of these

18. Based on the topographical condition of the site location, Site Development should
have _______?
a. Sloping site informality
b. Level Site Formality
c. Site Vertical Development
d. None of these

19. Administrative Building/Structures should have a vertical effect that will serve as a
fitting termination to a commanding height. What form of roof should be considered?
a. Flat Roof
b. Multi-level Roof
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c. Steep Roof
d. None of these

20. What flow of activities is best for the walk-in-client?

a. Drive-in, Park the car, Inquiry at the counter, Register, Past through the
Administration building, Room Check-in
b. Drive-in, Inquiry at the counter, Register, Get back to the car, Room Check-in
c. Drive in, Park on room garage from room check-in, make a call for registration.
d. None of these

21. Providing travelers room on a cut and fill ground, stair access should be respond to
condition of site.
a. Radial
b. Centralized
c. Curvilinear
d. None of these

22. In Design Planning, the component forms as well as their overall configurations should
be______?
a. Linear Form
b. Radial Form
c. Clustered Form
d. None of these

23. Providing color scheme, the dominant color of the exterior wall and majority of the
surrounding should be ______?
a. Bright color
b. Pastel Color
c. Neutral Color
d. None of these

24. What roofing materials to be use for Room Accommodation?

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a. Concrete with waterproofing

b. Bitumen saturated organic fiber
c. Metal panel with acrylic latex
d. None of these

25. What floor materials to be use for Hanging Viewing Deck?

a. High Density Polyethylene
b. High Density Polyester
c. High Density Polycarbonate
d. None of these

26. What type of material is use for Fabric Shed within the viewing deck?
a. Rubber fabric
b. Polyurethane fabric
c. Tensile fabric
d. None of these

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DESIGN PROBLEM 2

A Proposed Mixed-Use Building/Structure:

A. A Proposed Forty-Five (45) Storey Mixed-Use Building/Structure, C-3 Project

Development, on a Project Site with a 5% slope towards Southwest.

B. STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

A well-known corporation decided to put up a multi-billion project within Ortigas
Avenue on a commercial zone with Total Lot Area (TLA) of THIRTEEN THOUSAND
SEVEN HUNDRED FIFTY SQUARE METERS (13,750 SQM.)
A Mixed-Use type of building/structure having a complete commercial facilities
within the podium of the structure and an office and residential spaces on top of it.
The five (5) level basement parking is allotted for office and residential tenants and
the five (5) level podiums is for shopping mall with supermarket and adjacent parking
at each level of commercial use. The condominium type of residential units will be on
top of the seventeen (17) level of rentable office space.
The administrative facilities as well as the main utility system of the structure are
located within the lower ground were the supermarket is located which will occupy 60%
of the area. Provide 2-parking slots for every office tenant and 1-parking slot for every
residential tenant. The parking for commercial will consider ten (10) square meter
area of commercial space for every 1-parking slot.
The basement level consider 3.5-meter floor to floor height distance, while the
office and residential should have 2.4-meter ceiling height. The structural component
of commercial level consider (pre- stressed method of construction) long span, while
the office and residential have 8-meters module with light load.

C. PROJECT FEATURES
The Project Site is a corner lot with 125-meter wide frontage that is facing northeast.
The commercial level consider 3-meter floor to floor height distance for except for
upper ground that has 5-meter floor to floor height distance, and the lower ground
level consider 4-meter floor to floor height distance. The major roas of 20-meter right

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of way (RROW) and a minor road of 14-meter right of way (RROW) and a minor road
of 14-meter right of way (RROW) facing southeast. NOTE: Minor road sloping
downward 5% slope from the elevation of the front ground line (+20.0m. elevation) @
east side.

D. DESIGN OBJECTIVES
a) To plan/design the Project an advance technology structure and
modern trend of architecture should be consider on the design
configuration.
b) To plan/design the Project on a C-3 Zoned Property.
c) The Project should consider automation system for security of the
premises.
d) The Project will consider post construction as the most important
design configuration in high-rise building/structure.

QUESTIONS:

27. Typical residential floors will have a total of levels.

a. 22 levels with utility floor before the residential floor
b. 23 levels without utility floor before the residential floor
c. 24 levels
d. None of these

28. Considering Central Allocation of Toilet facilities within the Offices and
provision of 10cm space for acoustic ceiling suspension system, what will be the
minimum floor to floor height distance?
a. 3.0 m
b. 3.20m
c. 3.50m
d. 2.70m

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29. Considering Central Allocation of Toilet facilities within the Residential and
provision of 10cm space for acoustic ceiling suspension system, what will be the
minimum floor to floor height distance?
a. 3.0 m
b. 3.20m
c. 3.50m
d. None of these

30. Ground Floor is 1.50m above the ground line, what will be the Building
Height Limit (BHL)?
a. 146.50m
b. 149.25m
c. 152.00m
d. None of these

31. Ground Floor is 1.50m above the ground line, what will be the Total Height
from Ground line to Residential First level?
a. 72.90m without utility floor before the residential floor
b. 76.10m with utility floor before the residential floor
c. 79.30m
d. None of these

32. Ground Floor is 1.50m above the ground line, what will be Total Height of
Ground line to Podium Deck?
a. 18.50m
b. 21.00m
c. 22.50m
d. None of these

33. Rule VIII, what is the maximum front setback of the (COMMERCIAL
SHOPPING MALL) podium?

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a. 3.0m
b. 5.0m
c. 8.0m
d. None of these

34. Rule VIII, what is the total FRONT incremental setback of the (OFFICE LEVEL)
5th – 22nd Floor?
a. 27.0m
b. 32.0m
c. 42.0m
d. None of these

35. Rule VIII, what is the total LEFT-SIDE incremental setback of the (OFFICE
LEVEL) 5th – 22nd Floor?
a. 21.22m
b. 26.22m
c. 33.22m
d. None of these

36. Rule VIII, what is the total REAR incremental setback of the (OFFICE
LEVEL) 5th – 22nd Floor?
a. 3.60m
b. 4.50m
c. 6.60m
d. None of these

37. Rule VIII, what is the total FRONT incremental setback of the (RESIDENTIAL
LEVEL) 24TH - 45thFloor?
a. 59.58m
b. 69.58m
c. 84.58m

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d. None of these

38. Rule VIII, what is the total LEFT-SIDE incremental setback of the
(RESIDENTIAL LEVEL) 24TH - 45thFloor?
a. 47.76m
b. 54.76m
c. 66.76m
d. None of these

39. Rule VIII, what is the total REAR incremental setback of the (RESIDENTIAL
LEVEL) 24TH - 45thFloor?
a. 3.60m
b. 5.50m
c. 11.40m
d. None of these

40. Based on Rule VII Section 705, the Allowable Maximum Total Gross Floor Area
of the Commercial Shopping Mall based on Table VII.1.
a. 11,000 sqm.
b. 55,000 sqm
b. 68,750 sqm.
a. None of these

41. What is the Maximum Total Gross Floor Area of Residential Space?
a. 1,983 sqm.
b. 47,350 sqm.
c. 43,630 sqm. approx
d. None of these

42. What is the Maximum Total Gross Floor Area of Office Space?
a. 6,581 sqm.

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b. 111,888 sqm
c. 126,217 sqm.
d. None of these

43. What is the Elevation of Lower Ground Level?

a. 2.50
b. 5.50
c. 17.50
d. None of these

44. What is the Elevation of Basement Level 01?

a. 6.0
b. 7.50
c. 14.0
d. None of these

45. What is the Elevation of Basement Level 05?

a. 0.0
b. 18.50
c. 20.0
d. None of these

46. What exterior material characterizes best for building façade?

a. Glass wall curtain with pebble washout wall finish
b. Aluminum Cladding frameless awning glass doors
c. Precast wall panel with powder coated aluminum window frame
d. None of these

47. What interior material characterizes best for Economic consideration?

a. Polishes floor and glossy wall
b. Unglazed floor and plain wall finish

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c. Textured floor and wall paper

d. None of these

48. Loading and unloading dock is essential in supermarket for deliveries, it is best
to locate at?
a. Northeast
b. Southeast
c. Southwest
d. Northwest

49. Provision of basement parking for offices and residential, vehicular access for
basement should be at the ______?
a. Northeast
b. Southeast
c. Southwest
d. None of these

50. Cistern tank for water distribution should be at the______?

a. Basement 5 level
b. Lower Ground
c. Upper Ground
d. None of these

51. Receptacle provided at basement 5 to collect sewer waste.

a. Sump Pit
b. Cistern Tank
c. Sanitary Treatment Plant
d. None of these

52. Proposed Building/Structure will have a total of ______levels?

a. 49 without utility floor

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b. 50 wi9th utility floor

c. 51
d. None of these

53. Main Door Lockset use for Residential Units?

a. Double Lockset
b. Pin Code System
c. Biometric System
d. None of these

54. Appropriate Elevator to use?

a. Hydraulic Elevator
b. Electric Elevator
c. Freight Elevator
d. None of these

55. Collection of Garbage is through garbage bin, Collector’s should have access
through?
a. Main road on Northeast
b. Minor road on Southeast
c. Service driveway on Southwest
d. None of these

56. Provision of garbage chute is provided for garage disposal; garbage bin should
be located at what level?
a. Basement
b. Lower Ground
c. Upper Ground
d. None of these

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DESIGN PROBLEM 3

A Proposed Fitness Center:

A. General Description:
A Proposed Medium-Rise FITNESS CENTER Project [development with
Basement, Podium (with optional parking) and Tower components] ON A
SLOPING CORNER LOT

B. STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

A newly established Fitness Company (the “Client”) has decided that its two thousand
two hundred twenty-five square meter (2,225.0 sqm) property located in Quezon City
shall host a medium-rise Fitness Center (the “Project”). The lot frontages measure 44.5
meters (m) wide along the wider street and the other frontage is at 50.0 m along the
narrower street. There is a 5.0 m difference in elevation between the front and rear
portions of the lot.

The Client shall offer the following on-site facilities and/or generic services to the
public:
a) a members’ gym with state-of-the-art equipment;
b) a members’ sauna & massage;
c) a members’ only lounge and game room;
d) a health food store and restaurant for the general public;
e) an indoor sports venue (badminton, handball, squash, etc.) for the general
public;
f) a lecture facility and library for healthy living (open to the general public);
g) grooming salons (male and female);
h) boutique shops, sportswear and sports equipment shops,
tailoring/haberdashery; dress shop, ready-to-wear (RTW) shops; and
i) a sports medicine clinic for the general public.

The Fitness Company also expects their projected business volume to double

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in ten (10.0) years so that there is definite need to plan for flexibility/future need/s.
Since the Client cannot fully occupy the building in the meantime (and since there is
need to derive income from all sources). The generated spaces shall be
leased/rented to other end-users e.g. other promoters of clean and healthy lifestyles
such as publishers, developers, designers and the like. However, there is absolute
need to cluster such leaseable/rentable spaces to avoid operational and attendant
safety/security problems.

C. DESIGN OBJECTIVES:
1. To design a fitness center building, marketable and attractive to
prospective members and general patrons.
2. To design the building in a way that can maximize profits for the Fitness
Company;
3. The overall usable/rentable/leaseable areas for the building shall be at
approximately sixty five (65.0)% of the Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA).
4. To design a green (environmentally-designed and healthy) as well as
tropically-designed building that shall serve as a landmark in the
Project area.

D. DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS:
1. Function and efficiency;
2. Vertical and horizontal circulation patterns;
3. Architectural character and form;
4. Aesthetics and landmark quality;
5. Solar, wind, noise, odor and view orientations;
6. Amenities, Facilities, Services and Utilities (AFSU) introduced;
7. Security and Safety Features;
8. Compliance with prevailing laws on condominium development, the
NBCP, the Fire Code and the Accessibility Law;
9. Two (2.0) elevators with clear car sizes measuring 1.35 meters (m) x
1.40 m; a third unit shall serve as the service elevator;

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10. Natural and artificial ventilation where applicable; and

11. Building’s exterior shall be along modern lines/styles;
12. Due to height requirements, the indoor sports venue may take up two (2)
levels or floors;
13. Green Architecture elements; and
14. Tropical Architecture elements (preferably no air-conditioning).

E. PROJECT SITE FEATURES:

The 2,225.0 Sqm. Total Lot Area/TLA (reference Figure 1) is slightly
rectangular and is a sloping corner lot. It is sited at the corner of a 15.0 m wide street
and a 12.0 m wide RROW. The 45.0 m wide frontage faces the south while the other
50.0 m wide frontage faces west. The site slopes towards the southern street [with
two point four (2.4) m wide sidewalks on either side]. The surface of the southern
sidewalk shall be considered as elevation 0.0 m. Across the west of the Project site is
a private office building. To its east is another medium-rise commercial building and
directly across the street are two (2.0) videoke bars and a restaurant-bar with live
band performances. To the rear of the Project site are two point five (2.5) storey
townhouse residences.

F. APPLICABLE DEVELOPMENT CONTROLS:

The following development controls apply to the Project site:

1. Zoning classification is based on the NBCP 2004 R-IRR

2. Project site has the following development limitations:

a) A Building Footprint of ____ percent (__.0%) of the TLA; the prescribed

minimum setbacks at ground floor are at ____ at the front and _____ m
at the sides and rear; the same setbacks apply for all basement levels if
introduced;
b) A Building Height Limit (BHL) of ____ ( ___.0) m, measured from the
surface of the sidewalk; a maximum six (6.0) m spire or tower may be

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erected above the roof;

c) An Allowable Maximum TGFA of twenty seven thousand two hundred
(27,200.0) Sqm i.e. inclusive of all AFSU areas; and
d) Minimum parking space/slot requirements as follows:
A. For leasable units with a GFA of 41.0 to 70.0 Sqm, provide one
(1.0) parking slot for each unit; and
B. For all other areas, provide one (1.0) parking slot for every 100.0
Sqm of GFA.

G. IDENTIFIED DEVELOPMENT POTENTIAL:

Based on the BHL alone, the Project site has the following development potentials:
1. up to three (3.0) basement levels at two point eight (2.8) m floor to floor height;
2. up to a five (5.0) level podium development at three point three (3.3) m floor
to floor height; a mezzanine level of up to one point eight (1.8) m may be
introduced above the ground floor for added lobby ceiling height; and
3. a maximum ten (10.0) level/floor tower development i.e. to be constructed
above the podium development, at three point fifteen (3.15) m floor to floor
height; if the mezzanine is added at the ground floor, only a maximum nine
(9.0) level/floor tower development shall be possible to comply with the
lower BHL of 48.0 m. Note however that compliance with the TGFA is a
requirement to be satisfied.

QUESTIONS
57. Under the 2004 Revised IRR of P.D. No. 1096 (1977 NBCP), what shall be the
applicable percentage of the site occupancy (PSO) for the property?
a. 70% of the Total lot Area (TLA) [without firewall]
b. 85% of the Total lot Area (TLA) [without firewall]
c. 80% of the Total lot Area (TLA) [without firewall]
d. 85% of the Total lot Area (TLA) [with firewall]

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58. What shall be the maximum allowable PSO of the project?

a. 1,700 Sq. M
b. 1,650 Sq. M
c. 1,780 Sq. M
d. 1,750 Sq. M

59. What is the general classification of use/character of occupancy allowed for the
proposed building/structure?
a. Division E-1
b. Division E-2
c. Division C-3
d. Division E-3

60 - 62. What are the required setbacks for the proposed building/structure?
Road Right-of-Way (RROW)
Width (meters)
Front 60. _____
Side 61. _____
Rear 62. _____

63. What is the purpose of the front yard for this project?
a. To accommodate part of the minimum parking requirement outside
the designated area for the front yard
b. For off-street parking for general public use
c. For guests parking to accommodate tenants visitors
d. For delivery parking for concessionaire-operated commercial or
recreational spaces for lease

64. Compute for the area of the front yard.

a. 200 Sq. M
b. 250 Sq. M

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c. 225 Sq. M
d. 222.5Sq.M

65. What is the Allowable Maximum Building Footprint (AMBF) for this project?
a. 1,762 Sq. M
b. 1,760 Sq. M
c. 1,761 Sq. M
d. 1,763 Sq. M

66. What is the Maximum Allowable Percentage of Site Occupancy (PSO) of the
property?
a. 79%
b. 80%
c. 75%
d. 79.5%

67. What is the Maximum Allowable Site Occupancy (PSO) of the property is to
be developed without firewall?
a. 1,762 Sq. M
b. 1,760 Sq. M
c. 1,761 Sq. M
d. 1,763 Sq. M

68. What is the % of the Maximum Allowable Impervious Surface Area (ISA) of the
property?
a. 12%
b. 15%
c. 10%
d. 5%

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69. What is the Maximum Allowable Impervious Surface Area (ISA) of the property?
a. 333.75 Sq. M
b. 340.00 Sq. M
c. 335.00 Sq. M
d. 334.00 Sq. M

70. What is the % of the Maximum Allowable Construction Area (MACA) of the
property?
a. 90%
b. 95%
c. 85%
d. 80%

71. What is the Maximum Allowable Construction Area (MACA) of the property?
a. 2,113.75
b. 2,111.75
c. 2,112.75
d. 2,114.75

72. What is the % of the Minimum Unpaved Surface Area (USA) of the property?
a. 12%
b. 15%
c. 10%
d. 5%

73. What is the Minimum Unpaved Surface Area (USA) of the property?
a. 110.25 Sq. M
b. 111.25 Sq. M
c. 112.25 Sq. M
d. 113.25 Sq. M

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74. Compute for the Total Open Space within Lot

a. 444.00 Sq. M
b. 444.25 Sq. M
c. 445.00 Sq. M
d. 444.50 Sq. M

75 - 78. Complete the table for this project.

Character of Use Type of Building Building Height Limit (BHL)
or Occupancy / Structure
75. __________ 76. No. of allowable Meters above
_____________ storeys / floors highest grade
above established
grade
77. _________ 78. ________

79. What is the BHL of the project?

a. 49.00 M.
b. 47.50 M.
c. 47.00 M.
d. 48.00 M

80. What is the Total structure height of the project?

a. 53.00 M.
b. 54.00 M
c. 50.00 M.
d. 52.00 M.

81. What is the Maximum Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA) of the overall
usable/rentable/leaseable areas?
a. 17,700.00 Sq. M
b. 17,000.00 Sq. M

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c. 17,680.00 Sq. M
d. 17,600.00 Sq. M

QUESTIONS ON SITE PLANNING

82. Given its site orientation, what are the dominant sun-paths for the property?
a. SE to SW and NE to NW
b. SW to NW and NE to SW
c. SE to NW and NE to SW
d. SE to NW and NE to SW

83. Where should the convenience store be located with regard to profitable
orientation?
a. Upfront east for easy access to vehicular maneuver
b. Upfront corner location for visibility
c. Upfront near main entrance to building
d. Upfront west location for service area accessibility

84. What would you recommend as acoustic treatment for the front of the site
considering the location of the two (2.0) videoke bars and a restaurant-bar.
a. Provide deeper setback
b. Locate principal front of the building along yard 1
c. Locate principal front of the building along west
d. Does not matter

85. Where should the Garbage chute room be placed?

a. Proxemic to MRF
b. Near kitchen area of restaurant
c. At west side of lot
d. At the rear of the building

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86. What architectural element(s) are to be associated with the utility room?
a. Ramp
b. Loading/unloading area
c. Parking area
d. Generator set

QUESTIONS ON ARCHITECTURAL INTERIORS

87. In retail lighting design, what type of light is appropriate for general illumination?
a. Incandescent
b. Fluorescent
c. Mercury
d. Metal halide

88. In restaurants, most of the circulation areas and other public spaces can be
illuminated with
a. Compact fluorescent sources
b. Hid sources
c. Incandescent
d. Sconces

89. In an office, what is a preferred modular dimensions for Top executive space
requirements?
a. 10-20 Sq. M
b. 8-10 Sq. M
c. 40-50 Sq. M
d. 35-40 Sq. M

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 90. In an office, what is a preferred modular dimensions for Junior executive space
requirements?
a. 10-20 Sq. M
b. 8-10 Sq. M
c. 40-50 Sq. M
d. 35-40 Sq. M

91. What is the ideal ceiling height applicable for the Meeting Rooms?
a. 2.70 M.
b. 2.10 M.
c. 2.40 M
d. 3.00M

QUESTIONS ON SPACE PLANNING

92. Where should the lecture facility and library for healthy living be located?
a. Adjacent to members’ sauna & massage area
b. Adjacent to the health food store
c. Adjacent to sports medicine clinic
d. Adjacent to the restaurant

93. When entering the Ground Floor lobby of the building, what areas should be
placed immediately accessible to the main entrance?
a. Elevator Lobby and Service Stairs
b. Reception Area
c. Convenience Store
d. Branch Bank

94. What is the court dimension for badminton?

a. 8.40M x 17.50M
b. 9.00M x 18.00M

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 c. 8.50M x 19.00M
d. 8.00M x 16.00M

95. What is the net mounting height for badminton?

a. 1.60M
b. 1.62M
c. 1.50M
d. 1.65M

96. What would be the ideal space grouping from the list given below?
a. Health food store, restaurant, convenience store
b. Health food store, convenience store, boutique
c. Member’s sauna/massage, health food store, restaurant
d. Health food store, clinic, restaurant

QUESTIONS ON STRUCTURAL CONCEPTUALIZATION

97. What is the most common structural system presently employed in a

commercial-3 construction?
a. Flat-plate cast-in-place reinforced concrete with randomly placed columns
b. Steel structural frames
c. Masonry and CHB for external envelope and drywall for internal partitions
d. None of the above

98. What category of systems approach is appropriate for the project?

a. Steel or concrete frame with precast planks, self-formed concrete decks or
metal deck
b. Poured-in-place concrete tiers utilizing special reusable forms for
transverse walls or columns
c. Long-span or short-span precast panel /plank and bearing wall
d. Any of the above

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 99. As a rule of thumb, spacing between concrete columns may economically be in
range of
a. 12’ -18’ on center
b. 14’ – 16’ on center
c. 12’ – 14’ on center
d. None of the above

100. As a rule, openings for vertical services may be located

a. At will
b. At the center of building
c. At rear of building
d. At rear-center intersection of building

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
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32. A
ANSWER KEY: 33. B
34. A
1. A 35. A
2. A 36. A
3. D 37. B
4. A 38. B
5. B 39. A
6. A 40. B
7. D 41. C
8. A Answer:
9. D
= 38,870 without utility floor
10. B
= 37,180 with utility floor
DESIGN PROBLEM 1
42. B
43. C
11. C
44. C
12. B
45. A
13. A
46. C
14. A
47. A
15. D
48. A
16. B
49. C
17. C
50. B
18. A
51. A
19. C
52. A
20. A
53. C
21. C
54. B
22. C
55. C
23. C
56. B
24. B
25. A
DESIGN PROBLEM 3
26. C
57. C
DESIGN PROBLEM 2
58. C
27. B 0.80 x 2,225 Sq. M = 1,780 Sq. M
28. B
Ceiling height = 2.40 59. D
60. 5.00
Ceiling system = 0.10 61. 2.00
Beam height = 0.50 62. 2.00
63. A
Slab thickness = 0.20 64. C
29. B Front Yard at 5.00 M x 45.00 M =
30. B
31. A 225 Sq. M

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65. D
Note:
45 M (w) – [Y2: 2.00 M + Y3: 2.00 M] = 41.00 M
50 M (d) – [Y1: 5.00 M + Y4: 2.00 M ] = 43.00 M (NBC)AMBF = 41.00 M x 43.00 M
= 1,763.00 Sq. M
VI. APPLICABLE DEVELOPMENT CONTROLS:
Building Footprint of fifty five percent (77.0%) of the TLA;
(PB) BF = 77% x 2,225.00 Sq. M = 1,713.25.00 Sq. M.

66. B
67. D
PSO = AMBF/TLA
(NBC)PSO = 1,763 Sq. M/2,225.00 Sq. M = 79% of TLA (.7923)

68. B
69. A
Note:
ISA = Y2 + Y3 + Y4
(NBC)ISA = [Y2: 2.00 M x 43.00 M] = 86.00 Sq. M
[Y3: 2.00 M x 43.00 M] = 86.00 Sq. M [Y4: 2.00 M x 43.00 M] = 86.00 Sq. M
258.00 Sq. M
258 Sq. M/2,225.00 Sq. M = 12% of TLA (.1159)
ISA = 15% of TLA .15 x 2,225.00 Sq. M = 333.75 Sq. M

70. B
Note. (NBC)MACA = PSO + ISA
= 80% + 15%
= 95% of TLA

71. A
95 x 2,225 = 2,113.75

72. D
(NBC)Check Total Lot Area (TLA): TLA = MACA + USA
TLA = 95% + 5% = 100%

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73. B 78. 48.00 – 180.00

79. D
Note: 0.05 x 2,225 = 111.25Sqm BHL = 10.0 levels x 3.15 M
= 31.50 M.
74. C
5.0 levels x 3.30M = 16.50 M.
Note: TOSL = ISA + USA
48.00 M.
333.75 + 111.25 = 445 Sq. M
80. B
75. Commercial = 15.00 M + 1.00 M + 6.00 M
76. Commercial (3) (C-3)
77. 16 -60 = 22.00 M

81. C
QUESTIONS ON SPACE
QUESTIONS ON SITE
PLANNING
PLANNING

82. A 92. C
83. D 93. A
84. D 94. A
85. A 95. B
86. D 96. A

QUESTIONS ON QUESTIONS ON STRUCTURAL

ARCHITECTURAL INTERIORS CONCEPTUALIZATION

87. B 97. B
88. B 98. A
89. C 99. A
90. A 100. B
91. C

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN AND COMMUNICATION

(Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Identify the type of road in the figure below:

a. Branch
b. Cul-de-sac
c. Round-about
d. Tee

2. At what stage should you consider Tropical Design Concepts?

a. At the very onset, during the Pre-design stage
b. Anytime, during the design development stage
c. During contract documentation
d. None of these

3. What is used as reference line in establishing a room or floor elevation?

a. Street level
b. Natural ground line
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c. Ground floor line

d. FFL or NGL

4. Building houses near places of work was prohibited because of the type of houses
by settlers. What type of houses was usually built by settlers?
a. Bungalow
b. Shanties
c. Wood and concrete
d. Two-storey

5. For the given figure, what is the best landscaping element that will deflect wind
speed?

a. Ground cover
b. Trees
c. 3ft wood fence
d. Low bushes

6. These are metal or concrete rigid posts that can be arranged in a line to close a road
or path to vehicles above a certain width, and to separate traffic from pedestrian
a. Bollard
b. Railing
c. Fence
d. Planting strips

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7. The figure illustrates

a. Satellite
b. Constellation
c. Centralized
d. Radial

DESIGN PROBLEM 1

A Proposed Clubhouse:
A. A Proposed Two (2) Storey Clubhouse on a middle class community. The Project
will be on an open planning.

B. STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM

A Group of young and aggressive businessman & realty developer acquired a 2.8-
hectared lot to put a middle class community with a typical 10-storey condominium that
has 139 dwelling units on each structure on a central location that everyone will enjoy all
the convenience of a city living and retreat to your personal sanctuary in minutes.
The community consisting of 2,085 residential units commission to a well-known
marketing company for its pre-selling within 18-months period. The Marketing Group is
demanding for all necessary amenities to make use as part of their marketing strategies
that will encourage prospect buyers to invest for their dream home.
Property Management will occupy the space above and below the mezzanine floor as
their office facilities, including other facilities like convenient store, common toilet, shower
room for outdoor swimming pool, as well as the central kitchen and preparation room for
function hall. Property Manager Office will provide 2-cubicle for the staffs, information
desk, security office, maintenance office and a meeting room for visiting directors.
Function Hall that can be serve 100 pax, 2-50 pax at one time and 4-25 pax at one
time @ Ground Floor with a 5-meter ceiling height. Second Floor having indoor
recreational facilities will provide the following amenities likes: basketball, volleyball,
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badminton court and common toilet & shower room. The outdoor sport facilities with the
following amenities likes: basketball, volleyball and badminton court. Children’s
playground and swimming pool are within the outdoor facilities.

C. PROJECT FEATURES
The Project Site is located 20-minutes drive from Ortigas Center, home to some of the
city’s finest commercial and business establishment and 40-minutes drive from Makati
area.

D. DESIGN OBJECTIVES
a. To plan/design the Project that will serve as common facilities.
b. To plan/design what the marketing needs for their marketing strategies.
c. The Project should consider the importance of land value for the interest of
the developer.
d. The Project shall serves as the Landmark of the area.

QUESTIONS

8. Providing the required function halls on the ground floor should consider 12 cu.m.
of air space per person, what will be the minimum area allotted for the function
halls?
a. Minimum of 240 sq.m.
b. Minimum of 360 sq.m.
c. Minimum of 720 sq.m.
d. None of these

9. What is the appropriate type of roofing frame considering the facilities provided on
the second floor of the clubhouse?
a. Rafter type
b. Space Frame
c. Truss System
d. None of these
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10. Minimum area allotted for central kitchen and preparation room?
a. 24 sq.m.
b. 48 sq.m.
c. 72 sq.m.
d. None of these

11. What is the appropriate type of construction under Section 401 of Rule IV of
PD1096 to consider in designing the clubhouse building/structure?
a. Type II
b. Type III
c. Type IV
d. None of these

12. Providing 2.10m ceiling height, above and below mezzanine, what is the
appropriate ceiling material to be use?
a. Wood board
b. Acoustic ceiling
c. Cement board
d. None of these

13. Providing the indoor recreational facilities with the required amenities, excluding
common toilet facilities and shower room, what will be the total area allotted for the
second floor?
a. Minimum of 650 sqm.
b. Minimum of 1,800 sqm.
c. Minimum of 1,260 sqm.
d. None of these

14. Method of construction use in swimming pool.

a. Shotcrete
b. Conventional Reinforced Concrete
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c. Masonry on wall and concrete on Slab

d. None of these

15. Total area to be allotted for outdoor sports facilities in providing the following
amenities?
a. Approx. 560 sqm.
b. Approx. 1,600 sqm.
c. Approx. 1,800 sqm.
d. None of these

16. Short side of the building/structure should face ____, considering rectangular
shape in plan layout?
a. North-South
b. East-West
c. Northeast-Southwest
d. None of these

17. Longer side of the building/structure should face , considering rectangular

shape in plan layout?
a. North-South
b. East-West
c. Northeast-Southwest
d. None of these

18. The 2,085 possible number of families within the community could possible has
different activities, function hall as one of the prime facility of the clubhouse that will
serve as multi- purpose venue for them. What should be the wall finish of the
function halls?
a. Wall paper
b. Strip of wood with slot
c. Drywall
d. None of these
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19. The 2,085 possible number of families within the community could possible has
different activities, function hall as one of the prime facility of the clubhouse that will
serve as multi- purpose venue for them. What should be the ceiling finish of the
function halls?
a. Acoustic Ceiling Board
b. Flat wall Enamel
c. Spraytex
d. None of these

20. If you are to add another room/space to the clubhouse, what would be the
appropriate for inclusion?
a. Union Office
b. Clinic
c. Lotto Outlet
d. None of these

21. Providing Property Management Offices should consider what type of partitioning?
a. Modular system
b. Stud partitioning
c. CHB wall
d. None of these

22. Clubhouse is located at the center of the 10 condominium building/structure, what

is the best roofing material to use for the clubhouse?
a. Pre-painted long span
b. Roof Tiles
c. Concrete Roof Deck
d. None of these

23. Providing the adult and kiddie swimming pool as one of the amenities of the
clubhouse should be on the .
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a. Northwest
b. Southwest
c. Southeast
d. Northeast

DESIGN PROBLEM 2

A Proposed Multi-Level Parking Building:

A propose Multi-level parking building on a project Site having a three Percent (3%)
slope towards the RROW.

Statement of the Problem

The Client has decided that his property, with a Total Lot Area (TLA) of Five
Thousand Three Hundred (5,350.00m2) and located in Urban Area shall serve as a
Parking Building should accommodate a total of 450 Parking Slots. Each level will
serve of 150 of parking slots with a building bulk of 33X100M.

Project Site Features

The project site is Rectangular in shape, with a frontage of 140-meters facing south. It
has a 3% slope towards the 12-meters RROW. The building bulk is 33x100M with a
front setback of approximately 5- meters and a firewall at rear portion.

Design Objectives:
a. To maximize the Client’s profit for the Project proponent
b. To Plan/Design a building that serve as a landmark in the project Area with a
sustainable least- cost.

QUESTIONS

24 - 34 (Sketch this design problem. Use the back of this page or separate paper.)
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35. Given that the sidewalk is considered as elevation 0.00 meters, how much
is the elevation difference from the sidewalk to the rear tip of the property
with a 3% slope?
a. 1.80 meters ·
b. 1.20 meters
c. 1.15 meters
d. 5.35 meters

36. What is the range of the Allowable Maximum Building Footprint (AMBF) of the
project based on the given data?
a. 5,200 - 5,400 sq.m.
b. 2,600 - 2,800 sq.m.
c. 2.800 – 3,300 sq.m.
d. 4,300 - 4,500 sq.m.

37. Given that the slab for the parking building at ground floor is 0.15 meters thick,
how many kilograms of steel reinforcing bars are needed if it requires 15
kilograms of reinforcing bars per cubic meter of concrete?
a. 7,425 - 7,430 kilograms
b. 8,070 - 8,100 kilograms
c. 1,1 00- 1,150 kilograms
d. 8,520-8,535 kilograms

38. What is the range for the area of roof of the project considering a 1.00 meter
roof eaves with firewall at the back?
a. 3,468 sq.m.
b. 3,250 sq.m.
b. 4,800 sq.m
a. 2,680 sq.m.

39. What is the Total Open Space of the Lot (TOSL) for the project based on
the given data?
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a. 3,775 sq.m.
b. 2,050 sq.m.
c. 4,800 sq.m.
d. 2,680 sq.m.

40. Great parking lots are safe, easy access for wheelchairs and maintaining good
sight lines. What is the most commonly used and most economical parking layout
of parking spaces?
a. Parallel parking
b. 45 degrees parking
c. 90 degrees parking
d. 60 degrees parking

41. Compute for the Allowable Maximum Volume of the Building (AMVB) for the
project considering the floor to floor height is 3 meters.
a. 30,320 cu .m.
b. 29,700 cu.m
c. 26,520 cu.m.
d. 66,170 cu.m.

42. What is the ideal slope of ramp in a parking build ing?

a. 1:12 ratio
b. 1:8 ratio
c. 1:10 ratio
d. 1:15 ratio

43. What is the Percentage of the Site Occupancy (PSO) of the project?
a. 58% of the Total Lot Area
b. 70% of the Total Lot Area
c. 72% of the Total Lot Area
d. 62% of the Total Lot Area

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44. What is the common term for any street, al ley or other strip of land
unobstructed from the ground to the sky, deeded, dedicated or otherwise
permanently appropriated for public use?
a. Hallway
b. Public way
c. Alley
d. Highway

45. Given that the sidewalk is considered as elevation 0.00 meters, how much
is the elevation difference from the sidewalk to the rear tip of the lot in
range?
a. 1.30 - 1.40 meters
b. 1.20 - 1.30meters
c. 1.10 – 1.20 meters
d. 1.50 - 1 .55meters

46. Based on the given data, compute for the Unpaved Surface Area (USA) of the
project in range if the project doesn't have a firewall.
a. 250 - 350 sq.m.
b. 890 - 900 sq.m.
c. 870 - 880 sq.m.
d. 600 - 650 sq.m.

47. What part of the lot has the highest elevation?

a. North
b. South
c. East
d. West

48. Based on Section 804, Table Vlll.1 of Rule 7 & 8, in range, compute
for the Allowable Maximum Building Footprint (AMBF) of the project?
a. 4,600 - 4,800 sq.m.
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b. 4,900 - 5.000 sq.m.

c. 4,200 – 4,500 sq.m.
d. 5,900 - 6,000 sq.m.

49. What occupancy does the project belong?

a. Commercial - 1
b. Industrial- 1
c. UTS
d. Commercial - 2

50. Based on Section 803, Table Vlll.1 of Rule 7 & 8, in range, compute for the
Impervious Surface Area (ISA) of the project in range?
a. 300- 350 sq.m.
b. 440- 445 sq.m.
c. 500-555 sq.m.
d. 600- 650 sq.m

51. Compute for the Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA) of the project based on Section
803, Table V111.1 of Rule 7 & 8.
a. 13,642.50 sq.m.
b. 9,900 sq.m.
c. 12,037.50 sq.m
d. 21,844.80 sq.m

52. Compute for the Allowable Maximum Volume of Building (AMVB) of the project
based on the given data if each storey is 3m.
a. 30,240 sq.m.
b. 36,112.50 sq.m.
c. 40,927.50 sq.m.
d. 29,700 sq.m.

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53. Compute for the perimeter fence of the project provided that _is has a 6-meter gate.
a. 356.42 meters
b. 350.42 meters
c. 450.42 meters
d. None of these

54. Based on Table Vll1.3 of Rule 7 & 8, what is the minimum front setback of the
project?
a. 5.00 meters
b. 6.00 meters
c. 8.00 meters
d. 4.50 meters

55. What is shown in the image below?

a. Setback
b. Property line
c. Sidewalk
d. RROW

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DESIGN PROBLEM 3

A PROPOSED MEDIUM RISE APARTMENT BUILDING PROJECT i.e. A

DEVELOPMENT WITH A BASEMENT COMPONENT AND ON A PROJECT SITE
HAVING AN 8% SLOPE TOWARDS THE RROW.

STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM

A private development company (the developer) has decided that its newly
acquired property with Total Lot Area (TLA) of six thousand (6,000) square meters shall
be developed to host a medium rise apartment building (The Project). The project is
located in a rural area, high gross density (Division B-1) Maximum R-3. The dwelling
units shall be 2 types: (1st) studio type with a Gross Floor Area (GFA) of 22 square
meters; (2nd) one-bedroom apartment units with a Gross Floor Area (GFA) of fifty (50)
square meters.

PROJECT SITE FEATURES

The project site is rectangular in shape and is an interior lot, with width of 50-
meters, the front part of which faces north. The 2-lanes RROW for access and drainage
(to be negotiated with the owner of the adjoining lot) is 80 meters deep and with direct
access to the 20 meters wide street.
The RROW slopes at 1/3 of 1%, uniformly draining west,The road has a 2.4
meters wide sidewalk at each side. The project site uniformly slopes at 8% toward the
RROW which also slopes at 8% towards the vacant lot in front. The surface of the
sidewalk shall be generally considered as elevation 0.0 meters. To the left of the site is a
vacant lot (as viewed from the RROW) and to the rear of the project site is a proposed 3-
storey single detached residence.

DESIGN OBJECTIVES
a. To plan/ design a medium-rise apartment building, marketable and
attractive to middle-income renters/ lessees;

b. To plan/ design the apartment building in a way that can maximize rentals
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and leases for the developer, the ratio of saleable versus non-saleable
spaces based in GFA shall be 70:30 of the leasable eighty-five percent
(85%) of the Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA); and

c. To plan/ design a building that shall serve as a landmark in the project area
while considering the least cost for the development of the project.

QUESTIONS

56. Under BP344, what is the allowable elevator door width of the project?
a. 850 millimeters
b. 800 meters
c. 900 centimeters
d. 800 millimeters

57. Parking areas for disabled persons shall be within how many meters of the facility
being served measured from the farthest parking space along accessible path to the
closest accessible distance.
a. 60 meters
b. 50 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 25 meters

58. What is the best paint color of the roof deck?

a. Light gray
b. Dark gray
c. Black
d. White

59. Given the proposed project, slope and orientation, where should “Excavation” start?
a. In the perimeter walls of each side
b. After establishing the yards required
c. Right on the property line of the lot
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d. Setback provisions from O.F.B.

60. Which is not included in the architectural interior?

a. Bed
b. Kitchen countertop
c. Suspended Ceiling
d. Split-type AC

61. What is not an indoor equipment?

a. AC window type
b. Exhaust fan
c. Portable generator
d. Split-type AC

62. For Amenities, Facilities, Services and Utilities (AFSU) introduced, what is the
primary priority?
a. Utilities, Amenities, Facilities, Services
b. Amenities, Facilities, Services and Utilities
c. Facilities, Amenities, Services and Utilities
d. Utilities, Services, Facilities and Amenities

63. What is the sequence of priority for the space requirement for a studio type unit?
a. Kitchen, dining area, bedroom, living area
b. Bed area, dining area, living area, kitchen
c. Bed area, kitchen, dining area, living area
d. Living area, dining area, kitchen, bed area

64. What is the sequence of priority for one bedroom unit?

a. Kitchen, dining area, bedroom, living area
b. Bed area, dining area, living area, kitchen
c. Bed area, kitchen, dining area, living area
d. Living area, dining area, kitchen, bed area
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65. What is the most common structural system presently employed in medium-rise
apartment construction?
a. Flat-plate cast-in-place reinforced concrete with randomly framed column
b. Steel structure frame
c. Masonry and CHB for external envelope and drywall for internal partition
d. None of the above

66. As per NBCP, for apartment with a ceiling height of 2.40m the air changes per hour
is?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

67. Which is not an architectural interior element?

a. Dry wall partition
b. Entrance screen door
c. Bathroom floor
d. Suspended ceiling

68. Under NBCP, minimum width of the sidewalk for RROW width of 9.00 meters or
more shall be how many meters on each side of the RROW?
a. 1.20 meters
b. 2.40 meters
c. 2.00 meters
d. 1.80 meters

69. Under PD1096, what is the suggested minimum width of 2 lanes alley, roadway,
carriageway or the like?
a. 2.00 meters
b. 2.40 meters
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c. 6.00 meters
d. 8.00 meters

70. In relation to question no. 14 and NBCP (PD1096), how much will be the width of
the sidewalks on each side?
a. 2 meters up to 4 meters
b. 3 meters up to 5 meters
c. 1 meter each side
d. 2 meters each side

71. In relation to question no. 14 and NBCP (PD1096), what is the total width of
planting strips?
a. 0.40 meter
b. 0.30 meter
c. 0.90 meter
d. Optional

72. Which of the following floor finish is slippery when dirty?

a. Plain cement finish
b. Granite tiles
c. Carpet tiles
d. Vinyl tiles

73. What is the Allowable Maximum Building Footprint (AMBF) of the project based on
table VIII.1 Rule 7 and 8?
a. 4,200 sq.m
b. 4,512 sq.m.
c. 4,633 sq.m.
d. 4,122 sq.m.

74. Considering the minimum setback as per NBCP, what is the Allowable Maximum
Building Footprint (AMBF) of the project without firewall based on the table VIII.1 of
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Rule 7 and 8?
a. 5,100 sq.m.
b. 4,312 sq.m.
c. 5,060 sq.m.
d. 900 sq.m.

75. Under PD1096, how much is the ISA of the project with firewall provision based on
table VIII.1 of Rule 7 and 8?
a. 9,426 sq.m.
b. 600 sq.m.
c. 564 sq.m.
d. 900 sq.m.

DESIGN PROBLEM 4

A Proposed Office Building/Structure:

A. A Proposed Eight (8) Storey Office Building/Structure, C-2 Project Development, on
a Project Site with a 3% slope from center of the development towards Northwest
and Southeast.

B. STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM

A Businessman & Realty Developer commission an Architect to put up an Office

Building/Structure intended for Prime Companies to house & establish a main office within
Global City as prime location for businesses.
The Ground Floor will provide information counter, Administrative Office, Canteen and
Coffee Shop. Provide 3-parking slots for every office space and 2-parking slots for
administrative office at the basement. Basement vehicular access should be thru and
thru (3-meter width and 3-meter turning radius) provided after the drop-off zone at main
entrance and before the rear entrance. Ramp at 5% slope down start from the building
line with 1.75 meter elevation below ground line.
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Roof deck should accessible for utility needs as the water distribution system consider
down feed. All rentable office space should have toilet. Provide all necessary utility
facilities. Minimum ceiling height is required with compliance with the National Building
Code of the Philippines.

C. PROJECT FEATURES
The Project Site having Total Lot Area (TLA) of 4,335 square meters with 42.5-meter
frontage that is facing northwest with 18-meter wide road including half of the island and
a 3-meter sidewalk and a 6.5- meter one-way service road toward southwest direction.
Consider setback requirement as set forth by authorities. Provision of firewall will be
consider on both side with appropriate provision of maintenance.

D. DESIGN OBJECTIVES
a. To design the Project with wall curtain on building façade that still consider
cross ventilation.
b. To plan/design the Project maximize the use of space which consider the
per square meter rate rental in office establishment within the site location.
c. The Project should consider precast and pre-stressed to maximize the span
of the structural components.
d. The Project should consider intelligent structure to avoid too much
manpower.
e. To plan/design the Project with ample parking at the rear for visitor’s and
guests.
f. To plan/design the Project with common facilities at every floors. Elevators
provided on the left side of the 49 sqm. Square elevator lobby and stairs,
common toilet & utility on the other side.
g. Centralized air-conditioning system on all floors.

QUESTIONS

76. Provision of firewall on both side of the building/structure, what will be the width of
the building façade?
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a. 41.30m
b. 42.00m
c. 42.50m
d. None of these

77. The rear side of the building/structure is facing on .

a. Southwest
b. Southeast
c. Northeast
d. None of these

78. Basement vehicular ramp should be on what side?

a. Southwest
b. Southeast
c. Northeast
d. None of these

79. In providing cross ventilation within every office, a court is provided at the center
depth of the building at the back of elevators and utility facilities, what is the ideal
number of office space should be in one floor?
a. 2-4 office units
b. 6-8 office units
c. 10-16 office units
d. None of these

80. What is the horizontal distance of the ramp for vehicular access within the
basement?
a. 25 meters
b. 35 meters
c. 70 meters
d. None of these

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81. What is the maximum number of parking slot should be within the basement?
a. 86 parking slot
b. 170 parking slot
c. 338 parking slot
d. None of these

82. What is the minimum floor area can be allotted in one office space?
a. Approx. 187.50 sqm.
b. Approx. 375 sqm.
c. Approx. 750 sqm.
d. None of these

83. The main façade of the building is facing on .

a. Northwest
b. Southwest
c. Northeast
d. Southeast

84. Provision of firewall facing southwest, it is strongly suggested to provide_____.

a. 1.0m firewall above the deck
b. Firewall flashing
c. Firewall gutters
d. None of these

85. What kind of glass is use for glass curtain wall?

a. Insulating glass
b. Laminated glass
c. Reflective glass
d. None of these

86. Receptacle provided at the basement for water distribution system?

a. Sump Pit
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b. Cistern Tank
c. Pump Room
d. None of these

87. Considering pre-stressed method of construction, what type of pre-stressed beam

should be use?
a. Rectangular Beam
b. L-shape & Inverted Tee
c. Wide Flange
d. None of these

88. Considering pre-stressed method of construction, what type of pre-stressed slab

should be use?
a. Solid Flat Slab
b. Hollow Core Slab
c. Single or Double Tee
d. None of these

89. What water proofing applied on firewall?

a. Asbestile Cement
b. Thoroseal
c. Flexibond
d. None of these

90. If the street line is established at +10.00m, the Ground line is 0.50m above the
street line. What is the elevation of the Ground floor finish?
a. 1.75m
b. 3.50m
c. 12.25m
d. None of these

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91. What system use for glass curtain wall?

a. Coil Ties System
b. Frame System
c. Spider System
d. None of these

92. How many granite tiles are needed? Using 600mm x 600mm granite tile.
a. 1,840 pcs
b. 2,084 pcs
c. 2,480 pcs
d. None of these

93. How many acoustic boards are needed? Using 2’ x 4’ acoustic board?
a. 920 pcs
b. 1,042 pcs
c. 1,240 pcs
d. None of these

94. Basement floor to Ground floor is 3.50meters; Ground floor to Second Floor is
5.0meters, while the typical 2nd – 8th floor has 2.40 meters ceiling height. What is the
minimum height of the building from basement floor to roof deck?
a. 61.60m
b. 33.00m
c. 36.50m
d. None of these

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QUESTIONS ON ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN

95. Total mechanical space appropriate for this project will usually be around
a. 10 – 15% of total gross building area
b. 5 – 10% of total gross building area
c. 10 – 20% of total gross building area
d. 1 – 5% of total gross building area

96. The required building exterior shall be with modern features. What primary
architectural element should be considered?
a. Columns
b. Horizontal lines
c. Vertical Lines
d. Decorative motif of facade

97. A retail shop may be divided into 2 principal functions: 1) the exterior comprising
the ____
a. Storefront
b. The show window
c. Displays that gives identification
d. All of the above

98. In retail stores where mezzanine is considered, what could be the height if used for
service space only?
a. 1.95M
b. 1.80M
c. 1.75M
d. 2.10M

99. What is the clear circulatory width recommended for a single aisle vault in a bank?
a. 1.50M
b. 1.20M

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c. 1.80M
d. 2.00M

100. What is the type of wall is necessary to enclose the elevators?

a. Retaining wall
b. Shear wall
c. Dry wall
d. Party wall

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have questions or
comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

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ANSWER KEY:

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. A

DESIGN PROBLEM 1

8. A
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. A

DESIGN PROBLEM 2

24. – 34. THIS IS THE CORRECT DRAWING (10-Points see the stars)

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35. C (3% of 38.21 = 1.146) 70. C

36. C (3300sqm.) 71. D
37. A (3300 sqm x 0.15m x 15kg) 72. B
38. A (102 x 34m) 73. A
39. B (5350 - 3300) 74. C
40. C 75. B
41. B (3300 x 3m x 3 floors)
42. B DESIGN PROBLEM 4
43. D (3300 / 5350 sqm = 61.86%)
44. B 76. A
45. C (1.15m) 77. B
46. A (5% of 5350 = 267.5) 78. C
47. A 79. A
48. C (85% of 5350 x 3 floors) 80. B
49. D 81. A
50. C (10% of 5350 = 535 sqm.) 82. C
51. A (85% of 5350 x 3 floors) 83. A
52. D (3300 sqm x 3m x 3 floors) 84. C
53. B (140 x 2) + (38.21 x 2) - 6 85. A
54. A (12 RROW) 86. B
55. B 87. B
88. C
DESIGN PROBLEM 3 89. C
90. C
56. D 91. C
57. A 92. B
58. A 93. B
59. B 94. C
60. D
61. C ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN
62. D
63. C 95. B
64. C 96. C
65. B 97. D
66. C 98. B
67. B 99. B
68. A 100. B
69. C

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : ARCHITECTURAL DESIGN AND COMMUNICATION

(Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Any new construction which increases the height or the area of an existing building
or structure?
a. Addition
b. Renovation
c. Conversion
d. Erection

2. Shall NOT precede the architectural design activity for the project?
a. Outline specifications
b. End-user identification
c. Architectural programming
d. Space planning

3. A 4 sqm wall is to be covered with tiles. If you will use 0.30m x 0.30m tiles. How
many tiles will be used?
a. 40
b. 44
c. 45
d. 50

4. Which paint color is NOT recommended for the exterior of a firewall?

a. Light gray to medium gray
b. Dark gray
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c. Black
d. Beige

DESIGN PROBLEM 1
A Proposed Hospital and Health Care

5. Select the grouping that has three basic criteria which architects must set forth in
the design of a hospital building
a. Aesthetics, stability and function
b. Aesthetics, function and utility
c.Function, stability and utility
d. None of these

6. Select the grouping of data belonging to the basic information needed in preparing a
NURSING UNIT flow diagram for the design of a Tertiary Hospital
a. Patient rooms; toilets; isolation room with toilet; nurses' station;
treatment, medication room w/ lavatory
b. Receiving& releasing area; pathological work area; sterilizing room;
sterile supply storage
c. Waiting area, toilet; admitting & records area; exam & treatment area w/
lavatory; consultation area
d. None of these

7. One of the methods of street parking for cars is called _____

a. Circular
b. Rectangular
c. Diagonal
d. None of these

8. This general design concept not only in healthcare but is consistently used as a rule
for good proportion, postulating that two lines or areas are visually most effective
together if the smaller is to the larger and the larger is to the whole refers to
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a. Golden mean
b. Scale
c. Human body
d. None of these

9. Select the grouping that relates to planning a Primary Clinical laboratory

a. Clinical Work Area with Lavatory/Sink; Pathologist area; Toilet
b. X-ray room with dressing area; Dark room; Film file & storage; Radiologist
room
c. Pharmacy; Clinical supply storage; Refrigerated storage
d. None of these

10. The clear floor area per bed for a hospital ward inclusive of space for
one bed, an occasional visitor and passage of equipment according to
DOH design guidelines is
a. 7.43 sq. meters
b. 8.40 sq. meters
c. 4.65 sq. meters
d. None of these

11. In traditional interior design work of health facilities, one can tell whether or
not a design fulfils its purpose thru reasoned judgment by undergoing the
process of
a. Human need as first cause, then material cause and technical cause
b. Pattern and model making
c. Principles of color combination
d. None of these

12. You are planning a 4-storey Medical Arts (Office) Building electrical layout whose
spaces will be rented to 80 doctors. The building will have its own administrative
office and staff. How many energy metering devices will you indicate in your
electrical plan/layout?
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a. 1 main, plus additional standby unit

b. 1 main, plus 4 sub-meters
c. 5 main, plus 20 sub-meters each floor
d. None of these

13. Heat gain through the walls in hospital nursing wards exposed to afternoon sun
intensifies discomfort of patients because of conductivity. However this can be
minimized by the use of
a. Combination of wood boards and plywood with cavity between
b. Thick reinforced concrete wall
c. Aluminum wall cladding
d. None of these

14. Select the grouping all elements of which relate to a site planning of a new
healthcare facility.
a. Site utilities, climate and people
b. Size of land, site boundaries and transportation
c. People, traditions and income
d. None of these

15. The minimum patio opening prescribed by the National Building Code is
a. 2.00 meters
b. 2.20 meters
c. 0.50 meters
d. None of these

16. A green-compliant dry wall used on non-sensitive hospital zones is customarily

finished with
a. Gypsum Impregnated paper
b. ½” Marine plywood
c. Hardiflex fiber-cement board
d. Homasote particle board
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17. In the design of the nursing units of hospital buildings, the factor (in square
meter) used for computing the patient wards (excluding toilet areas and corridors)
based on DOH Planning & Design Guidelines is _____.
a. 5.02/staff
b. 7.43/bed
c. 9.29/person
d. None of these

18. A climatic factor considered in the analysis of structural stability of disaster-

resistant hospital buildings
a. Precipitation
b. Gust
c. Earthquake
d. None of these

19. One of the site elements which possesses characteristics considered in therapeutic
planning and design because it relates to appearance, time, movement and space is
a. Natural landscape
b. Climate
c. Tradition
d. None of these

20. Wards shall observe segregation of sexes. Separate toilet shall be maintained for
patients and personnel, male and female, with a ratio of one (1) toilet for every
number of patients or personnel.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. None of these

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21. Select the grouping whose items constitute the basic elements of composition in
designing hospitals and other support structures of a healthcare facility
a. Mass, tradition and style
b. Balance, proportion and scale
c. Unity, uniformity and presentation
d. None of these

22. In the design of a column free hospital structure and other similarly structured
buildings, where unobstructed space planning is desired, the floor structure shall be
made of ______.
a. Pre-stressed beams and precast slabs
b. Cast-in-place post and lintel
c. Open web steel space frames
d. None of these

23. Select the grouping that best relates to green building hospital design.
a. Concrete pavements, open parking, cemented benches
b. Waste segregation, Air-conditioned interior spaces, CFL indoor lighting
c. Grey water collector tanks, photovoltaic glazing, White sloping roofs
d. None of these

24. Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated roof space may
show "pattern staining" on the ceiling. This can be prevented by _____.
a. Cleaning
b. Re-painting
c. Adequate insulation
d. None of these

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DESIGN PROBLEM 2

PROPOSED WET AND DRY MARKET

Market is a general term referring to a public place, building or structure where
commodities such as foodstuffs, wares and other merchandise may be bought or sold.
Wet Market – a market where most of the commodities for sale are readily perishable
goods.
Dry Market – a market where most of the merchandise displayed for sale are dry goods.

DESIGN OBJECTIVES:
To give an architectural design solution to a market place selling perishable and dry goods.
It must be able to handle influx of people buying different commodities. Receiving and
delivering supply of goods to merchants must highly be considered as well.

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SPACE REQUIREMENTS:
Parking for:
a. Customers (cars, motorcycles)
b. Receiving & Delivery (at most is 6 wheeler truck)

Administration Office
Clinic
Police Station
Public Toilets
Dry Market Section:
a. Chicboy Restaurant
b. Pan De Manila
c. NBS Store
d. Generica Drugstore
e. Kiosks (Dunkin Donut, Siomai House, Hongkong Noodles, Zagu)
f. Cellphone Repair Stores
g. DVD / VCD Store
h. Ladies / Men / Children Apparel Stores
i. Barber Shop / Salon
j. Pet Clinic
k. ETC.

Wet Market Section:

a. Meat Section
b. Fish Section
c. Vegetable Section
d. Fruit Section
e. Poultry/Rice Section
f. Canned/Dairy Products/Etc Section
g. Flower Section
h. Ice Section
i. ETC.
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QUESTIONS

25. What is main design consideration for Wet and Dry Market Project?
a. Aesthetic
b. Circulation
c. Security
d. None of these

26. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, what is the
open space requirement for a corner lot/through lot?
a. 10% of lot area
b. 15% of lot area
c. 20% of lot area
d. None of these

27. The building frame system usually used for Wet and Dry Market project. It is a
structural system relying on cantilevered column elements for lateral resistance.

a. Cantilevered Column Building System

b. Shear Wall-Frame Interactive System
c. Moment-Resisting Frame System
d. None of these
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28. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, what is the
ratio and proportion of parking slots for both tenant and customers for this project?
a. 2 slots per 50 sq. m shop floor area
b. 1 slot per 50 sq. m shop floor area
c. 1 slot per 100 sq. m shop floor area
d. None of these

29. With this site plan given, what is the percentage of buildable area from the whole
development?
a. 65%
b. 50%
c. 55%
d. None of these

30. What type of lot is this project?

a. Inside lot
b. Corner lot
c. Corner Through lot
d. None of these

31. Where is the receiving and delivery area most suitable to locate in this project?
a. North side
b. South side
c. West side
d. None of these

32. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, to which
group this project is belong?
a. Group A
b. Group C
c. Group C)
d. Group E)
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33. According to PD 1185: Fire code of the Philippines, which classification of

occupancy this project belongs?
a. Business
b. Mercantile
c. Industrial
d. None of these

34. According to BP344: Accessibility Law, The length of a ramp should not exceed
_____. If the gradient is 1:12; longer ramps whose gradient is 1:12 shall be
provided with landings not less than 1.50 m.
a. 3.00m
b. 5.00m
c. 6.00m
d. None of these

35. Another main design consideration for Wet and Dry Market project.
a. Ventilation
b. Sanitation
c. Accessibility
d. All of these

36. The usual ceiling type for this project.

a. Drop ceiling
b. Open ceiling
c. Decorative ceiling
d. None of these

37. What is the usual type of luminaire for Wet and Dry market open ceiling?
a. Recessed downlight
b. Pendant light
c. Floodlight
d. None of these
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DESIGN PROBLEM 3

PROPOSED EXCLUSIVE/ UPSCALE FAMILY COMPOUND PROJECT

Consisting of 135.0 Sq.M. and 150.0 Sq.M. Two and One-Half (2.5)-Storey to Three
(3.0)-Storey Single-Detached Residential Prototypes cum Site Planning Project on a site
having a four (4.0%) slope.

STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

A development company has decided that its four thousand two hundred thirty seven
point five square meter (4,237.5 Sq.M.) property located somewhere in the better parts of
Quezon City shall be developed to host an exclusive/ upscale family compound project.
The development concept involves the construction of several residential structures that
shall house related families i.e. families of siblings and the like, hence the use of the term
“family compound”. The development is intended to be secure, child/elderly/disabled-
friendly and shall be generally pedestrian-oriented.
The proposed residential buildings shall both be two (2.0)–storey exclusive/ upscale
developments, with a maximum total Gross Floor Area (TGFA) of approximately one
hundred and thirty five (135.0) Sq.M. (the Model 1 TGFA) or of approximately one hundred
fifty square meters (150.0) Sq.M. (the Model 2 TGFA). The TGFAs only refer to enclosed or
indoor floor areas above grade (or natural ground) level and excludes all other floor areas,
if these are to be introduced.
The 135.0 Sq.M. residence may be sited on a lot with a minimum Total Lot Area (TLA)
of approx. one hundred and seventy (170.0) Sq.M. (Model 1 TLA) while the 150.0 Sq.M.
residence may be sited on a lot with a maximum TLA of approx. two hundred and fifty
(250.0) Sq.M. (Model 2 TLA).
The open space and minimum parking requirements for the Project under the 2004
Revised Implementing Rules and Regulations (R-IRR) of the 1977 National Building Code
of the Philippines (NBCP, otherwise known as P.D. No. 1096), should be exceeded if
possible.
One of the consideration is property lines shall be defined by soft-scaping e.g. greenery
rather than by fences or perimeter walls.

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DESIGN OBJECTIVES:
a. To plan and design two (2.0) prototype exclusive/ upscale, low-rise single-detached
residential (R-1) buildings; and
b. To plan and design a closely-knit residential community that may serve as a model
and landmark in the Project area.

APPLICABLE DEVELOPMENT CONTROLS:

The following development controls apply to the Project site:
a. zoning classification is R-1 (single-detached residential land use only; absolutely no
firewalls allowed);
b. based on developer-imposed restrictions and partly based on the 1977 NBCP and
its 2004 R-IRR, the Project site has the following development limitations:
I. a desired Building Footprint of approximately forty percent (40.0%) of the TLA
in the case of the 135.0 Sq.M. residence (Model 1) and of approximately
twenty five percent (25.0%) of the TLA in the case of the 150.0 Sq.M. (Model
2); the desired setbacks at ground floor shall comply with the 2004 R-IRR of
the 1977 NBCP;
II. a Building Height Limit (BHL) of ten (10.0) m, measured from the appropriate
reckoning points at the service road (inside the Project site) or at the nearest
RROW.

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QUESTIONS

38. To which law this project will mostly constitute?

a. BP 220
b. BP 344
c. PD 957
d. None of these

39. What type of lot is this project?

a. Inside lot
b. Corner lot
c. Corner Through lot
d. None of these

40. What is the lot area for 135 sqm. residence?

a. 150 sqm.
b. 170 sqm.
c. 200 sqm.
d. None of these

41. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, what is the
minimum setback requirement for 150 sqm. lot?
a. 4.0 meters
b. 3.0 meter
c. 2.0 meters
d. None of these

42. What is standard size of a perpendicular parking slot as per PD 1096?

a. 2.40 m x 5.00 m
b. 2.00 m x 5.00 m
c. 3.00 m x 5.00 m
d. None of these
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43. What are the 2 proposed prototype residential projects here?

a. Low-rise single-detached residence
b. Low-rise single-attached residence
c. Exclusive row house
d. None of these

44. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, what is
minimum total area of a window or an opening for a room without artificial
ventilation?
a. 5% of floor area
b. 10% of floor area
c. 15% of floor area
d. None of these

45. According to BP 344, the minimum parking requirement for disabled person is __.

a. 2.40 m x 5.00 m
b. 3.00 m x 5.00 m
c. 3.70 m x 5.00 m
d. None of these

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46. According to the PD 1096: National Building code of the Philippines, the
maximum height or water closet should be ____.
a. 0.70m
b. 0.50m
c. 0.45m
d. None of these

47. According to the requirements, property line can be defined by:

a. 2.00 m high fence
b. Picket fences
c. Bushes
d. None of these

48. What are the main considerations of this project?

a. Security
b. Accessibility
c. Pedestrian oriented
d. All of these

49. What is a desired Building Footprint of approximately forty percent (40.0%) of the
TLA in the case of the 135.0 Sq.M. residence (Model 1)?
a. 50 sqm.
b. 54 sqm.
c. 60 sqm.
d. None of these

50. What is the flow pattern of residential project?

a. Foyer, Receiving area, Powder room, Dining, Kitchen, Toilet, Bedroom
b. Entrance gate, Garage, Porch, Living area, Dining, Kitchen, Toilet, Bedroom
c. Back door, Dirty Kitchen, Dining, Living, Toilet, Bedrooms
d. None of these

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51. What is the minimum lot frontage for a corner lot Single Attached as per PD 957?
a. 12.00 meters
b. 10.00 meters
c. 3.00 meters
d. None of these

52. What is the Road Right or Way (ROW) for the Minor road of PD 957?
a. 12 meters
b. 10 meters
c. 6 meters
d. None of these

53. Does this project require parks and playgrounds according to PD 957?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. None of these

54. Can any of the houses build in this project provide firewalls?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. None of these

55. What are non-saleable areas according to PD 957?

a. Parks and playgrounds
b. Community facilities
c. Circulation system
d. All of these

56. What is the percentage of saleable area in subdivision according to PD 957?

a. 70%
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b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 80%

57. What is the minimum lot area for “medium cost” single detached as per PD 957?
a. 50 sqm.
b. 80 sqm.
c. 100 sqm.
d. None of these

58. According to PD 1096, what is the minimum height for second floor with artificial
ventilation?

a. 2.70m
b. 2.50m
c. 2.40m
d. 1.80m

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59. This is a lot located at the inner portion of a block with a minimum of three meter
(3-m) wide access which forms part of the lot.
a. Corner lot
b. Regular lot
c. Interior lot
d. Through lot

60. What is the minimum space requirement for kitchen as per the National Building
Code of the Philippines (PD 1096)?

a. 6.00 sqm.
b. 3.00 sqm.
c. 1.20 sqm.
d. None of these

61. A dwelling type that is completely surrounded by yards.

a. Rowhouse
b. Duplex
c. Single attached
d. Single detached

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62. What is the building height limit for this project?

a. 15m
b. 10m
c. 7m
d. None of these

63. If the client adds 2 meters spires in his roof, does he violate the height restrictions
of the project?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. None of these

64. What is the ideal height of kitchen counter for Filipino houses?
a. 0.90m
b. 0.80m
c. 0.60m
d. None of these

65. What is the minimum TLA for the 135 sqm. model residence for this project?
a. 150 sqm.
b. 170 sqm.
c. 250 sqm.
d. None of these

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DESIGN PROBLEM 4

A PROPOSED MEDIUM-RISE NATIONAL GOVERNMENT OFFICE PROJECT

Development with Basement, Podium (optional parking) and Tower components.

STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

A National Government-Owned and Controlled Corporation (GOCC) has decided that
its two thousand square meter (2,000.0 sqm) property located somewhere in Quezon City
shall host a medium-rise office building (the “Project”) to serve as their headquarters.
The following spatial provisions (as expressed in Gross Floor Area/ GFA per head) shall
apply for the one hundred seventy (170.0) permanent rank and file staff who shall populate
the new head office:
1. Board Offices/ Floor:
a. forty square meters (40.0 SqM) for the Chairman of the Board and his immediate
staff (2.0 persons); and
b. twenty (20.0) SqM each for the twelve (12.0) Directors, the Corporate Secretary and
their immediate staff (1.0 person);
2. Executive Offices/ Floor:
a. fifty (50.0) SqM for the President and his immediate staff (3.0 persons);
b. thirty square meters (30.0 SqM) for the Executive Vice President (EVP) and his
immediate staff (2.0 persons); and
c. twenty five (25.0) SqM each for the two (2.0) Senior Vice Presidents (SVPs) and
their immediate staff (1.0 person); the two (2.0) SVPs each handle three (3.0)
departments headed by Vice Presidents (VPs).
3. General Offices/ Floors:
a. twenty (20.0) SqM each for the six (6.0) VPs and their immediate staff (1.0 person);
these offices are to be located close to their respective departments; the VPs each
have one (1.0) Assistant Vice President (AVP) under them;
b. fifteen (15.0) SqM each for the six (6.0) AVPs and their immediate staff (1.0 person);
these offices are to be located close to their respective departments/ VPs; the AVPs
each have two (2.0) Division Chiefs (DCs) under them;

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c. ten (10.0) SqM each for the twelve (12.0) DCs and their immediate staff (1.0
person); these offices are to be located close to their respective departments/ AVPs;
each DC has one (1.0) Senior Officer (SO) reporting to them;
d. seven point five (7.5) SqM each for the twelve (12.0) SOs; each SO supervises a
permanent staff complement of five (5.0) persons, excluding contractual/outsourced
employees who perform general/courier/driver, maintenance, security or related
functions for the GOCC; and
e. five (5.0) SqM each for the seventy two (72.0) permanent staff.

There is a legislated Building Height Limit (BHL) for the property at forty five meters
(45.0 m). The GOCC also expects the personnel complement (excluding
contracted/outsourced staff) to double in ten to fifteen (10.0 - 15.0) years so that there is
definite need to plan for flexibility/ future need/s. Since, the GOCC cannot fully occupy the
building in the meantime (and since there is need to derive income from all sources), the
generated spaces shall be leased/rented to other end-users. However, there is absolute
need to cluster such leaseable/rentable spaces to avoid operational and attendant
safety/security problems.

DESIGN OBJECTIVES:
a. To design a GOCC head office building that shall be expressive of the national
government’s desire to render excellent public service.
b. To design the building in a way that can maximize space for the agency; the ratio of
office versus non-office spaces shall be as follows:
1. seventy percent (70.0%) of the GFA per floor shall consist of office areas;
2. the remaining thirty (30.0)% GFA per floor shall consist of common use areas such
as elevator lobbies, utility rooms, stairs, fire exits and the like; and
3. the overall usable office areas for the building shall be at approximately sixty five
(65.0)% of the Total Gross Floor Area (TGFA).
c. To design a building that shall serve as a national landmark in the general area where
it shall be sited.

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DESIGN CONSIDERATIONS:
a. Function and efficiency;
b. Vertical and horizontal circulation patterns;
c. Architectural character and form;
d. Aesthetics and landmark quality;
e. Solar, wind, noise, odor and view orientations;
f. Amenities, Facilities, Services and Utilities (AFSU) introduced;
g. Security and Safety Features;
h. Compliance with prevailing laws on condominium development, the NBCP, the Fire
Code and the Accessibility Law;
i. two (2.0) elevators with clear car sizes measuring 1.35 meters (m) x 1.60 m; a third
unit shall serve as the service elevator;
j. natural and artificial ventilation where applicable; and
k. building’s exterior shall be along modern lines/styles fused with select Filipino design
elements.

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QUESTIONS

66. What is total area per person at Chairman of the Board office?
a. 40.0 sq.m.
b. 13.33 sq.m.
c. 15.0 sq.m
d. None of these

67. What is the office dimension for each VP’s and their immediate staff?
a. 5m x 5m
b. 6m x 6m
c. 4m x 5m
d. 4m x 4m

68. What is the total office area for the 72 permanent staff?
a. 360 sq.m.
b. 100 sq.m
c. 120 sq.m.
d. 500 sq.m.

69. What is maximum height of the building they can construct?

a. 45.50m
b. 50m
c. 38m
d. None of these

70. If the Total Gross Floor Area is 30,000 sq.m. What is the overall usable office
area for the building?
a. 18,000 sq.m.
b. 19,500 sq.m.
c. 25,000 sq.m
d. None of these

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71. Which of the following is not part of the building design considerations?
a. Surveillance cameras
b. Sun path
c. Amihan and Habagat
d. None of these

72. What is the perimeter length of the site?

a. 180 meters
b. 150 meters
c. 2,000 meters
d. None of these

73. How many elevators must be installed in the building?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None of these

74. Part of this medium-rise government building design requirements, the exterior
wall will be designed with the following:
a. Wave and sail concept
b. Cloud and wind concept
c. Thin vertical lines
d. None of these

75. Elevator areas and fire exits will be part of how many percent of the GFA per
floor?
a. 70%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. None of these

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76. What is the Minimum size of rooms and their least horizontal dimensions as per
the National Building Code (PD 1096)
a. Room for human habitation is 6.00 sq.m,. with a least dimension of 2.00 m.
b. Room for human habitation is 3.00 sq.m,. with a least dimension of 1.50 m.
c. Room for human habitation is 5.00 sq.m,. with a least dimension of 2.50 m.
d. None of these

77. According to the PD 1185: Fire Code of the Philippines, what is the maximum
travel distance of one office unit to the fire exit?
a. 45 meters
b. 25 meters
c. 15 meters
d. None of these

78. According to BP 344: Accessibility Law, what is the maximum ramp gradient of
inclination for offices, so that handicap can easily roll on the ramp?
a. 1:10
b. 1:12
c. 1:15
d. None of these

79. According to PD 1096: National Building Code of the Philippines, what is the
minimum horizontal projection of balconies and appendages for a 35m high
building?
a. 0.60m
b. 1.00m
c. 1.50m
d. None of these

80. General offices will become well ventilated and catch more daylight if these areas
are in ______.
a. Close office arrangement
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b. Open office arrangement

c. 1.5m high Cubicle arrangement
d. None of these

81. As per the National Building Code (PD1096). This project is under which group?
a. Group A : Residential Dwellings
b. Group C : Education and Recreation (Institutional)
c. Group C : Government and Health Services (Institutional)
d. Group E : Business and Mercantile (Commercial)

82. What is minimum requirement in Air Changes for an office space?

a. not < 3 changes of air per hour
b. not < 10 changes of air per hour
c. not < 0.30 cu.m of air per minute
d. None of these

83. As per the National Building Code (PD1096). What is the unit area per occupant
in offices?

a. 2.8 sqm.
b. 5.5 sqm.
c. 9.3 sqm.
d. None of these

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84. As per the National Building Code (PD1096). The width of aisle must not less
than ________ if serving both sides.
a. 800mm
b. 1.00m
c. 1.10m
d. None of these

85. As per the National Building Code (PD1096). What is the parking requirement for
a government office building?
a. 1 slot/125 sqm. of gross floor area
b. 1 slot/20 sqm. of gross floor area
c. 1 slot/50 sqm. of gross floor area
d. None of these

86. For Commercial 3 (C3), what is the Angle from Centerline of RROW (degrees) if
the width of Road Right-of-Way (RROW) is 14.00 meters?

a. 39.00 deg
b. 65.50 deg
c. 71.00 deg
d. None of these
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DESIGN PROBLEM 4

AN OFW-INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT

STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM:

In response to the demand for the dispersion of airport facilities to service the
growing number of OFW’s who have already earned the status of being the country’s top
export industry, the biggest dollar-earners. As such, the Department of Transportation and
Communications and the Department of Finance saw it fit to honor the OFW’s with a facility
that will bear not only their sector but also provide them with the greatest convenience in
their travel to and from the place of work.

Such is the OFW-International Airport, a terminal that will service international flights
of at least 6 airlines currently operating in the Philippines, with room for 4 more in the next
five years.

The facility shall bear not only all the minimum amenities required in a standard
international airport, but also provide special features peculiar to the travel-style of the
Overseas Filipino Workers, in particular, and the Filipinos in general.

BUILDING REQUIREMENTS:
1. SECURITY SYSTEMS
2. MEDICAL AND FIRST AID CENTERS
3. NURSERY ROOMS AND BREASTFEEDING STATIONS
4. CONVENIENT ACCESS SYSTEMS including automated doors, sufficiently wide
escalators, moving sidewalks and other similar devices
5. INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE SYSTEMS using glyphs in lieu of bilingual
messages
6. TELEPHONE COMMUNICATION CENTER with interpreter services
7. AMENITIES such as:
e. Bank, Money Exchange, Automated Teller
f. Business Center, Internet Centers, Fax Facilities
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g. Camera Shop, Photo Developing, Instant Photo shops

h. Car-Rental Agencies
i. Cocktail Lounge
j. Drug Store, Mini-Grocery Store, Newsstand
k. Duty Free Shops
l. Food Shops, Cafeteria, Employee Cafeteria
m. Hotel Information Center
n. Passenger Assistance Counter
o. Rental Lockers Area
p. Rest Rooms with Diaper Changing Facilities
q. Smoking Rooms
r. Souvenir Shops, Gift/Pasalubong Shops, Flower Shops
s. Telephone Booths, Paging Counters
t. Television Lounges
u. Travel Insurance Office
v. VIP Lounge
8. INTERNATIONAL COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM between airlines, operating
authority and police security

QUESTIONS

87. The above project requires for what kind of airport?

a. Domestic Airport
b. International Airport
c. Intercontinental Airport
d. None of these

88. Which of the following does not belong to airport space requirements?
a. Immigration counter
b. Baggage claim
c. Departure lounge
d. None of these
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89. This is the area where the passports of the passengers are collected for inspection.
Usually the government officials are held responsible for this post.
a. Check-in counters
b. Baggage claim
c. Immigration counter
d. Departure lounge

90. This is the passenger loading system which is done from one-storey terminal to
aircraft. This is still being practiced in many small airports today.
a. Single-level loading
b. Two-level loading
c. Rotating jetway
d. None of these

91. Identify what is the image below:

a. Check-in counters
b. Baggage claim area
c. Baggage conveyor
d. Departure escalator

92. The architect who design the Manila International Airport or NAIA Terminal 1.
a. Felipe Marcelo Mendoza
b. Leandro V. Locsin
c. William E. Parsons
d. Felix Arroyo Roxas

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93. Identify this flow diagram

Pre-departure Lounge

Inspection

Airline Check-in Counters

Check-in (tickets and baggage)

Inspection

Curbside

a. Domestic enplaning passenger flow

b. Domestic deplaning passenger flow
c. International enplaning passenger flow
d. International deplaning passenger flow

94. Which of the following is not a type of passenger loading system?

a. Single-level loading
b. Two-level loading
c. Rotating jetway
d. None of these

95. This is the area where the passengers are waiting to set off the airplane.
a. Check-in counter
b. Immigration counter
c. Baggage claim
d. Boarding lounge

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96. In this concept, aircraft are parked along the face of the terminal building.
Concourses connect the various terminal functions with the aircraft positions. It offers
ease of access and relatively short walking distances if passengers are delivered to a
point near gate departure by vehicular circulation systems. Expansion may be
accomplished by linear extension of an existing structure.

a. Simple Terminal Concept

b. Linear Terminal Concept
c. Pier Terminal Concept
d. Satellite Terminal Concept

97. This is the passenger loading system which is done from From 2nd floor of
terminal, passengers walk down a flight of stairs, walk across the apron to the
aircraft. This system makes room for future use of jetways.

a. Single-level loading
b. Two-level loading
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c. Rotating jetway
d. None of these

98. In order to size a baggage claim area, the following information are required:

a. The number of passengers and the amount of baggage that will be claimed
within the peak condition;
b. The type of claiming device and its physical size, capacity and its linear meter
frontage.
c. The desired type of operation and the degree of security required by the
airline or the authority.
d. All of these

99. Baggage claim area can be found in which part of the airport?
a. Departure
b. Arrival
c. Boarding
d. Duty Free

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100. In this concept, the aircraft are usually arranged around the axis of the pier in
a parallel or perpendicular fashion. Each pier has a row of gates on both sides,
passenger right-of-way runs along the pier axis for both enplaning and deplaning
passengers.

a. Simple Terminal Concept

b. Linear Terminal Concept
c. Pier Terminal Concept
d. Satellite Terminal Concept

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Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

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32. D 67. C
ANSWER KEY: 33. B 68. A
34. C 69. C
1. A 35. D 70. B
2. B 36. B 71. D
3. C 37. B 72. A
4. D 38. C 73. B
5. A 39. B 74. C
6. A 40. A 75. B
7. C 41. C 76. A
8. A 42. A 77. C
9. A 43. A 78. B
10. A 44. B 79. C
11. A 45. C 80. B
12. C 46. C 81. D
13. A 47. C 82. A
14. A 48. D 83. C
15. C 49. B 84. B
16. D - made from 50. B 85. A
recycled papers 51. A 86. B
17. B 52. B 87. B
18. B 53. B 88. D
19. A 54. A 89. C
20. C 55. D 90. A
21. B 56. A 91. C
22. A 57. C 92. B
23. C 58. C 93. A
24. C 59. C 94. D
25. B 60. B 95. D
26. A 61. D 96. B
27. A 62. B 97. B
28. B 63. A 98. D
29. A 64. B 99. B
30. C 65. B 100. C
31. A 66. B

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A wall or laterally braced, that bears against an earth or other fill surface and resists
lateral and other forces.
A. Foundation Wall
B. Footing
C. Retaining Wall
D. Gravity Wall

2. The image below shows the connection detail of a ceiling on metal ceiling joist. What
alternative fastening material can be used for installation other than metal screws?

A. 1/4” x 3/8” aluminum rivets C. 3/16” x 1/2” aluminum blind rivets

B. 3/16” x 1/2” copper rivets D. 1/4” x 3/8” GI rivets

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3. It refers to a piece of timber of cylindrical, square or other geometrical cross section

placed vertically to support a building.
A. Post
B. Column
C. Storey
D. Lintel

4. It is a combination of concrete and steel.

A. Precast
B. Prestressed
C. Reinforce Concrete
D. CHB

5. A very finely ground Portland cement having an increased content of tricalcium silicate,
causing it to cure faster and gain strength earlier than normal Portland cement: used when
the early removal of formwork is desired, or in cold-weather construction to reduce the time.
A. Type I – Normal
B. Type III – High Early Strength
C. Air-entraining Portland Cement
D. Type II - Moderate

6. It is used for waterproofing.

A. Glue
B. Vinyl
C. Sahara
D. Asbestos

7. What is the capacity of Dump Truck?

A. 2.3 cum.
B. 8.10 cum
C. 14.20 cum.
D. 28.30 cum.

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8. In prestressed concrete, temporary force exerted by device that introduces tension into
prestressing tendons.
A. Jacking Force
B. Diaphragm
C. Braced Frame
D. P-delta Effect

9. A tie rod system of steel scaffold as shown below comprises parts of it to work
effectively. Which among the following DOES NOT comprise the system?

A. Swivel pipe clamp

B. Pin valve
C. Thrust plate
D. Bolt and wing nut

10. Stress remaining in prestressing tendons after all losses have occurred, excluding
effects of dead load and superimposed loads.
A. Compressive stress
B. Effective Prestress

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C. Curvature friction
D. Resisting Space Frame

11. Below shows a glass block panel construction. Glass blocks are spaced in between in
each other at an average of 7/16” gap to accept reinforcement and binder. What kind of
inexpensive reinforcement is used?

A. #16 expanded metal lath

B. #10 4” x 4” welded wire
C. 6mm diameter steel reinforcement
D. Schedule 20 SS pipe

12. This is one of the methods of soil testing which are useful when foundation is not
expected to extend deeper that about 8 feet which is the maximum practical reach of small
excavation machine.
A. Test Boring
B. Digging test pits
C. Pile driving
D. Casting

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13. A system of measurement when utilizing modular system of construction and

technology.

A. Modular co-ordination
B. Measuring metric scale
C. Modular scale
D. The modulor

14. True or False Question: The procedures and limitations for the design of structures
shall be determined by the following factors. Zoning, site characteristics Occupancy,
configuring structural system, and height.
A. True
B. False
C. None of these

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D. All of these

15. Brick plaqueta is installed on to a scratch coat of a masonry wall by use of evenly
distributed of what adhesive?

A. thin layer of SCR epoxy

B. 3/4” thick concrete
C. 3/4” thick cement grout
D. 3/8” thick cement tile adhesive

16. An essentially vertical truss system of the concentric or eccentric type which is
provided to resist lateral forces.
A. Braced Frame
B. Space Frame
C. Post
D. Column

17. It is commonly used for vertical line check.

A. Spirit level
B. Plumb bob
C. Plastic hose
D. Sheet piling

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18. Below image shows a concrete roof tile with its tile accessories and its corresponding
location. Identify tile with mark letter B.

A. Transluscent tile
B. Down end tile
C. 3-way apex
D. Ridge end tile

19. True/False question: The period of continuous application of a given load or the
aggregate of periods of intermittent application of the same load. Base Shear, V
A. True
B. False. It should be Load duration
C. None of these
D. All of these

20. Concrete mixture usually used for Slabs on fill and non-load bearing wall or 4” CHB.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

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21. New construction technology changes the perspective in concrete floor system by
developing a cost-effective, fast installation, light-weight and equal, if not stronger, system.
Such development virtually changes the perspective in conventional slab construction.
The construction method of this new development in floor system now in the Philippine
market under a patented trade name as manufactured by Jackbilt. The system utilizes
prefabricated load-bearing floor segments, filler blocks or collapsible forms, welded wire
and concrete topping. What is this floor system?
A. Prestress concrete T-beam floor system
B. Spandeck inverted T-joist system
C. Spandeck T-floor system
D. Span stress concrete T-joists floor system

22. A type of a decorative and translucent glass with figures on one face. In addition to
diffusing light and obstructing visibility from the outside, it soften the interior lighting.
A. Figured wired glass
B. Laminated glass
C. Bevel grind glass
D. Clear plate glass

23. The door lock as shown below is vital security features. Door locks comes in many
knob designs, locking mechanism and installation procedure. It is the safest door lock,
thus recommended for main entry doors. What lock
type is this lockset?
A. Lever set
B. Dead bolt lock
C. Mortise lockset
D. Tubular lockset

24. Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM standards and must be well-graded,
easily workable and the methods of consolidation are such that the concrete can be

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poured without honeycomb or void. What is the nominal maximum size of a course
aggregate when working with depth of slabs for concreting?

A. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/4 the depth of the slab under
consideration
B. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/6 the depth of the slab under
consideration
C. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/5 the depth of the slab under
consideration
D. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/3 the depth of the slab under
consideration

25. A decorative coating or finish designed to be used over bare wood to enhance the
natural grain of the wood or over a light stain.
A. Finishing oil
B. White clear gloss lacquer
C. Oil wood stain
D. Lacquer sanding sealer

26. A hardened-steel nail that has a flat countersunk head and a tapered point.
A. Concrete screw
B. Teks screw
C. Concrete nail
D. Screw with expansion plug

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27. A type of mortise and tenon wood construction joint where the tongue and groove
meets half-way making the connection clean of joint traces.

A. Ship or open
B. Through
C. Keyed
D. Blind and stub

28. In a typical load-bearing concrete block modular

construction, different blocks of different but modularized
shapes are specifically for a particular purpose and location.
Identify concrete block in the image beside.
A. Cored block
B. Solid block
C. Corner return block
D. Corner block

29. Installation of Piedra tiles over mortar bed is

through the use of ___.
A. Uniform 10mm thick cement mortar
B. Uniform 10mm thick cement grout
C. Uniform 10mm thick pure cement with
flexible synthetic mortar additive
D. Uniform 10mm thick cement plaster

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30. What is the vertical location of a ground surface often use as a reference point with
respect to vertical height?
A. Batter board
B. Bench mark
C. Elevation
D. Grade

31. Below image are different types of door closer. Which is a concealed door closer,
which maybe used for fire doors?

1 2 3

4 5 6

A. No. 1
B. No. 4
C. No. 6
D. No. 3

32. Who is a tradesman who works with concrete by placing, finishing, protecting and
repairing concrete in engineering and construction projects?
A. Rough mason
B. Concrete finisher
C. Finishing mason
D. Hollow block finisher

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33. Layout is sometimes called ______ which

means the process of relocating the point of
boundaries and property line of the site
where the building is to be constructed.
A. Staking out
B. Battering
C. Laying out
D. Setting out

34. What is the curing period for removal of forms in beams bottom with 14 ft. long?
A. 14 to 20 days
B. 14 to 28 days
C. 1 day
D. 1 week

35. A kind of masonry finish also referred to as exposed aggregate finish. It consists of a
70% selected pebble and 30% cement mix. The pebbles selection varies in size, shapes
and colour. Advantage over tile finishing: ability to adopt curved seamless finish.

A. Chisel finish
B. Synthetic adobe finish
C. Pebble washout finish
D. Corduroy or tool finish

36. A system of mass production and industrialization by prefabrication of cabinets and

furniture. This system is gaining popularity and acceptance in the Philippine market
especially among builders and homeowners who are conscious of time and quality.
A. Modular system
B. Conventional system
C. Modulor
D. Modular co-ordination

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37. Figure 2-26 shows a Spanish clay tile roof typical installation with its tile accessories
and its corresponding location. Identify Spanish Clay Tile labeled S-1.

S-1

A. Ridge clay tile

B. Ridge end right clay tile
C. End band
D. Ridge end left clay tile

38. Construction term for Kitchen Sink.

A. Eskombro
B. Prigadero
C. Bashida
D. Hulog

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39. Looking at the table below: If I want to have Class A mixture, how many bags of 40kg
cement should be used in my 2 cu.m sand?
A. 18 bags
B. 14.5 bags
C. 12 bags
D. 36 bags

40. New construction technology changes the perspective in concrete floor system by
developing a cost-effective, fast installation, light-weight and equal if not stronger system.
With the development of pre-stressed concrete, architects were able to have free spans
giving versatility in architectural design layouts. Such development virtually changes the
perspective in conventional construction. The image below shows the wires after post-
tensioning. In post-tensioning one end is a stressing anchor while the other is fixed end
anchor. This is the example of stressing anchor. What basically comprises a stressing
anchor?

A. Bearing plate, bolt holes, bolts and shims

B. Spread plate, keeper plate, shims and bolts
C. Button head, bolts, wires and keeper plate
D. Shims, bearing plate, stressing washer and button head

41. Otherwise known as the angular mass or rotational inertia, of a rigid body is a tensor
that determines the torque needed for a desired angular acceleration about a rotational axis.
A. Moment of inertia
B. Point of inflection
C. Magnitude
D. Point of deflection

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42. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called:

A. Joist
B. Girder
C. Bridging
D. Girt

43. What is a type of wood end joint where both wood are cut at equal angles diagonally?

A. Plain miter
B. Lap
C. Scarf
D. Finger

44. A material used to seal joints or seams against leakage in various structures and
piping.
A. Polymer
B. Caulking
C. Tile grout
D. Concrete tile adhesive (CTA)

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45. A wall which support vertical loads in addition to its weight without the benefit of a
complete vertical load carrying space frame is called:

A. Retaining wall
B. Curtain wall
C. Shearing wall
D. Bearing wall

46. An engineered wood product made by breaking down hardwood or softwood residuals
into wood fibres combining with wax and a resin binder, and forming panels by
applying high temperature & pressure. It is generally denser than plywood.
A. Plyboard
B. Plywood
C. Gypsum boards
D. Medium density fiber boards

47. It also known as modulus of rupture, or bend strength, or transverse rupture strength is
a material property, defined as the stress in a material just before it yields in a flexure test.
A. Flexural stress
B. Punching moment
C. Punching shear
D. Single shear

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48. The image below illustrates an air-conditioning duct wrapped with insulation. Here
shows the location of the insulation butt joint. How and what type of strap is used to insure
that no air gap is left between the air duct and the insulation?

A. Ga. 40mm x 50 mm galvanized steel strap seamed locked at 600 mm centers with
galvanized angles under straps to protect corners
B. Ga. 26 tie wires strapped at 600 mm center
C. 75mm wide pressure sensitive aluminized duct tape strapped at 600 mm centers
D. 100 mm wide pressure sensitive rubber tape strapped at 600 mm centers

49. A wood work equipment to form the

different wood mouldings for balusters and
newel posts.

A. Wood lathe machine or “torno”

B. Jig saw
C. Planer
D. Band saw

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50. Consist of equally spaced ribs, usually supported directly by columns. They are either
one-way spanning systems or a two-way system known as a waffle slab.
A. 2-way slab
B. Flat slab
C. One-way slab
D. Ribbed floor

51. See image beside, it is customary to

securely join the steel deck and the rebars.
What method is recommended by
manufacturers to join the steel deck and the
rebars?
A. Seam locking
B. Tie with #16 tie wires
C. Welding
D. Riveting

52. In joist construction, consisting of monolithic combination of regularly spaced ribs and a
top slab, the ribs shall not be less than 100mm in width and shall have depth of not more
than ____ times the minimum width of rib.
A. 2
B. 2 ½
C. 3
D. 3 ½

53. Again, for joist construction, the clear

spacing between ribs shall not exceed
_____.
A. 250mm
B. 50mm
C. 750mm
D. 1000mm

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54. Which of the following criterion precludes good construction practice for pipes and
conduits embedded in concrete?
A. Pipes and fittings shall be designed to resist effects of the material, pressure and
temperature to which they will be subjected.
B. Conduits, pipes and sleeves passing through slab, wall or beam shall not impair
significantly the strength of construction.
C. Aluminum pipes and conduits at reinforced concrete shall be secured at steel
reinforcing bars by tie wires.
D. Conduits, pipes and sleeves shall be permitted to be considered as replacing
structurally in compression the displaced concrete provided that they are not
exposed to rust

55. A quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to being revolved about line is
called:

A. Tension
B. Torsion
C. Variation
D. Deflection

56. Excavation under this category are those construction having independent footing and
hollow block wall footing where the digging of the soil for the footing extend to a depth
from 1.00 to 1.50 meter and about half a meter depth for the wall footing.
A. Minor excavation
B. Major excavation
C. Piling
D. Footing

57. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices of 48db, but not less than
A. 600mm
B. 500mm

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C. 400mm
D. 300mm

58. A lock which is set within the body of a door in a recess or mortise, as opposed to one
attached to the door surface.
A. Barrel bolt lock
B. Cylindrical lock
C. Mortise lock
D. Dead bolt lock

59. When a foundation bed is too weak to support a raft footing, there is an urgent need to
provide suitable materials where to transfer the excess load to a greater depth wherein
pile is the answer.

A. Foundation bed
B. Pile foundation
C. Deep foundation
D. Foundation wall

60. See image below: A 2” x 7” gauge 16 steel Z-purlin is used on a steel truss with a roof
inclination of 20 degrees. The common construction problem during purlin installation is

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the high probability of the purlins to deflect or bend down about the minro Y-Y axis as a
result of its own dead weight and live load. What structural member in the steel truss-
framing counter-acts these forces in compression?

A. Purlin cross brace

B. Purlin sag rods
C. Purlin struts
D. Purlin cleats

61. Concrete slab should have a minimum clearance of:

A. 20mm
B. 40mm
C. 15mm
D. 30mm

62. A standard 90 degree hook consists of a bend plus an extension of

A. 8db
B. 10db
C. 12db
D. 16db

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63. An acrylic solvent based primer specially formulated for concrete and wood surfaces. It
promotes better adhesion to substrate being painted thus, providing solid foundation for
succeeding finished coats.
A. Clear gloss acrylic emulsion
B. Polyurethance floor coating
C. Crystalliser
D. Liquid tile coat

64. It is a fabricated steel pipe provided

with a flat steel bars or plate which hold a
girder, girts or beam. The steel pipe is
sometimes filled with grout or concrete for
corrosion.
A. Combined columns
B. Spiral column
C. Lally column
D. Tied column

65. The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it is called:

A. Strength
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Deflection

66. When freshly mixed concrete is checked to ensure that the specified slump is being
attained consistently. A standard slump cone is 12 inches high (0.30) and 8 inches (o.20)
in diameter at the bottom and 4 inches (o.10) on top which is open on both ends.
A. Sump test
B. Slump test
C. Concrete test
D. Deflection test

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67. What is the method where steel is first tensioned in a frame or between anchorages
external to the member? The concrete is then cast around it.
A. Freyssinet
B. Prestressed concrete
C. Pretensioning
D. Post-tensioning

68. What is the minimum concrete cover for bars 20mm (no. 6) and larger for shells and
folded plate members for cast-in-place concrete but not exposed to the earth?
A. 30 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm

69. Given image below, what type of weld is this?

A. Flare weld
B. Partial penetration groove weld
C. Fillet weld
D. Slot weld

70. A standard hook may consist of a 180 deg. Bend plus a 4db extension (at the free end)
not less than
A. 55mm
B. 60mm
C. 75mm
D. 85mm

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71. What are the difference between a Storey and a Level:

A. Storey – super structure only
B. Level - super structure and sub-structure
C. Storey and level are both super structure and sub-structure
D. A and B only

72. Inside diameter of bend for stirrups and ties for 16mm bar and smaller shall not
be less than _____.
A. 4db
B. 6db
C. 8db
D. 10db

73. The image shows a standard bottom edge of

a metal door. What is the purpose of the inverted
channel shaped bottom edge profile?
A. For economy
B. Space intended to accept the installation of
floor spring
C. Accepts adjustment resulting from future
change of floor elevation
D. Space intended to install a concealed door closer

74. As tie reinforcements for compression, all non-pre-stressed bars shall be

enclosed by lateral ties, at least 10mm in size for longitudinal bars, 32mm or smaller,
and at least ________ in size for 36mm and bundled longitudinal bars.
A. 12mm
B. 15mm
C. 20mm
D. 22mm

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75. An instrument or tool capable of vertical and horizontal line check.

A. Spirit level
B. Plumb bob
C. Sheet piling
D. Plastic hose with water

76. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer shall be db but not
less than ____.
A. 20mm

B. 25mm

C. 40mm

D. 50mm

77. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act
as a unit shall be limited to a maximum of
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

78. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in the upper
layers shall be placed directly above bars in the bottom layer with clear distance
between layers not less than _____.
A. 20mm
B. 25mm
C. 30mm
D. 40mm

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79. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement

compression members, clear distance between
longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not less than 40mm
nor _____.
A. 1.5db
B. 2.0db
C. 5.0 db
D. 1.0db

80. Which of the following is not part of the 3 major parts of a building?
A. Foundation
B. Substructure
C. Superstructure
D. None of these

81. It is non-structural wall which can be made of lightweight materials.

A. Bearing wall
B. Curtain wall
C. Grade wall
D. Shear wall

82. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties but bars larger than the size
below shall not be bundled in beams
A. 40mm
B. 36mm
C. 32mm
D. 28mm

83. A joint that makes allowance for thermal expansion of the parts joined without
distortion.
A. Truss joint

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B. Contraction joint
C. Construction joint
D. Expansion joint

84. Depth of footing above bottom reinforcement shall not less than 150mm for
footing on soil, nor less than ______ for footing on piles.

A. 200mm
B. 250mm
C. 300mm
D. 400mm

85. Class C concrete has a mixture of:

A. 1: 2: 4
B. 1: 3: 6
C. 1: 1.5: 3
D. 1: 2.5: 5

86. Slab thickness for joist construction shall be neither less than one-twelfth the
clear distance between ribs nor less than ____.
A. 50mm
B. 75mm
C. 100mm
D. 125mm

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87. In T-beam construction, the flange and web design being built integrally, the
width of the slab effective as T-beam flange shall both exceed one quarter of the span
length of the beam and the effective overhanging flange width on each side of the web
shall not exceed:
A. Eight times the slab thickness
C. Smaller of the above
B. One-half the clear distance to the next web
D. 500mm

88. For beam with a slab on one side only, the effective overhanging flange width
shall not exceed:

A. One-twelfth the span length of the beam

C. One-half the clear distance to the next web
B. Six-times the slab thickness
D. Any of the above

89. The curing period of concrete for normal.

A. 7 days
B. 28 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days

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90. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the horizontal support at offset bends shall be
provided by lateral ties, spiral or parts of the floor construction. Horizontal support
provided shall be designed to resist 1 1/2 times the horizontal component of the
computed force in the inclined portion of on offset bar. Lateral ties or spiral shall be
place not more than _____ from points of bend.
A. 100mm
B. 150mm
C. 200mm
D. 250mm

91. What is the curing

period of concrete for ready-
mixed concrete?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. All of the above

92. The minimum thickness of non-pre-stressed beams of span L whose supports

are simply supported is __.
A. L/16
B. L/18.50
C. L/21
D. L/8

93. The section at which the moment

changes from positive to negative is
called:
A. Neutral axis
B. Point of zero shear

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C. Inflection point
D. Maximum moment

94. What is the capacity of elf truck?

A. 2.0 cu.m
B. 2.3 cu.m
C. 5.0 cu.m
D. None of these

95. One-way concrete slab are used when:

A. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
B. The slab has no cantilevered portion
C. The concrete slab is reinforces on the near bottom side
D. The concrete slab is slope to the all side

96. PSI is a strength of cement (cement and water ration provides the strength),
which means ___.
A. Pre-stress measurement
B. Pounds per Square Inch
C. Post-tension equivalent
D. None of these

97. Class AA concrete has a mixture of:

E. 1: 2: 4
F. 1: 3: 6
G. 1: 1.5: 3
H. 1: 2.5: 5

98. It mean that by which a body develops internal resistance to stress:

A. Strain
B. Strength

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C. Slenderness
D. Stress

99. That form of braced frame where at least one end of each brace intersects a
beam at a point away from the column girder joint.
A. P-delta effect
B. Boundary Element
C. Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)
D. Essential Facilities

100. Size of Acoustic Board in the market.

A. 2’ x 2’
B. 2’ x 4’
C. 4’ x 4’
D. Both A and B

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ANSWER KEY: 33. A 67. C

34. B 68. C
1. C 35. C 69. B
2. C 36. A 70. B
3. A 37. C 71. D
4. C 38. B 72. A
5. B 39. D 73. B
6. C 40. D 74. A
7. B 41. A 75. A
8. A 42. B 76. B
9. B 43. C 77. B
10. B 44. B 78. B
11. C 45. D 79. A
12. B 46. D 80. D
13. C 47. A 81. B
14. A 48. C 82. B
15. D 49. A 83. C
16. A 50. D 84. C
17. B 51. C 85. B
18. C 52. D 86. A
19. B 53. C 87. C
20. B 54. C 88. D
21. C 55. B 89. B
22. A 56. A 90. B
23. C 57. D 91. D
24. D 58. C 92. A
25. B 59. B 93. B
26. C 60. D 94. B
27. D 61. A 95. A
28. C 62. C 96. B
29. C 63. D 97. G
30. B 64. C 98. B
31. B 65. D 99. C
32. B 66. B 100. D

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A Portland cement produced from raw materials law in iron oxide and
manganese oxide, the substances that give concrete its gray color; used in
precast concrete work and in the making of terrazzo, stucco, and tile grout.
A. Type I – Normal
B. White Portland Cement
C. Air-entraining Portland Cement
D. Type II – Moderate

2. What is not the standard size of CHB?

A. 100mm (4”) x height of 200mm (8”) x length of 400mm (16”)

B. 150mm (6”) x height of 200mm (8”) x length of 400mm (16”)
C. 200mm (8”) x height of 200mm (8”) x length of 400mm (16”)
D. 250mm (10”) x height of 200mm (8”) x length of 400mm (16”)

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3. It is an assemblage of framing members designed to support gravity loads and

resists lateral forces.
A. Concrete Building
B. Steel Frame
C. Bridge
D. Structure

4. Concrete mixture usually used for footings, pier, columns, girders, beams, joist,
and slabs.

A. Class A
B. Class AA
C. Class B
D. Class C

5. Zone 1 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph

A. 150
B. 125
C. 200
D. 250

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6. Occupancies and structures housing or supporting toxic or explosive chemicals

or substances; Non-building structures storing, supporting or containing
quantities of toxic or explosive substances.
A. Essential facilities
B. Hazardous facilities
C. Special occupancy
D. Standard occupancy

7. Xyladecor is a product of___.

A. Davies
B. Welcoat
C. Rain or Shine
D. Boysen

8. An instrument used to measure deformation.

A. Strain gauge
B. Extensometer
C. Seismometer
D. Gouger

9. This consists of the weight of all materials and

other fixed or permanent loads.
A. Dead Load
B. Live Load
C. Soil Pressure
D. Gravity Load

10. A manual method of squaring the corners of building lines in building layout is
the use of ________.
A. 2-3-4 multiples with the use of transit

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B. 3-4-5 multiples with the use of steel tape measure

C. 4-5-4 multiples and strings
D. None of the above

11. Pressure exerted against the underground portion of a building created by the
presence of water in the soil is known as
A. Soil bearing pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Pneumatic pressure

12. An iron alloy usually including carbon and silicon which has high compressive
strength but low tensile strength is
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Pig iron
D. None of the above

13. A joinery, an acute angle or groove separating one element from another?

A. Rout
B. Coped
C. Quirk
D. Angle joint

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14. In a tie rod system of steel scaffold as shown in figure ST 02.99-03, identify the
accessory in drawing no. 1.
A. Trust plate
B. Form clamp
C. Fixed pipe clamp
D. Cross brace

15. Open terrain with scattered obstructions having heights less than 9M. Falls on
what exposure category for wind loading?
A. Exposure A
B. Exposure C
C. Exposure B
D. Exposure D

16. Which among the following is not a wood parquet geometric design?
A. Bird’s eye
B. Heptagon
C. Hollow block
D. Canto mesa

17. The staircase of a house has a total run of 3 meters and a total rise of 2.16
meters, the tread width is 11 inches and riser is 7 7/8”, therefore, the stringer
length is ______.
A. 3.20 meters
B. 3.69 meters
C. 3.75 meters
D. 3.35 meters

18. Voids on a formed concrete surface, caused by segregation during placement

or by insufficient consolidation.
A. Spalling

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B. Crazing
C. Shrinkage
D. Honeycomb

19. In figure 9 below, identify the Miter joint.

A. H7
B. H8
C. H9
D. H1

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20. It is a single force, or a force and a couple which acting alone will produce the
same effect as the force system.
A. Force
B. Equilibrium
C. Resultant
D. Transmissibility

21. In figure 9 below, identify the Dado joint.

A. H2
B. H3
C. H4
D. H5

22. A wall design to resist the lateral displacement of soil or other materials.
A. Shear wall
B. Bearing wall
C. Retaining wall
D. Exterior wall

23. Stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion

A. Rip-rap
B. Embankment
C. Flag stone
D. Border stone

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24. It is a horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to

the vertical-resisting elements, including the horizontal bracing systems.
A. Diaphragm
B. Slab
C. Dual System
D. Scaffolding

25. As per NSCP 2001 sect. 206.9.3 vertical impact force for crane load, if powered
monorail cranes are considered, the maximum wheel load of the crane shall be
increased by what percent to determine the induced vertical impact?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 15%
D. 20%

26. An element of a diaphragm parallel to the applied load which collects and
transfers diaphragm shear to vertical resisting elements or distributes loads
within the diaphragm.
A. P-delta effect
B. Jacking force
C. Braced frame
D. Diaphragm Strut

27. It is an artificial stone derived from a mixture of properly proportioned amount of

hydraulic cement, fine aggregates, coarse aggregates and water, with or without
admixtures.
A. Reinforced concrete
B. Concrete
C. Precast concrete
D. Masonry

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28. A Portland cement used for general construction, having none of the
distinguishing qualities of the other types.
A. Type I – Normal
B. Type II - Moderate
C. White Portland Cement
D. Air-entraining Portland Cement

29. In figure 2, identify the Double Hung window.

A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B4

30. It is one in which the story strength is less than 80% of the story above.
A. Soft story
B. Weak story

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C. Story drift
D. Story shear

31. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance
and ductility is____.

A. Cast-Iron
B. Black-iron
C. Heavy-Iron
D. Wrought-Iron

32. Back to figure 2, identify the Double Casement window.

A. B1
B. B2
C. B3
D. B4

33. Concrete mixture usually used for concrete plant boxes and parapet walls.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

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34. Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry

walls are known as____.

A. Cold joint
B. Control joint
C. Block outs
D. None of the above

35. Consolidation of newly placed concrete by the moderately high frequency

oscillations of an electric or pneumatic tool.
A. Spading
B. Vibration
C. Rodding
D. Bleeding

36. According to NSCP 206.9.4. The lateral force on a crane runway beam with
electrically powered trolleys shall be calculated as ______% of the sum of the
rated capacity of the crane and the weight of the hoist and trolley.
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 50%

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37. It is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than 70% of the stiffness of the
story above.
A. Soft story
B. Weak story
C. Story drift
D. Story shear

38. The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a
superstructure and bears directly on the column footing is a ____.

A. Grade beam
B. Foundation course
C. Foundation wall
D. Wall footing

39. What type of concrete when air-dried weights 1900 kg per cubic meter?
A. Reinforce concrete
B. Air-entrained concrete
C. Lightweight concrete
D. Concrete

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40. A geological or ground condition considered in determining the size and type of
foundation of the building.

A. Soil chemistry
B. Soil bearing pressure
C. Particle size distribution
D. None of the above

41. The magnitudes of the loads specified by the applicable codes.

A. Nominal loads
B. Nominal Strength
C. Resistance
D. Load Factor

42. Flat hand tools used for applying, spreading and shaping plaster or mortar to
produce a relatively smooth finish on concrete surfaces in the final stages of
finishing.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

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43. What is the time required for the removal of a form of a concrete footing?
A. 24 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 12 hours

44. What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?
A. Alkyd paint type
B. Acrylic latex type
C. Lacquer type
D. Urethane

45. A tensile force or compressive force acting along the longitudinal axis of a
structural member and at the centroid of the cross section, producing axial stress
without bending, torsion or shear.

A. Axial force
B. Axial stress
C. Compressive force
D. Eccentric stress

46. Sound or noise between bedrooms may be reduced by using less expensive
materials with the application of construction techniques
A. Solid 6” R.C. wall
B. Double wall plywood on horizontal and vertical studs with absorbents
C. Sawali on 2” x 2” studs
D. None of the above

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47. Identify what type of roof is the image below?

A. Gable roof
B. Hip roof
C. Mansard roof
D. Gambrel roof

48. Flat hand tools used for applying, spreading and shaping plaster or mortar to
produce a relatively smooth finish on concrete surfaces in the final stages of
finishing.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

49. That part of the structural system assigned to resist lateral forces.
A. Dead Load
B. Compressive stress
C. Lateral Force Resisting System
D. Modulus of elasticity

50. Maximum deflection of a brittle finished wall subjected to a load of 250 Pascal
applied perpendicular to said wall.
A. 1/240 of wall span
B. ½ of wall span
C. 2/3 of wall span
D. 1/150 of wall span

51. One method of leveling batterboards without the transit is the use of
A. Plumb bob
B. Chalk line

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C. ¼ Ø plastic hose filled with water

D. Eyesight

52. The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take
axial stresses analogous to the flanges of a beam.

A. Chord in tension
B. Compression chord
C. Diaphragm Chord
D. None of these

53. A horizontal or nearly horizontal system acting to transmit lateral forces to the
vertical resisting elements, it includes horizontal bracing system.
A. Diaphragm
B. Braced Frame
C. Jacking Force
D. P-delta Effect

54. Prestressing tendon that is bonded to concrete either directly or through

grouting.
A. Bonded Tendon
B. Unbonded Tendon
C. Distributed Tendon
D. None of these

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55. The secondary effect on shears and moments of frame members induced by
the vertical loads acting on the laterally displaced building frame.

A. P-delta Effect
B. P-delta Analysis
C. Bilinear Approximations
D. None of these

56. ASTM A36

A. Wood
B. Structural Steel
C. Concrete
D. Framing

57. An element at edge of opening or at perimeters of shear walls or diaphragm.

A. P-delta effect
B. Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)
C. Essential Facilities
D. Boundary Element

58. Concrete mixture proportion for Class AAA.

A. 1 : 2 : 4

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B. 1 : 3 : 6
C. 1 : 1: 2
D. 1 : 2 : 3

59. The horizontal member in a frame system, a beam.

A. Column
B. Truss
C. Girder
D. Brace

60. Upright compression member with a ratio of unsupported height to average

least lateral dimension of less than three.
A. Braced Frame
B. Admixture
C. Diaphragm
D. Pedestal

61. Granular material, such as crushed stone, iron blast-furnace slag, sand or
gravel used with cementing medium to form a hydraulic cement concrete or
mortar.
A. Admixture
B. Aggregate
C. Sleeve Particle
D. Filters

62. One of a pair of vertical angles fastened to each side of a web plate to stiffen it
against buckling?
A. Stiffener
B. Shear plate
C. Plate Girder
D. Joist girder

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63. True or False: The entire assemblage at the intersection of the members is
called girder.
A. True
B. False. It should be Joint
C. None of these
D. All of these

64. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without a

permanent deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress is called:
A. Allowable stress
B. Moment of inertia
C. Bending stress
D. Proportional limit

65. Who is a highly-skilled labor trained to prepare rough to finish plastering, lay
concrete hollow blocks, lay brick work, has knowledge and may install tiles,
marble, synthetic granite and similar work, lay and finish rubble, ashlar stone
works and pebble washout?
A. Finishing mason
B. Rough mason
C. Concrete finisher
D. Hollow block finisher

66. A paint defect that occurs on inferior brands where the paint contains soluble
pigments that softens and dissolved by water or by chemicals after sufficient
drying.
A. Wrinkling
B. Fading
C. Washing
D. Bleeding

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67. The figure below shows the different steel deck profiles available in the market
today. Steel deck is joined side by side to make one piece and keep the deck
water-tight. Like those manufactured by Condeck, Chuayuco and Jacinto Steel
decks, these manufacturers commonly recommend a method of joint. What is
this?

A. Seam lock
B. Simple overlap
C. Drill and bolt
D. Drill and fasten by Tecks screws

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68. In the installation guide of the suspended ceiling below, what is number 1?

A. Main runner
B. Cross tee
C. Hanger
D. Tile

69. What is the standard weight of a 16mm (no. 5) diameter hot-rolled weldable
deformed or plain steel bar per meter length?
A. 1.578 kilos
B. 0.888 kilos
C. 1.872 kilos
D. 2.466 kilos

70. This is a material that holds less moisture, is very light, less water absorptive
capacity and is very good in sidings of dwelling units
A. Vinyl shingles
B. Wood boards
C. Asbestos-cement shingles

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D. None of the above

71. Below image shows a concrete roof tile with its tile accessories and its
corresponding location. Identify tile with mark letter O?

A. Valley sheet
B. Compact roll
C. Vent tile
D. Barge tile

72. Underwater watertight chamber to allow construction work to be done.

A. Bent chamber
B. Caisson
C. Submersible air chamber
D. None of the above

73. Small amounts of this is added to the clinker and ground with it to produce air-
entraining cements, effective use for resistance to severe frost.
A. Portland Cement
B. Masonry Cement
C. Air Entraining Portland Cement

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D. Waterproofed Portland Cement

74. A paint defect which indicates imperfect adhesion of paint to the surface, with
the film getting stripped off in a relatively large pieces due to application on damp
or greasy surface.
A. Peeling
B. Bleeding
C. Alligatoring
D. Cracking

75. Vernacular term for rough plastering

A. Baldosa
B. Asintada
C. Rebokada
D. Kostura

76. A construction technique for color production and color reproduction using the
Munsell color principle, a color has its degree of colorfulness or intensity. This is
because of its:
A. Chroma scale
B. Value scale
C. Hue scale
D. Reflectance

77. Equilibrium equation used to compute vertical loads.

A. ∑Fx=0
B. ∑Fz=0
C. ∑Fy=0
D. ∑M=0

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78. Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated roof space may
show “pattern staining” on the ceiling. This can be prevented by ____.
A. Loose fill insulation
B. Rigid Board Insulation
C. Thermal Insulation
D. Adequate Insulation

79. Enamel paint was used to coat a wooden wall, if it were concrete walls, what
will be the best type of paint to be used?

A. Elastomeric paint
B. Epoxy paint
C. Acrylic latex paint
D. Lacquer paint

80. A flexible strip of rubber or plastic inserted across a concrete or masonry joint to
prevent the passage of water.
A. Bead
B. Waterstop

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C. Substrate
D. Joint filler

81. A typical block or panel type insulating material used in flat roof of commercial
or industrial building
A. Corkboard
B. Acacia lumber
C. Washed pebbles
D. Coconut lumber

82. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural
reinforcement shall be spaced not farther apart than three times the wall or slab
thickness, nor
A. 300mm
B. 400mm
C. 450mm
D. 550mm

83. The distance between inflection point in the column when it breaks is called __.

A. Development length
B. Effective length

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C. Cross sectional area

D. Equivalent distance

84. A common and cheap masonry finish wherein dry consistency mortar mix is
sprayed by mechanical or pneumatic means. The sprayed cement is left to dry
and give a rustic finish. Optional paint coat maybe required
A. Spraytex
B. Anay finish
C. Stucco finish
D. Sandblast

85. Dressed lumber is referred to ____.

A. Covered with plastic for shipment
B. Lumber of exact measurement
C. Smoothed or planed lumber
D. Lumber used for fine carpentry works

86. In figure 6 below, identify the Wood screw.

A. E1
B. E3
C. E5
D. E9

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87. What is a design analysis requirement, considered as basis for the structural
design of buildings and structures, where the total lateral forces are distributed to
various vertical elements of the lateral force-resisting system in proportion to their
rigidities considering the rigidity of the horizontal bracing system or diaphragm?
A. Horizontal torsional moments
B. Shear and moment diagram
C. Stability against overturning
D. Distribution of horizontal shear

88. What criterion conforms to good construction practice for the earliest time to
remove scaffolding for concrete flooring other than early-strength concrete if no
anticipated load is expected over poured floor?
A. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 21 days of pouring
and 100% of scaffolds after 28 days
B. 50% of scaffolding can be removed after 14 days and 100% of scaffolds
after 2 days
C. 50% of scaffoldings can be removed over slab area after 28 days of
pouring and 100% of scaffolding after 36 days
D. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 14 days and 100%
of scaffolds after 21 days afterpouring

89. A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other
primarily to resist bending is a
A. Web member
B. Chord
C. Girt
D. None of the above

90. The minimum thickness of non pre-stressed beams of span L whose supports
are simply supported is ____.
A. L/16

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B. L/21
C. L/18.50
D. L/8

91. The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is
A. Sand
B. Cement
C. Gravel
D. Lime

92. A bended steel to resist shear and diagonal stresses in a concrete beam is
called:
A. Bottom bar
B. Metal plate
C. Stirrups
D. Temperature bar

93. A temporary load on a structure occurring during its erection, as from wind or
the weight of construction equipment and stored materials?
A. Moving load
B. Construction load
C. Dynamic load
D. Wind load

94. Back to figure 6 above, identify the Machine screw.

A. E1
B. E3
C. E4
D. E5

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95. A water-mixed product mixed to a ratio of 1:20 to stabilize lime activity in new
masonry surface. Without preparing the surface with this mixture will cause the
subsequent painting to be defective
A. Acrylic emulsion
B. Masonry neutralizer
C. Etching solution
D. Aquaseal

96. A floor finish commercially size 1” x 12” x 12” utilizing clay and fired in traditional
manner making interesting and attractive rustic clay shade patterns. Because of
the rustic effect the floor is finished rough and simply adhere by cement with
some irregularities
A. Cement non-skid blocks
B. Adobe cobbled stones
C. Vigan tiles
D. Mosaic tiles

97. A form of brick bond in which each course is alternately composed of entirely of
headers or of stretchers is known as ____.

A. Common bond
B. Flemish bond
C. English bond
D. Running bond

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98. To turn back water whenever joints occur in which dissimilar materials come
together, it is necessary to provide
A. Flashing material
B. Binding material
C. Counter flushing
D. Expansion joint

99. A roofing tile which has the shape of an “S” laid on its side is a
A. Pantile
B. Mission Tile
C. French tile
D. None of the above

100. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or
combination thereof, in preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?
A. Cut and fill
B. Grading
C. Benching
D. Site preparation

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ANSWER KEY: 34. B 68. A

1. B 35. B 69. A
2. D 36. A 70. C
3. D 37. A 71. A
4. A 38. A 72. B
5. D 39. C 73. C
6. B 40. B 74. A
7. D 41. A 75. C
8. B 42. A 76. B
9. A 43. A 77. C
10. B 44. B 78. D
11. C 45. A 79. C
12. A 46. B 80. B
13. C 47. C 81. A
14. A 48. A 82. C
15. B 49. C 83. B
16. B 50. A 84. D
17. B 51. C 85. C
18. D 52. C 86. A
19. A 53. A 87. B
20. C 54. A 88. D
21. D 55. A 89. B
22. C 56. B 90. A
23. A 57. D 91. B
24. A 58. C 92. C
25. B 59. C 93. B
26. D 60. D 94. C
27. B 61. B 95. B
28. A 62. A 96. C
29. B 63. B 97. B
30. B 64. D 98. A
31. D 65. A 99. A
32. C 66. C 100. B
33. C 67. A

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A type of wood end joint best suited for joints requiring tensile strength.
A. Scarf
B. Half lap
C. Squared splice
D. Finger

2. A decorative coating especially prepared to penetrate deep into unfinished wood. It’s
clear, true tones emphasize the grain and bring out the natural beauty of wood.
A. Oil wood stain
B. White clear gloss lacquer
C. Lacquer sanding sealer
D. Finishing oil

3. The minimum thickness of non-prestressed beams of span L whose supports are simply
supported is __.
A. L/16
B. L/18.50
C. L/21
D. L/8

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4. A paint defect by discoloration of a coat caused by soluble color in the underlying

surface.
A. Spotting
B. Blistering
C. Deadening
D. Bleeding

5. What is a type of wood end joint where both wood are cut at equal angles diagonally?
A. Plain miter
B. Lap
C. Scarf
D. Finger

6. A standard hook may consist of a 180 deg. Bend plus a 4db extension (at the free end)
not less than
A. 55mm
B. 60mm
C. 75mm
D. 85mm

7. It means that by which a body develops internal resistance to stress:

A. Strain
B. Strength
C. Slenderness
D. Stress

8. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without a permanent

deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress is called:
A. Allowable stress
B. Moment of inertia

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C. Bending stress
D. Proportional limit

9. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through is called:
A. Flexural stress
B. Punching moment
C. Punching shear
D. Single shear

10. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called:
A. Rafter
B. Girder
C. Purlin
D. Girt

11. Inside diameter of bend for stirrups and ties for 16mm bar and smaller shall not be less
than
A. 4db
B. 6db
C. 8db
D. 10db

12. Who is a highly-skilled labor trained to prepare rough to finish plastering, lay concrete
hollow blocks, lay brick work, has knowledge and may install tiles, marble, synthetic
granite and similar work, lay and finish rubble, ashlar stone works and pebble washout?
A. Finishing mason
B. Rough mason
C. Concrete finisher
D. Hollow block finisher

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13. Brick plaqueta is installed on to a scratch coat of a masonry wall by use of evenly
distributed…
A. 3/4” thick concrete
B. 3/4” thick cement grout
C. 3/8” thick cement tile adhesive
D. thin layer of SCR epoxy

14. Slab thickness for joist construction shall be less-than one-twelfth the clear distance
between ribs nor less than ____.
A. 50mm
B. 75mm
C. 100mm
D. 125mm

15. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the horizontal support at offset bends shall be
provided by lateral ties, spiral or parts of the floor construction. Horizontal support
provided shall be designed to resist 1 1/2 times the horizontal component of the
computed force in the inclined portion of on offset bar. Lateral ties or spiral shall be
place not more than _____ from points of bend.
A. 100mm
B. 150mm
C. 200mm
D. 250mm

16. A system of measurement when utilizing modular system of construction and

technology.
A. Modular co-ordination
B. Modular scale
C. Measuring metric scale
D. The modulor

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17. A kind of masonry finish which utilizes a chamfered wood block-out usually 1” x 1”
distanced at 2” o.c. which serves as a form and when removed gives the design lines.
Texture is added by chisel.
A. Pebble washout finish
B. Corduroy or tool finish
C. Chisel finish
D. Synthetic adobe finish

18. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act as a
unit shall be limited to a maximum of
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six

19. One-way concrete slab are used when:

A. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
B. The slab has no cantilevered portion
C. The concrete slab is reinforces on the near bottom side
D. The concrete slab is slope to the all side

20. What is the standard weight of a 16mm (no. 5) diameter hot-rolled weldable deformed
or plain steel bar per meter length?
A. 1.578 kilos
B. 0.888 kilos
C. 1.872 kilos
D. 2.466 kilos

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21. If the depth of a web exceeds 900mm longitudinal skin reinforcement shall be
uniformly distributed along both side faces of the members for the distance d/2 nearest
the flexural tension reinforcement. The maximum spacing of the skin reinforcement shall
not exceed the lesser of the d/6 and 300mm. the total area of the longitudinal skin
reinforcement in both faces need not exceed ____ of the required flexural tension
reinforcement.
A. One-fourth
B. One-third
C. One-half
D. Two-thirds

22. What is the vertical location of a ground surface often used as a reference point with
respect to vertical height?
A. Batter board
B. Elevation
C. Grade
D. Bench mark

23. A paint defect that occurs on inferior brands where the paint contains soluble pigments
thus softens and dissolves by water or by chemicals after sufficient drying.
A. Wrinkling
B. Fading
C. Washing
D. Bleeding

24. The deformation of a structural member as a result of loads acting on it is called:

A. Strength
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Deflection

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25. The industrially bent metal profiles which when assembled maybe an alternative
ceiling cladding and the connection detail of a ceiling on metal ceiling joist: What
alternative fastening material can be used for installation other than metal screws?
A. 3/16” x 1/2” aluminum blind rivets
B. 1/4” x 3/8” GI rivets
C. 1/4” x 3/8” aluminum rivets
D. 3/16” x 1/2” copper rivets

26. The tendency for one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an adjacent part
is called:
A. Shear
B. Moment
C. Force
D. Strength

27. A masonry finish using pure cement mixed with flexible synthetic latex based additive
like Plexibond to a tacky consistency then applied by an applicator roller to give a
remarkable finish. Optional painting maybe required to improve aesthetics.
A. Cement textured finish
B. Anay finish
C. Stucco finish
D. Plain cement finish

28. What is the standard weight of a 25 mm (no. 8) diameter hot-rolled weldable deformed
or plain steel bar per metal length?
A. 343 kilos
B. 3.853 kilos
C. 4.833 kilos
D. 2.466 kilos

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29. A quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to being revolved about line is
called:
A. Tension
B. Torsion
C. Variation
D. Deflection

30. Steel deck is joined side by side to make one piece and keep the deck water-tight. Like
those manufactured by Condeck, Chuayuco and Jacinto Steel decks, these
manufacturers commonly recommend a method of joint. What is this?
A. Seam lock
B. Simple overlap
C. Drill and bolt
D. Drill and fasten by Tecks screws

31. Any material change in shape when subjected to the action of a force is called:
A. Reflection
B. Deflection
C. Reformation
D. Acceleration

32. A tie rod system of steel scaffold comprises parts of it to work effectively. Which
among the following DOES NOT comprise the system?
A. Thrust plate
B. Swivel pipe clamp
C. Pin valve
D. Bolt and wing nut

33. Glass blocks are spaced in between in each other at an average of 7/16” gap to accept
reinforcement and binder. What kind of inexpensive reinforcement is used?

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A. 6mm diameter steel reinforcement

B. Schedule 20 SS pipe
C. #10 4” x 4” welded wire
D. #16 expanded metal lath

34. Which window is hard to reach?

A. Clerestory
B. Casement
C. Awning
D. Jalousie

35. A wood ceiling joist substitute for dropped ceiling usually made of aluminum or pre-
painted GI used to hang light-weight boards such as fiber glass boards, acoustic
boards, and cork boards installed for institutional use and if properly-designed can also
be used for residential use.
A. Channel runners suspension system
B. Cannel hangers suspension system
C. Main/cross tee and wall angle suspension system
D. Angle hangers suspension system

36. Which among the following is not a brand of a ceramic tile?

A. First Lepanto
B. Fil Hispano
C. Piedra
D. Euro

37. A ceramic tile from 4” to 18” in its widest dimension is installed at a masonry wall over
rough plaster by a uniform:
A. 3/8” layer of pure cement with flexible synthetic additive
B. 3/8” layer of cement grout

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C. 3/4” layer of cement plaster

D. 3/4” layer of cement mortar

38. The image below shows a concrete roof tile with its tile accessories and its
corresponding location. Identify tile with mark no. 3.

A. Ridge end tile

B. Ridge tile
C. Down end tile
D. Right hand verge tile

39. What is provided between glazed windows?

A. Air
B. Screen
C. Silicon
D. Spacer

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40. A joint where two successive placement of concrete meet is called:

A. Truss joint
B. Contraction joint
C. Construction joint
D. Expansion joint

41. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called:

A. Flat slab
B. 2-way slab
C. One-way slab
D. Ribbed floor

42. Door locks comes in many knob designs, locking mechanism and installation
procedure. In… safest door lock, thus recommended for main entry doors. What lock
type is this lockset?
A. Lever set
B. Dead bolt lock
C. Tubular lockset
D. Mortise lockset

43. Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM standards and must be well-graded,
easily workable, and the method of consolidation is such that the concrete can be
poured without honeycomb or void. What is the nominal maximum size of a course
aggregate when working with depth of slabs for concreting?
A. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/3 the depth of the slab under
consideration
B. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/4 the depth of the slab under
consideration
C. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/6 the depth of the slab under
consideration

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D. Course aggregates shall be no larger than 1/5 the depth of the slab under
consideration

44. A type of mortise and tenon wood construction joint where the tongue and groove
meets half-way making the connection clean of joint traces.
A. Ship or open
B. Through
C. Keyed
D. Blind and stub

45. In a tie rod system of steel scaffold as shown in figure below, identify the accessory in
drawing no. 1.

No.1

A. Trust plate
B. Form clamp
C. Fixed pipe clamp
D. Cross brace

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46. The image below shows a typical load-bearing concrete block modular construction.
Different blocks of different but modularized shapes are specifically for a particular
purpose and location. Identify concrete block marked in the figure.

A. Cored block
B. Solid block
C. Corner return block
D. Corner block

47. Installation of Piedra tiles over mortar bed is through the use of
A. Uniform 10mm thick cement mortar
B. Uniform 10mm thick cement grout
C. Uniform 10mm thick pure cement with flexible synthetic mortar additive
D. Uniform 10mm thick cement plaster

48. A door type usually used between a kitchen and dining room to allow a server to see
through.
A. Vision door
B. Flush door
C. Pocket door
D. Louver door

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49. A method of fastening aluminum jambs to concrete or masonry.

A. Concrete nail
B. Screw with expansion plug
C. Concrete screw
D. Teks screw

50. Which among the following is not a wood parquet geometric design?
A. Bird’s eye
B. Heptagon
C. Hollow block
D. Canto mesa

51. Identify the figure below:

A. Folding door
B. Pass-by door
C. Panel door
D. Accordion door

52. For beam with a slab on one side only, the effective overhanging flange width shall not
exceed:
A. One-twelfth the span length of the beam
B. One-half the clear distance to the next web
C. Six-times the slab thickness
D. Any of the above

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53. The image below shows a Spanish clay tile roof with its tile accessories and its
corresponding location. Identify Spanish Clay Tile with mark MO-08.

A. Ridge clay tile

B. Ridge end right clay tile
C. Ridge down end clay tile
D. Ridge end left clay tile

54. A system of mass production and industrialization by prefabrication of cabinets and

furniture. This system is gaining popularity and acceptance in the Philippine market
especially among builders and homeowners who are conscious of time and quality.
A. Modulor
B. Modular co-ordination
C. Modular system
D. Conventional system

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55. A type of glass used in constructing a vision type of door, which must be shatter-proof
so as to be accident-free.
A. Figured wired glass
B. Bevel grind glass
C. Clear plate glass
D. Laminated glass

56. A construction technique in color production or color reproduction, applying the

Munsell color principle, a secondary color like orange tends to be yellowish because of
its:
A. Value scale
B. Chroma scale
C. Reflectance
D. Hue scale

57. New construction technology changes the perspective in concrete floor system by
developing a cost-effective, fast installation, light-weight and equal if not stronger
system. With the development of prestressed concrete, architects were able to have
free spans giving versatility in architectural design layouts. What basically comprises a
stressing anchor?
A. Button head, bolts, wires and keeper plate
B. Shims, bearing plate, stressing washer and button head
C. Bearing plate, bolt holes, bolts and shims
D. Spread plate, keeper plate, shims and bolts

58. Steel window section for muntins.

A. Z-bar
B. Flat bar
C. I-bar
D. T-bar

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59. A hardener mixture mixed with marble dust to fill up the gap of marble slabs during
installation of floor or wall finishes.
A. Polymer
B. Caulking
C. Tile grout
D. Concrete tile adhesive (CTA)

60. A by-product of wood where waste wood boards are compressed, finished on both
sides with a thin layer of wood, and glued together with industrial glues.
A. Plyboard
B. Plywood
C. Gypsum boards
D. Medium density fiber boards

61. Type of hinge used in folding door

A. Invisible hinge
B. Butt hinge
C. Pivot hinge
D. Hinge joint

62. For joist construction, the clear spacing between ribs shall not exceed _____.
A. 250mm
B. 50mm
C. 750mm
D. 1000mm

63. Air-conditioning duct wrapped with insulation. How and what type of strap is used to
insure that no air gap is left between the air duct and the insulation?
A. Ga. 40mm x 50 mm galvanized steel strap seamed locked at 600 mm centers
with galvanized angles under straps to protect corners

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B. Ga. 26 tie wires strapped at 600 mm center

C. 75mm wide pressure sensitive aluminized duct tape strapped at 600 mm centers
D. 100 mm wide pressure sensitive rubber tape strapped at 600 mm centers

64. A wood work equipment to form the different wood mouldings for balusters and newel
posts.
A. Wood lathe machine or “torno”
B. Jig saw
C. Planer
D. Band saw

65. It is customary to securely join the steel deck and the rebars. What method is
recommended by manufacturers to join the steel deck and the rebars?
A. Seam locking
B. Tie with #16 tie wires
C. Welding
D. Riveting

66. The figure shows the steel deck. Identify what is in No.4.

No.4

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A. Steel Frame
B. Steel Profiled Sheeting
C. Floor Deck
D. Metal Sheet

67. Which of the following criterion precludes good construction practice for pipes and
conduits embedded in concrete?
A. Conduits, pipes and sleeves passing through slab, wall or beam shall not impair
significantly the strength of construction.
B. Aluminum pipes and conduits at reinforced concrete shall be secured at steel
reinforcing bars by tie wires.
C. Conduits, pipes and sleeves shall be permitted to be considered as replacing
structurally in compression the displaced concrete provided that they are not
exposed to rust
D. Pipes and fittings shall be designed to resist effects of the material, pressure and
temperature to which they will be subjected.

68. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which tendons are tensioned after
concrete has hardened enough to sustain this jacking force?
A. Freyssinet
B. Prestressed concrete
C. Pretensioning
D. Post-tensioning

69. A construction technique for color production and color reproduction using the Munsell
color principle, a color has its degree of colorfulness or intensity. This is because of its:
A. Chroma scale
B. Value scale
C. Hue scale
D. Reflectance

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70. A type of handless lockset key-operated to give double security.

A. Barrel bolt lock
B. Cylindrical lock
C. Mortise lock
D. Dead bolt lock

71. A chemical agent applied on marble floor to make it shiny without the use of wax.
Spray and buff with steel wool apply the chemical until it has sustained a smooth and
shiny surface.
A. Crystalliser
B. Liquid tile coat
C. Clear gloss acrylic emulsion
D. Polyurethance floor coating

72. As tie reinforcements for compression, all non-prestressed bars shall be enclosed by
lateral ties, at least 10mm in size for longitudinal bars, 32mm or smaller, and at least
________ in size for 36mm and bundled longitudinal bars.
A. 12mm
B. 15mm
C. 20mm
D. 22mm

73. The image below illustrates an air-conditioning duct wrapped with insulation. What
must be applied to all seams?

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A. Glue
B. Insulation cover
C. Plastic
D. Mastic

74. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer shall be db but not less
than
A. 20mm
B. 25mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm

75. The image below show the steel truss. Identify what is in the arrow.

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A. C purlin
B. Z purlin
C. Rafters
D. Ridge board

76. What is the minimum concrete cover for bars 20mm (no. 6) and larger for shells and
folded plate members for cast-in-place concrete but not exposed to the earth?
A. 30 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm

77. Given the image below, what type of weld is in Group B?

Group A
Group B

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A. Flare weld
B. Partial joint penetration weld
C. Complete joint penetration weld
D. Slot weld

78. The image below shows a door hardware attached at Door no.2 and used as door
closer. What is this hardware?

A. Spring hinge
B. Door closer
C. Transom closer
D. Floor spring

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79. What is used to stop a single leaf door?

A. Vaciada
B. Door stopper
C. Door closer
D. Astragal

80. Concrete slab should have a minimum clearance of:

A. 20mm
B. 40mm
C. 15mm
D. 30mm

81. Figure below shows a standard bottom edge of a metal door. What is the purpose of
the inverted channel shaped bottom edge profile?

A. Space intended to accept the installation of floor spring

B. Accepts adjustment resulting from future change of floor elevation

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C. For economy
D. Space intended to install a concealed door closer

82. A 2” x 7” gauge 16 steel Z-purlin is used on a steel truss with a roof inclination of 20
degrees. The common construction problem during purlin installation is the high
probability of the purlins to deflect or bend down about the minro Y-Y axis as a result of
its own dead weight and live load. What structural member in the steel truss-framing
counter-acts these forces in compression?
A. Purlin cross brace
B. Purlin sag rods
C. Purlin struts
D. Purlin cleats

83. A standard 90 degree hook consists of a bend plus an extension of

A. 8db
B. 10db
C. 12db
D. 16db

84. The standard hooks for the stirrups and ties shall mean
A. 90-degree bend plus 6db extension at the free end of bar, for 16mm bar and
smaller
B. 90-degree bend plus 12db extension at the free of end bar, for 20mm and 25mm
bar
C. 135-degree bend plus 6db extension at the free end of bar, for 25mm and
smaller
D. All of these

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85. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in the upper layers
shall be placed directly above bars in the bottom layer with clear distance between
layers not less than
A. 20mm
B. 25mm
C. 30mm
D. 40mm

86. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement compression members, clear distance

between longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not less than 40mm nor

A. 1.5db
B. 2.0db
C. 5.0 db
D. 1.0db

87. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural reinforcement
shall be spaced not farther apart than three times the wall or slab thickness, nor
A. 300mm
B. 400mm

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C. 450mm
D. 550mm

88. A wall which support vertical loads in addition to its weight without the benefit of a
complete vertical load carrying space frame is called:
A. Retaining wall
B. Curtain wall
C. Shearing wall
D. Bearing wall

89. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties but bars larger than the size
below shall not be bundled in beams
A. 40mm
B. 36mm
C. 32mm
D. 28mm

90. It is designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the plane of the wall:
A. Bearing wall
B. Curtain wall
C. Grade wall
D. Shear wall

91. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices of 48db, but not less than
A. 300mm
B. 400mm
C. 500mm
D. 600mm

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92. Maximum usable strain at extreme concrete compression fiber shall be assumed to be
equal to (maximum usable strain = 0.003 extreme concrete compression)
A. 0.001
B. 0.003
C. 0.002
D. 0.004

93. In joist construction, consisting of monolithic combination of regularly spaced ribs and
a top slab, the ribs shall not be less than 100mm in width and shall have depth of not
more than ____ times the minimum width of rib.
A. 2
B. 2 1/2
C. 3
D. 3 1/2

94. In T-beam construction, the flange and web design being built integrally, the width of
the slab effective as T-beam flange shall both exceed one quarter of the span length of
the beam and the effective overhanging flange width on each side of the web shall not
exceed:
A. Eight times the slab thickness
B. Smaller of the above
C. One-half the clear distance to the next web
D. 500mm

95. For normal weight of concrete, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec may be taken
as
A. 1700 (square root)f’c
B. 3700 (square root) f’c
C. 2700 (square root)f’c
D. 4700 (square root) f’c

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96. A composite member with laterally tied concrete around a steel core (of design yield
strength not to exceed 350Mpa) shall have vertical spacing of lateral ties shall not
exceed ____.
A. 16 longitudinal bar diameter of 48 tie dia meter
B. 1/2 times the least side diameter of the composite member
C. Any of the above
D. none of the above

97. The section at which the moment changes from positive to negative is called:

A. Neutral axis
B. Point of zero shear
C. Inflection point
D. Maximum moment

98. In column, the ratio of its effective length to its least radius of gyration is called:
A. Moment of inertia
B. Slenderness ratio
C. Development length
D. Ratio and proportion

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99. The point in the moment diagram at which the curvance reverses as it changes from
concave to convex is called:
A. Point of deflection
B. Moment of inertia
C. Point of inflection
D. Magnitude

100. What type of window is commonly used in condominium, where safety and
waterproofing are main concerns?
A. Tilt-and-turn
B. Awning
C. Casement
D. Sliding

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ANSWER KEY: 34. A 68. D

1. C 35. C 69. B
2. A 36. C 70. D
3. A 37. C 71. A
4. D 38. B 72. A
5. C 39. D 73. D
6. B 40. C 74. B
7. B 41. A 75. B
8. D 42. D 76. C
9. C 43. A 77. B
10. B 44. D 78. A
11. A 45. D 79. B
12. A 46. C 80. A
13. C 47. C 81. A
14. A 48. A 82. D
15. B 49. B 83. C
16. B 50. B 84. D
17. B 51. A 85. B
18. B 52. D 86. A
19. A 53. C 87. C
20. A 54. C 88. D
21. C 55. D 89. B
22. D 56. D 90. D
23. C 57. B 91. A
24. D 58. B 92. B
25. A 59. A 93. D
26. A 60. A 94. B
27. A 61. D 95. D
28. B 62. C 96. C
29. B 63. C 97. B
30. A 64. A 98. C
31. C 65. C 99. C
32. C 66. B 100. C
33. A 67. B

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. What is a design analysis requirement, considered as basis for the structural

design of buildings and structures, where the total lateral forces are distributed to
various vertical elements of the lateral force-resisting system in proportion to their
rigidities considering the rigidity of the horizontal bracing system or diaphragm?
A. Shear and moment diagram
B. Stability against overturning
C. Distribution of horizontal shear
D. Horizontal torsional moments.

2. Identify the type of hinge below:

A. Half mortise
B. Full mortise
C. Half surface
D. Full surface

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3. Minimum concrete cover provided for reinforcements larger than 36 mm

diameter.
A. 100m
B. 50mm
C. 75mm
D. 20mm

4. Bolt head types: Identify the number 2

A. Pan
B. Fillister
C. Hex
D. None of these

5. The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is

A. Pre-tensioning
B. Lift slab
C. Post tensioning
D. Pre-casting

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6. Vernacular term for stucco or plaster?

A. Monyeka
B. Palitada
C. Biyento
D. Kusturada

7. Enamel paint was used to coat a wooden wall, if it were concrete walls, what will
be the best type of paint to be used?
A. Elastomeric paint
B. Epoxy paint
C. Acrylic latex paint
D. Lacquer paint

8. Flat tools with a handle at the back, usually made of wood, used to smooth
and/or finish freshly poured concrete or plaster.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

9. What is GFRC
A. Ground force record collector
B. Glass frame reinforced concrete
C. Gate framed reinforced concrete
D. Glass fiber reinforce concrete

10. A special coating system with a high gloss shine while maintaining the natural
wood qualities, maintenance free, used to finish and topcoat wood flooring
A. Polyethylene floor coating
B. Polyurethane floor coating

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C. Epoxy floor coating

D. Tile floor coating

11. Minimum area in square meters a member supports which the design live load
may be reduced.
A. 14 sqm.
B. 16 sqm.
C. 18 sqm.
D. 20 sqm.

12. Identify the wood joint.

A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Dado joint
D. Mortise and Tenon joint

13. A bar hot rolled with surface deformations to develop a greater bond in
concrete.
A. Reinforcing bar
B. Tension bar
C. Deformed bar
D. Anchorage

14. The effect on the structure due to earthquake motions acting in directions other
than parallel to the direction of resistance under consideration.
A. P-delta effect
B. Orthogonal effect
C. Flutter
D. Resonance

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15. A manual method of squaring the corners of a building lines in building layout, is
the use of
A. 2-3-4 multiples with the use of transit
B. 3-4-5 multiples with the use of steel tape measure
C. 4-5-4 multiples and strings
D. 1-2-3 multiples with the use of steel tape measure

16. The tendency of one part of a beam to move vertically with respect to an
adjacent part.
A. Compression
B. Shear
C. Torsion
D. Bearing

17. In fig.1 image below, identify the hip roof.

A. a1
B. a2
C. a5
D. a6

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18. Nails or spikes for which the wire gauges or lengths not set forth in the NSCP
specifications shall have a required penetration of not less than ___.
A. 9mm diameter
B. 11mm diameter
C. 16mm diameter
D. 18mm diameter

19. Back to fig.1, identify the pyramidal roof.

A. a1
B. a2
C. a3
D. a4

20. Used for cutting curves on thin plywood

A. Jigsaw
B. Router
C. Lathe machine
D. Circular saw

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21. The term used to describe the putting up of the skeleton of the building.

A. Roughing-in
B. Stakes and batter boards
C. Shell work
D. Formworks

22. Simple solid timber columns have slenderness ratio not exceeding ____.
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70

23. A type of glass that is translucent in the morning but like a mirror at night when
viewed from the inside of a building.
A. Float Glass
B. Reflective glass

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C. Clear Glass
D. Tinted Glass

24. Stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion

A. Flag stone
B. Border stone
C. Rip-rap
D. Embankment

25. According to NSCP 407.7.6.3. Bars larger than ___mm shall not be bundled in
beams:
A. 25 mm
B. 16 mm
C. 28 mm
D. 36 mm

26. What deformation does a beam contain?

A. Deformity
B. Compression
C. Deflection
D. Elongation

27. A single span beam with two supports.

A. Cantilever
B. Continuous
C. Simple
D. Over-hanged

28. Loads that change position within the span of a beam in short amount of time.
These loads are often exemplified by wheel loads.
A. Varying Loads
B. Moving Loads

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C. Dead Loads
D. Snow Loads

29. Aviation control towers fall to what type of occupancy?

A. Hazardous facility
B. Standard occupancy
C. Miscellaneous occupancy
D. Essential facilities

30. Force multiplied by the distance

A. Shear
B. Bearing
C. Moment
D. Axial

31. Granular material, such as crushed

stone, iron blast-furnace slag, sand or
gravel used with cementing medium to
form a hydraulic cement concrete or
mortar.
A. Admixture
B. Aggregate
C. Sleeve Particle
D. Filters

32. Is a quality which measures the resistance of the mass to being revolved about
a line?
A. Moment of Inertia
B. Shear
C. Yield point
D. Resistance

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33. According to NSCP, it is a fluctuating stress cycle.

A. Stress
B. Fatigue
C. Deflection
D. Strain

34. It is the load acting on a very small area or particular point of a supporting
structural element?

A. Distributed load
B. Snow load
C. Concentrated load
D. Dead Load

35. To coat a metal especially aluminum, magnesium with a hard non-corrosive film
by electrolytic or chemical action?
A. Galvanize
B. Chroming
C. Bonderize
D. Anodize

36. Which statement is false?

A. Development length of main reinforcements is always a function of the
reinforcement diameter.
B. Transverse reinforcements provide additional flexural support.

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C. Spiral hoops have stronger confining effect than ties.

D. None of the above.

37. One of a pair of vertical angles fastened to each side of a web plate to stiffen it
against buckling?

A. Stiffener
B. Shear plate
C. Plate Girder
D. Joist girder

38. Sheet metal drawn or rolled into parallel ridges and furrows for additional
mechanical strength?

A. Corrugated metal
B. Expanded metal
C. Checkered plate
D. Sheet metal

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39. A rectangular groove cut in a member to receive the end of another.

A. Rabbet
B. Miter
C. Dado
D. None of the above

40. A bended steel to resist shear and diagonal stresses in a concrete beam is
called:

A. Temperature bar
B. Bottom bar
C. Metal plate
D. Stirrups

41. For offset bent longitudinal bars, the horizontal support at offset bends shall be
provided by lateral ties, spiral or parts of the floor construction. Horizontal support
provided shall be designed to resist 1 ½ times the horizontal component of the
computed force in the inclined portion of an offset bar. Lateral ties or spiral shall
be placed not more than _________ from points of bend.
A. 100mm
B. 200mm
C. 150mm
D. 250mm

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42. Walls that support weight from above as well as their own dead weight.

A. Load bearing walls

B. Shoring walls
C. Curtain walls
D. None of the above

43. It is a twisting force that rotates or tends to rotate a shaft.

A. Dead load
B. Stress
C. Elasticity
D. Torque

44. A standard hook may consist of a 180 degree bend plus a 4 db extension (at
the free end) not less than:
A. 55mm
B. 75mm
C. 60mm
D. 85mm

45. A standard 90 degree hook consists of a bend plus an extension of

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A. 8db
B. 12db
C. 10db
D. 16db

46. The failure in a base when a heavily loaded column strikes a hole through is
called:
A. Flexural stress
B. Punching shear
C. Punching moment
D. Single shear

47. See fig.6 below, which of the following is a Thumb screw?

A. e5
B. e6
C. e7
D. e8

48. See fig.6 below, which of the following is a Sheet Metal screw?
A. e5
B. e6
C. e7
D. e8

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49. A horizontal piece of wood, stone, steel or concrete across the top of the door
or window opening to bear the weight of the walls above the opening.
A. Lintel
B. Transverse rafter
C. Transom beam
D. None of the above

50. Underwater watertight chamber to allow construction work to be done.

A. Bent chamber
B. Caisson
C. Submersible air
chamber
D. None of the above

51. The actual stress in a material under a given loading

A. Axial stress
B. Allowable stress
C. Working stress
D. Bending stress

52. Standard concrete mix for concrete under water, retaining walls
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class AA

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53. Where parallel reinforcement is placed in two or more layers, bars in the upper
layers shall be placed directly above bars in the bottom layer with clear distance
between layers not less than:
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 25mm
D. 40mm

54. The minimum thickness of non pre-stressed beams of span L whose supports
are simply supported is:

A. L/18.50
B. L/8
C. L/16
D. L/21

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55. The total floor area 16 feet wide by 60 feet deep needs one inch (1”) x
4”(commercial size) T & G flooring. Assuming that the available T & G is 1” x 4” x
16” and the effective width is 3.5” , the total board feet needed is
A. 1,280 bf
B. 1,098 bf
C. 1330 bf
D. 1,420 bf

56. An internal moment equal and opposite to a bending moment, generated by a

force couple to maintain equilibrium of the section being considered.

A. Bending moment
B. Resisting moment
C. Deflection
D. Moment of inertia

57. A composition of two or more metals fused together usually to obtain a desired
property.
A. Annealing
B. Built-up

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C. Alloy
D. Chroming

58. Kind of support for horizontal and vertical reactions.

A. Roller
B. Fixed
C. Hinged
D. Propped

59. A system of framing a building on which floor joists of each storey rest on the
top plates of the storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the
subfloor of each storey is known as____.
A. Balloon framing
B. Plank framing
C. Western Framing
D. Unitized framing

60. A kind of beam that has fixed support at one end.

A. Cantilever
B. Continuous
C. Simple
D. Over-hanged

61. Is called the cutting force ___.

A. Torque
B. Shear

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C. Moment
D. Axial

62. Consolidation of newly placed concrete by the moderately high frequency

oscillations of an electric or pneumatic tool.
A. Spading
B. Vibration
C. Rodding
D. Bleeding

63. A system of framing a building in which the studs are continuous to roof
supporting second floor joints is known as ____.

A. Post and beam

B. Western framing
C. Balloon framing
D. Roof framing

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64. In the design of a large shopping centers where space is required, intervals of
columns can be wider than the ordinary by adopting a structural method of
construction called
A. Pre-casting
B. Hammering
C. Compressioning
D. Post-tensioning

65. Bundled bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties but bars larger than the
size below shall not be bundled in beams.
A. 40mm
B. 32mm
C. 36mm
D. 28mm

66. The boxing in of covering a joist, beam or girder to give the appearance of a
larger beam is known as ______.
A. Beam formworks
B. Beam blocking
C. Grade beam
D. None of the above

67. A form of brick bond in which each course is alternately composed of entirely of
headers or of stretchers is
known as ____.

A. Common bond
B. Flemish bond
C. English bond
D. Running bond

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68. The staircase of a house has a total run of 3 meters and a total rise of 2.16
meters, the tread width is 11 inches and riser is 7 7/8”, therefore, the stringer
length is
A. 3.20 meters
B. 3.69 meters
C. 3.75 meters
D. 3.35 meters

69. This is a material that holds less moisture, is very light, less water absorptive
capacity and is very good in sidings of dwelling units.

A. Vinyl shingles
B. Wood boards
C. Asbestos-cement shingles
D. None of the above

70. A one-way concrete slab are used when

A. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
B. The slab has no cantilevered portion
C. The concrete slab is reinforced on the near bottom side
D. The concrete slab is sloping to all side

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71. The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction
and after completion of the projects for a period of not less than
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 2 years

72. The distance from the first to the last riser of a stair flight is called ____.

A. Spandrel
B. Pitch
C. Run
D. Rise

73. A high-speed rotary shaping hand power tool used to make smooth cutting and
curving on solid wood is called
A. Surface planer
B. Portable hand router
C. Dado place
D. Lath machine

74. An expansion joints adjacent parts of a structure to permit expected movements

between them is called
A. Contraction joint
B. Truss joint

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C. Construction joint
D. Conduction joint

75. What criterion conforms to good construction practice for the earliest time to
remove scaffolding for concrete flooring other than early-strength concrete if no
anticipated load is expected over poured floor?
A. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 14 days and 100%
of scaffolds after 21 days after pouring
B. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 21 days of pouring
and 100% of scaffolds after 28 days
C. 50% of scaffolding can be removed after 14 days and 100% of scaffolds
after 2 days
D. 50% of scaffoldings can be removed over slab area after 28 days of
pouring and 100% of scaffolding after 36 days

76. The time required for the removal of a form of a concrete footing
A. 24 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 12 hours

77. When utilizing “knock-down” modular system of cabinets and furniture, an end
user is constrain of using:
A. Longer assembly time
B. Needs additional finishing
C. Labor intensive during production and assembly
D. Standard sizes, shapes and forms

78. What is the appropriate paint material for G.I. sheet roofing?
A. Alkyd paint type
B. Acrylic latex type

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C. Lacquer type
D. Urethane

79. A water-mixed product mixed to a ratio of 1:20 to stabilize lime activity in new
masonry surface. Without preparing the surface with this mixture will cause the
subsequent painting to be defective
A. Acrylic emulsion
B. Masonry neutralizer
C. Etching solution
D. Aquaseal

80. What is the vernacular term for rough plastering?

A. Baldosa
B. Asintada
C. Kostura
D. Rebokada

81. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or
combination thereof, in preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?

A. Cut and fill

B. Grading
C. Benching
D. Site preparation

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82. A floor finish commercially size 1” x 12” x 12” utilizing clay and fired in traditional
manner making interesting and attractive rustic clay shade patterns. Because of
the rustic effect the floor is finished rough and simply adhere by cement with
some irregularities
A. Cement non-skid blocks
B. Adobe cobbled stones
C. Vigan tiles
D. Mosaic tiles

83. In fig.2 (see attachment), identify the Bay window

A. b1
B. b2
C. b3
D. b4

84. A joint formed when a concrete surface hardens before the next batch of
concrete is placed against it is
A. Control joint
B. Expansion joint
C. Block out
D. Cold joint

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85. According to NSCP, the stress that remains in an unloaded member after it has
been formed into a finished product.
A. Stress concentration
B. Shear factor
C. Residual stress
D. Instability

86. Plaster or plywood ceiling on nailers or joists below a ventilated roof space may
show “pattern staining” on the ceiling. This can be prevented by ____.
A. Cleaning
B. Repainting
C. Adequate insulation
D. None of the above

87. It refers to the occupancy load which either partially or fully in place or may not
be present at all is called
A. Live load
B. Dead load
C. Concentrated load
D. Distributed load

88. The distance between inflection point in the column when it breaks is called
A. Development length
B. Effective length
C. Cross sectional area
D. Equivalent distance

89. According to NSCP 203.20, it is a component including its attachments having

fundamental period greater than 0.60 sec.
A. Braced frame
B. Bearing wall system

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C. B. Rigid Component
D. Flexible component

90. The paint finishing material of long-span pre-painted roofing sheet

A. Acrylic Paint
B. Latex Paint
C. Acrylic Latex Paint
D. Enamel Paint

91. In the fig.7 below, which of the following is a Fink truss?

A. f1
B. f2
C. f3
D. f4

92. An admixture which is used to speed up the initial set of concrete. Such a
material maybe added to the mix to increase the rate of early-strength
development for several reasons.
A. Damproofers
B. Water Reducing Admixtures
C. Accelerator
D. Retarder

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 28

93. See fig.8 below, identify Common Header Bond?

A. g1
B. g2
C. g3
D. g4

94. Again, in fig.8 below, identify English Cross Bond?

A. g3
B. g4
C. g5
D. g6

95. Flat unobstructed areas exposed to wind flowing over open water for a distance
of at least 2 km falls on what exposure category for wind loading?
A. Exposure A
B. Exposure C
C. Exposure B
D. Exposure D

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 29

96. In any one bundle, groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contract to act
as a unit shall be limited to a maximum of:
A. Three
B. Five
C. Four
D. Six

97. According to NSCP 307.7.3, this is concrete filled driven piles of uniform section
shall have a nominal outside diameter of not less than_______.
A. 200
B. 250
C. 300
D. 350

98. Buildings or structures therein housing and supporting toxic or explosive

chemicals or substances fall to what type of category? (CDEP IV-35)
A. Miscellaneous occupancy
B. Essential facilities
C. Special occupancy
D. Hazardous facility

99. In fig.9 on the next page, identify which of the following is a Splined Miter joint.
A. h1
B. h9
C. h3
D. h4

100. Again, see fig.9, identify which of the following is a Scarf joint.
A. h1
B. h9
C. h3
D. h4

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 30

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exam.

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 31

ANSWER KEY: 34. C 68. B

1. A 35. D 69. C
2. B 36. B 70. A
3. C 37. A 71. D
4. A 38. A 72. C
5. C 39. C 73. B
6. B 40. D 74. A
7. C 41. C 75. A
8. C 42. A 76. A
9. D 43. D 77. D
10. B 44. C 78. B
11. A 45. B 79. B
12. D 46. B 80. D
13. C 47. D 81. B
14. B 48. B 82. C
15. B 49. A 83. A
16. B 50. B 84. D
17. C 51. C 85. C
18. B 52. D 86. C
19. D 53. C 87. A
20. C 54. C 88. B
21. D 55. B 89. B
22. B 56. B 90. A
23. B 57. C 91. A
24. C 58. B 92. C
25. D 59. C 93. A
26. C 60. A 94. D
27. B 61. B 95. D
28. B 62. B 96. C
29. D 63. C 97. A
30. D 64. D 98. D
31. B 65. D 99. B
32. A 66. B 100. C
33. B 67. B

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 Republic of the Philippines
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 June 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Concrete mixture usually used for footings, pier, columns, girders, beams, joist,
and slabs.
A. Class A
B. Class AA
C. Class B
D. Class C

2. Bolt head types: Identify the number 3.

A. Pan
B. Oval
C. Hex
D. None of these

3. What this type of brickbond?

A. Flemish bond
B. English bond
C. Common bond
D. Running bond

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4. This screw has the ability to advance when turned, while creating its own thread.
This ability is created sometimes by having a gap in the continuity of the thread
on the screw. These edges can cut their own threads as the screw is driven in to
the material. They function by having a cutting
edge which drills away the material, making a tiny
hole for the screw to go into.
A. Tap screw
B. Telkscrew
C. Advance screw
D. Self-drilling screw

5. What is a concrete beam placed directly on the ground to provide foundation for
the superstructure?
A. Strap beam
B. Gerber beam
C. Grade beam
D. Tie beam

6. Clear distance between pre-tensioning tendons at each end of member shall not
be less than ____ for wire.

A. 6db
B. 8db
C. 4db
D. 12d

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7. The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is
____.
A. Sand
B. Cement
C. Gravel
D. Lime

8. A common and cheap masonry finish wherein dry consistency mortar mix is
sprayed by mechanical or pneumatic means. The sprayed cement is left to dry
and give a rustic finish. Optional paint coat maybe required.
A. Spraytex
B. Anay finish
C. Stucco finish
D. Sandblast

9. Minimum concrete cover for pipes,

conduits and fittings exposed to earth or
weather.

A. 50mm
B. 60mm
C. 40mm
D. 70mm

10. The compressive strength of concrete is inversely proportional to the ratio of

water to cement.
A. Abram’s Law
B. Hooke’s Law

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 C. Newton’s Law
D. None of these

11. Identify this type of wood joint.

A. Butt joint
B. Rabbet joint
C. Dado joint
D. Tenon joint

12. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance
and ductility is _______.
A. Cast-Iron
B. Black-iron
C. Heavy-Iron
D. Wrought-Iron

13. Designed to produce better mortar than that made with normal Portland cement
or with a lime-cement combination.
A. Portland Cement
B. Masonry Cement
C. Air Entraining Portland Cement
D. Waterproofed Portland Cement

14. What is a method of analyzing indeterminate modular building frames by

assuming hinges at the center of beam spans and column heights?
A. Cantilever method
B. Moment distribution method
C. Fee body diagram method
D. Portal method

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15. To avoid chalking of paint, what should be done?
A. Apply new paint
B. Do not paint when humid
C. Buy new roller
D. Apply sanding sealer

16. A 1000 mm x 25 mm nominal diameter deformed steel bar is subjected to test.

The following results were obtained:
Actual length is 999mm; actual diameter is 23.5 mm; actual weight is 3.90 kg; yield
force = 22,099.13 kgs.; yield stress = 45.02 kg/sq. mm; ultimate force = 31,425.74
kgs.; ultimate stress = 64.02 kg/sq. mm; actual strain = 12%.
Judge the quality of the steel bar as per PS standard 681-04.02:1975.
A. Nominal diameter of the steel bar, 23.5 mm, is less than the required
diameter of 25 mm, thus of poor quality.
B. The steel bar is an intermediate steel bar.
C. Steel bar results is less than the minimum standard of PS Grade 410 thus
may be categorized only as PS Grade 275.
D. Steel bar is PS Grade 410 and passes the minimum standard for PS Grade
410 thus of good quality.

17. Numerous hairline cracks occurring in the surface of a newly hardened concrete
slab as a result of a drying shrinkage.
A. Spalling
B. Crazing
C. Shrinkage
D. Honeycomb

18. It is a preparatory coating put on materials before painting ensures better

adhesion of paint to the surface, increases paint durability, and provides
additional protection for the material being painted.
A. Adhesion paint
B. Primer

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 C. Sealer
D. Lacquer

19. To turn back water whenever joints occur in which dissimilar materials come
together, it is necessary to provide _____.

A. Flashing material
B. Binding material
C. Counter flushing
D. Expansion joint

20. What is standard concrete mix for beams, girders, slabs, stairs and columns?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class AA

21. What is a round, steel bolt embedded in concrete or masonry used to hold down
masonry, steel columns, or beam casting, shock beam plates and engine heads?

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 A. Retaining bolts
B. Foundation bolts
C. Anchor bolts
D. Friction bolts

22. The straining and distortion of a structural frame by lateral forces.

A. Swaying
B. Deflection
C. Buckling
D. Racking

23. Private garages, carports, sheds, agricultural buildings fall to what type of
occupancy?
A. Hazardous facility
B. Standard occupancy
C. Miscellaneous occupancy
D. Essential facilities
24. Which of the following concrete handling criterion impairs the quality of
concrete? (NSCP Sec. 5.5.10)
A. Re-tempering concrete shall not be used and discarded by approved
means

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 B. Concrete shall be carried on at such a rate that concrete is at all times
plastic and flows readily into spaces between reinforcements
C. Concrete that has initially set shall be mixed with new concrete and shall
be deposited in the structure with approved means
D. Top surfaces of vertically formed lifts shall be generally level.

25. What are piles placed at an inclination to resist forces that are not critical?

A. Guide piles
B. Batter piles
C. Slope piles
D. Fender piles

26. Resembling glass, as in transparency, hardness, brittleness, luster or having

low or no porosity.
A. Acrylic
B. Homogenous
C. Vitreous
D. Cinder

27. A narrow strip of wood applied to cover a joint along the edges of two parallel
boards in the same plane is a ______.
A. Fillet

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 B. Cant strip
C. Batten
D. Wood plank

28. What will happen when you break tempered glass?

A. It will break into smaller harmless particles

B. It will break but not splinter into room
C. It will not break
D. It will break and cause damage to the people

29. Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand operated
machine is ____.
A. Tryolean finish
B. Trowel finish
C. Broom stripped finish
D. Rough finish

30. Mathematical expression using moment of Area.

A. Modulus
B. Centroid

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 C. Stress
D. Moment of inertia

31. It is a single force, or a force and a couple which acting alone will produce the
same effect as the force system.
A. Force
B. Equilibrium
C. Resultant
D. Transmissibility

32. Aggregates should conform to PNS or ASTM standards and must be well-
graded for easy workability and method of consolidation are such that the
concrete can be poured without honeycomb or voids. What is the nominal
maximum size of a coarse aggregate when working spaces between
reinforcements for proper bonding? (NSCP Sec. 5.3.3)
A. Coarse aggregates shall be no larger than 1/2 the minimum clear spacing
between individual reinforcing bars or wires, bundles of bars or
prestressing tendons or ducts.
B. Coarse aggregates shall be no larger than 5/8 the minimum clear space
between individual reinforcing bars or wires, bundles of bars or
prestressing tendons or ducts.
C. Coarse aggregates shall be no larger than 3/4 the minimum clear space
between individual reinforcing bars or wires, bundles of bars or
prestressing tendons or ducts.
D. None of these

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33. When a beam is loaded, the new position of its longitudinal centroid axis is
called:

A. Deflected shape
B. Elastic curve
C. Parabolic Curve
D. Inelastic curve

34. A point in each normal section of a member through which the axis passes and
about which the section twists.

A. Centroid
B. Center of gravity
C. Shear center
D. Deflection

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35. It synonymous to bending
stress.

A. Flexural stress
B. Tangential Stress
C. Torsional Stress
D. Normal Stress

36. A wall which support vertical loads in addition to its weight without the benefit of
a complete vertical load carrying space frame is called:
A. Retaining wall
B. Shearing wall
C. Curtain wall
D. Bearing wall

37. Dry walls do not require appreciable amount of moisture and they are
customarily finished with ____.

A. Mortar and cement

B. Plywood on stud
C. Lath and plaster
D. None of the above

38. The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is

A. Post tensioning
B. Pre-casting

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 C. Pre-tensioning
D. Lift slab

39. The capacity of a wall to hold moisture is important in the design of dwelling
units. Select the best material which will reduce moisture in a wall.
A. CHB S-cut joint finish
B. 1” thk. V-cut wood boards
C. Synthetic Adobe finish on RC wall
D. None of the above

40. A typical block or panel type insulating material used in flat roof of commercial
or industrial building
A. Corkboard
B. Acacia lumber
C. Washed pebbles
D. Coconut lumber

41. It refers to the occupancy load which either partially or fully in place or may not
be present at all is called _____.
A. Live load
B. Dead load
C. Concentrated load
D. Distributed load

42. Which of the following concrete handling criterion impairs the quality of
concrete?
A. Re-tempting concrete shall not be used and discard by approved means
B. Concrete shall be carried on at such a rate that concrete is at all times
plastic and flows readily into space between reinforcement

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 C. Concrete that has initially set, shall be mixed with new concrete and shall
be deposited in the structure with approved means
D. Top surfaces or vertically formed lifts shall be generally level

43. In fig.1 (see image below), identify which is the gable roof?
A. a1
B. a2
C. a3
D. a4

44. In fig.1 (see image below), identify which is the shed roof?
A. a3
B. a4
C. a5
D. a6

45. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices of 48db but not less than
A. 300mm
B. 500mm
C. 400mm
D. 600mm

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46. What is the minimum concrete cover for primary reinforcement of beams and
columns not exposed to earth or weather for precast concrete manufactured
under plant control conditions? (NSCP Sec. 5.7.7.2)
A. db but not less than 25mm
B. db but not less than 15mm and need not exceed 40mm
C. db but not less than 20mm and need not exceed 50mm
D. db but not less than 30mm

47. The process or product of bonding one metal to another, usually to protect the
inner metal from corrosion?
A. Pickle
B. Bonderize
C. Cladding
D. Anodize

48. The complete records of test conduction (slump, compression test, etc.) shall be
preserved and made available for inspection during the progress of construction
and after completion of the projects for a period of not less than
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 2 years

49. It is a process of shaping material by forcing it to flow through a shaped opening

in a die. It emerges as an elongated piece with the same profile as the die
opening.
A. Protrusion
B. Extrusion
C. Moulding
D. None of these

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50. Which is NOT among the following arrangement, a seismic requirement for
transverse reinforcement? (NSCP Sec. 5.21.9.4.2)
A. Maximum spacing of hoops shall not exceed 24 times the diameter of the
hoop bars
B. Maximum spacing of hoops shall not be 8 times the diameter of the
smallest longitudinal bars
C. Maximum spacing of hoops shall not be more than d/4.
D. The first hoop shall be located not more than 75mm from the face of the
supporting member.

51. How is a camber treated in a steel truss 25 meters or longer?

A. Camber shall be approximately equal to 1% of the span.
B. Camber shall be approximately equal to the dead load deflection.
C. Camber shall be approximately equal to 0.8% of the span plus 1/3 the
dead load deflection.
D. Camber shall be approximately equal to 0.5% of the span plus 1/3 the live
load deflection.

52. Flat hand tools used for applying, spreading and shaping plaster or mortar to
produce a relatively smooth finish on concrete surfaces in the final stages of
finishing.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

53. What type of concrete when air-dried weights 1900 kg per cubic meter?
A. Reinforce concrete
B. Air-entrained concrete
C. Lightweight concrete
D. Concrete

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54. In fig.2 (see image), identify which is the Palladian window.
A. b1
B. b2
C. b3
D. b4

55. In fig.2 (see image),

identify which is the
Casement window.
A. b1
B. b2
C. b3
D. b4

56. The displacement of one level relative to the level above or below.
A. Storey drift
B. Sway
C. Deflection
D. Soft storey

57. Retaining walls shall be designed to resist overturning by at least ______times

the overturning moment. (NSCP 206.6)
A. 1.0
B. 2.5
C. 2
D. 1.50

58. Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry

walls are known as

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 A. Cold joint
B. Control joint
C. Block outs
D. None of the above

59. Which of the following criterion precludes good construction practice for
conduits and pipes embedded in concrete? (NSCP Sec. 5.6.3)
A. Conduits and pipes embedded in slab, the wall or beam shall not be larger
in outside dimension than 1/3 the overall thickness of slab, wall or beam in
which they are embedded.
B. Reinforcement with an area not less than 0.002 times the area of cross
section shall be provided normal to piping.
C. Conduit and pipes, with their fittings, embedded within a column, shall not
displace more than 5% of the area of the cross section on which strength
is calculated.
D. Concrete cover for pipes, conduits and fittings, shall not be less than
40mm for concrete exposed to earth or weather.

60. The horizontal distance from the face of a lock or latch to the center of the knob
or lock cylinder
A. Backset
B. Backfill
C. Backdrop
D. Built-up

61. It is a Wire-enclosed riprap. It consists of mats or baskets fabricated from wire

mesh, filled with small riprap, and anchored to a slope.
A. Barrow Fill
B. Gabion System
C. Rip-rap
D. None of these

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62. In fig.6 (see image below), which of the following is a Lag screw?
A. e1
B. e2
C. e3
D. e4

63. In fig.6 (see image below), which of the following is a Machine screw?
A. e1
B. e2
C. e3
D. e4

64. In fig.6 (see image below), which of the following is a Cap screw?
A. e5
B. e6
C. e7
D. e8

65. Which of the following criteria for bundled bars do NOT apply?
A. Bars larger than 32mm shall not be bundled in beams.
B. Bundle bars shall be enclosed within stirrups or ties.
C. Group of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as a unit shall
be limited to three in any one bundle.
D. Individual bars within a bundle terminated within the span of flexural
members shall terminate at different points with at least 40db staggered.

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66. What is the minimum requirement for development of at least 1/3 of the total
reinforcement provided for negative moment reinforcement, as an embedded
length beyond the point of inflection? (NSCP Sec. 5.12.12.3)
A. Not less than the effective length of member of 12 db, or 1/16 of the clear
span, whichever is greater.
B. L/3 + d or 24 db, or 1/12th the clear span, whichever is greater
C. Not less than 1.5d or 14db, or 1/12th the clear span, whichever is greater
D. L/4 + d or 12 db, or 1/12th the clear span, whichever is greater

67. The lateral force on a crane runway beam with electrically powered trolleys shall
be calculated as ______% of the sum of the rated capacity of the crane and the
weight of the hoist and trolley. (NSCP 206.9.4)
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 50%

68. One method of leveling batterboards without the transit is the use of
A. ¼ Ø plastic hose filled with water
B. Eyesight
C. Plumb bob
D. Chalk line

69. Which of the following criterion is NOT applicable for plug and slot welds?
A. The thickness of plug or slot welds in material 16mm or less in thickness
shall be equal to the thickness of the material.
B. The width of the slot shall not be less than the thickness of the parts
containing it plus 10mm nor 2 1/4 times the thickness of the weld.
C. The minimum center to center spacing in a longitudinal direction of any
line shall be 2 times the length of the slot.
D. None of these

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70. In fig.7 (see image below), which of the following is a Pratt truss?
A. f1
B. f2
C. f3
D. f4

71. In fig.7 (see image below), which of the following is a Fan truss?
A. f1
B. f2
C. f3
D. f4

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72. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in a layer must be db but not
less than? (NSCP 407.7.3)
A. 50 mm
B. 25 mm
C. 75 mm
D. 100 mm

73. A diagonal member for bracing a structure against lateral forces.

A. Retaining wall
B. Shear wall
C. Sway brace
D. Diagonal brace

74. Good high-strength bolted connection for steel should have the following
physical characteristics for good workmanship. Which in the following list is NOT
ideal? (NSCP Sec. 4.23.5)
A. High-strength bolted parts shall fit solidly together when assembled and
shall not be separated by gaskets or any other interposed compressive
material.
B. Bolts tightened by means of a calibrated wrench shall be installed with a
hardened washer under the nut or bolt head whichever is the element
turned in tightening.
C. Surface in contact with the bolt head and nut head shall have a slope of
not more than 1:10 with respect to a plane normal to the bolt axis.
D. None of these

75. The chief structural materials, used for tall buildings are
A. Built-up beams, girders, foundations
B. Cement, deformed wrought iron, gravel and sand
C. Reinforced concrete and high grade steel
D. None of the above

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76. A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other
primarily to resist bending is a
A. Web member
B. Chord
C. Girt
D. None of the above

77. In fig.8 (see image below), identify Common English Bond?

A. g1
B. g2
C. g3
D. g4

78. In fig.8 (see image below), identify Flemish Cross Bond?

A. g3
B. g4
C. g5
D. g6

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79. What is a steel element such as wire, cable, bar, rod or strand or a bundle of
such elements, used to impart prestress to concrete? (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)
A. Prestress cables
B. Reinforcement
C. Tenon cables
D. Tendons

80. Normally produced by adding a small amount of stearate, usually calcium or

aluminum to the cement clinker during the final grinding.
A. Portland Cement
B. Masonry Cement
C. Air Entraining Portland Cement
D. Waterproofed Portland Cement

81. A member or an element provided to transfer lateral forces from a portion of a

structure or the level at which the structure, as a dynamic vibrator, is supported.
A. Braced frame
B. Base shear
C. Collector
D. Platform

82. How is a 90 degree bend standard hook for concrete reinforcement

constructed? (NSCP Sec. 5.7.1.2)
A. 90 degree bend plus 10 db extension, at free end of bar
B. 90 degree bend plus 12 db extension, at free end of bar
C. 90 degree bend plus 6 db extension, at free end of bar
D. 90 degree bend plus 4 db extension, at free end of bar

83. A two-layer system, where beams frame into girders, increases floor depth
considerably and provides more space for mechanical systems.
A. One-way beam system

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 B. Two-way beam system
C. Three-way beam system
D. None of these

84. The chipping or scaling of a hardened concrete or masonry surface caused by

freeze thaw cycle or the application of deicing of salts.
A. Spalling
B. Crazing
C. Shrinkage
D. Honeycomb

85. It is used for primarily in pole constructions, docks, piling, wharves and railroad
and highway bridges or trestles.
A. Gridlock
B. Cluster Grid
C. Linear Grid
D. Spike Grid

86. A complete record of test of materials and of concrete shall be available for
inspection during the progress of work and _______ years after completion of the
project and shall be preserved by the inspecting engineer or architect for that
purpose, (NSCP 403.20)
A. 2 yrs.
B. 5 yrs.
C. 10 yrs.
D. 15 yrs

87. Made from materials which must contain the proper proportions of lime, silica,
alumina and iron components.
A. Portland Cement
B. Masonry Cement

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 C. Oil Well Cement
D. Waterproofed Portland Cement

88. Retaining walls shall be designed to resist sliding by at least _______times the
lateral force. (NSCP 206.6)
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1.50
D. 1

89. A one-way concrete slab are used when

A. The slab is being supported by two parallel beams
B. The slab has no cantilevered portion
C. The concrete slab is reinforced on the near bottom side
D. The concrete slab is sloping to all side

90. As a seismic requirement for flexural members where hoops are required, how
are the remaining portions of a beam treated with transverse reinforcement as
minimum requirement other than those required with hoops? (NSCP Sec.
5.21.3.3.4)
A. Where hoops are not required, stirrups shall be spaced at no more than
d/2 throughout the length of the member.
B. Where hoops are not required, cross ties shall be spaced at no more than
d/3 throughout the length of the member.
C. Where hoops are not required, hoops shall continue except that spacing
shall not be more than d/2.
D. None of these

91. Mathematical expression using double moment of Area

A. Modulus
B. Centroid

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 C. Stress
D. Moment of inertia

92. See fig.9 below, which of the following is a Half Lap joint?
A. h5
B. h6
C. h1
D. h2

93. See fig.9 below, which of the following is a Dado joint?

A. h1
B. h5
C. h9
D. h4

94. See fig.9 below, which of the following is a Finger joint?

A. h1
B. h2
C. h3
D. h4

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95. A slight convex curvature intentionally built into a beam, girder or truss to
compensate an anticipated deflection?

A. Spanner
B. Camber
C. Transverse shear
D. Joint leader

96. The allowable deflection for any structural member loaded with live load only.
(NSCP 107.2.2)
A. L/300
B. L/360
C. L/200
D. L/240

97. A quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to being revolved about
line is called:
A. Tension
B. Variation
C. Torsion
D. Deflection

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 98. A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the
wall.
A. Riprap
B. Shear Wall
C. Retaining Wall
D. Fire Wall

99. It is a consolidation of newly placed concrete by moderately high- frequency

oscillations of vibrator.
A. Rodding
B. Buggy
C. Vibration
D. Gunite

100. Minimum diameter of bolts to be used in timber connection and

fastening in accordance with NSCP specifications.
A. 10mm
B. 12mm
C. 16mm
D. 18mm

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have
questions or comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
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ANSWER KEY: 34. C 68. A
1. A 35. A 69. B
2. C 36. D 70. D
3. D 37. C 71. B
4. A 38. A 72. B
5. C 39. B 73. C
6. C 40. A 74. C
7. B 41. A 75. C
8. D 42. B 76. B
9. C 43. A 77. C
10. A 44. D 78. C
11. A 45. A 79. D
12. D 46. B 80. D
13. B 47. C 81. C
14. D 48. D 82. B
15. B 49. B 83. B
16. D 50. D 84. A
17. B 51. B 85. D
18. B 52. A 86. A
19. A 53. C 87. A
20. A 54. D 88. B
21. C 55. C 89. A
22. D 56. A 90. A
23. C 57. D 91. C
24. C 58. B 92. C
25. B 59. C 93. B
26. C 60. A 94. B
27. C 61. B 95. B
28. A 62. C 96. B
29. A 63. D 97. C
30. B 64. A 98. B
31. C 65. C 99. C
32. C 66. A 100. B
33. B 67. A

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 Republic of the Philippines
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. What is a material other than water, aggregate or hydraulic cement, used as an

ingredient of concrete and added to concrete before or during its mixture to
modify its properties? (NSCP Sec. 5.2.1)
A. Admixture
B. Steam
C. Plasticizer
D. Retarder

2. Minimum concrete cover for a pre-stressed concrete for beams and columns for
primary reinforcements.
A. 50mm
B. 60mm
C. 70mm
D. 40mm

3. What is the act of excavating or filling of earth or any sound material or

combination thereof, in preparation for a finishing surface such as paving?
A. Cut and fill
B. Grading
C. Site preparation
D. Benching

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4. It synonymous to bending stress.
A. Tangential Stress
B. Torsional Stress
C. Flexural stress
D. Normal Stress

5. The stress wherein the deformation increases without any increase in the load.
The material at some portion shows a decrease in its cross section
A. Elastic limit
B. Yield point
C. Stress
D. Ultimate strength

6. Zone 1 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph

A. 150
B. 250
C. 125
D. 200

7. The ratio between the effective length and the unbraced length of the member
measured between the centers of gravity of the bracing members. (NSCP Def. of
Terms)
A. Effective length
B. Eccentric Braced Frame (EBF)
C. Effective length Factor
D. Effective Stiffness

8. Two M.S. plates are to be welded by end butt joint by a partial penetration
groove weld. The thickness of the plates are 16mm. What is the minimum
effective throat thickness of the weld? (NSCP Sec. 4.17.2, see Table 4.17.2B)
A. 6.0 mm

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 B. 9.0 mm
C. 7.5 mm
D. 12.0mm

9. A wall which support vertical loads in addition to its weight without the benefit of
a complete vertical load carrying space frame is called:
A. Retaining wall
B. Shearing wall
C. Curtain wall
D. Bearing wall

10. The greatest stress which a material is capable of developing without a

permanent deformation remaining upon the complete release of stress is called:
A. Allowable stress
B. Bending stress
C. Moment of inertia
D. Proportional limit

11. Open terrain with scattered obstructions having heights less than 9M. Falls on
what exposure category for wind loading?
A. Exposure A
B. Exposure C
C. Exposure B
D. Exposure D

12. What is the allowable deflection for member’s roof or floor construction
supporting or attached to non-structural elements likely to be damaged by large
deflections?
A. L/240
B. L/360
C. L/180
D. L/480

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13. A tensile or compressive force acting along the longitudinal axis of a structural
member and at the centroid of the cross section, producing axial stress without
bending, torsion or shear.
A. Axial force
B. Axial stress
C. Compressive force
D. Eccentric stress

14. A method for determining the consistency and workability of freshly mixed
concrete.
A. Slum test
B. Compression test
C. Core test
D. Slump test

15. A type of shatter-proof opaque glass used to construct a door with glass to
allow natural light only.
A. Figure wired glass
B. Smoked glass
C. Etched glass
D. Bevel glass

16. Which of the following concrete handling criterion impairs the quality of
concrete?
A. Re-tempting concrete shall not be used and discard by approved means
B. Concrete that has initially set, shall be mixed with new concrete and shall
be deposited in the structure with approved means
C. Top surfaces or vertically formed lifts shall be generally level
D. Concrete shall be carried on at such a rate that concrete is at all times
plastic and flows readily into space between reinforcement

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17. A pretreatment of poured concrete such as walls beams and columns where a
thin layer of lean cement grout mixed with flexible base additives is splattered by
tampico brush or masonry spoon to the surface to give a “tooth” for excellent
plaster adhesion
A. Scratch coat
B. Splash coat
C. Cement roughing
D. Concrete roughing by chiseling

18. Due to temperature effects in materials, concrete walls, slabs of long buildings,
new buildings adjoining existing buildings should be provided with
A. Flashing
B. Expansion joints
C. Welded joint
D. Concrete joints

19. A typical block or panel type insulating material used in flat roof of commercial
or industrial building
A. Corkboard
B. Acacia lumber
C. Washed pebbles
D. Coconut lumber

20. A geological or ground condition considered in determining the size and type of
foundation of the building
A. Soil chemistry
B. Soil bearing pressure
C. Particle size distribution
D. None of the above

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21. Pressure exerted against the underground portion of a building created by the
presence of water in the soil is known as
A. Soil bearing pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Pneumatic pressure

22. A window which projects outside the main line of a building and the
compartment in which it is located extends to the floor is known as
A. Bay window
B. Hopper window
C. Oriel window
D. Rose window

23. A modern method of installing wood parquet flooring on wooden boards sub-
flooring is by
A. Gluing/ pasting
B. Nailing into battens
C. Wainscoting
D. None of the above

24. The standard height of window sills for office rooms in upper floors is
A. 1.20m
B. 0.60m
C. 0.90m
D. 0.30m

25. What criterion conforms to good construction practice for the earliest time to
remove scaffolding for concrete flooring other than early-strength concrete if no
anticipated load is expected over poured floor?

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 A. 50% of scaffolding can be removed after 14 days and 100% of scaffolds
after 2 days
B. 50% of scaffoldings can be removed over slab area after 28 days of
pouring and 100% of scaffolding after 36 days
C. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 14 days and 100%
of scaffolds after 21 days after pouring
D. 25% of scaffoldings can be removed at slab area after 21 days of pouring
and 100% of scaffolds after 28 days

26. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforced compression members, clear distance

between longitudinal bars shall not be less than?
(NSCP 407.7.3)
A. 2.0 db
B. 2.15 db
C. 1.50 mm
D. 1.75 mm

27. Buildings used for college or adult education with a capacity of 500 or more
students fall to what type of occupancy? (CDEP IV-35)
A. Miscellaneous occupancy
B. Essential Facilities
C. Special occupancy
D. Standard occupancy

28. The minimum thickness of non pre-stressed beams of span L whose supports
are simply supported is:
A. L/16
B. L/21
C. L/18.50
D. L/8

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29. A structural member spanning from truss-to-truss or supporting rafters.
A. Floor joist
B. Girt
C. Purlin
D. Girder

30. A temporary load on a structure occurring during its erection, as from wind or
the weight of construction equipment and stored materials?
A. Moving load
B. Construction load
C. Dynamic load
D. Wind load

31. Standard concrete mix for slab on fill, non-bearing walls

A. Class A
B. Class AA
C. Class B
D. Class C

32. Splices in spiral reinforcement shall be lap splices of 48db but not less than
A. 300mm
B. 500mm
C. 400mm
D. 600mm

33. In spirally reinforced or tied reinforcement compression members, clear

distance between longitudinal (vertical) bars shall not be less than 40mm nor
A. 1.5db
B. 5.0db
C. 2.0db
D. 1.0db

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34. Mathematical expression using double moment of Area
A. Modulus
B. Centroid
C. Stress
D. Moment of inertia

35. Force multiplied by the distance

A. Moment
B. Axial
C. Bearing
D. Shear

36. The magnitudes of the loads specified by the applicable codes.

(NSCP Definition of Terms)
A. Nominal loads
B. Nominal Strength
C. Resistance
D. Load Factor

37. A method proportioning structural components such that no applicable limit

state is exceeded when the structure is subjected to all appropriate load
combinations.
A. Building Frame System
B. Strength Design
C. Mechanism Method
D. Load & Resistance Factor Design

38. A vertical diaphragm acting as a thin deep cantilever beam in transferring lateral
loads to the ground foundation.
A. Shear wall
B. Bearing wall

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 C. Braced frame
D. Diaphragm

39. A load extending over the length or area of the supporting structural element?
A. Static load
B. Distributed load
C. Live load
D. Snow load

40. Dressed lumber is referred to

A. Covered with plastic for shipment
B. Lumber of exact measurement
C. Smoothed or planed lumber
D. Lumber used for fine carpentry works

41. A type of concrete floor which has no beam is called.

A. Flat Slab
B. One Way Slab
C. Two Way Slab
D. Ribbed Slab

42. Voids on a formed concrete surface, caused by segregation during placement

or by insufficient consolidation.
A. Spalling
B. Crazing
C. Shrinkage
D. Honeycomb

43. Xyladecor is a product of

A. Davies
B. Welcoat

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 C. Rain or Shine
D. Boysen

44. Small amounts of this is added to the clinker and ground with it to produce air-
entraining cements, effective use for resistance to severe frost.
A. Portland Cement
B. Masonry Cement
C. Air Entraining Portland Cement
D. Waterproofed Portland Cement

45. Standard concrete mix for concrete plant boxes, etc.

A. Class A
B. Class AA
C. Class B
D. Class C

46. Curing for type III concrete shall be maintained above 10 degrees Celsius and
moist condition for at least ____ days after placement.
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 28 days

47. Time required for the removal of a form works of a concrete footing
A. 12 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 24 hours

48. A joinery, an acute angle or groove separating one element from another?
A. Rout

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 B. Coped
C. Quirk
D. Angle joint

49. The major horizontal supporting member of the floor system is called:
A. Rafter
B. Girder
C. Purlin
D. Girt

50. Stone placed on a slope to prevent erosion

A. Rip-rap
B. Embankment
C. Flag stone
D. Border stone

51. What is a design analysis requirement, considered as basis for the structural
design of buildings and structures, where the total lateral forces are distributed to
various vertical elements of the lateral force-resisting system in proportion to their
rigidities considering the rigidity of the horizontal bracing system or diaphragm?
A. Shear and moment diagram
B. Stability against overturning
C. Distribution of horizontal shear
D. Horizontal torsional moments

52. Kind of support for vertical reaction only

A. Roller
B. Fixed
C. Hinged
D. Propped

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53. A kind of beam that has extension from the support
A. Cantilever
B. Continuous
C. Simple
D. Over-hanged

54. Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry

walls are known as
A. Cold joint
B. Control joint
C. Block outs
D. None of the above

55. A continuous separation formed in concrete to form a plane of weakness and

thus regulate amount of crashing.
A. Control Joint
B. Contraction Joint
C. Expansion Joint
D. Isolation Joint

56. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance
and ductility is
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron
C. Black iron
D. Flat iron

57. The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a
superstructure and bears directly on the column footing is a
A. Grade beam
B. Foundation course

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 C. Foundation wall
D. Wall footing

58. The distance between inflection point in the column when it breaks is called
A. Development length
B. Effective length
C. Cross sectional area
D. Equivalent distance

59. Which of the following is a trademark for a brand of steel pipe column, usually
filled with concrete and used for axial loading.
A. Concased column
B. Reinforced steel pipe column
C. Concrete reinforced steel column
D. Lally column

60. A brand of liquid solution of pigment in suitable vehicle of oil, organic solvent or
water.
A. Rain or Shine
B. Boysen
C. Davies
D. Welcoat

61. Thin sheets that are used for controlling heat in drywall construction
A. Loose fill insulation
B. Rigid Board Insulation
C. Thermal Insulation
D. Adequate Insulation

62. The resulting moment of a fully yielded cross-section. (NSCP Def. of Terms)
A. Plastic zone
B. Plastic moment

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 C. Plastic modulus
D. Plastic strain

63. In fig.6 (see image below), which of the following is a Set screw?
A. e6
B. e7
C. e8
D. e9

64. In fig.6 (see image below), which of the following is a Self-Tapping screw?
A. e1
B. e2
C. e3
D. e4

65. A structural system with essentially complete space frame support for gravity
loads. (CDEP IV-37)
A. Dual System
B. Building Frame System
C. Moment Resisting Frame System
D. Bearing Wall System

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66. Urban and suburban areas, wooded areas or other terrain with numerous
closely spaced obstructions having the size of single family dwelling or larger
falls on what exposure category for wind loading?
A. Exposure A
B. Exposure C
C. Exposure B
D. Exposure D

67. Flat tools with a handle at the back, usually made of wood, used to smooth
and/or finish freshly poured concrete or plaster.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

68. Flat hand tools used for applying, spreading and shaping plaster or mortar to
produce a relatively smooth finish on concrete surfaces in the final stages of
finishing.
A. Trowels
B. Ladle
C. Floats
D. Rolling pin

69. As per NSCP 2001 sect. 206.9.3 vertical impact force for crane load, if powered
monorail cranes are considered, the maximum wheel load of the crane shall be
increased by what percent to determine the induced vertical impact? (NSCP
206.9.3)
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 15%
D. 20%

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70. An instrument used to measure deformation
A. Strain gauge
B. Extensometer
C. Seismometer
D. Gouger

71. In fig.7 (see attachment), which of the following is a Howe truss?

A. f1
B. f2
C. f3
D. f4

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72. Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand operated
machine is
A. Tryolean finish
B. Trowel finish
C. Broom stripped finish
D. Rough finish

73. A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other
primarily to resist bending is a
A. Web member
B. Chord
C. Girt
D. None of the above

74. Zone 3 of the Philippine map has a wind load of ________Kph

A. 150
B. 250
C. 125
D. 200

75. The hardware on a door to accommodate the knob and lockset keyhole
A. Escutcheon
B. Embellisher
C. Door lock cup
D. Push plate

76. A roofing tile which has the shape of an “S” laid on its side is a
A. Pantile
B. Mission Tile
C. French tile
D. None of the above

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77. In fig.8 (see image below), identify Basket Pattern Bond?
A. g1
B. g2
C. g3
D. g4

78. In fig.8 (see image below), identify Common Flemish Bond?

A. g1
B. g2
C. g3
D. g4

79. The most important component to determine the strength of a concrete mix is
A. Sand
B. Cement
C. Gravel
D. Lime

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80. A geometric property of a cross section, defined as the moment of inertia of the
section divided by the distance from the neutral axis to the most remote surface?
A. Section modulus
B. Flexure formula
C. Moment of inertia
D. None of the above

81. The minimum number of stories recommended to provide with at least 3

approved recording accelerographs.
A. 10 stories
B. 12 stories
C. 14 stories
D. None of these

82. The minimum bend diameter for 10mm Ø through 25mm Ø bars (NSCP 407.30)
A. 12 db
B. 6 db
C. 8 db
D. 10 db

83. The entire assemblage at the intersection of the members.

A. Space frame
B. Joint
C. Structure
D. Diaphragm strut

84. The boundary element of a diaphragm or a shear wall which is assumed to take
axial stresses analogous to the flanges of a beam.
A. Diaphragm chord
B. Diaphragm strut

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 C. Diaphragm wall
D. Bearing wall

85. A paint defect which indicates imperfect adhesion of paint to the surface, with
the film getting stripped off in a relatively large pieces due to application on damp
or greasy surface.
A. Peeling
B. Bleeding
C. Alligatoring
D. Cracking

86. A concrete flooring and finish which transforms ordinary plain concrete into an
elegant and decorative textured surface. This is done by adding dust-on-color
pigments to the concrete to give a fast color and imprinted with a patented
pattern and texture while the concrete is still plastic to create the look and finish
of stone, slate or brick.
A. Impressio-crete
B. Textfloor-crete
C. Stucco floor finish
D. Concrete block cushion

87. The minimum clear spacing between parallel bars in layer shall be not less
than____.
A. 15mm
B. 20mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm

88. In fig.9 (see image below), which of the following is a Rabbet joint?
A. h1
B. h9

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 C. h3
D. h4

89. In fig.9 (see image below), which of the following is a Dovetail Dado joint?
A. h5
B. h6
C. h3
D. h4

90. A threaded steel bent inserted of masonry construction for securing wood or
metal plates to concrete construction.
A. U-bolt
B. Anchor Bolt
C. Gusset plate
D. Strut

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91. What is the method of introducing a jacking force in which tendons are
tensioned after concrete has hardened enough to sustain this jacking force?
A. Compressioning
B. Pre-Stressed
C. Post-Tensioning
D. Pre-Casting

92. Depth of footing above bottom reinforcement shall not be less than 150mm for
footing on soil, nor less than______ for footing on piles.
A. 200mm
B. 250mm
C. 300mm
D. 400mm

93. Ratio of normal stress to corresponding strain for tensile or compressive

stresses below proportional limit of material.
A. Poissan’s ratio
B. Radius of gyration
C. Slenderness ratio
D. Modulus of elasticity

94. Large city centers with at least 50% of the buildings having a height greater than
21M. Falls on what exposure category for wind loading? (NSCP 207.5.3)
A. Exposure A
B. Exposure C
C. Exposure B
D. Exposure D

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95. In walls and slabs other than concrete joist construction, primary flexural
reinforcement shall not be spaced farther apart than 3 times wall or slab
thickness nor farther than? (NSCP 407.7.5)
A. 375 mm
B. 450 mm
C. 500 mm
D. 300 mm

96. Groups of parallel reinforcing bars bundled in contact to act as one unit shall be
united to ___ pieces in one bundle. (NSCP 407.7.6.1)
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

97. The capacity of a wall to hold moisture is important in the design of dwelling
units. Select the best material which will reduce moisture in a wall when used.
A. CHB S-cut joint finish
B. 1” thk. V-cut wood boards
C. Synthetic Adobe finish on RC wall
D. None of the above

98. Sound or noise between bedrooms may be reduced by using less expensive
materials with the application of construction techniques
A. Double wall plywood on horizontal and vertical studs with absorbents
B. Solid 6” r.c. wall
C. Sawali on 2” x 2” studs
D. None of the above

99. A manufactured assembly of a frame, sash, glazing and necessary hardware,

made to fit a window opening.

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 A. Window Sash
B. Window
C. Window Frame
D. Window Unit

100. The process or product of forming a material into a particular shape by

pouring it into a mold in a fluid state and letting it harden?
A. Die-casting
B. Casting
C. Mold
D. Hot-roll

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have
questions or comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

www.paleor.net
www.paleor.net 293
ANSWER KEY: 34. C 68. A
1. A 35. B 69. B
2. D 36. D 70. B
3. B 37. A 71. C
4. C 38. B 72. A
5. B 39. C 73. B
6. B 40. C 74. C
7. C 41. A 75. A
8. A 42. D 76. A
9. D 43. D 77. D
10. D 44. C 78. B
11. B 45. D 79. B
12. D 46. A 80. A
13. A 47. D 81. C
14. D 48. C 82. B
15. B 49. B 83. B
16. D 50. A 84. A
17. A 51. A 85. A
18. B 52. D 86. C
19. A 53. C 87. B
20. B 54. B 88. D
21. C 55. A 89. B
22. A 56. B 90. B
23. A 57. A 91. C
24. C 58. B 92. C
25. C 59. D 93. D
26. C 60. C 94. A
27. C 61. B 95. B
28. A 62. B 96. A
29. C 63. B 97. B
30. B 64. B 98. A
31. C 65. C 99. D
32. A 66. C 100. B
33. A 67. C

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 Republic of the Philippines
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING UTILITIES (MEP & ACOUSTICS)

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 11 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Copper as a conductor has the property/properties of being ____.
A. Ductile
B. Malleable
C. Brittle
D. A and b

2. The boxing in of covering a joist, beam or girder to give the appearance of a

larger beam is known as
A. Beam blocking
B. Grade beam
C. Beam formworks
D. Girder beam

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3. Pyramid is a type of commercially produced acoustical tile. Which of the following
is not a characteristic of this material?
A. Made of open celled polyurethane acoustical foam
B. Available in 2,3, & 4inch thickness
C. Tetrahedral in shape
D. Ideal for audio room application

4. The Filipino term for plumb line is

A. Pantilya
B. Asintada
C. Plumbo
D. Hulog

5. A modern method of installing wood parquet flooring on wooden boards sub-

flooring is by
A. Drilling
B. Nailing into battens
C. Wainscoting
D. Gluing/pasting

6. These consist of loose fibers or granules and are made from cellulose, fiberglass,
rock wool, cotton or other materials. These materials come in bags and are
usually blown into cavities using special equipment. What are these?
A. Acoustical foams
B. Foam panels
C. Loose fill insulations
D. Fireflexes

7. The stressing of unbounded tendons after concrete has cured is

A. Post-tensioning
B. Lift slab

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 C. Pre-casting
D. Pre-tensioning

8. What is the minimum distance between the handrails of escalators?

A. 600mm
B. 558mm
C. 658mm
D. 650mm

9. It is necessary to provide _______ to turn back water whenever joints occur in

which dissimilar materials come together.
A. Binding material
B. Counter flushing
C. Flashing materials
D. Covering materials

10. This material is so named in honor of a German physicist, consist of a hollow

material with a small hole on one side. This is used to detect individual frequency
of complex acoustic wave configuration.
A. Hertz
B. Hermholtz resonator
C. Pyramid
D. Panel absorber

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11. Heat gain through the structure of a habitable room occur in tropical regions at
walls and roofs by conduction. This can be minimized by the use of
A. Conrete
B. Steel
C. Plastic
D. Wood

12. In a building consists of the water service pipe, water supply line, water
distributing pipes and the essential branch pipes, valves and all other
appurtenances for the supply of potable water.
A. Water supply system
B. Water pipe system
C. Water distribution system
D. Building water service and sewage piping system

13. A narrow strip of wood applied to cover a joint along the edges of two parallel
boards in the same plane is a
A. Cant strip
B. Fillet
C. Batten
D. Planking

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14. A suction created by the flow of liquids in pipe, a pressure less than the
atmospheric pressure.
A. Backflow (your answer)
B. Backpressure
C. Siphonage
D. Flow pressure

15. Under NBC, the maximum rated speed of an escalator along the angle of travel.
A. 25 Meters/Min
B. 38 Meters/Min
C. 42 Meters/Min
D. 56 Meters/Min

16. A principal member of the truss which extends from one end to the other
primarily to resist bending is a
A. Chord
B. Girt
C. Web member
D. King post

17. Minimum number of stories served by a waste stack requiring a parallel vent
stack.
A. 6
B. 8

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 C. 10
D. 12

18. The horizontal distance from the face of a lock or latch to the center of the knob
or lock cylinder
A. Backset
B. Backfill
C. Built-up
D. Lockset

19. Under NBC, the minimum diameter of hoisting and counterweight rope.
A. 20 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 40 mm
D. 60 mm

20. A wall (bearing or non-bearing) designed to resist lateral forces parallel to the
wall
A. Grade wall
B. Prefabricated
C. Non-bearing
D. Shear

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21. In escalators, these stop the escalator if a foreign object becomes wedged at
the guard.
A. Circuit Breaker
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Limit Switches
D. Disconnect Switch

22. A commercially pure iron of fibrous nature, valued for its corrosion resistance
and ductility is
A. Wrought iron
B. Cast iron
C. Heavy iron
D. Black iron

23. Which statement is not true?

A. Number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe.
B. Brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or
adapter.
C. 60˚ branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true
vertical position
D. Wooden septic tanks are allowed.

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24. Humidification and condensation in exterior walls can be minimized by
A. Providing stud space between exterior finish and interior finish
B. Providing building paper sheathing
C. Providing building paper sheathing and space filled
D. None of the above

25. A type of lamp generally used for roadways and sidewalks, uses sodium gas.
A. Mercury Lamp
B. Metal Halide Lamp
C. Tungsten Halogen Lamp
D. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)

26. A material used to remedy vapor flow

A. Asbestos cement board
B. Wall paper
C. Cement plaster
D. Glossy surfaces asphalt saturated paper, 50 lbs or more

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27. This device, in escalators, is provided at the drive unit location to protect against
accidental movement of the escalator during inspection of the drives or during
general maintenance.
A. Mechanical Maintenance Locking Device
B. Disconnect Switch
C. Knife Switch
D. Limit Switches

28. Rough plaster finish obtained by flinging plaster on a wall with a hand operated
machine is
A. Trowel finish
B. Broom stripped finish
C. Tryolean finish
D. Smooth finish

29. The interior bottom surface of a pipe.

A. Crown
B. Spring
C. Dip
D. Invert

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30. A water closet similar to that of the siphon jet but with a smaller water surface
and trap-way.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Blowout
D. Siphon Vortex

31. A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system

mixtures.
A. Humidity Graph
B. Temperature Grid
C. Psychrometric Chart
D. Hydrograph

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32. Using stair tread-riser proportion formula RT = 75, given riser equals 6 ¼ “ how
many risers will there be between two floors having floor line to floor line distance
of 7.8125 feet?
A. 15
B. 17
C. 19
D. 20

33. Liquid sewage that has been treated in a septic tank or sewage treatment plant.
A. Soil Waste
B. Effluent
C. Leachate
D. Brackish water

34. A shutoff valve closed by lowering a wedge-shaped gate across the passage.
A. Check Valve
B. Gate Valve
C. Angle Valve
D. Globe Valve

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35. The part of a foundation system which supports the exterior walls of a
superstructure and bears directly on the column footing is a
A. Grade beam
B. Foundation wall
C. Grade wall
D. Foundation course

36. On elevators, a gear-driven machine having a drum to which the wire ropes that
hoist the car are fastened, and on which they wind.
A. Winding-Drum Machine
B. Guiderails
C. Counterweight
D. Sheave

37. Identify which figure is flemish (double stretcher) brickwork.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

38. Minimum extension of the VSTR above the roof.

A. 10 cms.
B. 15 cms.
C. 20 cms.
D. 25 cms.

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39. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a septic tank.
A. 12.50 mts.
B. 15.20 mts.
C. 20.15 mts.
D. 25.10 mts.

40. In the design of a large shopping centers where space is required, intervals of
columns can be wider than the ordinary by adopting a structural method of
construction called
A. Pre-casting
B. Post-tensioning
C. Compressioning
D. Pre-tensioning

41. Minimum Gauge of galvanized sheet used for downspouts.

A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 26

42. Minimum width of a septic tank.

A. 60 cms.
B. 80 cms.

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 C. 90 cms.
D. 100 cms.

43. Maximum height of a water seal for each fixture trap.

A. 51 mm.
B. 76 mm.
C. 102 mm.
D. 122 mm.

44. In boilers, they function only when it exceeds prescribed unsafe operating
conditions.
A. Pressure Valve
B. Relief Valve
C. Limit Controls and Interlocks
D. Emergency Lock

45. Wallboards or plywood maybe applied over studs. They can also be applied
over CHB masonry wall by using
A. Wood battens
B. Studs
C. Sheathing
D. Furring

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46. Minimum height of a water seal for each fixture trap.
A. 19 mm.
B. 25 mm.
C. 32 mm.
D. 51 mm.

47. What is the ratio pf water closet for dormitories (male)?

A. 1:3
B. 1:8
C. 1:5
D. 1:10

48. Minimum extension of the VSTR above an openable window, door opening, air
intake, or vent shaft.
A. 0.30 mtr.
B. 0.60 mtr.
C. 0.90 mtr.
D. 1.20 mtr.

49. Maximum liquid depth for septic tank.

A. 1.50 mts.
B. 1.75 mts.
C. 1.80 mts.
D. 2.00 mts.

50. The Filipino term for horizontal stud is

A. Pabalagbag
B. Tahilan
C. Pilareta
D. Pamakuan

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51. The other type of flame detector other than the ultraviolet type.
A. Infra Red
B. Vapor Type
C. Heat Sensor
D. Microwave

52. In theater stage house, a weight usually of iron or sand used to balance
suspended scenery, or the like.
A. Weighing Device
B. Counterweight
C. Sheave
D. Guide Lock

53. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool.
A. 45.70 mts.
B. 54.07 mts.
C. 54.70 mts.
D. 74.50 mts.

54. Identify which letter in the target is a valley jack rafter?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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55. Minimum length of a septic tank.
A. 1.10 mts.
B. 1.20 mts.
C. 1.40 mts.
D. 1.50 mts.

56. A beam that projects beyond one or both its support

A. Continuous
B. Cantilever
C. Tie
D. Projecting beam

57. Consist of a flyball or flyweight device designed to stop an elevator.

A. Governor
B. Sheave
C. Weighing Device
D. Fascia Plate

58. The trade name for an insulated conductor with type letter THHN is ______.
A. Moisture resistant thermoplastic
B. Thermoplastic
C. Heat resistant thermoplastic
D. None of these

59. That part of the building foundation which forms the permanent retaining wall of
the structure below grade is a
A. Foundation wall
B. Foundation course
C. Grade beam
D. Shear wall

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60. Creep is the phenomenon whereby sound travels in a ______.
A. Straight line direction inside an anechoic chamber
B. Rectangular shaped cavity
C. Flat surface
D. Curve surface

61. The typical truss configuration used in the installation of an escalator.

A. 2 section truss
B. 3 section truss
C. 4 section truss
D. 5 section truss

62. Identify the miter joint from the following.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

63. A receptacle attached to a plumbing system other than a trap in which water or
wastes may be collected or obtained for ultimate into the plumbing system.
A. Valve
B. Waste pipe
C. fitting
D. fixture

64. A system of framing a building in which the studs are continuous to roof
supporting second floor joints is known as
A. Post and linter

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 B. Wester framing
C. Post and beam
D. Balloon framing

65. What switch combination may be used in order to control a lamp or group of
lamps in three different locations?
A. 2-s4w and 1-s3w
B. 3 single pole switches
C. 3-s3w (your answer)
D. 2-s3w and 1-s4w

66. A factor used in calculating cooling load that includes heat transferred from
walls, doors, ceilings, etc. is known as _____.
A. Solar load
B. Infiltration and ventilation load
C. Thermal load
D. Internal load

67. A roofing tile which has the shape of an “S” laid on its side is a
A. Mission tile
B. Pantile
C. French tile
D. None of the above

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68. A transformer is ______.
A. An ac device
B. A dc device
C. A mechanical device used to step up or step down voltage in ac
D. Both a and c

69. a composition of two or more metals fused together usually to obtain a desired
property
A. Annealing
B. Built-up
C. Welding
D. Alloy

70. Mho as used in electrical systems calculation is defined as _______.

A. the reciprocal of ohm
B. A unit of inductance
C. A unit of resistance
D. The reciprocal of siemen

71. The dimension of commercial acoustic boards for aluminum T-runners used for
dropped-ceiling in offices is
A. 24” x 50” x 7/8”
B. 30” x 60” x 1”
C. 24” x 48” x ½”
D. 24” x 60” x ½”

72. Sound Transmission Loss (STL) is/are affected by the following ____.
A. Intensity of sound from source
B. Material density
C. Medium
D. All of the above

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73. Acoustics is a science that concerns with ______.
A. Transmission of sound
B. Effect of sound waves
C. Generation of sound
D. All of the above

74. The standard height of window sills for office rooms in upper floors is
A. 1.2 meters
B. 1.00 meters
C. 0.90 meters
D. 0.60 meters

75. What is the pipe color for ammonia?

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

76. The Filipino term for temper (metal work)

A. Poleva
B. Subhan/Subo
C. Espolon
D. None of the above

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77. Which of the following characterizes centralized air-conditioning system?
A. It uses ducts
B. Has cooling tower
C. Provided with air handling unit
D. All of these

78. Dry walls do not require appreciable amount of moisture and they are
customarily finished with
A. Plastering
B. Mortar and cement
C. Plywood on studs
D. Lath and plaster

79. Any group of two or more similar adjacent fixtures which discharge into a
common horizontal waste or soil branch.
A. Battery of fixtures
B. Multiple fixtures
C. Series of fixtures
D. Fixture group

80. A branch of acoustics that involves the control of noise pollution, environmental
noise, which include motor vehicles, aircraft noise, etc.
A. Environmental acoustics
B. Musical acoustics
C. Architectural acoustics
D. Psychological acoustics

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81. The Filipino term for riser
A. Muldura
B. Baytang
C. Planehuelda
D. Takip silipan

82. An outhouse or structure used for the deposition of excrement.

A. Septic tank
B. Privy
C. Drainage pit
D. Privy vault

83. Transondent facings are those transparent facings with holes. Which facing will
reflect more sound?
A. 10% opening
B. 20% opening
C. 30% opening
D. 40% opening

84. The Filipino term for collar plate is

A. Soliya
B. Guililan
C. Hardinera
D. Sinturon

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85. What are the property/ies of concrete as an acoustical material are/is
important?
A. Aerated concrete is fairly absorptive
B. Concrete provides virtually no absorption
C. Concrete accepts and transmits impact sound
D. All of the above

86. Unit of capacitance is _____.

A. Henry
B. Coulomb
C. Farad
D. weber

87. Identify which figure is a blind and sub-mortise and tenon joint.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

88. Example/s of conductors-on-insulator wiring is are ______.

A. Concealed knob and tube
B. Open wiring on insulators
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

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89. The total floor area 16 feet wide by 60 feet deep needs one inch (1”) x
4”(commercial size) T & G flooring. Assuming that the available T & G is 1” x 4” x
16” and the effective width is 3.5” , the total board feet needed is
A. 1,298 bf
B. 1,098 bf
C. 1,280 bf
D. 1,330 bf

90. A valve in which the flow of liquid is controlled by a rotating drilled ball that fits
tightly against a resilient (flexible) seat in the valve body.
A. Angle valve
B. Check valve
C. Float valve
D. Ball valve

91. A protein: the chief nitrogenous ingredient in milk is

A. Casein
B. Tempera
C. Alabaster
D. Lactose
92. The over-all covering of underground feeder and branch circuit cables shall be
____.
A. Fungus resistant
B. Corrosion resistant
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

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93. What aspect/s of environment or surroundings is/are considered in air-
conditioning system for human comfort?
A. Temperature of the surrounding air
B. Motion of air
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

94. A system of framing a building on which floor joists of each storey rest on the
top plates of the storey below and the bearing walls and partitions rest on the
subfloor of each storey is known as
A. Balloon framing
B. Western framing
C. Flank framing
D. Floor framing

95. Cables are conductors that are ____.

A. Larger than wires
B. Stranded (no.6 AWG and larger)
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

96. Identify which figure is a dado wood joint.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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97. Joint employed to reduce restraint by accommodating movement of masonry
walls are known as
A. Expansion joints
B. Cold joints
C. Control joints
D. Block joints

98. A cylindrical trap closed on the bottom and having a cover plate for access,
usually installed in the drain line from a bathtub.
A. Drain trap
B. Sewage trap
C. Air trap
D. Drum trap

99. A new air-conditioning system which answers the need to respond to changes
in room cooling capacities of controlling air flow
A. VAV
B. Split type
C. VRV
D. VTV

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 100. A rubber or plastic washer inserted in a hole in a metal part to prevent
grounding of wire passing through the hole. (EL 005).
A. Insulator
B. Shield
C. Bushing
D. Grommet

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www.paleor.net 322
ANSWER KEY: 34. B 68. C
1. D 35. A 69. D
2. A 36. A 70. A
3. C 37. D 71. C
4. D 38. B 72. D
5. D 39. B 73. D
6. C 40. B 74. C
7. A 41. D 75. C
8. B 42. C 76. B
9. C 43. C 77. D
10. B 44. C 78. D
11. D 45. D 79. A
12. A 46. D 80. A
13. C 47. B 81. D
14. A 48. C 82. B
15. B 49. C 83. A
16. A 50. A 84. D
17. C 51. A 85. D
18. A 52. B 86. C
19. B 53. A 87. C
20. D 54. B 88. C
21. B 55. B 89. B
22. A 56. B 90. D
23. D 57. A 91. A
24. C 58. C 92. C
25. D 59. A 93. C
26. D 60. D 94. C
27. A 61. B 95. C
28. C 62. A 96. B
29. D 63. D 97. C
30. B 64. D 98. D
31. C 65. D 99. C
32. A 66. C 100. D
33. B 67. B

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 Republic of the Philippines
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING UTILITIES (MEP & ACOUSTICS)

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A unit of mechanical power is horsepower. What is electrical power?

A. Watt
B. Volt-ampere
C. Ampere
D. Both a and b

2. A continuous belt (chain) attached to the handrail and directly connected to the
steps is known as _____.
A. Balustrade assembly
B. Sprocket assembly
C. Endless belt
D. handrail

3. This device, in escalators, stops the escalator automatically if an abnormal

current is supplied to the motor.
A. Disconnect Switch
B. Knife Switch
C. Limit Switches
D. Current Overload Safety Switch

4. When sound impinges on a surface such as walls, floor, ceiling, etc. It is

referred to as _____.

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 A. Liquid borne sound
B. Solid borne sound
C. Airborne sound
D. Structure borne sound

5. One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the
white, soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetra fluoroethylene.
A. Solvent
B. Teflon
C. O-ring
D. Adhesive

6. Acoustical cotton fiber composite board is manufactured using BAP. What does
BAP stand for?
A. Boarded acoustical panel
B. Beaded and pressed
C. Bent and polished
D. Bonded acoustical panel

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7. The art and science of installing in buildings the pipes, fixtures and other
apparatus for bringing in water supply and removing water and waterborne
waste.
A. Plumbing system
B. Sanitary drainage system
C. Drainage system
D. plumbing

8. A toilet bowl in which the flushing water enters through the rim and a siphonic
action initiated by a water jet draws the contents of the bowl through the trapway.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Siphon Jet
D. Siphon Vortex

9. XHHN in wire specification means.

A. Moisture resistant, in wet and dry location
B. Heat Resistant in wet and dry location
C. Moisture and Heat Resistant- Cross-Linked Thermosetting
D. Moisture Resistant Cross-Linked Thermosetting

10. This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or
Microwave system.
A. Microwave
B. Passive Infrared with Ultrasonic (or Microwave)
C. Proximity / Capacitance
D. Ultrasonic

11. The recommended speed for escalators ranges from____.

A. 90-120fpm
B. 130-180fpm

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 C. 165-180fpm
D. 60-80fpm

12. In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current.

A. Circuit Breaker
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Limit Switches
D. Disconnect Switch

13. TW in electrical wire specification means.

A. Moisture and Heat Resistant- Cross-Linked Thermosetting
B. Moisture resistant, in wet and dry location
C. Heat Resistant in wet and dry location
D. Moisture Resistant Cross-Linked Thermosetting

14. In escalators, this is located at the bottom truss of the escalator and provided
with on and off positions to stop or prevents the escalator from starting during
maintenance service.
A. Circuit Breaker
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Limit Switches
D. Disconnect Switch

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15. A type of gypsum board available in 1 1/2 inches or 5/8 inch thickness and has
improved fire resistance through the use of fibers mixed with gypsum core.
A. Type x
B. Type c
C. Regular
D. Water resistant board

16. A type of lamp popular for lighting commercial interiors, uses argon gas to ease
starting, it produces light by means of an electric discharge in mercury vapor.
A. Metal Halide Lamp
B. Mercury Lamp
C. Tungsten Halogen Lamp
D. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)

17. Pyramid is a type of commercially produced acoustical tile. Which of the following
is not a characteristic of this material?
A. Made of open celled polyurethane acoustical foam
B. Available in 2,3, & 4inch thickness
C. Tetrahedral in shape
D. Ideal for audio room application
18. A type of perimeter detector which detects change in sound wave pattern.
A. Light Beam
B. Passive Infrared
C. Laser Zoom
D. Ultrasonic

19. Color code for pipes containing acid.

A. orange
B. yellow
C. red
D. black

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20. Which material would exhibit the highest sound absorption coefficient (SAC)
value?
A. Marble
B. Wood
C. Plastic
D. carpet

21. The number of cycles per unit time of a wave or oscillations expressed in hertz
of cycles per second.
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Sine Wave
D. Sound Wave

22. Alternating current is characterized as having _____.

A. Positive and negative polarity
B. Average value is zero
C. Has frequency
D. All of these

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23. In elevator, it makes the buzzer alarm when the car is overloaded and the door
remains open until overloading is eliminated.
A. Weighing Device
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Fascia Plate
D. Sheave

24. Which type of refrigerant is recommended for residential, commercial, and

industrial application using split type air-conditioning system?
A. R-11
B. R-12
C. R-22
D. R-23

25. A water closet that is sanitary, efficient, and very quiet. Water enters through
the rim and through the down leg.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Siphon Jet
D. Siphon Vortex

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26. The concussion and banging noise that results when a volume of water moving
in a pipe suddenly stops or loses momentum.
A. Air Stack
B. Water Hammer
C. Water Level
D. Water Flange

27. Women's urinal fixture.

A. Washdown
B. Blowout
C. Wash Lavatory
D. Siphon Jet

28. A type of water closet that is noisy but highly efficient. Strong jet into up leg
forces contents out. Use only with flush valve, requires higher pressure.
A. Siphon Jet
B. Reverse Trap
C. Blowout
D. Siphon Vortex

29. Heat that raises air temperature.

A. Latent Heat
B. Sensible Heat
C. Anthropomorphic Heat
D. Solar Heat

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30. A lamp designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a
large area.
A. Spotlight
B. Floodlight
C. Laser Light
D. Uplight

31. The interior top surface of a pipe.

A. Crown
B. Spring
C. Dip
D. Invert

32. A box with a blank cover which serves the purpose of joining one different runs of
raceways or cables and provided with sufficient space for connection and
branching of the enclosed conductors.
A. Junction Box
B. Pull Box
C. Connector Box
D. Octagonal Box

33. A valve closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal wall.

A. Check Valve
B. Gate Valve

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 C. Angle Valve
D. Globe Valve

34. A type of perimeter detector which detects interruption of light beam.

A. Light Beam
B. Passive Infrared
C. Ultrasonic
D. Laser Zoom

35. Water closet that is quiet, extremely sanitary, water is directed through the rim. It
scours bowl, folds over into jet; siphon.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Siphon Jet
D. Siphon Vortex

36. What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system, is

used to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected to a conditioned space?
A. Condenser
B. Air Handling Unit
C. Fan Coil Unit
D. Chiller

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37. The centerline of pipe.
A. Crown Weir
B. Spring Line
C. Top Dip
D. Invert Line

38. A toilet bowl similar to the siphon-jet, but having the flushing water directed to the
rim to create circular motion or vortex which scours the bowl.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Siphon Jet
D. Siphon Vortex

39. Minimum liquid depth for a septic tank.

A. 50 cms.
B. 60 cms.
C. 70 cms.
D. 75 cms.

40. A graph used in air-conditioning and showing the properties of air-system

mixtures.
A. Humidity Graph
B. Temperature Grid

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 C. Psychrometric Chart
D. Hydrograph

41. Minimum trap diameter for a bathtub

A. 19 mm.
B. 25 mm.
C. 38 mm.
D. 51 mm.
42. An approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor
terminations in completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where
the assembly is designed to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic
forces of such current.
A. Raceway
B. Runway
C. Busbar
D. Busway

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43. This type of water closet is similar to that of the siphon-jet except that it has a
smaller trap passageway and smaller water surface area, moderately noisy.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Blowout
D. Siphon Vortex

44. The transmission of heat energy from one place to another by circulatory
movement of a mass of fluid.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation

45. This type of water closet is prohibited by some health codes.

A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap
C. Blowout
D. Siphon Vortex

46. A type of water closet that is least efficient, subject to clogging, noisy, and use a
simple washout action through a small irregular passageway.
A. Washdown
B. Reverse Trap

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 C. Blowout
D. Siphon Vortex

47. A heavy conductor, usually in the form of a solid copper bar, used for collecting,
carrying, and distributing large electric currents, also called a busbar.
A. Bus
B. Race
C. Conduit
D. Circuit

48. What is the rating index of an air-conditioning/refrigeration system which rates

the unit for the number of BTU's of heat removed per watt of electrical input
energy? (EER)
A. Effective Energy Rating
B. Energy Efficiency Rating
C. Energy Efficiency Ratio
D. Effective Energy Ratio

49. Maximum length of the tailpiece from any fixture.

A. 40 cms.
B. 50 cms.
C. 60 cms.
D. 70 cms.

50. Minimum trap diameter for a shower stall.

A. 38 mm
B. 51 mm
C. 76 mm
D. 102 mm

51. Vertical tracks that serves as a guide for the car and the counterweight.

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 A. Winding-Drum Machine
B. Guiderails
C. Counterweight
D. Sheave

52. The bending of sound wave when traveling forward changes direction as it
passes through different densities.
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Deflection
D. Reverberation

53. The total cooling output of an airconditioner during its annual usage, in BTU/hr
divided by the energy input during the same period, in watt-hours is known
as_____.
A. Integrated part load value
B. Annual fuel utilization efficiency
C. Energy efficiency ratio
D. Seasonal energy efficiency ratio

54. The water supply pipe provided by the water utility company where local
individual connection is done.
A. Water supply source
B. Water main
C. Water service pipe
D. Building supply pipe

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55. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a disposal field.
A. 20.30 mts.
B. 30.40 mts.
C. 30.50 mts.
D. 35.00 mts.

56. Single lever valves used in kitchen sink and lavatory faucets or at shower valves
works by the principle of a ___.
A. Check Valve
B. Gate Valve
C. Ball Valve
D. Globe Valve

57. Treats hard water.

A. Chlorine
B. Magnesium
C. Zeolite
D. None of the above

58. The rustling of leaves in breeze is said to be within the ____.

A. Threshold of hearing
B. Threshold of hearing loss
C. Threshold of inaudibility
D. Threshold of feeling

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59. The amount of heat which is absorbed or evolved in changing the state of a
substance without changing its temperature.
A. Solar Heat
B. Latent Heat
C. Anthropomorphic Heat
D. Comfort Zone
60. A bathroom containing a water closet, a lavatory, and a bathtub.
A. Full bath
B. Half bath
C. Three quarter bath
D. Quarter bath
61. Minimum capacity, in cubic meters, of the secondary compartment of a septic
tank.
A. 1.00 cum.
B. 1.25 cum
C. 1.50 cum
D. 2.00 cum

62. In Inverse Square Law, it states that: “sound intensity ______ the square of the
distance from the source.”
A. Varies inversely with
B. Varies proportionally with
C. Is equal to
D. Is less than

63. Which material would effectively reduce reflected noise and reverberation time to
produce safe and enjoyable surrounding?
A. Polyurethane foam sound absorber
B. Melamine foam linear wedges
C. Acoustical baffles
D. Vinyl encapsulate acoustical baffles

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64. What is / are the advantage/s of a circuit breaker over a fuse?
A. It can act as a switch
B. Its position can be easily detected (close/open)
C. It can be used again after fault has been corrected
D. All of these

65. A p-shaped trap commonly used on most plumbing fixtures except for fixture
have integral trap.
A. Gooseneck
B. Drum trap
C. Bag trap
D. Running trap

66. The first section of water supply piping in a building after the water meter.
A. Water main
B. Water distributing pipe
C. Building supply pipe
D. Water service pipe

67. The following are elements of centralized air-conditioning system except ____.
A. Air handling unit
B. Control equipment
C. Method of cooling
D. All of these

68. Tesla is the unit of____.

A. Magnetic flux
B. Magnetic induction
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

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69. A condition characterized as vertically downward directly below the luminaire.
What is that term?
A. Lumen
B. Point source
C. Nadir
D. lambert

70. Minimum length of the secondary compartment of a septic tank with a capacity of
more than 6 cubic meters.
A. 1.50 mts.
B. 1.75 mts.
C. 1.80 mts.
D. 2.10 mts.

71. In lighting and illumination calculation, what is the unit for lux?
A. 1/p candela per sq.m.
B. 1 lumen per sq.m.
C. 1/p candela per sq.ft.
D. 1 lumen per sq.ft.

72. A unit or assembly units or sections and associated fittings forming a rigid
structural system used to support cables.
A. Cable bus
B. Cable tray
C. Busway
D. wireway

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73. It is analogous to pressure in water flow.
A. Resistance
B. Voltage
C. Current
D. power

74. It is the product of surface area (sq.ft.) and sound absorption coefficient (SAC). It
has the unit sabin.
A. Sound attenuation
B. Sound absorption
C. Sound amplification
D. Noise reduction

75. Which of the following factors affect/s room acoustics?

A. Shape and proportion of room
B. Room cavity
C. Seating and other furnishings
D. All of the above

76. Fusible material in a fuse may be made of any of the following except___.
A. Lead
B. Silver
C. Iron
D. Tin

77. It affects the resistance of a conductor.

A. Length
B. Area
C. Temperature
D. All of these

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78. The term impedance is used in transformers and other device in AC is a
combination of _______.
A. Resistance and reactance
B. Inductance and capacitance
C. Resistivity and conductivity
D. None of these

79. A pipe which conveys potable water from the building supply pipe to the
plumbing fixtures and other outlets.
A. Water service pipe
B. Water main
C. Water distributing pipe
D. Building and water supply pipe

80. It is also known as electric panel or load center.

A. Convenience outlet
B. Panelboard
C. Outlet
D. Branch circuit

81. A general term used for any vertical line of soil, waste or vent piping.
A. Vent pipe
B. Waste pipe
C. Stack
D. Soil pipe

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82. In a building consists of the water service pipe, water supply line, water
distributing pipes and the essential branch pipes, valves and all other
appurtenances for the supply of potable water.
A. Water supply system
B. Water pipe system
C. Water distribution system
D. Building water service and sewage piping system

83. It characterizes short circuit

A. High resistance, high current
B. Low resistance, low current
C. Low resistance, high current
D. High resistance, low current

84. The basic elements of an electric circuit are the following except ____.
A. Source
B. Switch
C. Conducting path
D. Electrical load

85. A pipe connecting upward from a soil or waste stack below the floor and below
the horizontal connection to an adjacent vent stack at a point above the floor and

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 higher than the highest spill level of fixtures for preventing pressure changes in
the stack.
A. Vent stack
B. Unit vent
C. Individual vent
D. Yoke vent

86. A vertical pipe which conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free of fecal
matter.
A. Waste pipe
B. Soil pipe
C. Soil stack
D. Waste stack

87. A vertical length of soil or waste stack at least 8 feet in height (a storey high),
within which the horizontal branches from one storey or floor of the building or
structure are connected to the stack.
A. Fixture branch
B. Branch drain
C. Branch interval
D. Branch pipe

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88. A type of surface flush raceway designed to receive conductors and receptacles
assembled in the field or in the factory.
A. Underfloor raceway
B. Multi-outlet assembly
C. Cellular metal floor raceway
D. Surface metal raceway (SMR)

89. What is the refrigerant name of R-12?

A. Monochlorotrifluoromethane
B. Dichlorodifluormethane
C. Monochlorodifluormethane
D. Trichloromonofluoromethane

90. The velocity of sound is affected by _____.

A. Temperature
B. Kind of medium
C. Material density
D. All of the above

91. The following statements are true with regards to sound except ___.
A. That sound is an aural sensation
B. That sound is caused by oscillation in an elastic medium
C. That sound travels in a vacuum
D. That sound is caused by the vibration of particles which move in an
infinitesimal amount causing particles to impart motion and energy.

92. A circuit type where components are electrically connected end to end.
A. Series circuit
B. Parallel circuit
C. Series parallel circuit
D. None of these

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93. The installation of parts of the plumbing system which can be completed prior to
installation of fixtures or finishing. This includes drainage, water supply and vent
piping and necessary fixture supports.
A. Roughing-in
B. Mock-up installation
C. Pre-installation
D. setting

94. A type of resonator made from empty clay vessels of different sizes. Their
absorption ranges from 100-400 hertz.
A. Individual resonator
B. Slit resonator
C. Perforated resonator
D. None of the above

95. What is the minimum distance between the handrails of escalators?

A. 600mm
B. 558mm
C. 658mm
D. 650mm

96. A valve in which the flow of liquid is controlled by a rotating drilled ball that fits
tightly against a resilient (flexible) seat in the valve body.
A. Angle valve
B. Check valve
C. Float valve
D. Ball valve

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97. A kind of return bend of small-sized faucet, one end of which is about one foot
long and the other end is about three inches. It is commonly used as a faucet for
pantry sink and drinking fountain. Also the lead connection between the service
pipe and the water main. Also a p-trap.
A. Spigot
B. Faucet
C. Tailpiece
D. gooseneck

98. A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors having an outer sheath
of moisture-resistant, flame retardant, non metallic material.
A. Service entrance cable (type SE and USE)
B. Shielded non metallic sheathed cable (type SNM )
C. Non metallic sheathed cable (type NM and NMC)
D. Mineral insulated metal sheathed cable (type MI)

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 99. A common measure of the probable discharge into the drainage system by
various types of plumbing fixtures on the basis of one unit of this being equal to a
discarge rate of 7.5 gallons per minute or one cubic foot of water per minute.
A. Flow rate
B. Drainage fixture unit
C. Flow pressure
D. Drainage flow

100. The following are basic component parts of an escalator except____.

A. Balustrade assembly
B. Continuous belt
C. Step assembly
D. Governor

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ANSWER KEY: 34. B 68. A
1. A 35. D 69. C
2. C 36. C 70. A
3. D 37. B 71. B
4. D 38. D 72. D
5. B 39. C 73. C
6. D 40. C 74. B
7. D 41. C 75. D
8. C 42. D 76. B
9. C 43. B 77. D
10. B 44. A 78. A
11. A 45. A 79. C
12. A 46. A 80. B
13. B 47. A 81. C
14. D 48. S 82. A
15. A 49. C 83. C
16. B 50. B 84. B
17. C 51. A 85. D
18. D 52. A 86. D
19. D 53. D 87. C
20. D 54. B 88. B
21. B 55. C 89. B
22. D 56. C 90. D
23. A 57. C 91. C
24. C 58. A 92. A
25. C 59. B 93. A
26. B 60. A 94. A
27. A 61. C 95. B
28. C 62. A 96. D
29. B 63. B 97. D
30. B 64. D 98. C
31. A 65. A 99. B
32. B 66. B 100. D
33. D 67. C

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING UTILITIES (MEP & ACOUSTICS)

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 11 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following metallic materials is considered as the best conductor of
electricity?
A. Copper
B. Aluminum
C. Iron
D. Gold

2. A kind of return bend of small-sized faucet, one end of which is about one foot long
and the other end is about three inches. It is commonly used as a faucet for pantry
sink and drinking fountain. Also the lead connection between the service pipe and the
water main. Also a p-trap.
A. Spigot
B. Faucet
C. Tailpiece
D. gooseneck

3. The installation of parts of the plumbing system which can be completed prior to
installation of fixtures or finishing. This includes drainage, water supply and vent piping
and necessary fixture supports.
A. Roughing-in
B. Mock-up installation
C. Pre-installation
D. Setting

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 2

4. A continuous belt (chain) attached to the handrail and directly connected to the steps
is known as _____.
A. Endless belt
B. Balustrade assembly
C. Sprocket assembly
D. handrail

5. A vertical pipe which conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free of fecal matter.
A. Waste pipe
B. Soil pipe
C. Soil stack
D. Waste stack

6. A circuit type where components are electrically connected end to end.

A. Series circuit
B. Parallel circuit
C. Series parallel circuit
D. None of these

7. A vertical length of soil or waste stacks at least 8 feet in height (a storey high), within
which the horizontal branches from one storey or floor of the building or structure are
connected to the stack.
A. Fixture branch
B. Branch drain
C. Branch pipe
D. Branch interval

8. The luminous intensity of any surface in a given direction per unit of projected area.
A. Luminous Flux
B. Luminance
C. Foot-Candle
D. Lux

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 3

9. A factory assembly of two or more insulated conductors having an outer sheath of

moisture-resistant, flame retardant, non-metallic material.
A. Service entrance cable (type SE and USE)
B. Shielded non-metallic sheathed cable (type SNM )
C. Non-metallic sheathed cable (type NM and NMC)
D. Mineral insulated metal sheathed cable (type MI)

10. Resistance in alternating current system.

A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Resistivity
D. Capacitance

11. A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square meter.

A. Luminous Flux
B. Luminance
C. Foot-Candle
D. Lux

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 4

12. This consists of loose fibers or granules, and is made from cellulose, fiberglass, rock
wool, cotton or other materials. These materials come in bags and are usually blown
into cavities using special equipment. What are these?
A. Acoustical foams
B. Foam panels
C. Loose fill insulations
D. Fireflexes

13. A branch of acoustics that involves the control of noise pollution, environmental
noise, which include motor vehicles, aircraft noise, etc.
A. Environmental acoustics
B. Musical acoustics
C. Architectural acoustics
D. Psychological acoustics

14. A fitting or device designed and constructed to provide, when properly vented, a
liquid seal which prevents backflow and passage of foul air and gases without
materially affecting the flow of sewage or wastewater through it.
A. Trap
B. Fitting
C. Pipe
D. valve

15. A loosely lined excavation in the ground which receives the discharge of a septic tank
and designed to permit the effluent from the septic tank to seep through the bottom
and sides of the pit.
A. Privy
B. Drain pit
C. Septic tank
D. cesspool

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 5

16. Which of the following is not a component of a hydraulic elevator?

A. Plunger
B. Oil reservoir
C. Gate valve
D. Counterweight

17. A cylindrical conduit or conductor, the wall thickness is sufficient to receive a

standard pipe.
A. Conduit
B. Pipe
C. Fitting
D. leader

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 6

18. Under NBC, the minimum width between balusters in an escalator.

A. 558 mm
B. 562 mm
C. 585 mm
D. 586 mm

19. A type of switch used for transferring one or more load conductor connections from
one power source to another.
A. Transfer switch
B. Isolating switch
C. General use switch
D. General snap switch

20. Copper as a conductor has the property/properties of being ____.

A. Ductile
B. Malleable
C. Brittle
D. A and b

21. The over-all covering of underground feeder and branch circuit cables shall be
A. Fungus resistant
B. Corrosion resistant
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

22. A pipe which conveys potable water from the building supply pipe to the plumbing
fixtures and other outlets.
A. Water service pipe
B. Water main
C. Water distributing pipe
D. Building and water supply pipe

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 7

23. Any pipe which conveys the discharge of water closet, urinal or fixtures having similar
function, with or without the discharges from other fixtures to the building drain or
building sewer.
A. Soil pipe
B. Waste pipe
C. Building drain
D. Building sewer

24. A water supply pipe that extends vertically one full storey or more to convey water to
fixture branches or group of fixtures.
A. Up pipe
B. Riser
C. Stack pipe
D. Water stack pipe

25. A watertight receptacle which the discharge of sanitary plumbing system or part
thereof, designed and constructed to retain solids, digest organic matter through a
period of detention and to allow the liquids to discharge into the soil outside of the tank
through a system of open jointed subsurface piping or seepage pit.
A. Seepage pit
B. Privy vault
C. Septic tank
D. cesspool

26. A pipe connecting upward from a soil or waste stack below the floor and below the
horizontal connection to an adjacent vent stack at a point above the floor and higher
than the highest spill level of fixtures for preventing pressure changes in the stack.
A. Vent stack
B. Unit vent
C. Yoke vent
D. Individual vent

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 8

27. A common measure of the probable discharge into the drainage system by various
types of plumbing fixtures on the basis of one unit of this being equal to a discharge
rate of 7.5 gallons per minute or one cubic foot of water per minute.
A. Flow rate
B. Drainage fixture unit
C. Flow pressure
D. Drainage flow

28. The velocity of sound is affected by _____.

A. Temperature
B. Kind of medium
C. Material density
D. All of the above

29. A unit of illumination equivalent to 1 lumen per square foot.

A. Luminous Flux
B. Luminance
C. Foot-Candle
D. Lux

30. What combination of pipe fittings is installed at the base of a soil stack?

A. Wye and 1/8 Bend

B. Wye and1/4 Bend
C. S-bend
D. Wye and S-bend

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 9

31. A fitting or device designed and constructed to provide, when properly vented, a
liquid seal which prevents backflow and passage of foul air and gases without
materially affecting the flow of sewage or wastewater through it.
A. Trap
B. Fitting
C. Pipe
D. valve

32. Unit of capacitance is _____.

A. Henry
B. Coulomb
C. Farad
D. weber

33. Which material would exhibit the highest sound absorption coefficient (SAC) value?
A. Marble
B. Wood
C. Plastic
D. carpet

34. The rustling of leaves in breeze is said to be within the ____.

A. Threshold of hearing
B. Threshold of hearing loss
C. Threshold of inaudibility
D. Threshold of feeling

35. A type of raceway specially constructed for the purpose of pulling in or the
withdrawing of wires or cables after the conduit is in place.
A. Intermediate metal conduit (IMC)
B. Rigid metal conduit (RMC)
C. Surface metal raceway (SMR)
D. Electrical metallic tubing (EMT)

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 10

36. Minimum vertical distance of VSTR from above of any openable window or opening.
A. 0.30 mtr.
B. 0.40 mtr.
C. 0.60 mtr.
D. 0.90 mtr.

37. A suction created by the flow of liquids in pipe, a pressure less than the atmospheric
pressure.
A. Backflow (your answer)
B. Backpressure
C. Siphonage
D. Flow pressure

38. A factory assembly of one or more conductors, each individually insulated and
enclosed in a metallic sheath of interlocking metal tape, or a smooth corrugated
metallic tube.
A. metal clad cable (type MC)
B. Shielded non-metallic sheathed cable (type SNM)
C. Armored cable (type AC)
D. Mineral insulated, metal sheathed cable (type MI)

39. A louvered construction divided into cell-like areas and used for redirecting the light
emitted by an overhead source.

A. Box-type
B. Canopy

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 11

C. Diffuser
D. Eggcrate

40. The following statements are true with regards to sound except ___.
A. That sound is an aural sensation
B. That sound is caused by oscillation in an elastic medium
C. That sound travels in a vacuum
D. That sound is caused by the vibration of particles which move in an
infinitesimal amount causing particles to impart motion and energy to them

41. These consist of loose fibers or granules and are made from cellulose, fiberglass,
rock wool, cotton or other materials. These materials come in bags and are usually
blown into cavities using special equipment. What are these?
A. Acoustical foams
B. Foam panels
C. Loose fill insulations
D. Fireflexes

42. Minimum dimension of a manhole access to a septic tank.

A. 458 mm.
B. 508 mm.

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 12

C. 615 mm.
D. 622 mm.

43. Light originating from sources not facing each other, as from windows in adjacent
walls.
A. Cross Light
B. Fan Light
C. Clerestory Light
D. Light Well

44. The abbreviation DWV stands for ______.

A. Drainage, water and vent
B. Drainage, waste and valve
C. Durham, water and vent
D. Drainage, waste and vent

45. Minimum horizontal distance of any VSTR from a roof-deck used for other purposes
aside from protection from weather.
A. 2.00 mts.
B. 3.00 mts.
C. 4.00 mts.
D. 6.00 mts.

46. A type of perimeter detector which is subject to false alarm from aircraft radar and
from movement outside building through window, wood doors, and the like. It uses
radio waves.
A. Microwave
B. Passive Infrared with Ultrasonic
C. Proximity / Capacitance
D. Ultrasonic

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 13

47. Which of the following sources of sound produces the highest sound pressure level
(SPL)?
A. Loud street noise
B. Accelerating motorcycle 50ft away
C. Office activities
D. Cafeteria with people in it

48. A means of producing light from gaseous discharge.

A. Fluorescense
B. Phosphoresence
C. Luminance
D. Gas Discharge

49. That part of the drainage system that extends from the end of the building drain and
conveys its discharge to the public sewer, private sewer, individual sewage disposal
system or other appropriate point of disposal.
A. Building sewer
B. Building drain
C. Building storm drain
D. Building sewage pipe

50. Type of lighting system where 90-100% of light output is directed to the ceiling and
upper walls of the room.
A. Cove Lighting
B. Indirect Lighting
C. Ceiling Accent Lighting
D. Dramatic Lighting

51. Minimum vertical extension of VSTR from any roof-deck where it is protruded.
A. 1.20 mts.
B. 2.00 mts.
C. 2.10 mts.

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 14

D. 4.20 mts.

52. A watertight receptacle which the discharge of sanitary plumbing system or part
thereof, designed and constructed to retain solids, digest organic matter through a
period of detention and to allow the liquids to discharge into the soil outside of the tank
through a system of open jointed subsurface piping or seepage pit.
A. Seepage pit
B. Septic tank
C. Privy vault
D. cesspool

53. Lighting used primarily to draw attention to particular points of interest.

A. Local Lighting
B. Accent Lighting
C. Indirect Lighting
D. Cove Lighting

54. Who said these prophetic words: “Let the future tell the truth and evaluate each one
according to his work and accomplishment? The present is theirs; the future for which I
really worked for is mine.”?
A. Nikola Tesla
B. James Watt
C. Andre Marie Ampere
D. George Westinghouse

55. An automatic device used for converting high, fluctuating inlet water pressure to a
lower constant pressure.
A. Pressure Regulating Valve
B. Relief Valve
C. Release Valve
D. Ball Valve

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56. The process of removing calcium and magnesium deposits in water.

A. Distillation
B. Desalination
C. Softening
D. Hardening

57. The equivalent of filament in a fluorescent lamp.

A. Cathode
B. Tungsten
C. Zeolite
D. Burr

58. An air-operated device used to open or close a damper or valve.

A. Air Motor
B. Air Curtain
C. Air Damper
D. Air Valve

59. Which of the following is a violation of all the provisions in the mechanical code on
elevator design and installation?
A. 30mm is the diameter of hoisting and counterweight cables
B. 600mm is the depth of elevator pit measured from the bottom of pit to the
underside of the car platform
C. 3 ropes are required for traction type elevator
D. 4 ropes are required for drum type elevator

60. A type of resonator made from empty clay vessels of different sizes. Their absorption
ranges from 100-400 hertz.
A. Individual resonator
B. Slit resonator
C. Perforated resonator
D. None of the above

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61. A lighting unit consisting of one or more electrical lamps.

A. Fluorescent Bulb
B. Incandescent Bulb
C. Luminaire
D. Chandelier

62. A valve in which the flow of water is cut off by means of a circular disk that fits
against the valve seat. The plane of movement of the disk is parallel to the normal
direction of flow of water, which is turned through a tortuous passage to direct the flow
normal to the face of the disk.
A. Gate valve
B. Check valve
C. Globe valve
D. Angle valve

63. The basic elements of an electric circuit are the following except ____.
A. Source
B. Switch
C. Conducting path
D. Electrical load

64. The reciprocal of conductance.

A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Resistance
D. Capacitance

65. Sound system input device that reacts to and converts variable sound pressure into
variable electrical current.
A. Microphone
B. Speaker

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C. Amplifier
D. Tuner

66. It prevents passengers from falling into the hoist-way when they try to get out of the
car which is stopped between the floors.
A. Weighing Device
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Fascia Plate
D. Sheave

67. The rate of flow of sound energy

A. Wavelength
B. Sound Wave
C. Sound Intensity
D. Sine Wave

68. The following are ways in which heat may be transferred except____.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Polarization
D. Radiation

69. Wallace Clement Sabine, an American physicist who pioneered work on sound is
said to be the father of ____?
A. Environmental acoustics
B. Room acoustics
C. Architectural acoustics
D. Acoustical science

70. The effective room temperature in air-conditioning.

A. 68-74 ˚F
B. 69-77 ˚F

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C. 64-78 ˚F
D. 67-78 ˚F

71. A rigid metal housing for a group of heavy conductors insulated from each other and
the enclosure, also called Busduct.
A. Raceway
B. Runway
C. Busbar
D. Busway

72. Under NBC, the clearance between the underside of the car and the bottom of the pit
shall not be less than ___.
A. 200 mm
B. 300 mm
C. 400 mm
D. 600 mm

73. This acoustical material is manufactured from rock wool, glass fibers, wood fibers,
hair felt, etc. generally installed on wood or metal framing system.

A. Acoustical tile
B. Acoustical plaster
C. Acoustical (isolation) blanket
D. Acoustical foam

74. Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above the roof.
A. 10 cm.
B. 15 cm.
C. 20 cm.
D. 25 cm.

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75. Any of a variety of soft floor finishes made of synthetic materials such as nylon or
natural material such as wool. It is either glued directly to the floor or installed over an
underlayment of hair felt or foam rubber. What is it?
A. Panel absorber
B. Carpet
C. Curtain and fabrics
D. Volume resonator

76. The rate of flow of light through a surface.

A. Luminous Flux
B. Luminance
C. Foot-Candle
D. Lux

77. Minimum extension of a vent stack through roof above any other vertical surface.
A. 300 mm
B. 400 mm
C. 600 mm
D. 800 mm

78. An assembly consisting of a pulley wheel, side plates, shaft, and bearings over which
a cable or roped is passed.
A. Governor
B. Sheave
C. Weighing Device
D. Fascia Plate

79. This material is so named in honor of a German physicist; consist of a hollow material
with a small hole on one side. This is used to detect individual frequency of complex
acoustic wave configuration.
A. Transondent
B. Hermholtz resonator

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C. Pyramid
D. Panel absorber

80. A type of High-Intensity-Discharge lamp (HID).

A. High-Pressure-Sodium
B. Mercury Vapor Lamp
C. Sodium Vapor Lamp
D. High-Pressure Mercury

81. Cables are conductors that are ____.

A. Larger than wires
B. Stranded (no.6 AWG and larger)
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

82. A high intensity discharge lamp in which the light is produced by the radiation from a
mixture of a metallic vapor, similar to that of a mercury lamp in construction.
A. Mercury Lamp
B. Metal Halide Lamp
C. Tungsten Halogen Lamp
D. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)

83. Any pipe which conveys the discharge of water closet, urinal or fixtures having similar
function, with or without the discharges from other fixtures to the building drain or
building sewer.
A. Soil pipe
B. Waste pipe
C. Building drain
D. Building sewer

84. Collection line of a plumbing system is sometimes referred to as.

A. House Drain

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B. House Sewer
C. House Sanitary Drainage
D. House Plumbing System

85. Which statement is not true?

A. Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal drain less than 1.5 meters in
length unless such line is serving sinks or urinals.
B. no galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel pipe shall be used
underground and shall be kept at least 15 cms above ground.
C. 1 3/4" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply.
D. 3" diameter is 'not' a commercial size of G.I. Pipe for water supply.

86. Which statement is not true?

A. number of fixture unit is one parameter in sizing a drainage pipe.
B. brass and cast iron body cleanouts shall not be used as a reducer or
adapter.
C. 60˚ branches or offsets may be used only when installed in a true vertical
position
D. Wooden septic tanks are allowed.

87. This shows the vertical relationships of all panels, feeders, switches, switchboards,
and major components are shown up to, but not including, branch circuiting, it is an
electrical version of a vertical section taken through the building.
A. Panel Diagram
B. Riser Diagram
C. Isometric Diagram
D. Load Diagram

88. This switch cuts off all current supply to the escalator for inspection, maintenance, or
repairs.
A. Disconnect Switch
B. Knife Switch

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C. Limit Switches
D. Current Overload Safety Switch

89. When sound impinges on a surface such as walls, floor, ceiling, etc. It is referred to
as
A. Liquidborne sound
B. Solidborne sound
C. Airborne sound
D. Structureborne sound

90. One of the earlier plastic to be developed in 1938, a du pont trade name for the
white, soft, waxy, and non-adhesive polymer of tetrafluoroethylene.
A. Teflon
B. Solvent
C. O-ring
D. Adhesive

91. XHHN in wire specification means.

A. Moisture and Heat Resistant- Cross-Linked Thermosetting
B. Moisture resistant, in wet and dry location
C. Heat Resistant in wet and dry location
D. Moisture Resistant Cross-Linked Thermosetting

92. In elevator, it protects the equipment from over current.

A. Circuit Breaker
B. Handrail Guard Switches
C. Limit Switches
D. Disconnect Switch

93. This type of perimeter detector detects a change in capacitance of the area covered,
caused by intrusion.
A. Microwave

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B. Passive Infrared with Ultrasonic (or Microwave)

C. Proximity / Capacitance
D. Ultrasonic

94. In a lightning protection system, the combination of a metal rod and its brace or
footing, on the upper part of a structure.
A. Ground Rod
B. Air Terminal
C. Lightning Rod
D. Protective Assembly

95. This type of perimeter detector uses both the Passive infrared and Ultrasonic or
Microwave system.
A. Microwave
B. Passive Infrared with Ultrasonic (or Microwave)
C. Proximity / Capacitance
D. Ultrasonic

96. Of a partition, the number of decibels by which sound is reduced in transmission

through it; a measure of the sound insulation value of the partition, the higher the
number, the greater the insulation value.
A. Transmission Loss
B. Audible Transmission
C. Sabin
D. Decibel Drop

97. The cooling effect obtained when 1 ton of ice at 32 oF (0 oC) melts to water at the
same temperature in 24 hrs. (equivalent to 12,000 Btu/hr)
A. Ton of Refrigeration
B. HP of Refrigeration
C. Ton of Ventilation
D. HP of Ventilation

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98. In elevator, it detects the obstacles during the door closing, and reopens the door if
there is something. Photocell can be used together with this.
A. Weighing Device
B. Fascia Plate
C. Safety Shoe
D. Handrail Guard

99. A type of lamp which produces light by means of the reaction of halogen additive in
the bulb reacts with chemically with tungsten.
A. Mercury Lamp
B. Metal Halide Lamp
C. Tungsten Halogen Lamp
D. High-Pressure-Sodium (HPS)

100. A type of perimeter detector which detects object in heat range of body
temperature.
A. Light Beam
B. Passive Infrared
C. Ultrasonic
D. Laser Zoom

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
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ANSWER KEY:
1. D 48. A 95. B
2. D 49. A 96. A
3. A 50. B 97. A
4. A 51. C 98. C
5. D 52. B 99. C
6. A 53. B 100. B
7. D 54. D
8. B 55. A
9. C 56. C
10. B 57. A
11. D 58. A
12. C 59. C
13. A 60. A
14. A 61. C
15. D 62. C
16. D 63. B
17. A 64. C
18. A 65. A
19. A 66. C
20. D 67. C
21. C 68. C
22. C 69. C
23. A 70. A
24. B 71. D
25. C 72. D
26. C 73. A
27. B 74. B
28. D 75. B
29. C 76. A
30. A 77. A
31. A 78. B
32. C 79. A
33. D 80. A
34. A 81. C
35. B 82. B
36. D 83. A
37. B 84. A
38. A 85. D
39. D 86. D
40. C 87. B
41. C 88. B
42. B 89. D
43. A 90. A
44. D 91. A
45. B 92. A
46. A 93. C
47. D 94. B

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING UTILITIES (MEP & ACOUSTICS)

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 11 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. In the general circuit design of a residential building, the ampacity of a connected load
shall not exceed by how many percent?
A. 60% of the amperage capacity of the conductor and circuit breaker.
B. 70% of the amperage capacity of the conductor and circuit breaker.
C. 80% of the amperage capacity of the conductor and circuit breaker.
D. 90% of the amperage capacity of the conductor and circuit breaker.

2. CPVC
A. Chlorine Polyvinyl Chloride
B. Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride
C. Chluorofluro Polyvinyl Chloride
D. Chlorination Polyvinyl Chloride

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3. In an escalator assembly, it is the lowest panel within the balustrade located

immediately below the inner deck and adjacent to the pallets at a slight gap from the
steps.
A. Sprocket
B. Deck board
C. Comb plate
D. Skirt guard

4. Ohm’s Law is:

A. V = IR
B. R = VI
C. I=V/R
D. I = RV

5. In calculating sound absorption, an open window free from obstructions and having a
length of 3 feet and a height of 4 feet has a sound absorption value of ________.
A. 3 sabins
B. 7 sabins
C. 12 sabins
D. 16 sabins

6. The science of regulating and study of sound and all its property is known as:
A. Audio frequency
B. Sound projection
C. Acoustics
D. Audiography

7. Intrusion alarm system in a residential alarm system will deter the:

A. Noise pollution
B. Air pollution
C. Burglars and prowlers
D. Rodents & termites

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8. The ration of the long side to short side of a duct; not to exceed 5:1 although 4 or 3:1
is preferred.
A. Aspect ratio
B. Duct ratio
C. L/W ratio
D. None of the above

9. The criteria in the selection of an elevator other than interval and average waiting time,
handling capacity is:
A. Durability of the surface exposed to water and tear
B. Ventilation system of the car
C. Travel time
D. Door appearances

10. When fixtures are directly mounted on walls or ceilings, it is called:

A. Pendant mounted
B. Recess mounted
C. Flush mounted
D. Surface mounted

11. Another type of circuit breaker other than bolt- on is ___________.

A. Self-melting
B. Plug-on
C. Riveted
D. None of these

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12. Fiber optics is used in installations with very heavy data transmission loads. Which
characteristic/ s is/ are provided by fiber optics make it desirable and practical?
A. High security
B. Low noise
C. Broad bandwidth
D. All of these

13. Type of pipe in the sanitary system that conveys only wastewater or liquid waste free
of fecal matter
A. Riser
B. Soil pipe
C. Branch pipe
D. Waste pipe

14. The device that open and closes the electrical circuit in an elevator when it has
reached the designated end of travel course.
A. Emergency switch
B. Travel switch
C. Limit switch
D. Motor control switch

15. The following are internal electronic safety features of an escalator. They function as
safety switches or detectors which monitor internal mechanical or electrical
abnormalities and shuts down the system in any eventuality.

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A. Phase failure delay

B. Monitoring contacts on step chain
C. Skirting panel switch
D. Drive chain and handrail governor

16. A type of intrusion detection system where the principle of beam interruption is
employed. Interruption of beam causes the contact to open thereby setting off the
alarm.
A. Mechanical motion detector
B. Passive infrared detector
C. Photoelectric detector
D. Acoustic detector

17. The component of a refrigeration system in which the refrigeration absorbs heat from
a cooling medium and charges from a liquid to a gas.
A. Compression
B. Condenser
C. Refrigerant
D. Evaporation

18. A unit of an electrical system which is intended to carry but not utilize electric energy:
A. Device
B. Feeder-riser
C. Fixture
D. Ground

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19. A fire sprinkler alarm panel which shows a coded message on a board
A. CCTV
B. Annunciator
C. Monitor
D. Digital panel

20. Which statement violates the mechanical rule provision in the design, installation and
maintenance of an escalator?
A. Installation angle of an escalator shall be more than 30º
B. The rated speed shall be more than 38 mpm
C. A only
D. Both a and b

21. A current of air is called

A. Wind
B. Air pressure
C. Breeze
D. Draught

22. These consist of loose fibers or granules and are made from cellulose, fiberglass,
rock wool, cotton or other materials. These materials come in bags and are usually
blown into cavities using special equipment. What are these?
A. Rigid Board Insulation
B. Loose fill insulation
C. Thermal Insulation
D. Adequate Insulation

23. Average diameter of a drum trap

A. 150mm
B. 250mm
C. 160mm
D. 210mm

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24. As a safety precaution, a window type AC shall be installed at not less than _____
from the floor at ground floor level and along corridors and hallways.
A. 2.0 m
B. 1.8 m
C. 2.10 m
D. 2.13 m

25. Choose which cycle a Fan Coil Unit operates.

A. Cool air is drawn from the chiller by ducts and forced draft to the exchanger
ducts by air handling for conditioning.
B. Chilled water is drawn from the chiller by pipes and pumped to the finned
cooling coils of the fan coil unit, where air is passed by force for
conditioning.
C. Cool refrigerant liquid is drawn from the expansion valve and pumped to the
finned cooling coils of the fan coil unit, where air is passed by force for
conditioning.
D. Cool air is drawn from the chiller by ducts and force draft to the finned
cooling coils of the fan coil unit, where air is passed by force for
conditioning.

26. What class of insulation consists of mica, asbestos or fiberglass, all with binders?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class O

27. The important components of an incandescent lamp are: Lead-in-wires, glass bulb,
and ____.
A. Filament
B. Screw base
C. Filament holder
D. None of these

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28. Combination of aluminum foil, installed beneath the ceiling under G.I. Roofing
A. Blanket Insulation
B. Thermal Insulation
C. ACI Insulation
D. Adequate Insulation

29. A fluorescent lamp designed to operate with a ballast having a low-voltage winding
for con heating of the cathodes
A. Instant-start
B. Pre-heat
C. Rapid-start
D. Constant-heat

30. The resistance of metallic conductors when used in power transmission is affected by
___________.
A. Length
B. Cross sectional area
C. Material composition
D. All of these

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31. What is the minimum required vertical clearance of an overhead service drop
measured from the ground, at the electrical service entrance to buildings, or at the drip
loop of the building electric entrance, or above areas or sidewalks accessible only to
pedestrians, measured from the final grade or other accessible surface only for service
drop cables supported on and cabled together with grounded bare messenger wire
and limited to 300 volts to ground?
A. 3000mm
B. 3200mm
C. 3100mm
D. 3500mm

32. In electrical systems, a factory assembly of one or more conductors insulated with a
high compressed refractory insulation enclosed in a liquid-tight and gastight
continuous copper or alloy steel sheath.
A. Shielded Non-metallic Sheathed Cable (Type SNM)
B. Mineral-insulated, Metal Sheathed Cable (Type MI)
C. Non-metallic Sheathed Cable (Type NM and NMC)
D. Flat Conductor Cable (Type FCC)

33. The simultaneous control of the temperature, humidity, motion and purity of the air in
a confined space is:
A. HVAC
B. Ventilation
C. Air-conditioning
D. Building automation

34. When controlling a lamp or group of lamps in four different locations independently,
the following switch combination shall be used. What is it?
A. 4- S4w
B. 2- S3w and 3- S4w
C. 2- S3w and 2- S4w
D. 1- S3w and 3- S4w

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35. Used in the house drain to prevent the unlikely occurrence of back flows
A. Check valves
B. Back flow valves
C. Gate valves
D. Back pressure valves

36. A type of acoustical material characterized by a network of cellular interlocking pores.

Sound absorption is more efficient at high than at low frequencies using this material.
Examples of this type are fiberboards, soft plasters, mineral woods and isolation
blankets. What is this type of material?
A. Panel (or Membrane) Absorber
B. Cavity (or Hemholtz) Resonator
C. Perforated Panel Resonator
D. Porous material

37. Portion of the sanitary extending through the roof of the building
A. Vent pipe
B. VSTR
C. Vent stack
D. Waste stack

38. In lighting design and calculation, which of the following is/ are essential factors used
when using Zonal Cavity Method?
A. Room Cavity Ratio (RCR)

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B. Footcandle value
C. Coefficient of Utilization (CU)
D. All of these

39. The illuminance produced by a luminous flux of the one Lumen distributed uniformly
over a square feet surface:
A. Lumen area
B. Lux
C. Candela
D. Footcandle

40. In lighting calculation, it is the ratio of the luminous flux (lumens) from a luminaire,
calculated as received on the work-plane to the luminous flux emitted by the luminaire
or lamp.
A. Lamp Lumen Depreciation (LLD)
B. Coefficient of Utilization (CU)
C. Light Loss Factor (LLF)
D. Luminaire Dirt Depreciation (LDD)

41. What mechanical equipment is installed on top of main doors of air-conditioned

commercial, office or public buildings, used to retain cold air at interiors?
A. Fan coil unit
B. Draft fan
C. Air curtain
D. Air-handling unit

42. Which of the following types of joint is used on copper pipes?

A. Flared joint
B. Screwed joint
C. Soldered joint
D. Both A and C

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43. What is a multifaceted reflector bulb for tungsten halogen lamps called?
A. TB bulb
B. Halogen
C. MR bulb
D. PL lamp

44. Controls MERALCO side of transformers.

A. LVSG
B. ATS
C. MTS
D. HVSG

45. What term is used to describe the conversion of electric energy to light using the
passage of alternating current or direct current through special conductors of solid
matter producing visible light.
A. Phosphorescence
B. Fluorescence
C. Electroluminescence
D. Photoluminescence or Gaseous Discharge

46. A spherical ball shaped spotlight housing is called:

A. Globe light
B. Eyeball light
C. Halogen light
D. Pinball light

47. Which of the following fixtures is usually provided with pop-up waste?
A. Water closet
B. Urinal
C. Floor drain
D. Bathtub

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48. Part of the lowest horizontal piping of the sanitary system which receives the
discharges from the soil, waste and other drainage pipes inside of a building
A. House sewer
B. Horizontal main
C. House drain
D. Horizontal drain

49. What is the unit of frequency equal to one cycle per second?
A. Decibel
B. Watt
C. Sabin
D. Hertz

50. In acoustics, what is the term given to minimum sound pressure level that is capable
of evoking auditory sensation?
A. Threshold of Pain
B. Threshold of Speech
C. Threshold of Audibility
D. Threshold of Feeling

51. A source of electricity that can be obtained by mechanical pressure of certain crystals
such as quartz and Rochelle salts.
A. Photoelectric effect
B. Chemical source
C. Piezoelectric effect
D. Thermoelectric effect

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52. The device used to convert voltage from higher to lower or vice versa is called:
A. Transformer
B. Alternator
C. Rectifier
D. Transceiver

53. The minimum setting for two bidets is a center to center spacing of
A. 600mm
B. 700mm
C. 750mm
D. 1m

54. For proscenium theaters, lateral sight lines normally should be within how many
degrees from the perpendicular at the end of the proscenium opening?
A. 20˚
B. 30˚
C. 45˚
D. 60˚

55. Which of the following is a type of refrigerant used in chillers for large installation; it
contains a synthetic chemical known as trichloromonofluoromethane.
A. R 11
B. R12
C. R 22
D. R 114

56. The average time spent by passengers in the lobby to leaving the car at an upper floor
is known as _____________.
A. ALWT (Average Lobby Waiting Time)
B. RTT (Round Trip Time)
C. ATT (Average Trip Time)
D. LDT (Lobby Dispatch Time)

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57. The overhead service conductors from the last pole or other aerial support to and
including the splices, if any, connecting to the service entrance conductors at the
building or other structure.
A. Secondary distribution mains
B. Overhead service entrance conductor
C. Service drop
D. Service cable

58. Type of bacteria in the septic tank that relies on oxygen to survive
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Scum
D. Effluent

59. A component part of an escalator that gives the unit its motive power.
A. Sprocket assembly
B. Driving machine
C. Step assembly
D. Controller

60. A parameter for correct design of elevator size speeds and number. This parameter
is the time obtained by dividing the travel length by the rated speed.
A. Maximum theoretical duration of the run
B. Wait interval
C. Standby time
D. Carrying capacity

61. As per code (NBC) provision, what is the minimum width balustrade of an escalator?
A. 550 mm
B. 540 mm
C. 640 mm
D. 558 mm

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62. Proportion of duct or section for air-conditioning.

A. H = 1/2 W
B. Aspect ratio
C. L=W
D. Free blow

63. What is the recommended rated speed of an escalator, measured along its angle of
inclination?
A. 38 mpm
B. 28 mpm
C. 45 mpm
D. 33 mpm

64. The maximum slope for shower receptor floors

A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%

65. For cooling, it is the ratio of the rate of heat removed to the rate of energy input. What
is the term?
A. AFUE (Annual Fuel Utilization Efficiency)
B. COP (Coefficient of Performance)
C. EER (Energy Efficiency Ratio)
D. IPLV (Integrated Part Load Value)

66. Which of the following does not qualify the definition for a dumbwaiter?
A. 1.20 m
B. 277 kgs.
C. 3861 sq. mm
D. used exclusively for carrying materials

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67. What is the minimum required vertical clearance of an overload service drop
measured from the ground over residential and commercial properties and driveways
not subjected to truck traffic over 600 volts to ground?
A. 4,500 mm
B. 4,800mm
C. 4,600mm
D. 5,500mm

68. Also referred to as a by-pass vent

A. Yoke vent
B. Relief vent
C. Main vent
D. Circuit vent

69. Minimum water delivery in liters per minute for an outlet of a wet standpipe at a
residual pressure equivalent to 1.8 kilos per sq. mtrs.
A. 132 liters per minute
B. 112 liters per minute
C. 155 liters per minute
D. 126 liters per minute

70. The main purpose of the shaft’s overhead is to allow a space for the:
A. Car to be stalled for maintenance
B. Car’s overrun
C. Ventilation of the shaft
D. Smoke to accumulate for dissipation
71. The plumbing code of the Philippines states that for every dormitory one water closet
is required for every:
A. 5 males
B. 8 males
C. 10 males
D. 12 males

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72. A groove cut or formed in a vertical surface to receive flashing

A. Tag
B. Wedge
C. Reglet
D. Lant

73. A rule of thumb in sizing an individual vent pipe

A. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the fixture unit but not less than the required
minimum whichever is the larger
B. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the drain it serves but not less than the required
minimum whichever is larger
C. Vent pipe size is at least equal the branch or trap diameter it serves
whichever is smaller but not less than the required minimum whichever is
larger
D. Vent pipe size is at least 1/2 the developed length of the stack it vents but
not less than the required minimum whichever is larger

74. A vertical vent connection on a horizontal soil or waste pipe branch used in spaces
without partitions
A. Loop vent
B. Looped vent
C. Circuit vent
D. Relief vent

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75. What is the recommended color code for a pipeline containing oil (discharge)?
A. Buff
B. White
C. Blue
D. Yellow

76. A type of venting system which function both as a fixture drain and a vent.
A. Individual Vent
B. Dry Vent
C. Wet Vent
D. Looped Vent

77. What is the color of light with the shortest wavelength?

A. Violet
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Red

78. What is NOT an ideal physical installation of a split-type air-conditioner?

A. Condenser and evaporator unit is installed back-to-back at the same level
within 3 meters developed distance
B. Condenser is located beyond 3 meters above the evaporator unit
C. Condenser and evaporator unit is installed at the same level within 15
meters developed distance
D. Evaporator unit is located beyond 3 meters above the condenser unit

79. In air conditioning system, that part in which refrigerant is vaporized, thereby taking
up external heat and producing cooling effect.
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Chiller

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80. An arrangement of venting so instead that one vent pipe serves two traps
A. Unit vent
B. Dual vent
C. Common vent
D. All of the above

81. Which of the following plumbing traps is considered permissible?

A. Bag Trap
B. P-Trap
C. Bell Trap
D. Metal Partition Trap

82. What is the type letter for an insulated conductor with a trade name Heat Resistant
Thermoplastic?
A. THHN
B. THW
C. THWN
D. TW

83. Standard frequency of power supplied by the local power utility company like
MERALCO.
A. 25 cycles
B. 60 cycles
C. 40 cycles
D. 30 cycles

84. A part of an elevator that are fastened to car frame and counterweight at top and
bottom; it is used on guide rails.
A. Guide shoes
B. Compensator

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C. Safety switch
D. Car leveling device

85. What mechanical equipment, coupled with a central air-conditioning system is used
to dehumidify and cool the air stream injected into the conditioned space?
A. Chiller unit
B. Fan coil unit
C. Air handling unit
D. Evaporator unit

86. Which of the following raceway wiring methods has wall thickness lesser than that of
a rigid metal conduit and generally used for both exposed and concealed work?
A. Intermediate Metal Conduit (IMC)
B. Electrical Metal Tubing (EMT)
C. Flexible Metallic Tubing (FMT)
D. Rigid Non-metallic Conduit (RNMC)

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87. The abbreviation PABX, a private telephone system serving one or group of buildings
means _____________.
A. Public Address and Building Exchange
B. Phone Activated Branch Exchange
C. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
D. Public Address and Building Utility System

88. The minimum width of door in hospital is:

A. 1.00m
B. 0.90m
C. 0.80m
D. 1.20m

89. How many drinking fountains may be provided for a place of assembly with an
occupant load of 450 persons?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

90. Mid frequency unit used in acoustical design of theaters.

A. 500 Hz
B. 60 dB
C. 1000 W
D. 120 V

91. A system of illumination designed to give uniform and generally, though not
necessarily diffuse lighting throughout the area under consideration.
A. General Lighting
B. Local Lighting
C. Combined general and local lighting
D. Supplementary lighting

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92. In a 240 volt three phase 3-wire service, branch circuits are loaded and distributed to
each of the three phases with the objective of attaining:
A. Old symmetry
B. Continuous load
C. Balance loading
D. Preventive phase reversal

93. Average size of the water seal of a common P-trap

A. 25mm
B. 37.5mm
C. 50mm
D. 75mm

94. A type of alternating current where the alternator comprises three armature windings
set at 120 degrees to each other, current will be produced in the form of triple wave.
A. Three phase
B. Two-phase
C. Multi phase
D. Single phase

95. A term used in acoustics used to establish loudness level.

A. Phon
B. Decibels
C. Hertz
D. Sabins

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96. A high intensity discharge lamp similar to construction to a mercury lamp.

A. HP sodium
B. LP sodium
C. Metal halide
D. Mercury

97. To protect PVC pipes when installed below grade line, they are expected to be
provided with:
A. Steel casing
B. Concrete casing
C. Asphalt casing
D. None of these

98. Which of the following is NOT a type of High Intensity Discharge (HID) Lamp?
A. Mercury lamp
B. Metal halide (MH) lamp
C. High pressure sodium (HPS) lamp
D. Incandescent lamp

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99. The term electrical raceway applies to ____________.

A. A channel system in carrying electric wires and cables
B. Where electric cars pass
C. Conductor of heavy load energy
D. A group of transformers

100. A pipe or shaft to convey foul air from a plumbing fixture or a room to the outer
air
A. Vent pipe
B. Stack vent
C. Local vent
D. Dry vent

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

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ANSWER KEY: 33. C 67. D

34. C 68. A
1. C 35. B 69. C
2. B 36. D 70. B
3. D 37. B 71. C
4. C 38. D 72. C
5. C 39. D 73. B
6. C 40. B 74. B
7. C 41. C 75. D
8. C 42. D 76. C
9. C 43. C 77. A
10. D 44. D 78. B
11. B 45. C 79. C
12. D 46. B 80. D
13. D 47. D 81. B
14. C 48. C 82. A
15. D 49. D 83. B
16. C 50. C 84. A
17. D 51. C 85. B
18. D 52. A 86. B
19. B 53. C 87. C
20. D 54. B 88. C
21. D 55. A 89. D
22. B 56. C 90. A
23. C 57. C 91. A
24. D 58. A 92. C
25. C 59. B 93. C
26. B 60. C 94. A
27. B 61. D 95. A
28. B 62. B 96. C
29. C 63. A 97. B
30. D 64. D 98. D
31. A 65. B 99. A
32. B 66. C 100. C

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : BUILDING UTILITIES (MEP & ACOUSTICS)

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 11 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. The intensity of light falling at any given place on lighted surface, equal to the luminous
flux incident per unit are and expressed in lumens per unit of area. Is also called
___________.
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Illuminance

2. The rate of flow of electric charge in a circuit per unit time, measured in amperes.
A. Resistance
B. Ohm
C. Current
D. Power

3. A generator for producing alternating current.

A. Alternator
B. Generator
C. Converter
D. Transformer

4. Electrical term “raceway “ applies to:

A. A channel system in carrying electric wire
B. Where electric car passes

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C. Conductor of heavy load energy

D. A grouping of transformers

5. A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

A. Alternator
B. Generator
C. Converter
D. Transformer

6. Minimum time required for water to stay in the system of pipes during water-pipe leak
test.
A. 5 mins
B. 10 mins
C. 15 mins
D. 20 mins.

7. Machines such as Genset, AHU, motors and similar mechanical equipment are sources
of internal noise. What method is the first preventive measure to restrict structure –
borne sound transmission?
A. Place mechanical equipment at basements for good enclosure
B. Independent foundation for sound discontinuity
C. Use of mufflers and silencer and similar devices attached to the mechanical
equipment
D. Choose equipment of low noise level

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8. What is the unit or assembly of units or sections, and associated fittings, forming a
rigid structural system used to support cables?
A. Cable bus
B. Busways
C. Cable trays
D. Wire-ways

9. Insulating media for transformers (no longer allowed)

A. Gatorade
B. Mineral oil
C. Askarel
D. Castor oil

10. Ratio of urinals for elementary school.

A. 1:25
B. 1:50
C. 1:60
D. 1:75

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11. A hollow cylinder of metal or plastic used for the conveyance of water, steam, gas or
other fluid material.
A. Gasket
B. Valve
C. Pipe
D. Wire

12. Minimum distance of a water supply well from a seepage pit or cesspool.
A. 15.20m
B. 15.30m
C. 15.50m
D. 45.70m

13. In cabling scope of work, AC refers to

A. Acoustic cable
B. Alternating current
C. Armoured cable
D. Alternating current

14. What is the required number of water supply fixture unit for flush tank water closets
(private/public use)?
A. ½
B. ¾
C. 3/5
D. 4/5

15. Electric service Drop Conductor could be installed above this area below:
A. Swimming and wading pools
B. Observation stands, tower or platform
C. Diving structures
D. None of these

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16. The SI unit of luminous flux, equal the light emitted in a solid angle of one steradian by
uniform point source having an intensity of one candela
A. Lux
B. Lumen
C. Foot-candle
D. Lambert

17. A stop valve placed in the service pipe close to the connection at the water main.
A. Curb cock
B. Cock
C. Gooseneck
D. Corporation cock

18. An electrical current flowing in one direction only and having a magnitude that does not
vary or varies only slightly.
A. Alternating current
B. Direct current
C. Conduction
D. Resistance

19. A hoisting and lowering mechanism within a building equipped with relatively small car
used exclusively for carrying materials
A. Service hoist
B. Elevator
C. Dumbwaiter
D. Lift

20. Minimum gauge of a galvanized sheet used for downspouts.

A. Ga. 22
B. Ga. 24
C. Ga. 26
D. Ga. 28

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21. A system of pipe, valves, and fixtures for distributing and using water in building.
A. Water system
B. Water supply
C. Water harvesting
D. Sewage treatment

22. These detectors do not detect fires producing heavy smoke but few particles such as
alcohol and plastic fires
A. Smoke detectors
B. Photoelectric detectors
C. Flame detectors
D. Ionization detectors

23. An amount if power, esp. the power required to operate an electrical device or
appliance, expressed in watts.
A. Ampere
B. Ohm
C. Wattage
D. Current

24. Ton of Refrigeration

A. 288,000 BTU/24hr
B. 280,000 BTU/24hr
C. 11,000 BTU/hr
D. 12.00 BTU/hr

25. A device which protects communication lines from lightning surcharge

A. Lightning rod
B. Protector
C. Capacitor
D. Fuse

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26. The gas at normal temperature and pressure, which when subjected to high pressure
in a compressor, raises its boiling point and temperature.
A. Argon
B. Refrigerant
C. Polyurethane
D. Dichlorodifluoromethane

27. The system of pipes, valves, fixtures and other apparatus of a water supply or sewage
system.
A. Architectural
B. Electrical
C. Plumbing
D. Structural

28. Brand name of a pump.

A. Gould’s
B. Bestank
C. Vesbo
D. Hammer and Decker

29. The luminous flux emitted per unit solid angle by light source, expressed in candelas.
A. Candle
B. Luminous intensity
C. Lumen
D. Steradian

30. The system of pipes, valves, fixtures and other apparatus of a water supply or sewage
system.
A. Architectural
B. Electrical
C. Plumbing
D. Structural

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31. An electric conductor consisting of a group of smaller-diameter conductor strands

twisted together is called ____.
A. Cable wire
B. Fibre optic
C. Electric wire
D. None of these

32. A passenger elevator safety device which is activated by preventing the door to open
during elevator car run. The door can only be opened on ly after the car has stopped at
the floor.
A. Emergency stop switch
B. Outside door latch
C. Safety shoe
D. Door lock switch

33. What is the minimum branch circuit rating for household ranges and cooking
appliances?
A. 30 amp
B. 40 amp
C. 50 amp
D. 60 amp

34. The most practical conductor of electricity is:

A. Bronze wire
B. Nickel wire
C. Silver wire
D. Copper wire

35. A passenger elevator safety device which is activated if the car travels faster than its
rated speed, turn the power off, grasps the rope to operate the safety gear.
A. Magnetic brake
B. Safety shoe

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C. Circuit breaker
D. Governor

36. A material that permits many electrons to move through it. Copper, silver, and
aluminum are examples of materials that are good conductors. Also used generically to
refer to a wire, cable, or bus bar that is made from a conducting material.
A. Conductor
B. Semi-conductor
C. Fuse
D. Insulator

37. The rate of flow of visible light per unit time, expressed in lumens
A. Candela
B. Candlepower
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminance

38. An air passage usually formed in sheet metal with insulation for ventilating on a
building:
A. Pipe chamber
B. Insulated air trenches
C. Air channel
D. Air duct

39. A device designed to open and close a circuit by non-automatic means and to open
the circuit automatically on a predetermined over current without damage to itself when
properly applied within its rating
A. Circuit breaker
B. Circuit cut-off
C. Fuse
D. Disconnecting mean

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40. The SI unit of illumination, equal to one lumen per square meter.
A. Lux
B. Lumen
C. Foot-candle
D. Lambert

41. A safety device of a passenger elevator which reduces the collision shock of a car or
counterweight due to over travel beyond the lowest stop. This device stops the car of
counterweight safely.
A. Control panel
B. Emergency landing device
C. Fascia plate
D. Buffer

42. Commercial length of RSC.

A. 10’
B. 12’
C. 16’
D. 18’

43. Air-conditioning system which answers the need to respond to changes in room
cooling capacities of controlling air flow.

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A. Split-type
B. VRV
C. VAV
D. Dampers

44. The minimum setting for two urinals is a center to center spacing of:
A. 600mm
B. 700mm
C. 750mm
D. 1M

45. A generator for producing alternating current.

A. Alternator
B. Generator
C. Converter
D. Transformer

46. The equivalent of one fixture unit (f.u.)

A. 2.8liters per minute
B. 0.75 liters per minute
C. 7.5 liters per minute
D. 7.5 gallons per min

47. Given a computed wattage of 1850W for a circuit (CO’s) in a residential building, what
is the recommended size of the wire?
A. No.14 AWG
B. No.12 AWG
C. No.10 AWG
D. No.8 AWG

48. A passenger elevator safety device which protects the motor and its electrical parts
from over current.

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A. Electrical panel box

B. Pull box
C. Circuit breaker
D. Electronic control panel

49. A hollow cylinder of metal or plastic used for the conveyance of water, steam, gas or
other fluid material.
A. Gasket
B. Valve
C. Pipe
D. Wire

50. A split knob and tube method of wiring is selective in its use. It maybe allowed to be
used. Which condition is prerequisite for the use of split knob and tube wiring?
A. A clearance of not less than 76 mm shall be maintained between conductors
and of not less than 26 mm between the conductor and the surface over
which it passes.
B. Conductors shall be securely tied thereto by wires such as # 16 GI wires
C. Wiring method shall be permitted only for extension of existing installations
D. Conductors shall be protected by non-combustible non-absorbent and non –
insulating tubes extending 100mm beyond the wood member

51. Which statement is true with regards to refrigeration and air conditioning?
A. Ducts shall be constructed entirely of non-combustible materials.
B. Window type air conditioners shall be provided with exhaust ducts if the
exhaust is discharged into corridors/hallways/arcades/sidewalks, etc., and
shall be installed at not less than 2.10m above the floor level.
C. Automatic fire dampers are not required if the ducts or their outlets and inlets
pass through firewalls.
D. Water from evaporators, condensers, and other machinery shall be properly
collected into a suitable water or drainage system.

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52. A pipe connecting a drain, near one or more traps to a stack vent.
A. Drain
B. Stack
C. Battery
D. Vent

53. It is a luminaire designed to project and diffuse a uniform level of illumination over a
large area.
A. HID lamp
B. Spot light
C. Sun light
D. Flood light

54. A system of pipe, valves, and fixtures for distributing and using water in building.
A. Water supply
B. Water harvesting
C. Water system
D. Sewage treatment

55. Which is not true among the statements?

A. Walls between doors should have an outlet regardless of the size of the wall
space.
B. Wall switches should be located on the latch side of the room entrance.
C. Wiring method for branch circuits shall be done in UPVC.
D. 2.00 sqmm. THW wire is used for convenience outlet wiring.

56. Equivalent to 12,000 BTU/hr (3.5 KW)

A. Horsepower
B. Centigrade
C. Fahrenheit
D. Ton of refrigeration

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57. A device for maintaining or increasing the amount of water vapor in the air of a room.
A. Thermometer
B. Damper
C. Humidifier
D. Chiller

58. A valve with a globular body, closed by a disk seating on an opening in an internal
wall.
A. Gate valve
B. Globe valve
C. Angle valve
D. Mixing valve

59. The rate of flow of visible light per unit time, expressed in lumens
A. Candela
B. Candlepower
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminance

60. An air-conditioning assembly containing the fans, filters, and other components
necessary to heat and distribute conditioned air to specific zones in a building.

A. Package type
B. Slit type
C. Fan coil unit
D. Air-handling unit

61. If G.I. pipe is used for a vent stack in a residential building, what is the recommended
diameter of the pipe?
A. 3/8”
B. 1 ½”
C. 2”

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D. 3”

62. A device that can be used to open or close a circuit manually and can also open a
circuit automatically when current is excessive.
A. Air circuit breaker
B. Branch circuit
C. Circuit breaker
D. Fuse box

63. The underground position of service conductors extending from a main power line or
transformer to a building:
A. Direct burial cables
B. Service lateral
C. Service drop
D. Underground service conductor

64. Minimum size for a lighting outlet wiring.

A. No.14 AWG
B. No.12 AWG
C. No.10 AWG
D. No.8 AWG

65. The SI unit of illumination equal to one lumen per square meter
A. Lux
B. Footcandle
C. Candela
D. Candlepower

66. A pipe that does not connect directly with the drainage system but discharges wastes
into an interceptor or receptacle directly connected to the drainage system
A. Direct waste pipe
B. Direct soil pipe

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C. Indirect soil pipe

D. Indirect waste pipe

67. Minimum diameter size of a trap and trap arm of a bathtub

A. 25mm
B. 38mm
C. 50mm
D. 63mm

68. Also referred to as the collecting vent line

A. Main soil and waste pipe
B. Main soil and waste pipe
C. Main vent
D. Stack vent

69. A cable provided with wrapping of metal (steel wire) for mechanical protection.
A. Super cable
B. Steel cable
C. Armored cable
D. None of these

70. Solid organic matter denser than water that settle at the bottom of the septic tank
A. Scum
B. Floe

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C. Effluent
D. Sludge

71. In a 30-ampere branch circuit for lighting or utilization equipment, what is the maximum
allowed ampere rating of one chord or plug utilization equipment connected to it?
A. 20 amp
B. 24 amp
C. 27 amp
D. 30 amp

72. A branch circuit consisting of two or more ungrounded conductors having a potential
difference between them, and a grounded conductor having equal potential difference
between it and each ungrounded conductor of the circuit and which is connected to the
neutral (grounded) conductor of the system?
A. Appliance branch circuit
B. Multi-wire circuit
C. General purpose branch circuit
D. Individual branch circuit

73. The maximum developed length of the trap arm water closet or similar fixture shall not
exceed to how many meters?
A. 0.60 m
B. 0.90 m
C. 1.8 m
D. 2.6 m

74. New air-conditioning system which answers the need to respond to changes in room
coating capacities by varying compressor loads.
A. VAV
B. VRV
C. Split-type
D. Zoned

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75. Among the following description, which of the following does NOT describe the down-
feed and gravity return system?
A. Overhead feed and system
B. Hot water rises on the highest point of the plumbing system and travels to the
fixture by gravity.
C. Water distribution is dependent on the expansion of the hot water gravity.
D. With a continuing network of pipes or provide a constant circulation of water.

76. Which among the statements is not true in piping for fuel, gas and stem?
A. Piping shall, as much as possible, run parallel to buildings.
B. Galvanized piping shall be used for steam.
C. Piping subjected to varying temperature shall be provided with expansion
joints.
D. Piping 100mm in diameter and above shall be flanged.

77. The vertical supply pipe which extends upward from one floor to the next.
A. Branches
B. House Service
C. Riser
D. Supply Pipe

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Figure 1.0

78. In the same figure, identify part number 3.

A. Driving unit
B. Hoisting machine
C. Newel
D. Control panel

79. In the same figure, identify part number 5.

A. Deck board
B. Sprocket
C. Inlet guard
D. Driving unit

80. In the same figure, identify part number 4.

A. Annunciator
B. Electromagnetic brake
C. Speed governor
D. Operating panel

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81. In the same figure, identify part number 2.

A. Driving chain
B. Balustrade
C. Moving handrail
D. Endless belt

82. In Figure 1.0, identify part number 1.

A. Deck board
B. Skirt guard
C. Comb plate
D. Interior panel

83. Minimum diameter of hoisting and counter-weight ropes of elevators.

A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 45mm

84. A water supply system in which water is distributed from a water main or an enclosed
storage tank storage tank under pressure from compressed air.
A. Mechanical water supply
B. Water pressure supply
C. Pneumatic water supply
D. Pump circuit system

85. What major physical restriction does a split type air-conditioner have which restricts its
efficiency and performance?
A. Evaporator cannot be located 3 meters above the condenser unit
B. Refrigerant tubing cannot be installed at floor and ceiling due to temperature
loss
C. Evaporators cannot be located at ceiling

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D. Condenser and evaporator units cannot be installed beyond a developed

distance of 50 ft.

86. The raceway that encloses the service entrance conductors

A. Underground service entrance
B. Underground service
C. Service lateral
D. Service raceway

87. Any joint obtained by joining of metal parts with alloys and melt at temperature higher
than 449 degrees centigrade but lower than the melting temp of the parts to be joined.
A. Burned lead joint
B. Cement Mortar Joint
C. Blazed joint
D. Flared Joint

88. For an apartment building how many gallons of hot water is needed per person?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12

89. Tube made of plastic material and color black. The cross sectional shape is normally
oval and is denoted by its outside diameter
A. Polybutylene
B. Polyethylene
C. Plastic Extra Pipe
D. Polyvinyl extra Pipe

90. Which of the following is not a Pullman type lavatory?

A. Self-rimming
B. Under counter

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C. Flush
D. Wall hung

91. How many urinals would be needed for an auditorium with capacity of 500 persons?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

92. A safety device that stops the escalator if the speed decreases to 20% or increases to
120% of the rated speed.
A. Safety switch
B. Speed governor
C. Electromagnetic brake
D. Pallet level device

93. The unit of luminous intensity and also formerly accepted unit as the candela is known
as:
A. Brightness
B. Luminosity
C. International candle
D. None of these

94. What is the pipe color for ammonia?

A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Red
D. Green

95. Minimum number of ropes for drum type elevators.

A. 2 ropes
B. 3 ropes

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C. 4 ropes
D. 5 ropes

96. What is an approved assembly of insulated conductors with fitting and conductor
terminations in a completely enclosed ventilated protective metal housing where the
assembly is designed to carry fault current and to withstand the magnetic forces of such
current
A. Busways
B. Wire-ways
C. Cable bus
D. Electrical floor assemblies

97. What is the maximum distance of a utility pole from the property line?
A. 400mm
B. 500mm
C. 600mm
D. 700mm

98. What type of wire or cable with specification as underground service cable single
conductor whit operating temperature of 75 degrees centigrade?
A. UF
B. THWN
C. XHHW
D. USE

99. The use of extreme pressure so as not affect the existing foundation in the vicinity
A. Centrifugal Pump
B. Piston Pump
C. Jetted Well
D. Driven Well

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100. Any class of synthetic fiber used to separate soil materials from a drainage
medium
A. Drainage mat
B. Gravel drain
C. Geotextile
D. Filter

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

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 25

ANSWER KEY:

1. D 47. B 93. C
2. C 48. C 94. A
3. A 49. C 95. A
4. A 50. C 96. D
5. B 51. C 97. B
6. C 52. D 98. D
7. B 53. D 99. B
8. C 54. C 100. C
9. C 55. D
10. D 56. D
11. C 57. C
12. D 58. B
13. C 59. C
14. C 60. D
15. D 61. C
16. B 62. C
17. D 63. D
18. B 64. A
19. C 65. A
20. C 66. D
21. A 67. B
22. D 68. C
23. C 69. C
24. A 70. D
25. B 71. B
26. D 72. D
27. C 73. C
28. A 74. B
29. B 75. D
30. C 76. B
31. C 77. C
32. A 78. A
33. A 79. C
34. D 80. D
35. D 81. C
36. A 82. B
37. C 83. B
38. D 84. C
39. A 85. B
40. A 86. C
41. D 87. C
42. A 88. A
43. C 89. A
44. A 90. D
45. A 91. C
46. D 92. B

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. The columns at the Great Hypostyle Hall of Temple of Amun in Karnak were built taller
than the rest, why?

a. To direct people to the inner parts of the temple

b. To carry the heavy slab
c. To let in subdued light into the temple
d. For ceremonial purposes
2. When the dome and the pendentives are part of the same sphere, the dome is
classified as ____.

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 2

a. Acute
b. Simple
c. Double
d. Complex
3. One of the most important architecture of the Early Victorian period and designed by Sir
Joseph Paxton.

a. Art deco
b. Eiffel tower
c. Library of St. Genevieve, Paris
d. Crystal palace
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 3

4. Church plan of the Romanesque Church _____.

a. Greek
b. Fleur de lis
c. Papal cross
d. Latin cross
5. The space for clergy and choir is separated by a low screen wall called _____.

a. Cancelli
b. Podium
c. Ambo
d. Ciborium
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 4

6. The forerunner of Gothic in France was _____.

a. Francois Mansard
b. Arnolfo di Cambio
c. Christopher Wren
d. Villard de Hannecourt
7. The architect of the AEG Turbine Factory, Berlin.

a. Max Berg
b. Gunther Bernisch
c. Walter Gropius
d. Peter Behrens
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8. Spanish Gothic interiors are characterized by the use of ____.

a. Iconostas
b. Tore
c. Rajas
d. Piedra china
9. Style fashionable in the 1920s and 1930s in industrial design, interior design and
architecture. One of the best known building in this style is the Chrysler Building in New
York City.

a. Jugendstil
b. Functionalism
c. High Tech
d. Art Deco
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10. In 1903, architects Barry Parker and Raymond Unwin were tasked to translate
Ebenezer Howard’s Idea of a Garden City. This project known as the First Garden City
is located approximately 35 miles from London. It is also called as_______.

a. Welwyn Garden City

b. Howard’s Garden City
c. Letchworth Garden City
d. Greenbelt Garden City
11. It is a term used to describe the work of those architects who prefigured the
International and Fucntionalist Period of the Modern Movement. It is the outward
manifestation of a design through an individual articulation.

a. Organic
b. Eclectic
c. Expressionism
d. Deconstructivism
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12. A temple arranged with a single line of columns surrounding the naos is called _____.

a. Peristyle
b. Dodecastyle
c. Peripteral
d. Apteral
13. The palace proper found in Assyrian palaces called _____.

a. Khan
b. Thalamus
c. Seraglio
d. Caravanserais
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14. Character of Romanesque architecture is _____.

a. Sober and dignified

b. Lofty and inspiring quality
c. Structural honesty
d. Simplicity and harmony
15. The church which is half-Gothic, half-Renaissance and known present as S. Maria del
Fiore is ____.

a. Pantheon, Rome
b. S. Andrea, Mantua
c. Superga, Turin
d. Florence Cathedral
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16. Persian architectural character is described as _____ and airy magnificence.

a. Heavy
b. Serene
c. Vertical
d. Light
17. The architect of the Philippine General Hospital.

a. William Parsons
b. Ralph Doane
c. Tomas Mapua
d. Juan Arellano

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18. The period known as the Early English period of the Gothic style in England and which
is less massive in character and simple in ornament is the _____.

a. Rayonnant
b. Rectilinear
c. Parallel
d. Lancet
19. Gothic character of verticality was neutralized in Italy by_____.

a. Corbel arches
b. Horizontal cornices
c. Ancones
d. Sgraffito
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20. In Gothic architecture, the upper story of the nave walls rising above the aisle roof which
is pierced with windows is the ______.

a. Aisle vault
b. Clerestory
c. Walkways
d. Blind story
21. It is known as the architecture of the curve line ____.

a. Renaissance
b. Baroque
c. Art nouveau
d. Greek
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22. Church plan of the Early Christian is _______.

a. Basilican
b. Latin cross
c. Greek cross
d. Calvary cross
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23. What is the most striking feature of Muslim Architecture?

a. Minarets
b. Tracery windows
c. Domes
d. Columns
24. The torus mold in Egyptian temples were used to cover the _____ of the walls.

a. Base
b. Cornice
c. Jambs
d. Angles

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25. The earliest form of dwelling developed by man is the ______.

a. Hut
b. Megaron
c. Tipi
d. Rock cave
26. The ornamental pattern work in stone filling the upper part of a Gothic window is _____.

a. Stained glass
b. Billet moulding
c. Tracery
d. Keystone
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27. The space reserved for the bishop at the end of the church is _____.

a. Nave
b. Dome
c. Apse
d. Bema
28. The sunk panels found in the ceiling of Greek temples is the______.

a. Metope
b. Lacunaria
c. Quadrigas
d. Agora
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29. The line or point where two things are joined or hinged.

a. Corner
b. Junction
c. Angle
d. Boss
30. The architect whose works clearly express the principle of functionalism and was called
the Father of Modern Architecture in the USA.

a. Frank Lloyd Wright

b. Robert Venturi
c. Philip Johnson
d. Louis Sullivan
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 17

31. Ziggurats are also called ______.

a. Sacrificial altars
b. Dwelling house of the gods
c. Holy mountain
d. Precinct
32. The masterpiece of Byzantine architecture is ____.

a. S. Vitale, Ravenna
b. S. Sophia, Constantinople
c. S. Mark, Venice
d. S. Theodore, Constantinople
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33. Romanesque revival in the USA was introduced by ______.

a. Louis Khan
b. Frank Lloyd Wright
c. Richard Upjohn
d. Henry H. Richardson
34. The Stonehenge is an example of ____.

a. Ziggurat
b. Stone row
c. Pyramid
d. Stone circle
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35. Walls of the Romanesque churches are relieved by shallow buttresses or pilaster
strips, connected at the top by ____.

a. Wheel window
b. Cornice
c. Columns
d. Corbel arches
36. Structures which corners were made to face the four cardinal points were the _____.

a. Temple
b. Tombs
c. Pyramid
d. Ziggurat
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37. Principal material for the Byzantine architecture ____.

a. Marble
b. Granite
c. Adobe
d. Brick
38. The line that is described as sturdy, masculine.
a. Irregular
b. Curved
c. Straight
d. Amorphous
39. The slight curvature of the Greek column is called ____.

a. Plinth
b. Abacus
c. Entasis
d. Echinus

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 21

40. This is the cistern found underneath the azotea.

a. Dema
b. Aljibe
c. Calado
d. Dulang
41. He defined architecture as: utilitas, firmitas, venustas - generally translated as utility,
firmness, and delight.

a. Violet Le Duc
b. Louis Sullivan
c. Henry Richardson
d. Vitruvius
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 22

42. The actual dimension in terms of length, width and depth.

a. Shape
b. Size
c. Height
d. Length
43. American architect of Chinese origin. His firm is one of the largest architectural firms in
the US. Buildings he designed included the Hancock Tower, Boston; Bank of China,
Hongkong; and the Pyramid at the Louver, Paris.

a. Cesar Pelli
b. Ken Yeang
c. Renzo Piano
d. IM Pei
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 23

44. The private sleeping room in the bahay-kubo is called ___.

a. Calado
b. Bangahan
c. Silid
d. Tampipi
45. A German design school founded in Weimar in 1906. It became the most important and
influential design school of the 20th Century.

a. CIAM
b. Deutscher Werkbund
c. Bauhaus
d. Chicago School

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 24

46. A movement initiated by Le Corbusier and characte-rized above all by the use of beton-
brut raw, unfinished concrete.

a. Classicism
b. Brutalism
c. Baroque style
d. Expressionism
47. The passageway leading to the main vault of the tholos is called ______.

a. Stele
b. Columbaria
c. Spina
d. Dromos
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 25

48. Roofs, domes, vaults and balustrades comprises the ______.

a. Circulatory elements
b. Structural elements
c. Protective elements
d. Decorative elements of a structure
49. The four-seated colossal statues of Rameses III are carved in the façade of the ____.

a. Mammisi Temple
b. Great Serapeum
c. Ramesseum
d. Great Temple, Abu Simbel
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50. The famous Hanging Gardens is found in the _____.

a. Temple of Marduk
b. Palace of Sargon
c. House of the Rising Sun
d. Palace of Nebuchadnezzar
51. The Roman palatial public bath.

a. Gymnasium
b. Laconicum
c. Triclinia
d. Thermae
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 27

52. The characteristic Norman church in England is _____.

a. York
b. Durham
c. Oxford
d. Guildford
53. The characteristic Renaissance wall that have cut stones with strongly emphasized
recess joints and smooth or roughly textured block faces is ____.

a. Polychrome brickwork
b. Sgraffito
c. Rusticated masonry
d. Polygonal facing
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54. Assyrian system of construction is essentially _____.

a. Trabeated
b. Arcuated
c. Buttressed
d. Cantilevered
55. The contour and structure of an object as distinguished from its substance or from the
matter composing it.

a. Area
b. Façade
c. Form
d. Perspective

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 29

56. It is the period in French Gothic which is characte-rized by flame-like or free-flowing

window tracery.

a. Rectilinear
b. Curvilinear
c. Arcuated
d. Flamboyant
57. Is a decorative treatment when forms and shapes are arranged in a diminishing or
increasing manner.

a. Repetition
b. Alternation
c. Gradation
d. Radiating
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 30

58. The popularly used column in the Greeks is _____.

a. Tuscan
b. Corinthian
c. Ionic
d. Doric
59. The mezzanine floor in the bahay na bato.

a. Alcoba
b. Latrina
c. Entresuelo
d. Volada

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 31

60. It is very usual in English Gothic cathedrals to include a chapel in honor of the Virgin
Mary called _____.

a. Chantry chapel
b. Perpetual chapel
c. Widow’s chapel
d. Lady chapel
61. Early type of tomb architecture in Egypt was the _____.

a. Mastaba
b. Pyramid
c. Tholos
d. Assuary
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 32

62. Who designed the Metropolitan Theater in Manila?

a. Tomas Mapua
b. Juan Nakpil
c. Juan M. Arellano
d. Carlos A Santos-Viola
63. Japanese movement founded in 1960 by a group of architects and city planners. Their
aim was to ease urban congestion and expand cities by adopting innovative types of
structure.

a. Megastructure
b. Metabolism
c. Modernism
d. Functionalism
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 33

64. The high altar is covered above by a canopy called _____.

a. Ambo
b. Confession
c. Baldacchino
d. Carpet
65. One characteristic feature of German Gothic is its use of _____.

a. Limestone
b. Brick
c. Marble
d. Concrete
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 34

66. Characteristic feature of Egyptian external wall is that it is ______.

a. Levered
b. Battered
c. Plain
d. Embattled
67. English architect and engineer, a leading representative of High Tech architecture. His
projects include HK and Shanghai Bank, Hongkong, the Carre d’Art Gallery, Nimes, the
Reichstag, Berlin and the Great Court, London.

a. Sir Norman Foster

b. Richard Buckminster Fuller
c. Theo van Doesburg
d. Robert Venturi
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 35

68. It is the first all steel building in the Philippines.

a. Manila Hotel
b. San Sebastian Church
c. Intendencia building
d. Philippine Normal School
69. The triangular termination of the roof of a Greek temple.

a. Pediment
b. Mutules
c. Antefixae
d. Triglyph
70. General formula to explain a phenomena ______.
a. Theory
b. Research
c. Survey

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d. Test
71. “Less is a bore”. Is the famous saying of _____.

a. Louis Sullivan
b. Frank Lloyd Wright
c. Robert Venturi
d. Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
72. A recess or alcove with raised seat where disputes took place is the ____.

a. Crest
b. Rollock
c. Exedrae
d. Niche
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73. Found in the ground floor of the bahay na bato, it is where the carriages and saint’s
floats or andas are usually kept.

a. Patio
b. Entresuelo
c. Zaguan
d. Garahe
74. The part of a connected series.

a. Line
b. Sides
c. Arc
d. Link
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75. The _____ forms of a structure are organized according to their origin, composition and
treatment.

a. Decorative
b. Structural
c. Protective
d. Circulatory
76. The favorite motifs of design of the Egyptians include the lotus papyrus and ______.

a. Palm
b. Scarab
c. Rope
d. Feather
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77. A center of interest to the most important aspect of a design scheme.

a. Focus
b. Façade
c. Elevation
d. Contrast
78. The church in Bohol that contains the biggest number of murals on the walls and
ceilings.

a. Loboc
b. Cortes
c. Laon
d. Jagna
79. That which deceives the eye.

a. Entasis
b. Superimposition
c. Point
d. Trompe L’oeil

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80. The chief chamber containing the statue in Greek temple is___.

a. Opisthodomos
b. Naos
c. In-antis
d. Peribolus

81. Gothic means _______.

a. Architecture of the curve line.

b. Departure of the curve line.
c. Restoration
d. Resurrection of the curve line.
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82. Swiss architect active in France, one of the most influential architects and theorists of
the 20th Century. His works include Villa Savoye, Poissy; the Unite d;Habitation,
Marseille; and the Pilgrimage Church, Ronchamp.

a. Charles Edouard Jeanneret

b. Charles Rennie Mckintosh
c. Richard Meier
d. Ludwig Mies van der Rohe
83. Characteristic feature of Romanesque in N. Italy is the wheel window and the _____.

a. Flying buttress
b. Central projecting porch
c. Caryatid porch
d. Fanlight
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84. The only surviving structure of the 1945 war in Intramuros is the _____.

a. San Juan de Letran College

b. Manila Cathedral
c. San Agustin Church
d. Iglesia de San Ignacio
85. The ____ of a form depends on its geometry as well as its orientation relative to the
ground plane and our line of sight. It also signifies the degree of concentration and
stability of a form.

a. Orientation
b. Visual inertia
c. Position
d. Silhouette
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 43

86. The Iconoclastic Movement during the Byzantine period forbade the use of ____ for
representations.

a. Glass mosaic
b. Statues
c. Gargoyles
d. Carvings

87. It has two dimensions and articulated with color, tone and texture.

a. Platonic solids
b. Volume
c. Surface
d. Mass

88. In Romanesque architecture, door and window openings have jambs or sides formed in
a series of receding moulded planes known as _____.

a. Orders
b. Piers
c. Mouldings
d. Ornaments

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89. Outline of the human face, distinctive outline.

a. Dominance
b. Side view
c. Profile
d. Picture
90. Structure used for gladiatorial contests.

a. Spina
b. Amphitheaters
c. Skene
d. Tholos
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 45

91. The Greek wrestling school is called ____.

a. Stoa
b. Gymnasia
c. Palaestra
d. Bouleuterion
92. The easiest and simplest kind of balance is the purely symmetrical type in which the
elements are arranged in precisely the same manner on either side of a central axis or
line.

a. Occult balance
b. Formal balance
c. Symmetrical balance
d. Asymmetrical balance
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93. Architecture characterized by free, abstract, monumental form.

a. Minimalism
b. Functionalism
c. Expressionism
d. Brutalism
94. The Chicago architect who prepared the Manila Plan under the American Colonial
Period.

a. George Fenhagen
b. Edgar Bourne
c. Pierce Anderson
d. Daniel Burnham
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 47

95. A Filipino architect who designed the much acclaimed stage setting for the New York
premier of Lucifer, danced by Fonteyn and Nureyev in honor of the Martha Graham
dance company’s golden anniversary.

a. Juan Nakpil
b. Felipe Mendoza
c. Pablo Antonio
d. Leandro Locsin
96. Barasoain Church. What style was used in the columns as seen in the façade?

a. Baroque
b. Gothic
c. Romanesque
d. Renaissance

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 48

97. The third largest Gothic cathedral in Europe is ______.

a. Bristol
b. Doge’s palace
c. Ameins
d. Cologne
98. The traditional Maranao house for the ordinary members of the community is ____.

a. Walay
b. Lamin
c. Torogan
d. Dema

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99. A style of decoration in architecture and applied art developed principally in France and
Belgium toward the end of the 19th Century, characterized by organic and dynamic
forms, whiplash lines and curving design.

a. Art deco
b. Art nouveau
c. Beaux-arts
d. Neo-classic
100. It works together with a practical design to the end that out of this collaboration grows a
building which is not only functional but also pleasing in appearance.
a. Parti
b. Aesthetic design
c. From within to without
d. Form

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have questions or
comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-
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www.paleor.net 476
 50

ANSWER KEY: 34. D 68. B

1. B 35. D 69. A
2. B 36. D 70. A
3. D 37. A 71. C
4. D 38. C 72. C
5. A 39. C 73. C
6. D 40. B 74. D
7. D 41. D 75. A
8. C 42. B 76. A
9. D 43. D 77. A
10. C 44. C 78. A
11. C 45. C 79. D
12. C 46. B 80. B
13. C 47. D 81. B
14. D 48. C 82. A
15. D 49. D 83. B
16. B 50. D 84. C
17. A 51. D 85. B
18. D 52. B 86. B
19. B 53. C 87. C
20. B 54. B 88. A
21. B 55. C 89. C
22. C 56. D 90. B
23. A 57. C 91. C
24. D 58. D 92. C
25. D 59. C 93. D
26. C 60. D 94. D
27. C 61. A 95. D
28. B 62. C 96. A
29. B 63. B 97. D
30. D 64. C 98. A
31. C 65. B 99. B
32. B 66. B 100. B
33. D 67. A

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture.
A. Cha-sit-su
B. Tokonoma
C. Torei
D. Masu-gumi

2. First modern architecture school in the world

A. Chicago school of arts
B. Ash can school
C. Bauhaus
D. Ecole de beaux art

3. Another term for crenel or intervals between merlon of a battlement

A. Cavetto
B. Bartizan
C. Astylar
D. Embrasures

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4. Founder of the Bauhaus School of Art.

A. Alvar Aalto
B. Walter Gropius
C. Eero Saarinen
D. Le Corbusier
5. Plan shape of a Chinese pagoda.
A. Hexagonal
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Octagonal

6. Who created the dymaxion house, the first machine for living?
A. Moshe Safdie
B. Buckminster Fuller
C. Frank Lloyd Wright
D. Louis Kahn

7. What architectural term is termed to be free from any historical style?

A. Renaissance
B. Eclecticism
C. Baroque
D. Art Noveau

8. Percentage of the payment bond to the contract amount.

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%

9. To whom are space frame systems and lamella construction attributed as contribution to
architecture?
A. Buckminster Fuller

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B. Eugene Freysinnet
C. Pier Luigi Nervi
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

10. Architect of Asian Institute of Technology in Bangkok

A. Carlos Arguelles
B. Cesar H. Concio
C. Gabriel Formoso
D. Federico Ilustre

11. Percentage of the guarantee bond to the contract amount.

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%

12. Shop drawings are basically prepared by the contractor. It is subject for approval by
whom?
A. Owner
B. Project Manager
C. Architect
D. Construction Manager

13. Author of compilation on “five orders of architecture”

A. Giacomo da Vignola
B. Antonio de Sangallo
C. Jacopo Sansovino
D. Raphael Santi

14. Architect D was commissioned to design a laundry and cleaning facility with a project
construction cost of Php 15M, how much would he charge?
A. 6% of CC

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B. 7% of CC
C. 8% of CC
D. 12% of CC

15. Who is responsible to the payment of taxes imposed on the architect as a

consequence of the services performed for the project?
A. Architect
B. Owner
C. Contractor
D. Consultant

16. Architect of the Philippine Heart Center.

A. Felipe Mendoza
B. George Ramos
C. Gabriel Formoso
D. Leandro Locsin

17. The cost of the completed structure to the owner including MPE and other systems
attached to the building and all items indicated in the drawings designed by or specified
the architect and his consultant.
A. Projected Construction Cost
B. Estimated Construction Cost
C. Project Construction Cost
D. None

18. Which of the following factors does NOT affect historic style of architecture?
A. Geological characteristics
B. Religion
C. Land use
D. Sociopolitical condition

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19. “I am looking for ways of conceptualizing space that will place the subject in a
displaced relationship because they will have no iconographic reference to traditional
forms of organization”.
A. Frank Gehry
B. Zaha Hadid
C. Peter Eisenmann
D. Daniel Libeskind

20. Which is most sacred part of a church or temple, which is a holy and consecrated
place?
A. Transept
B. Scene
C. Sanctuary
D. Shrine

21. What is the spherical roof placed like an inverted cup over a circular, square, or multi-
angular apartment?

A. Cymatium
B. Conoid
C. Drum
D. Cupola

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22. “I do not believe architecture should speak too much. It should remain silent and let
nature, in the guise of light and wind, speak”.
A. Kisho Kurukawa
B. Toyo Ito
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Tadao Ando

23. What Asian architecture is so rich in design that “no facet of any structure is left
unadorned”?

A. Malay
B. Japanese
C. Filipino
D. Thai

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24. What is the second oldest institute of higher education in the Philippines, which boasts
of ancient Spanish architecture?
A. University of San Carlos
B. University of Sto. Tomas
C. De la Salle University
D. Ateneo de Manila University

25. Geometry is key to all architecture.

A. Le Corbusier
B. Ken Yeang
C. Ieoh Ming Pei
D. Louis Kahn

26. What historic style of architecture contributed architectural moldings such as cyma
recta, cyma reversa, ovolo, etc?
A. Bzantine
B. Early Christian
C. Chinese
D. Greek

27. Father of modern picture books of architecture.

A. Mathurin Joss
B. Claude Perrault
C. Julien Guadet
D. Andrea Palladio

28. What do you call the picture writings of primitive people?

A. Iconography
B. Calligraphy
C. Caryatides
D. Hieroglyphics

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29. The basic scheme or concept of an architectural design, usually represented by a

diagram.
A. Content
B. Composition
C. Parte
D. Sketch

30. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals
maintain in various social and interpersonal situations.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Sematics
C. Ekisthics
D. Proxemics

31. Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium.

A. Tomas Mapua
B. Jose Herrera
C. Cesar Concio
D. Juan Nakpil

32. Expressionist Architect.

A. Eero Saarinen
B. Alvar Aalto
C. Erich Mendelsohn
D. Hennevique

33. What is the first planned park in the U.S.?

A. Golden gate park, SF
B. Yosemite park, CA
C. Central park, NYC
D. Washington park, CHI

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34. “Let the facade be a free composition” - famous axiom by:

A. Louis Kahn
B. Pier Luigi Nervi
C. Walter Gropius
D. Kenzo Tange

35. The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante.
A. Latin Cross
B. Greek Cross
C. English Cross
D. French Cross

36. Architect of the National Library, Philippines.

A. Jose Herrera
B. Juan Nakpil
C. Cesar Concio
D. Felipe Mendoza

37. In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___.

A. Narthex
B. Apse
C. Naos
D. Nave

38. Who is the architect of the College of Engineering and College of Liberal Arts at the
University of the Philippines?
A. Victor Tiotuyco
B. Gabriel Formoso
C. Aurelio Juguilon
D. Cesar Concio

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39. An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex
tiles that cover the joints of the flat tiles.
A. Acroterion
B. Anthemion
C. Antefix
D. Apotheca

40. Egyptian pyramid and babylonian ziggurat have some architectural similarities and
differences. Which is TRUE?
A. Four angles of pyramid face cardinal points
B. Four sides of ziggurat face cardinal points
C. Both are square in plan
D. Ziggurats used stone, pyramid used sundried bricks

41. Strictly, a pedestal at the corners or peak of a roof to support an ornament, more
usually, the ornament itself.
A. Acroterion
B. Anthemion
C. Antefix
D. Apotheca

42. Plan shape of a Japanese pagoda.

A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Round
D. Triangular

43. First elected U.A.P. president.

A. Juan Nakpil
B. Cesar Concio
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. Jose Herrera

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44. Buddhist architecture shown in rock-cut temples with lavishly carved interiors is a
characteristic feature of ______style?
A. Japanese
B. Filipino
C. Indian
D. Chinese

45. "Cubicula" or bedroom is from what architecture.

A. Roman
B. Greek
C. Egyptian
D. Byzantine

46. Medieval architecture, which is characterized by the pointed style, was prevalent in
west Europe from 13th to 15th century.
A. Romanesque
B. Arabesque
C. Doric
D. Gothic

47. ______is the colonnaded building used around public places and as shelters at
religious shrines in Greek arch?

A. Propylae
B. Stoa
C. Pestle
D. Agora

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48. Greek architecture was essentially____.

A. Domical roof construction
B. Helm Roof
C. Columnar trabeated
D. Arch and vault
49. Amphitheaters are used for ____.
A. Sports competition
B. Gladiatorial Contests
C. Marathon race
D. Public meetings

50. Designer of the Taj Mahal.

A. Shah Jalan
B. Shah Jahan
C. Shah Reza
D. Shah Naser

51. Which historic style of architecture first introduced the clerestory?

A. Egyptian
B. Greek
C. Roman
D. West Asiatic

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52. Architect of the Rizal Memorial Stadium.

A. Tomas Mapua
B. Juan Nakpil
C. Jose Herrera
D. Cesar Concio

53. What is the difference between Chinese and Japanese pagodas?

A. Chinese pagodas are polygonal, Japanese square
B. Japanese pagodas are mostly 4-storeyed, Chinese are 3 to 7
C. Chinese pagodas are mostly 5-storeyed, Japanese 3 to 15
D. Japanese pagoda plans are polygonal, Chinese square

54. Expressionist Architect.

A. Eero Saarinen
B. Alvar Aalto
C. Hennevique
D. Erich Mendelsohn

55. What do you call the enclosed space at the top of a ziggurat in Mesopotamia?

A. God's house
B. Observatory
C. Priest's house
D. Altar

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56. Where can you find this?

A. Intramuros
B. Fort San Pedro
C. Fort Santiago
D. Fort Bonifacio

57. From _______ style of architecture where Chinese pagodas derived?

A. Muslim
B. Indian
C. Japanese
D. Europea

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58. Where can you find this temple?

A. Thailand
B. Cambodia
C. Indonesia
D. Philippines

59. Toranas or gateways are characteristic of _____ architecture.

A. Japanese
B. Indian
C. Filipino
D. Chinese

60. What do you call the gateway, which is a feature of Chinese architecture and erected
only by government permission as memorial to deceased persons distinction?
A. Pagoda
B. Temple
C. Gazebo
D. Pai-lous

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61. Designer of Golden Gate Bridge.

A. Joseph Aspdin
B. Joseph Paxton
C. Joseph Gardin
D. Joseph Strauss

62. “Ornament is a crime and all ornamentation must be rejected” - famous philosophy by:
A. Philip Johnson
B. Le Corbusier
C. Adolf Loos
D. Antoni Gaudi

63. Identify the name of this church.

A. St. Mark’s Cathedral
B. St. Basil’s Cathedral
C. St. Paul’s Cathedral
D. Dome of the Rock

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64. Architect of the US pavilion in the 1967 Montreal exposition

A. Minoru Yamasaki
B. I. M. Pei
C. Buckminster fuller
D. Edward Durell

65. What invention brought about modern high rise buildings?

A. Elevator
B. Curtain wall
C. Steel beam
D. Thin shell construction

66. This type architecture started in the year 313 A.D. – 800 A.D. It is characteristic by the
long perspective of columns which carry the eye along to the sanctuary. A treatment
which makes the churches appear longer than they really are. Introduction of colors with
the use of glass mosaics were set up purely for decorative purposes. Timber roofs
covered the central nave, and only simple forms of construction were employed.
A. Early Christian
B. Romanesque
C. Byzantine
D. Islamic

67. Who is the architect of the Asian Institute of Technology in Bangkok?

A. Juan Arellano
B. Graciano Mariano
C. Leandro Locsin
D. Federico Ilustre

68. In Greek arch, the wrestling school interchangeably used as gymnasium or various
kinds of physical exercises?
A. Propylae
B. Agora

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C. Palaestra
D. Bouleterio

69. The toilet found in “Bahay na Bato”

A. Aljibe
B. Letrina
C. Zaguan
D. Caida

70. What important event changed architecture to what is termed as ‘modern’

A. Renaissance
B. Discovery of concrete
C. Metallurgy
D. Industrial revolution

71. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to scaffolding?

A. Bolado
B. Biento
C. Estanyo
D. Andanyo

72. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to a wiring knob?

A. Masilya
B. Kabilya
C. Poleya
D. Trankilya

73. Who was the Pritzker Prize Awardee in 2004?

A. Philip Johnson
B. Luis Barragan
C. Kevin Roche
D. Zaha Hadid

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74. Due to generally rainless and bright sunshine climate, which of the following describes
Egyptian structures?
A. Steep roofs
B. Large openings
C. Small openings
D. Absence of open court

75. Between pyramid and ziggurat, which is TRUE?

A. Pyramids are square, ziggurat are hexagonal in plan
B. Pyramids have sloping faces, ziggurat have diminishing faces
C. Four faces of ziggurats point to cardinal points
D. Both used stone as building material

76. Public buildings are important structures in Greek architecture. What do you call the
town square used as center of Greek social and business life?
A. Agora
B. Tenemos
C. Stoa
D. Prophytae

77. Who invented a system of well-high universal applications based on hyperboloids and
paraboloids in buildings?
A. Robert Venturi
B. Victor Gruen
C. Philip Johnson
D. Antoni Gaudi

78. Who created the dymaxion house, the first “machine for living”?
A. Eero Saarinen
B. Louis kahn
C. Buckminster fuller
D. Frank Lloyd wright

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79. Due to generally rainless and bright sunshine climate, which of the following describes
Egyptian structures?
A. Absence of open courts
B. Large openings
C. Flat roofs
D. Extensive roof drainage

80. Who is the architect of the new Medical City?

A. William Coscollueta
B. Bobbi Manosa
C. Jun Palafocs
D. Mary Ann Espina

81. In 1945, the Hong Kong and Shanghai Bank is probably the best known and most
widely publicized building of the decade, largely because it was claimed to have cost
more money than any other building to erect. Notwithstanding that kind of publicity and
the building’s subsequent overshadowing by far inferior competitors, it remains a unique
architectural achievement and a small wonder of the modern age. Who is the architect
of this building?
A. Philip Johnson
B. Norman Foster
C. Kenzo Tange
D. S.O.M.

82. Who is the architect of the Imperial Hotel in Tokyo who played a decisive role in the
renewal of Japanese architecture?
A. Walter Gropius
B. Kenzo Tange
C. Frank Lloyd wright
D. Le Corbusier

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83. The study of creative processes especially as applied to the stating and solution
problems that involves free use of metaphor and analogy in informal interchange within
a small group of diverse individuals.
A. Proxemics
B. Tectonics
C. Semantics
D. Synectics

84. Kind of architecture that reflects a combination of styles from various historical periods.
A. Informal architecture
B. Ekistics
C. Eclectic
D. Evolving architecture

85. _____ is a mass of masonry wall built against a wall to resist pressure of an arch or
vault?
A. Camber
B. Canopy
C. Cable
D. Buttress

86. A deviation from the normal or expected for, order, or arrangement.

A. Variation
B. Chaos
C. Variance
D. Anomaly

87. Written record of man’s efforts to build beautifully is _________?

A. Pre-historic architecture
B. Elements of architecture
C. History of architecture
D. Style of architecture

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88. Movement that resulted to contextual architecture and veered away from global
architectural movements or standards
A. Fordism
B. International style
C. Post-Fordism
D. Non-global architecture

89. Architect / city planner who authored the “ekistics” - the science of human settlements
A. Gropius
B. Doxiadis
C. Niemeyer
D. Chambers

90. “Form follows function” is the dictum generally accredited to

A. Marcel Breuer
B. Mies van der Rohe
C. Frank Lloyd Wright
D. Louis Sullivan

91. What study of arch do we learn the possible origins of architecture, its different forms,
and structures which are unique to each civilization?
A. Theory of architecture
B. Architectural design
C. Structural design
D. History of architecture

92. Architect who designed and advocated the geodesic dome for cities of tomorrow was
A. Mies van der Rohe
B. Le Corbusier
C. Buckminster Fuller
D. Louis Kahn

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93. Principle of design that is based on repetitive elements

A. Pattern
B. Organization
C. Symmetry
D. Rhythm

94. Architect who advocated the “organic architecture” and envisioned the “Broadacre city”
for the future was
A. Eero Saarinen
B. Wallace Harrison
C. Richard neutral
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

95. What are common topics or situations that require and architectural design for a
project to be successful?
A. Facts
B. Issues
C. Goal
D. Performance requirement

96. Development of dome to cover polygonal & square plans for churches, tombs and
baptisteries is the architectural character of ___.
A. Gothic
B. Early Christian
C. Byzantine
D. Romanesque

97. What is a statement of intention or action statement in an architectural program?

A. Facts
B. Goal
C. Issues
D. Performance requirement

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98. An ornate architectural style which developed during the latter part of the renaissance
period is called
A. Baroque
B. Byzantine
C. Romanesque
D. Gothic

99. What is a statement of measurable level of function of an architectural design?

A. Facts
B. Goal
C. Issues
D. Performance requirement

100. The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and its
domains had ample supply of was.
A. Cement
B. Marble
C. Lime
D. Silica

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ANSWER KEY: 34. D 68. C

1. D 35. B 69. B
2. C 36. D 70. D
3. D 37. C 71. D
4. B 38. D 72. C
5. D 39. C 73. D
6. B 40. C 74. C
7. D 41. A 75. B
8. B 42. A 76. A
9. A 43. D 77. D
10. D 44. C 78. C
11. D 45. A 79. C
12. C 46. A 80. B
13. A 47. B 81. B
14. B 48. C 82. C
15. B 49. B 83. D
16. B 50. B 84. C
17. C 51. B 85. D
18. C 52. B 86. D
19. C 53. B 87. C
20. C 54. D 88. C
21. D 55. D 89. B
22. D 56. C 90. D
23. D 57. C 91. C
24. B 58. B 92. D
25. C 59. B 93. D
26. D 60. D 94. D
27. D 61. D 95. B
28. D 62. C 96. D
29. C 63. B 97. B
30. D 64. C 98. A
31. D 65. A 99. D
32. C 66. A 100. B
33. C 67. D

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Triangular piece of wall above the entablature.
A. Pendentive
B. Pediment
C. Architrave
D. Frieze

2. What is the difference between Chinese and Japanese pagodas?

A. Chinese pagodas are mostly five-storeyed; Japanese are three to fifteen
B. Japanese pagoda plans are polygonal; Chinese are square
C. Japanese pagodas are mostly four-storeyed; Chinese are three to seven
D. Chinese pagodas are polygonal; Japanese are square

3. Amphitheaters are used for ___.

A. Sports competition
B. Marathon race
C. Gladiatorial Contests
D. Public meetings

4. The space between the colonnade and the naos wall in Greek temple.
A. Stoa
B. Antefix
C. Anthemion
D. Pteroma

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5. For the first time perhaps, the pressing problems of architecture, solved in a modern
spirit. Economy, sociology, aesthetics: a new solution using new methods.
A. Peter Behrens
B. August Perret
C. Louis Sullivan
D. Le Corbusier

6. Who is the architect of the College of Engineering and College of Liberal Arts at the
University of the Philippines?
A. Gabriel Formose
B. Cesar H. Concio
C. Aurelio Juguilon
D. Victor Tiotuyco

7. What is the first project of Michael Graves designed in the Philippines?

A. World Health Organization Building
B. World Trade Exchange Building
C. Philippine Trade Center
D. World Trade Organization Building

8. Plan shape of a Japanese pagoda.

A. Rectangle
B. Round
C. Square
D. Triangular

9. The state of being placed close together or side by side, so as to permit comparison
and contrast.
A. Opposition
B. Juxtaposition
C. Emphasis
D. Articulation

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10. Identify the illustrated architectural masterpiece by Johann Otto von Sprecklsen. The
structure fills a 100 meter square with a tremendous squared arch, rising 110m. Fabric
canopy and transparent tube elevator under the huge square arch.
A. La Grand Arch, Paris, France
B. Hotel du Department, Marseille, France
C. Parliament Trade Center
D. City Hall, Boston

11. Architect of Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila.

A. George Ramos
B. Froilan Hong
C. Gabriel Formoso
D. Leandro Locsin

12. Geometry is key to all architecture.

A. Le Corbusier
B. Ken Yeang
C. Louis Kahn
D. Ieoh Ming Pei

13. The dining hall in a monastery, a convent, or a college.

A. Cortel
B. Apse
C. Refectory
D. Dipteral

14. Who is the architect of the Quezon City Institute?

A. Juan Nakpil
B. Antonio Toledo
C. Fredirico Ilustre
D. Cesar Concio

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15. What is the tallest building in the world found in Asia?

A. Jin Mao Building
B. Petronas Tower
C. CITIC Plaza
D. Taipei 101

16. Which of the order was added by the Romans to the orders used by the Greeks.

A. Corinthian
B. Composite
C. Doric
D. Ionic

17. Which of the following churches was built in the Spanish Baroque style?
A. Morong Church
B. San Sebastian Church
C. Laoag Church
D. Loboc Church

18. The comparative, proper, or harmonious relation of one part to another.

A. Scale
B. Ratio
C. Proportion
D. Rhythm

19. Which of the following buildings/structures is NOT of Italian Romanesque architecture?

A. Winchester Cathedral
B. Pisa Cathedral

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C. St. Michele, Pavia

D. Monreale Cathedral

20. Designer of the Bonifacio Monument.

A. Juan Nakpil
B. Cesar Concio
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. Tomas Mapua

21. The Italian version of Art Nouveau, named after the firm of Liberty and Co. in London
A. Jugendstil
B. Sezession
C. Stile Liberty
D. Modernismo

22. How many stained glass are there in the Chartres Cathedral?

A. 167
B. 176
C. 177
D. 188

23. Who is the Architect of the building which was built in 1995 that has an image-oriented
design for a prominent building, a strictly symmetrical composition of Platonic masses
with stripes. Located in San Francisco, California.

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A. Michael Graves
B. Mano Botta
C. Herzog and de Meuron
D. Rem Koolhaas

24. Which design principle involves differences of form, line or color?

A. Rhythm
B. Hierarchy
C. Contrast
D. Proportion

25. Orientation of the Greek temple is towards the ___.

A. West
B. North
C. South
D. East

26. The dimensional relationship of parts to the whole / on parts to the whole is the
definition of which design principle?
A. Rhythm
B. Proportion
C. Contrast
D. Hierarchy

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27. Based on the notion that the “Form of an object should last.”
A. Structuralism
B. Historicism
C. Monumentalism
D. Selectivism

28. Invented reinforced concrete in France.

A. Hennevique
B. Erich Mendelsohn
C. Le Corbusier
D. Mies van de Rohe

29. What is the common device used to achieve balance?

A. Scale
B. Axis
C. Hierarchy
D. Composition

30. An ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used in public places.

A. Pteroma
B. Antefix
C. Stoa
D. Anthemion

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31. Components of an architectural system

A. Technology
B. Context
C. A and b
D. None of the above

32. A primary element of design that has no direction

A. Color
B. Texture
C. Line
D. Point

33. The architecture of the curved line is known as ___.

A. Baroque
B. Romanesque
C. Renaissance
D. Medieval

34. The architect who claimed that: the ultimate goal of the new architecture was the
composite but inseparable work of art, in which the old dividing line between
monumental and decorative elements will have disappeared forever.

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A. Walter Gropius
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Le Corbusier
D. Mies Van de Rowe

35. What are objective specific and verifiable data needed to create an architectural
program?
A. Goal
B. Issues
C. Performance requirement
D. Facts

36. Proportion based on inherent properties of materials

A. Structural proportion
B. Manufactured proportion
C. Natural proportion
D. None of the above

37. The building in the acropolis generally considered as being the most nearly perfect
building ever erected is the.
A. Anthemion
B. Acroterion
C. Parthenon
D. Prytaneion

38. The rhythmic quality or character of a composition suggesting motion by represented

gestures or by the relationship of structural elements.
A. Direction
B. Movement
C. Rhythmic motion
D. None of the above

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39. He claimed that there is a humanism in Architecture and that the concept is based on
order of numbers and Euclidean geometry.
A. Euclid
B. Alberti
C. Da Vinci
D. Vitruvius

40. With the use of concrete made possible by pozzolan, a native natural cement, the
Romans achieved huge interiors with the.

A. Domical roof construction

B. Arch and vault
C. Helm Roof
D. Columnar and Trabeated

41. A raised stage reserved for the clergy in early Christian churches.
A. Ambo
B. Cella
C. Bema
D. Cancelli

42. In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church
called ___.
A. Naos
B. Narthex

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C. Nave
D. Apse

43. Architect of G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard.

A. George Ramos
B. Froilan Hong
C. Gabriel Formoso
D. Felipe Palafox

44. The characteristic of Greek ornament.

A. Anthemion
B. Acroterion
C. Antefix
D. Apotheca

45. Architect of the Batasang Pambansa.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. Leandro Locsin
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. George Ramos

46. "Architecture is Organic".

A. Frank Lloyd Wright
B. Mies van de Rohe
C. Walter Gropius
D. Le Corbusier

47. The final plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Carlo Maderna.
A. Greek Cross
B. Latin Cross
C. English Cross
D. French Cross

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48. Sculptor for the Bonifacio Monument.

A. Antonio Guillermo
B. Gabriel Formoso
C. Guillermo Tolentino
D. Leandro Locsin

49. The beginner of the great hypostyle hall at karnak and the founder of the 19th
dynasty.
A. Rameses I
B. Rameses II
C. Rameses III
D. Rameses IV

50. The fortified high area or citadel of an ancient Greek City.

A. Pantheon
B. Acropolis
C. Parthenon
D. Apotheca

51. Plan shape of a Chinese pagoda.

A. Hexagonal
B. Rectangular
C. Octagonal
D. Square

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52. Most famous and perfect preservation of all ancient buildings in Rome.

A. Parthenon
B. Acropolis
C. Pantheon
D. Apotheca

53. Usual number of stories for a Chinese pagoda.

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

54. In ancient Greece and Rome, a storeroom of any kind, but especially for storing wine.
A. Apotheca
B. Acroterion
C. Anthemion
D. Antefix

55. From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the
practice of using.
A. Helm Roof
B. Columnar trabeated
C. Domical roof construction
D. Arch and vault

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56. "cubicula" or bedroom is from what architecture.

A. Greek
B. Egyptian
C. Roman
D. Byzantine

57. Also called a 'Honeysuckle' ornament.

A. Anthemion
B. Acroterion
C. Antefix
D. Apotheca

58. Romanesque architecture in Italy is distinguished from that of the rest of Europe by the
use of what material for facing walls.
A. Bricks
B. Marble
C. Cement
D. Lime

59. On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are
called.
A. Bema
B. Cella
C. Cancelli
D. Ambo

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60. An oval or oblong, slightly convex surface, usually surrounded with ornamental
scrollwork, for receiving a painted or low relief decoration.
A. Cartouche
B. Ballflower
C. Pastiche
D. Aurole

61. Strictly, a pedestal at the corners or peak of a roof to support an ornament, more
usually, the ornament itself.
A. Anthemion
B. Antefix
C. Acroterion
D. Apotheca

62. Coined the term International style.

A. Louis Sullivan
B. Alvar Aalto
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Phillip Johnson

63. From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear.
A. Astylar
B. Amphi-Prostyle
C. Dipteral
D. Tympanum

64. Economic, technical and cultural conditions have changed radically.

A. Peter Eisenmann
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Eliel Saarinen
D. Mies Van Der Rohe

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65. ARCHIGRAM
A. James Stirling
B. Peter Kropotkin
C. Ron Herron
D. Peter Eisennman

66. Corresponds to the Greek naos.

A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

67. I am looking for ways of conceptualizing space that will place the subject in a displaced
relationship because they will have no iconographic reference to traditional forms of
organization.
A. Frank Gehry
B. Zaha Hadid
C. Peter Eisenmann
D. Daniel Libeskind

68. Greek architecture was essentially.

A. Domical roof construction
B. Columnar trabeated
C. Helm Roof
D. Arch and vault

69. The artist is the exalted craftsman

A. Robert Venturi
B. Phillip Webb
C. Robert Maillart
D. Walter Gropius

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70. The only cardinal sin in building is boredom

A. Buckminster Fuller
B. Phillip Johnson
C. Oscar Neimeyer
D. Jorn Utzon

71. Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___.

A. Parthenon
B. Agora
C. Forum
D. Colloseum

72. Architect of Robinson's Galleria

A. Jose Siao Ling
B. Gabriel Formoso
C. Jun Palafox
D. William Cosculluela

73. Finest example of French-Gothic architecture

A. Soissons Cathedral
B. Lyon Cathedral
C. Reims Cathedral
D. Chartres Cathedral

74. King Zoser's architect who was deified in the 26th dynasty.
A. Amenemhat
B. Libon
C. Senusret
D. Imhotep

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75. An upright ornament at the eaves of a tile roof, concealing the foot of a row of convex
tiles that cover the joints of the flat tiles.
A. Antefix
B. Acroterion
C. Anthemion
D. Apotheca

76. Architect of G.S.I.S. Building, Roxas Boulevard.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. Froilan Hong
C. Felipe Palafox
D. George Ramos

77. Architect of the Batasang Pambansa.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. Felipe Mendoza
C. Leandro Locsin
D. George Ramos

78. Architect of SM Megamall.

A. Jose Siao Ling
B. Gilbert Yu
C. Antonio Sin Diong
D. Jonathan Gan

79. Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles
is the.
A. Parthenon
B. Pteroma
C. Stoa
D. Propylaea

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80. Founders of the "Art Noveau".

A. Inigo Jones
B. Alva Aalto
C. John Ruskin and William Moris
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

81. First president and founder of PAS.

A. Jose Herrera
B. Cesar Concio
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. Juan Nakpil

82. Identify this temple

A. Temple of Earth
B. Temple of Sun
C. Temple of Heaven
D. Temple of Hell

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83. The unending sequence of numbers where the first two terms are 1 and 1, and each
succeeding terms is the sum of the two immediately preceding
A. Fibonacci sequence
B. Harmonic sequence
C. Harmonic progression
D. Eurythmy

84. Name the architect of this building.

A. Frank Gehry
B. Frank Wright
C. Frank Zappa
D. Frank Sinatra

85. The mineral of greatest importance to Greek architecture of which Greece and her
domains had ample supply of was.
A. Cement
B. Marble
C. Lime
D. Silica

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86. Identify this religious building

A. Assumption cathedral
B. S. Marie de France
C. S. Hagia Sophia
D. S. Jean de Montmartre

87. Identify this cathedral in France

A. Reims Cathedral
B. Cologne Cathedral
C. Worms Cathedral
D. Chartres Cathedral

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88. The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window.
A. Crenel
B. Tracery
C. Cavetto
D. Embrasures

89. Identify this building in California, USA

A. Vitra Museum
B. Walt Disney Concert Hall
C. Guggenheim, Bilbao
D. Rise of the Dead Chicken

90. The open court in an Italian palazzo.

A. Dipteral
B. Prytaneion
C. Cortel
D. Tumuli

91. Expressionist Architect.

A. Alvar Aalto
B. Hennevique
C. Erich Mendelsohn
D. Eero Saarinen

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92. Architect of the Philippine Heart Center.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. Leandro Locsin
C. George Ramos
D. Felipe Mendoza

93. The first plan shape of the St. Peter's Basilica by Bramante.

A. Greek Cross
B. English Cross
C. French Cross
D. Latin Cross

94. Architect of the National Library, Philippines.

A. Juan Nakpil
B. Cesar Concio
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. Jose Herrera

95. In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___.

A. Narthex
B. Apse
C. Naos
D. Nave

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96. The artist is the exalted craftsman.

A. Robert Venturi
B. Phillip Webb
C. Walter Gropius
D. Robert Maillart

97. Built by the Franciscan priest Fr. Blas dela Madre, this church in Rizal whose design
depicts the heavy influence of Spanish Baroque, was declared a national treasure.

A. Angono Church
B. Jala-jala Church
C. Morong Church
D. Antipolo Church

98. Father of modern picture books of architecture.

A. Andrea Palladio
B. Claude Perrault
C. Julien Guadet
D. Mathurin Joss

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99. The basic scheme or concept of an architectural design, usually represented by a

diagram.
A. Parte
B. Composition
C. Sketch
D. Content

100. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation
individuals maintain in various social and interpersonal situations.
A. Proxemics
B. Sematics
C. Ekisthics
D. Kinesthesia

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
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ANSWER KEY: 34. A 68. B

1. B 35. D 69. D
2. D 36. C 70. B
3. C 37. C 71. C
4. D 38. B 72. D
5. D 39. B 73. D
6. B 40. B 74. D
7. B 41. C 75. A
8. C 42. D 76. D
9. B 43. A 77. B
10. A 44. A 78. C
11. C 45. C 79. D
12. D 46. A 80. C
13. C 47. B 81. D
14. A 48. C 82. C
15. D 49. A 83. A
16. B 50. B 84. B
17. A 51. C 85. B
18. C 52. C 86. D
19. A 53. D 87. D
20. A 54. A 88. B
21. C 55. C 89. B
22. B 56. C 90. C
23. B 57. A 91. C
24. C 58. B 92. C
25. D 59. D 93. A
26. B 60. A 94. C
27. C 61. C 95. C
28. A 62. D 96. C
29. B 63. B 97. C
30. C 64. D 98. A
31. C 65. C 99. A
32. D 66. C 100. A
33. A 67. C

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Who erected the earliest known obelisk at Heliopolis.
A. Amenemhat I
B. Imhotep
C. Senusret I
D. Zoser

2. The lowest member of entablature.

A. Frieze
B. Architrave
C. Abacus
D. Cornice

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3. Which is NOT the architectural character of Philippine Architecture?

A. Coconut shell
B. White stucco
C. Bamboo
D. Capiz shell windows

4. To scribe human form or characteristics to non-human things or beings.

A. Ergonomize
B. Morphosize
C. Anthromorphosize
D. Personalize

5. Frontal wall of Egyptian temple.

A. Obelisk
B. Pylon
C. Steeple
D. Propylaea

6. Moorish influence of Muslim features such as horseshoe ach, pierced stone tracery and
excessive ornament in Spanish gothic was due to
A. Climate
B. Geography
C. Building materials
D. Religion

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7. Principle of design that is based on repetitive elements

A. Pattern
B. Organization
C. Symmetry
D. Rhythm

8. "A house is like a flower pot"

A. Jugendstijl
B. Eero Saarinen
C. Richard Josef Neutra
D. Alvar Aalto

9. Church plan of Early Christian churches is a

A. Basilica
B. Latin cross
C. Greek cross
D. Calvary cross

10. In the middle kingdom, in Egyptian architecture, who consolidates the administrative
system, made a survey of the country, set boundaries to the provinces, and other
helpful works.
A. Amenemhat I
B. Imhotep
C. Senusret I
D. Zoser

11. Who says “Less is bore”

A. Philip Johnson
B. Robert Venturi
C. Adolf Loos
D. Mies Van Der Rohe

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12. A double curve, resembling the letter S, formed by the union of a curve and a convex
line.
A. Dome
B. Minaret
C. Ogee
D. Groins

13. Form is not the aim of our work, only the result.
A. Mies Van Der Rohe
B. Thom Mayne
C. Le Corbusier
D. Santiago Calatrava

14. Which is not included in the Prehistoric Period of architecture below?

A. Caves
B. Mastaba
C. Stonehenge
D. Huts

15. A glass fronted exterior masonry wall that absorbs solar heat for radiation into the
interior of a building.
A. Berm
B. Drum wall
C. Trombe wall
D. Brise-soliel

16. A panel of miniature external louvers for shading a window from direct sunlight and
glare while allowing a high degree of visibility.
A. Sun control
B. Brise-soliel
C. Shutter blind
D. Solar screen

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17. A distorted image that appears in natural form only when viewed at a special angle or
reflected from a curved mirror.
A. Perspective
B. Anamorphosis
C. Convergence
D. Chambective

18. I believe that people make natural associations with form, color, and the composition
of elements while decoration and detailing help communicate a building’s purpose.
A. Frank Gehry
B. Michael Graves
C. Tadao Ando
D. Richard Meier

19. Which is not included in the Egyptian Architecture below?

A. Ziggurat
B. Sphinx
C. Obelisk
D. Mastaba

20. Form follows function

A. Loius Khan
B. Loius Sullivan
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Marcus Vitruvius Pollio

21. Splendid example of Early Gothic is___.

A. St Paul’s Cathedral
B. Westminster abbey
C. Cathedral of Notre Dame
D. Palais du Louvre

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22. Architecture of borrowing

A. Minimalisn
B. Electicism
C. Constructivism
D. Modernism

23. Less is more

A. Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
B. Antonio Gaudi
C. Walter Gropius
D. Ludwig Mies Van Der Rohe

24. The plan for the Colosseum, Rome, is shaped in the form of a
A. Circle
B. Half-circle
C. Ellipse
D. Trapezoid

25. Roman rectangular temples stood on a___.

A. Crepidoma
B. Stylobate
C. Podium
D. Pedestal

26. Temple with circular plan supporting a dome of about 140 ft. in diameter and
described by Thomas Jefferson as model of spherical arch is___.
A. St. Peter Basilica
B. S. Sophia
C. Pantheon
D. Parthenon

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27. Proponent of “The Industrial City”.

A. Le Corbusier
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Claude Perrault
D. Tony Garnier

28. The shaft of the Greek order terminates in the___.

A. Trachelion
B. Hypotrachelion
C. Abacus
D. Echinus

29. Which is not belong to Greek Architecture below?

A. Acropolis
B. Parthenon
C. Agora
D. Persepolis

30. Consists of a structured set of surfaces of various qualities of enclosure, aesthetics

and affordance
A. Buildings
B. Form
C. Built environment
D. Geometry

31. Largest medieval cathedral in Europe with exception of St. Peter's in Rome. The
largest church in the world is___.
A. Westminster abbey
B. Seville cathedral
C. Notre dame
D. Basilica of Our Lady of Peace

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32. Egyptian architecture was principally designed for

A. External adoration
B. Light and color
C. Internal effect
D. Shade & shadow

33. The ifugao house (southern strain) is known as

A. Fayu
B. Bale
C. Chalanan
D. Batalag

34. Proponent of “The Industrial City”.

A. Le Corbusier
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Claude Perrault
D. Tony Garnier

35. The planner who coined the term “conurbation”.

A. Clarence Perry
B. Edward Ullman
C. Patrick Gaddes
D. Francois Blondel

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36. Which is not belong to Roman Architecture?

A. Pantheon
B. Forums
C. Parthenon
D. Aqueducts

37. Traditional maranaw house for the ordinary members of the community is the
A. Walay
B. Lamin
C. Torogan
D. Dama

38. Decorative clerestory found above the windows of a bahay na bato is

A. Colado
B. Ventanilla
C. Gilir
D. Rakuh

39. Romanesque was the great age of the monasteries in___.

A. Italy
B. Spain
C. England
D. Rome

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40. Area reserved for entertaining guests in bahay kubo is the

A. Dulang
B. Caida
C. Sala
D. Bulwagan

41. Which is not belong to Renaissance Architecture?

A. Palazzo Ricardi @ Florence
B. Palais du Louvre
C. St. Paul’s Cathedral, London
D. Notre Dame Cathedral

42. Oldest French gothic cathedrals which was begun by bishop Maurice de Sully, plan of
which is on a bent axial line.
A. Notre dame
B. Charters cathedral
C. Reims cathedral
D. St. Paul’s Cathedral

43. In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later
developed into the transept, this is the ___.
A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

44. Temple whose most remarkable feature is use of all 3 Greek orders, Doric outside,
Ionic & Corinthian within is____.
A. Artemus
B. Caryatid
C. Parthenon
D. Apollo Epicurius

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45. Greatest patron of Romanesque architecture is___.

A. Christian church
B. Private business
C. Civil government
D. Public Service

46. One of world’s supreme masterpieces of Romanesque architecture which was the 1st
building in Europe to have ribbed vaults___.
A. Winchester cathedral
B. Norwich cathedral
C. Durham cathedral
D. Notre Dame cathedral

47. Emperor of Byzantine Empire who codified Roman laws and responsible for rebuilding
of S. Sophia was___.
A. Diocletian
B. Theodosius
C. Cheops
D. Justinian

48. Character of Early Christian Architecture is determined by the novel development of__.
A. Stone vaults
B. Timber trusses
C. Arched vaults
D. Mosaic decoration

49. Which architectural character below is not included in Pre-historic Period?

A. Rocks on top of each other
B. Animal skins
C. Perishable materials
D. Columns and capitals

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50. I do not believe architecture should speak too much. It should remain silent and let
nature, in the guise of light and wind, speak.
A. Kisho Kurukawa
B. Tadao Ando
C. Toyo Ito
D. Kenzo Tange

51. Colosseum, Rome was commenced by Vespacian and completed by____.

A. Domitian
B. Titus
C. Traja
D. Trojan

52. Who says “Ornament is a crime”

A. Adolf Loos
B. Adolf Hitler
C. Otto Wagner
D. Tadao Ando

53. A sketch showing the general features of a design or plan.

A. Draft
B. Design drawing
C. Esquisse
D. Templates

54. Cordillera one room house on four wooden posts with an animal or insect barrier and
a pyramidal roof of cogon grass build without nails.
A. Nipa house
B. Ifugao house
C. Antillan house
D. Maranao house

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55. Architect pf temple of Apollo Epicurius

A. Ictinus
B. Callicrates
C. Callimachu
D. Michael Angelo

56. In Mesopotamian architecture, religion called for temples made of sun dried bricks is_.
A. Megarons
B. Thakamus
C. Ziggurats
D. Persepolis

57. In some churches, there is a part which is raised as part of the sanctuary which later
developed into the transept, this is the _____.
A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

58. What type of architecture describes the native kinds of shelter without the modern
advantages of technology, some of which belong to the pre-historic types?
A. Power
B. Vernacular
C. Domestic
D. Classical

59. Monumental architecture of Egypt is essentially a ____ style

A. Buttress & dome
B. Arch & vault
C. Columnar & trabeated
D. Post and lintel

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60. In Egyptian architecture, tomb of nobility was the

A. Mastaba
B. Ziggurat
C. Pyramid
D. Obelisk

61. Renaissance of 15th century in Italy had its birth in

A. Venice
B. Rome
C. Milan
D. Florence

62. Architectural character of Romanesque style is___.

A. Sober & dignified
B. Grotesque & bizarre
C. Flamboyant & decorative
D. Decorative vaulting

63. Finest and remaining example of Byzantine architecture is___.

A. S. Irene, Constantinople
B. Cathedral & Baptistery of Pisa
C. S. Sophia, Constantinople
D. S. mark. Venice

64. What is the name of this house?

A. Villa Savoye
B. Kaufmann House
C. Tugendhat House
D. Schroder House

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65. From 5th century to the present, character of Byzantine architecture is___.
A. Timber trusses
B. Ribbed arches
C. Domical roof construction
D. Steel and concrete

66. Identify the illustrated structure below by a famous Spanish architect. It is an enormous
curving element, bending over the concrete shells. As the architect said that the shape
of his building is suggestive of many things, just as music is suggestive of many things.

A. Auditorio de Tenerife, Canary Islands

B. Regional Archive and Library, Madrid
C. Jubille Church, Rome, Italy
D. Legislative Assembly Building, Chandigarth

67. During Macedonian dynasty, favorite type of church plan is___.

A. Greek cross
B. Roman cross
C. Circular
D. Longitudinal

68. What is the tallest mixed-use building in the Philippines, built wholly by Filipino
Consultants and Engineers.
A. One San Miguel
B. PBCom Tower

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C. LKG Tower
D. GT International Tower

69. Which of the following churches was built in the Gothic style?
A. San Sebastian Church
B. Laoag Church
C. Loboc Church
D. Morong Church

70. What is referred to as the origin of architecture?

A. Practical usefulness of space
B. Expression of structural systems
C. System of ornamentation or decoration
D. Protection form inclemency of the seasons

71. What is purpose of the disks found on the tree trunks where the Ifugao house stands?
A. Weeding-out evil spirits
B. Structural purpose
C. Protection against rats
D. Decoration / ornamentation

72. To whom is the folded slab technique attributed as a contribution to international

architecture?
A. Auguste Perret
B. Eugene Freysinnet
C. Buckminster Fuller
D. Sydney Freysinnet

73. Term given to the kind of architecture that grows and develops according to the
context.
A. Organic architecture
B. Eclectic architecture

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C. Evolutionary architecture
D. Environmental architecture

74. Pertaining to shapes and forms having irregular contours which appear to resemble
those of living plants or animals.

A. Organic
B. Natural forms
C. Eclectic
D. Representational forms

75. Which way of organizing space involves modular design?

A. Grid
B. Linear
C. Radial
D. Clustered

76. Which type of theory prescribes architectural standards?

A. Descriptive
B. Prescriptive
C. Analytical
D. Critical

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77. A point representing the intersection of the central axis of vision and the picture plane
in linear perspective.
A. Station point
B. Cone of vision
C. Center of vision
D. Sightline

78. Great pyramid at Gizeh was built in the 4th dynasty by___.
A. Rameses I
B. Cheops
C. Chepren
D. Mykerinos

79. Spatial qualities that create sensations through texture, temperature and sound
A. Psychological qualities
B. Environmental qualities
C. Perceptual qualities
D. Kinaesthetic qualities

80. What is the basic primary measurement of architectural scale?

A. Human body
B. Nature
C. Environment
D. Personal distance

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81. A composite system of thought made up of views selected from various other systems
A. Comprehensive system
B. Selecticism
C. Baroque
D. Rococo

82. In Egyptian architecture, tomb of pharaohs was the___.

A. Ziggurat
B. Mastaba
C. Pylon
D. Pyramid

83. What is the process of managing information preparatory to architectural design?

A. Pre-design stage
B. Translation
C. Architectural programming
D. Research

84. Identify this building in Dubai, UAE.

A. Burj Al Arab
B. Jumeirah Hotel
C. Dubai Marina
D. The Wave Hotel

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85. Identify this building in Toronto, Canada.

A. Seattle Space Needle

B. CN Tower
C. Pearl of the Orient Building
D. Eiffel Tower

86. Identify this building in Ilocos Norte.

A. San Agustin
B. Loboc Church
C. Morong Church
D. Paoay Church

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87. Identify this building is Saudi Arabia

A. Dome of the Rock

B. Mosque Safdie
C. Mecca, Riyadh
D. Rock of the Dome

88. Which is not a Gothic Architecture character below?

A. Rusticated masonry
B. Pointed arch
C. Decorative vaulting
D. Rose and lancet window

89. Most famous ancient Chinese building undertakings. It snakes, loops, and doubles
back on itself.
A. Great Wall
B. Stupa
C. Pagoda
D. Temple

90. Cube within a cube

A. Walter Gropius
B. Loius Sullivan

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C. Le Corbusier
D. Kenzo Tange

91. An analogy where any materials that can get or available in the environment such as
wood in the forest.
A. Biological Analogy
B. Stage Analogy
C. Mechanical Analogy
D. Ad Hoc Analogy

92. In Japan, rooms are regulated by a______.

A. Ken
B. Grid
C. Modulor
D. Tatami

93. Where we can find the palace of Nebuchadnezzar?

A. City of Athens
B. City of Babylon
C. Egypt
D. City of Rome

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94. Which is not a Renaissance Architecture character below?

A. Domes or raised drums
B. Pediments
C. Rococo
D. Flying buttress

95. A term applied to type of renaissance ornament in which rocklike forms, fantastic
scrolls, and crimpled shells are work up together.
A. Baroque
B. Rococo
C. Rayonant
D. Artiquarian

96. Architect of Coconut Palace

A. Antonio Sidiong
B. Leandro Locsin
C. CC De Castro
D. Francisco Manosa

97. Lowlands area house with pitched roof made of bamboo poles, thatch roof with woven
slit canes for wall and split bamboo slats flooring.
A. Nipa house
B. Ifugao house

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C. Antillan house
D. Maranao house

98. Which is not belong to the “Ten Books of Architecture”

A. Firmitas
B. Utilitas
C. Venustas
D. None of these

99. A mythical monster with the body of a lion and a head of man
A. Criosphinx
B. Hierocosphinx
C. Sphinx
D. Androsphinx

100. A theory on perception that is based on the belief that objects observed has
innate qualities that make them independent of the perceiver and the environment.
A. Ecological
B. Gestalt
C. Speculative
D. Formal

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

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 25

ANSWER KEY:
1. C 35. C 69. A
2. B 36. C 70. D
3. B 37. A 71. C
4. C 38. B 72. B
5. B 39. C 73. C
6. D 40. B 74. A
7. D 41. D 75. A
8. C 42. A 76. B
9. C 43. B 77. C
10. A 44. D 78. B
11. B 45. A 79. D
12. C 46. C 80. A
13. A 47. D 81. B
14. B 48. C 82. D
15. C 49. D 83. C
16. C 50. B 84. B
17. B 51. A 85. B
18. B 52. A 86. D
19. A 53. C 87. C
20. B 54. B 88. A
21. B 55. A 89. A
22. B 56. C 90. C
23. D 57. B 91. D
24. C 58. B 92. A
25. C 59. C 93. B
26. C 60. A 94. D
27. D 61. D 95. B
28. B 62. A 96. D
29. D 63. C 97. D
30. C 64. B 98. D
31. D 65. C 99. D
32. C 66. A 100. B
33. B 67. A
34. D 68. A

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Based on the notion that the “Form of an object should last.”

A. Monumentalism
B. Structuralism
C. Historicism
D. Selectivism

2. Who says “Modern Architecture need not be western”

A. Louis Khan
B. Eero Saarinen
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Robert Maillart

3. Architect/Designer of Chapel of Notre Dame

A. Antonio Gaudi
B. Le Corbusier

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C. Alvar Aalto
D. Oscar Niemeyer

4. Term use for spire or tower in Islamic structures.

A. Turret
B. Steeple
C. Pinnacle
D. Minaret

5. I believe that people make natural associations with form, color, and the composition of
elements while decoration and detailing help communicate a building’s purpose.
A. Frank Gehry
B. Michael Graves
C. Tadao Ando
D. Richard Meier

6. Gateway formed by upright posts supporting two or more horizontal beams in Shinto
Temples.

A. Pylon
B. Pailou
C. Torii
D. Gate

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7. For the first time perhaps, the pressing problems of architecture, solved in a modern
spirit. Economy, sociology, aesthetics: a new solution using new methods.
A. Le Corbusier
B. Peter Behrens
C. August Perret
D. Louis Sullivan

8. Anything that serves as a reference for defining and organizing space

A. Axis
B. Datum
C. Fulcrum
D. Point

9. Economic, technical and cultural conditions have changed radically.

A. Peter Eisenmann
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Eliel Saarinen
D. Mies Van Der Rohe

10. I am looking for ways of conceptualizing space that will place the subject in a displaced
relationship because they will have no iconographic reference to traditional forms of
organization.
A. Frank Gehry
B. Zaha Hadid
C. Peter Eisenmann
D. Daniel Libeskind

11. A primary element of design that has no direction

A. Color
B. Point
C. Texture
D. Line

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12. Architect/ Designer of Sydney Opera House.

A. Jorn Utzon
B. Philip Johnson
C. Erich Mendelsohn
D. I. M. Pei

13. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial separation individuals
maintain in various social and interpersonal situations.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Proxemics
C. Sematics
D. Ekisthics

14. 1930’s modernist’s style of art inspired by mechanical forms and chiefly distinguished
by geometrical shapes, bold color schemes and symmetrical designs, suitable for mass
production.
A. Art Deco
B. Rococo
C. Baroque
D. Art Noveau

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15. An expression of Spanish baroque architecture and sculpture, a recurrent feature was
the richly garlanded spiral columns. [flamboyant-showy; brightly colored; highly
decorated ornamentation]

A. Churrigueresque
B. Heraldic
C. Plateresque
D. Fretwork

16. To scribe human form or characteristics to non-human things or beings.

A. Ergonomize
B. Morphosize
C. Anthromorphosize
D. Personalize

17. Which of the following vernacular house types can be octagonal or rectangular in
shape?
A. Binayon
B. Binuron
C. Binangiyan
D. Torogan

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18. The comparative, proper, or harmonious relation of one part to another.

A. Proportion
B. Scale
C. Ratio
D. Rhythm

19. The unending sequence of numbers where the first two terms are 1 and 1, and each
succeeding terms is the sum of the two immediately preceding.

A. Harmonic sequence
B. Harmonic progression
C. Fibonacci sequence
D. Eurythmy

20. The ability of individuals to control their visual, auditory and olfactory interactions with
others
A. Anonymity
B. Social control
C. Privacy
D. Space control

21. Also called ‘brackets” or “consoles” or “ancones”. It is a projecting member to support

a weight. Generally formed with scrolls or volutes which carry the upper member of a
cornice (a projecting moulding at the top of a wall or at where the wall & ceiling meets);

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also a bracket in Corinthian order: a small curved ornamental bracket under the corona
of a Corinthian or Composite column.
A. Mullion
B. Modillions
C. Transom
D. Fenestration

22. Architect/ designer of Bank of China in Hongkong.

A. Erich Mendelsohn
B. I. M. Pei
C. Philip Johnson
D. Jorn Utzon

23. A sketch showing the general features of a design or plan.

A. Draft
B. Design drawing
C. Esquisse
D. Epure

24. What is a statement of measurable level of function of an architectural design?

A. Facts
B. Goal

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C. Issues
D. Performance requirement

25. The only cardinal sin in building is boredom

A. Buckminster Fuller
B. Oscar Neimeyer
C. Jorn Utzon
D. Phillip Johnson

26. What is the common device used to achieve balance?

A. Scale
B. Hierarchy
C. Axis
D. Composition

27. Spatial qualities that create sensations through texture, temperature and sound
A. Psychological qualities
B. Environmental qualities
C. Perceptual qualities
D. Kinaesthetic qualities

28. The architect who claimed that: the ultimate goal of the new architecture was the
composite but inseparable work of art, in which the old dividing line between
monumental and decorative elements will have disappeared forever.
A. Frank Lloyd Wright
B. Le Corbusier
C. Walter Gropius
D. Mies Van de Rowe

29. What is the process of managing information preparatory to architectural design?

A. Pre-design stage
B. Translation

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C. Architectural programming
D. Research

30. The rhythmic quality or character of a composition suggesting motion by represented

gestures or by the relationship of structural elements.
A. Direction
B. Rhythmic motion
C. Movement
D. None of the above

31. First elected U.A.P. president.

A. Jose Herrera
B. Juan Nakpil
C. Cesar Concio
D. Felipe Mendoza

32. Theory of proportion that is based on modular mats

A. Grid
B. Modulor
C. Ken
D. Tatami

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33. A raised stage reserved for the clergy in early Christian churches.
A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

34. He claimed that there is a humanism in Architecture and that the concept is based on
order of numbers and Euclidean geometry.
A. Alberti
B. Da Vinci
C. Euclid
D. Vitruvius

35. Forming the imposing entrance to the acropolis and erected by the architect Mnesicles
is the.
A. Parthenon
B. Propylaea
C. Pteroma
D. Stoa

36. A term applied to monumental tombs. They consisted of large cylindrical blocks, often
on a quadrangular podium, topped with a conical crown of earth or stone.
A. Mausoleum
B. Coffer
C. Forum
D. Colosseum

37. Architect of the Philippine Heart Center.

A. Felipe Mendoza
B. Gabriel Formoso
C. Leandro Locsin
D. George Ramos

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38. Architect of the National Library, Philippines.

A. Jose Herrera
B. Juan Nakpil
C. Cesar Concio
D. Felipe Mendoza

39. The Agbar Tower in Barcelona is a wind diffusing shape in an operable double wall in
muted swirls of color. Within an exterior layer of tinted, pivoting glass, the thick
structural inner wall shade operable glazing from the powerful coastal light. Who is the
architect of the said building?
A. Renzo Piano
B. Nicholas Grimshaw
C. Santiago Calatrava
D. Jean Nouvel

40. Architect of Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. George Ramos
C. Froilan Hong
D. Leandro Locsin

41. Which of the following vernacular house types belongs to the Isneg boat people?
A. Binayon
B. Binuron
C. Binangiyan
D. Torogan

42. Character of Romanesque Architecture

A. Cross vaults
B. Rose windows
C. Ribbed and panel
D. All of these

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43. Medieval churches, which is characterized by the pointed style, was prevalent in
Western Europe from the 13th to the 15th century: what do you call this style?
A. Romanesque
B. Arabesque
C. Doric
D. Gothic

44. The tapering termination of a tower in Gothic churches.

A. Steeple
B. Belfry
C. Spire
D. Lantern

45. Principle of design that is base on repetitive elements

A. Pattern
B. Organization
C. Symmetry
D. Rhythm

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46. Proportion based on inherent properties of materials

A. Structural proportion
B. Natural proportion
C. Manufactured proportion
D. None of the above

47. Little house for pleasure & recreation). A prominent structure, generally distinctive in
character.
A. Doge’s hall
B. Chancel
C. Pavilion
D. Console

48. The world's first large-scale monument in stone.

A. Pyramid of Zoser
B. Pyramid of Khufu
C. Pyramid of Cheops
D. Pyramid of Chefren

49. Who is the architect of London’s first environmentally advanced tall building, 30 St.
Mary Axe or widely known as the “Gherkin.” It is a 40 story tapering structure for the
Swiss Reinsurance firm. The building takes many ideas about naturally ventilated tall
structures, its success in terms of facility, ambience, and intelligent internal division of
space.
A. Sir Norman Foster
B. Kenzo Tange
C. Santiago Calatrava
D. Nicholas Grimshaw

50. A deviation from the normal or expected for, order, or arrangement.

A. Variation
B. Anomaly

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C. Chaos
D. Variance

51. Buddhist architecture shown in rock-cut temples with lavishly carved interiors is a
characteristic feature of what style of architecture?
A. Japanese
B. Filipino
C. Indian
D. Chinese

52. A special feature of Japanese houses, used to display a flower arrangement or art.

A. Cha-sit-su
B. Tokonama
C. Masu-gumi
D. Torei

53. What do you call the concept in architecture which is a result of intellectual, social,
religious, and political conditions developed at a given place by a given people?
A. Historic style architecture
B. Architectural legacy
C. History of architecture
D. Architectural character

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54. Identify the structure below. It is an Islamic shrine located on the Temple Mount in the
Old City of Jerusalem.

A. Mosque by Gio Ponti

B. Dome of the Rock
C. Falling Water
D. Sagrada Familia

55. Wall structure made by Antoni Gaudi for a friend of his. This structure has achieved
historic status.
A. Sagrada Familia
B. Casa Mila
C. Casa Battlo
D. Palau Gruell

56. A unified composition of two-dimensional shapes or three-dimensional volumes, esp.

One that has or gives the impression of weight, density, and bulk.
A. Composition
B. Model
C. Massing
D. Form

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57. And elevator shaft is an example of what element of design?

A. Line
B. Volume
C. Plane
D. Point

58. Philosophy based on the belief that the human being is the most important entity in the
universe.

A. Anthropomorphism
B. Anthropocentrism
C. Anthropometics
D. All of the above

59. The study of creative processes especially as applied to the stating and solution
problems that involves free use of metaphor and analogy in informal interchange within
a small group of diverse individuals.
A. Proxemics
B. Tectonics
C. Semantics
D. Synectics

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60. The ability of individuals to control their visual, auditory and olfactory interactions with
others
A. Anonymity
B. Social control
C. Privacy
D. Space control

61. The state in which a person employs psychological barriers to control unwanted
intrusions
A. Defense mechanism
B. Reserve
C. Isolation
D. None of the above

62. Kind of architecture that reflects a combination of styles from various historical periods.
A. Informal architecture
B. Ekistics
C. Eclectic
D. Evolving architecture

63. An ante-room to a larger apartment of a building; An entrance hall: a small room or hall
between an outer door and the main part of a building.
A. Salon
B. Newel
C. Vestibule
D. Crypt

64. Which type of theory prescribes architectural standards?

A. Descriptive
B. Prescriptive
C. Analytical
D. Critical

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65. Which design principle provides directional movement of the eye?

A. Rhythm
B. Contrast
C. Hierarchy
D. Proportion

66. Art Noveau is known as the international style, in Germany it is known as ___.
A. Jugendstil
B. Stile Liberty
C. Neo-baroque
D. Art deco

67. A roof having a double slope on four sides; the lower slope being much steeper and
the flatter upper portion. Also known as the gambrel roof.
A. Mansard roof
B. Gamble roof
C. Hip roof
D. Valley roof

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68. On either side of the choir, pulpits for the reading of the epistle and the gospel are
called.
A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

69. Not among the three pyramids in Gizeh

A. Cheops
B. Chefren
C. Khufu
D. Mykerinos

70. Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo.

A. Caesar Homer Concio
B. Felipe Mendoza
C. Juan Nakpil
D. Carlos Santos Viola

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71. An arcade of roofed gallery built into or projecting from the side of a building
particularly one overlooking an open court. A covered balcony and walkway: a covered
open-sided walkway, often with arches, along one side of a building.
A. Loggia
B. Colonnade
C. Arcade
D. Nave

72. Refers to the brightness or dullness of color

A. Tonal value
B. Shade
C. Hue
D. Chroma

73. Outstanding architectural creation in Sri Lanka which is a circular relic house built in
stone and brick.

A. Wata-dage
B. Pagoda
C. Churrigueresque
D. Stambas

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74. The highest sloped pyramid in Gizeh

A. Pyramid of Zoser
B. Pyramid of Khufu
C. Pyramid of Cheops
D. Pyramid of Chefren

75. A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'.
A. Carlos Santos Viola
B. Caesar Homer Concio
C. Felipe Mendoza
D. Juan Nakpil

76. Which way of organizing space involves modular design?

A. Grid
B. Linear
C. Radial
D. Clustered

77. Corresponds to the Greek naos.

A. Ambo
B. Bema
C. Cella
D. Cancelli

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78. Architect of Central Bank of the Philippines, Manila.

A. Gabriel Formoso
B. George Ramos
C. Froilan Hong
D. Leandro Locsin

79. Identify this building, located at at 233 Broadway, Manhattan, New York City, designed
by architect Cass Gilbert and constructed between 1910 and 1912, is an early US
skyscraper.

A. Woolworth building
B. Parliament building
C. Big Ben
D. Westminster Abbey

80. A structural system consisting of trusses in two directions rigidly connected at their
intersections. A rectangular shape is formed where the top and bottom chords of the
trusses are directly above & below one another.
A. Baloon frame
B. Space frame
C. Timber frame
D. Steel and concrete

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81. In Greek temples, the equivalent of the crypt is the ___.

A. Naos
B. Narthex
C. Apse
D. Nave

82. Identify this building, it is an office skyscraper located at San Miguel Avenue in Ortigas
Center, Pasig, Philippines.

A. PBCom Tower
B. Citic Plaza
C. One San Miguel Avenue
D. BSA Tower

83. From the Greek temples, a temple that have porticoes of columns at the front and rear.
A. Astylar
B. Amphi-Prostyle
C. Dipteral
D. Tympanum

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84. Monumental pillars standing free without any structural function, with circular or
octagonal shafts with inscriptions carved in it. The capital was bell-shaped and crowned
with animal supported bearing the Buddhist will of Law.

A. Stambas or Laths
B. Pillar
C. Obelisk
D. Torana

85. Orientation of the Roman temple is towards the ___.

A. Forum
B. Parthenon
C. Agora
D. Colloseum

86. Which architectural system involves space experienced through time?

A. Circulation
B. Spatial
C. Structural
D. Enclosure

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87. Identify this building, is a complex building in the Beaubourg area of the 4th
arrondissement of Paris, near Les Halles, rue Montorgueil, and the Marais.

A. AEG Turbine Factory

B. Crystal Palace
C. AEG Textile Factory
D. Pompidou Center

88. The tallest twin towers in the world.

A. Burj Kalifa
B. Taipei 101
C. Petronas
D. Sears

89. The arrangement and design of windows in a building.

A. Fenestration
B. Faience
C. Transom
D. Modillions

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90. Identify this building, it is an office skyscraper located in Makati, Philippines. The "G.T."
in the name stands for George Ty, the building's owner.

A. GT International Tower
B. Petron Megaplaza
C. Essensa East
D. PCI Equitable Tower

91. The National Commerce Bank was designed by:

A. Louis Kahn
B. HOK
C. SOM
D. DT

92. Term given to the kind of architecture that grows and develops according to the
context.
A. Organic architecture
B. Eclectic architecture
C. Evolutionary architecture
D. Environmental architecture

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93. Who is this architect, ecologist, planner and author from Malaysia, best known for his
ecological architecture and ecomasterplans that have a distinctive green aesthetic.

A. Kisho Kurukawa
B. IM Pei
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Ken Yeang

94. In ancient Greece/ Rome, a room or covered area or open on one side used as a
meeting place; architecture history conversation room.
A. Exedra
B. Cella
C. Stupa
D. Stoa

95. Character of Renaissance Architecture

A. Rough masonry
B. Domes
C. Mansard roof
D. All of these

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96. Identify this church located inside the historic walled city of Intramuros in Manila.

A. San Agustin Church

B. San Sebastian Church
C. San Pedro Church
D. San Miguel Church

97. A Chinese ceremonial gateway erected in memory of an eminent person.

A. Paylon
B. Torii
C. Torana
D. Pailou

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98. Which of the following vernacular house types exclusively belongs to datus?
A. Binayon
B. Binuron
C. Binangiyan
D. Torogan

99. These are arches erected to emperors and generals commemorating victorious
campaigns; has one or three openings. Such arches were adorned with appropriate
bas-reliefs (flat sculpture; slightly projecting) and usually carried grit-bronze statuary
(statues considered collectively) on an attic storey and having a dedicatory inscription in
its face.

A. Triumphal Arch
B. Arc de Triomf
C. Victory Gate
D. Arch of Triumph

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100. Huge monoliths, square on plan and tapering to an electrum-capped (alloy of

silver & gold) “pyra-midion” at the summit, which was the sacred part. The four sides
are cut with hieroglyphics.
A. Stonehenge
B. Obelisk
C. Sphinx
D. Dolmen

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have questions or
comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

www.paleor.net 583
 31

ANSWER KEY:

1. A 35. B 69. C
2. C 36. A 70. D
3. B 37. D 71. A
4. D 38. D 72. D
5. B 39. D 73. A
6. C 40. A 74. B
7. A 41. B 75. B
8. B 42. D 76. A
9. D 43. D 77. C
10. C 44. C 78. A
11. B 45. D 79. A
12. A 46. B 80. B
13. D 47. C 81. A
14. A 48. A 82. C
15. A 49. A 83. B
16. D 50. B 84. A
17. A 51. C 85. A
18. C 52. B 86. A
19. C 53. A 87. D
20. C 54. B 88. C
21. B 55. D 89. A
22. B 56. C 90. A
23. A 57. A 91. C
24. D 58. B 92. C
25. D 59. D 93. D
26. C 60. C 94. A
27. D 61. B 95. D
28. C 62. C 96. A
29. C 63. C 97. D
30. C 64. B 98. D
31. A 65. A 99. A
32. C 66. A 100. B
33. B 67. A
34. A 68. A

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. What is referred to as written record of man’s effort to build beautifully?

A. Pre-historic architecture
B. History of architecture
C. Elements of architecture
D. Style of architecture

2. An entrance gateways, marking the approach to the sacred enclosure in many Greek
cities.

A. Propylaea
B. Pylon
C. Torii
D. Toranas

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3. What type of distance is that which is normal spacing separating members of non-
contact species like a protective bubble?
A. Social distance
B. Flight distance
C. Critical distance
D. Personal distance

4. The first all-iron church in Asia is___.

A. Taal Church
B. San Agustin Church
C. San Sebastian Church
D. Betis Church

5. The architect of Chrysler building in N.Y.

A. Erich Mendelsohn
B. Welton Becket
C. Richard Josef Neutra
D. Van Alen

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6. Sculptured female figures used as columns or supports.

A. Canephora
B. Caryatid
C. Atlantes
D. Columns

7. Which of the following describes frame construction as a structural system?

A. Use of upright post
B. Spanned by horizontal
C. Result in cage-like arrangement of parts through repetition
D. All listed items

8. A recess in a wall to contain a statue or other small items.

A. Ambulatory
B. Niche
C. Exedra
D. Narthex

9. What is the Spanish term for a lantern or raised structure above a roof through which
light is admitted into the interior?
A. Claustra
B. Cloister
C. Cimborio
D. Conoid

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10. Which of the following is a major contribution of Early Christian architecture?

A. Column and lintel
B. Exterior peristyle
C. Basilican type of cruciform plan
D. Corbelled arch

11. What is referred to as a Chinese geomancy originally called” under the canopy of
heaven”?
A. si chi
B. ba-gua
C. sheng chi
D. feng shui

12. In Indian, architecture, which of the following is not a characteristic feature?

A. Stupa (your answer)
B. Horseshoe arch
C. Pointed arch
D. “sikhara”

13. Who is the architect of the Opera House who won the competition for the design of a
performing arts complex in Sydney, Australia in 1957
A. Howard Upton
B. Peter Hall
C. Howard Hoban
D. Jorn Utzon

14. A small tower usually corbelled

at the corner of the castle.
A. Bartizan
B. Pinnacle
C. Minaret
D. Embrasures

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15. What is referred to as the origin of architecture?

A. Practical usefulness of space
B. System of ornamentation or decoration
C. Expression of structural systems
D. Protection from inclemency of the seasons

16. Which of the following indicates the brightness of a color?

A. Chroma
B. Value
C. Hue
D. Intensity

17. Which of the following is a major contribution of renaissance architecture?

A. Baroque form of ornamentation
B. Pointed arch
C. Ribbed vaulting
D. Arcades

18. With regards to relationship of structure to architecture, which of the following

describes formal or sculptured structure?
A. Uses least amount of material
B. Focuses on novelty of form
C. Materials used below maximum load-bearing capacity
D. Exaggerated elements

19. Public buildings are important structures in Greek architecture. What do you call the
town square used as center of Greek social and business life?
A. Agora
B. Tenemos
C. Stoa
D. Propylae

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20. Toranas or gateways are characteristic feature of what style of architecture?

A. Japanese
B. Indian
C. Filipino
D. China

21. Which of the following is true about Egyptian pyramids and Babylonian ziggurats?
A. Pyramids are used as temple observatories, while ziggurats are royal tombs
B. Pyramids are sun-dried bricks faced with kiln-burnt bricks, while ziggurats use
masonry, huge blocks of stone
C. Pyramids have square plans, while plans of ziggurats are rectangular
D. Both pyramids and ziggurats have square plans

22. In modern Muslim mosques, which of the following features are required to be
applied?
A. Niche
B. Pulpit
C. Minarets and domes
D. All listed items

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23. Historically, where did the first development of architecture took place?

A. Valley of the Nile

B. Mesopotamia
C. China
D. Persia

24. Who is noted architect, who without formal architecture training, became famous for
his architecture which is austerely dependent on the naked metal skeleton?
A. Ludwig Mies Van der Rohe
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Peter Behrens
D. Walter Gropius

25. Which of the following describes the “ato” in a Bontoc village?

A. Place for religious ceremonies
B. Place for social/political decisions by elders
C. Sleeping quarters for young bachelors (your answer)
D. All listed items

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26. A kindred type to the theater, was a building in which musician performed their
works for the approval of the public and competed for prizes.

A. Hippodrome
B. Palaestra
C. Stadium
D. Odeion

27. A decorative bracket usually taking the form of a cyma reversa strap.
A. Bema
B. Console
C. Cavetto
D. Tracery

28. What do you call those hues, which lie opposite each other in a color wheel?
A. Contrasting
B. Analogous
C. Non-complementary
D. Complementary

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29. Mediaeval architecture, which is characterized by the pointed style, was prevalent in
Western Europe from the 13th to the 15th century. What do you call this style?

A. Romanesque
B. Arabesque
C. Doric
D. Gothic

30. The “Arabesque” surface ornamentation originated from what style of architecture
A. Muslim
B. Chinese
C. Japanese
D. Thai

31. A distorted image that appears in natural form only when viewed at a special angle or
reflected from a curved mirror.
A. Perspective
B. Anamorphosis
C. Convergence d
D. Chambective

32. Who is the architect of the Manila City Hall?

A. Arcadio Arellano

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B. Juan Arellano
C. Tomas Argueles
D. Antonio Toledo

33. What is the principal type of building in Muslim Architecture?

A. Mosque
B. Mausoleum
C. Temple
D. Church

34. A slab forming the crowning member of a capital.

A. Echinus
B. Trachelion
C. Hypotrachelion
D. Abacus

35. To whom is the architect who introduced the “ferro-cement” construction?

A. Pier Ligi Nervi
B. Jacopo Palladius
C. Peter Behrens
D. Louis Khan

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36. A concave molding approximately quarter round.

A. Cavetto
B. Astylar
C. Crenel
D. Cortel

37. In Greek methology, Goddess of wisdom

and learning, architecture, art, war strategy,
and civilization.
A. Athena
B. Hermes
C. Ares
D. Hera

38. What theory of architecture denotes not only the complete harmony of the parts of the
building with the whole, but on integration of the building with its site and surroundings?
A. Functional architecture
B. Organic architecture
C. Domestic architecture
D. vernacular architecture

39. What do you call a type of window which is in a sloping roof and usually that of a
sleeping apartment?
A. Rose window
B. Oriel
C. Clerestory
D. Dormer

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40. Due to generally rainless and bright sunshine climate, which of the following describe
Egyptian structures?
A. Steep roofs
B. Large openings
C. Small openings
D. Absence of open court

41. The largest mediaeval cathedral in Europe, and with the exception of S. Peter’s Rome,
the largest church in the world is___.

A. Westminster Abbey
B. Seville Cathedral
C. Notre Dame Cathedral
D. Reims Cathedral

42. What do you call the tool in architecture which organizes space or spatial composition
related to function?
A. Space planning
B. Space articulation
C. Functional interrelationship diagram
D. Territoriality

43. Brahman architecture as shown is square plan with spire-shaped roof on “sikhara”;
repetitious “sikharis” and thousand figures on the temple is a characteristic feature of
what style of architecture?

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A. Filipino
B. Chinese
C. Japanese
D. Indian

44. What manifestation in a structure that identifies it as a work of architecture shows the
adequate scheme or structural arrangement, effective choice of materials, and effective
construction system?
A. Structural stability
B. Aesthetic sense of beauty
C. Economic quality
D. Utility

45. What invention brought about modern high-rise building?

A. Elevator
B. Steel beam
C. Curtain wall system
D. Thin shell construction

46. The leaves forming around the Corinthian capital used as a major ornament.

A. Callimacus
B. Acanthus
C. Eucaliptus
D. Cauliculus

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47. From the 5th century to the present, the character of Byzantine architecture is the
practice of using.
A. Domical roof construction
B. Helm Roof
C. Columnar trabeated
D. Arch and vault

48. Throughout the history of human race, what is considered the mother of all arts?
A. Fine arts
B. Music
C. Painting
D. Architecture

49. What important event changed architecture to what is termed as “modern”?

A. Renaissance
B. Discovery of concrete
C. Metallurgy
D. Industrial revolution

50. A moulding, which when enriched is carved with the egg and dart, egg and tongue
ornament.

A. Ovolo
B. Fillet
C. Cyma recta
D. Torus

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51. One of the world’s supreme masterpieces of Romanesque architecture which was the
first building in Europe to have ribbed vaults throughout is
A. Winchester Cathedral
B. Norwich Cathedral
C. Durham Cathedral
D. Charters Cathedral

52. What art principle shows the relationships between the various parts of an
object/structure/groups of objects and structures?
A. Size
B. Volume
C. Proportion
D. Scale

53. Le Corbusier’s Ronchamp Chapel is a famous example of what style of architecture?

A. Expressionism
B. Baroque
C. Brutalism
D. Constructivism

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54. What type of architectural elements provides protection for users from inclement of the
seasons or enemies?
A. Decorative
B. Protective
C. Structural
D. Need-specific

55. "Architecture is Organic".

A. Mies van de Rohe
B. Walter Gropius
C. Le Corbusier
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

56. The temple with a circular plan supporting a dome of about 140 feet in diameter and
described by Thomas Jefferson as the model of Spherical Architecture is the___.
A. St. Peter’s Basilica
B. Pantheon
C. Hagia Sophia
D. Notre Dame Cathedral

57. Which of the following principles:

1. Frameworks structurally independent of walls
2. Free-standing façade
3. Roof garden
4. Open planning
5. Cube form elevated on stilts or columns
were adopted by Le Corbusier in his Villa Savoye

A. 2, 4, 5
B. 3, 4, 5 (your answer)
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All listed principles

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58. Stupa or temples cut in rock information is a contribution of what style of architecture?
A. Islamic
B. Chinese
C. Filipino
D. Indian

59. A temporary building or booth for players behind the acting area in the ancient theater.

A. Parodoi
B. Skene
C. Proskenion
D. Paraskenia

60. What type of balance is that in which the elements are arranged in the same manner
on either side of a central axis or line and gives the feeling of repose and order?
A. Equal
B. Contrasting
C. Symmetrical
D. Assymetrical

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61. The architect of the Quiapo Church before its restoration.

A. Tomas Mapua
B. Juan Nakpil
C. Jose Herrera
D. Cesar Concio

62. The lowest square member of the base of a column.

A. Flutes
B. Fillets
C. Fret
D. Plinth

63. Who invented a system of well-high universal application based on hyperboloids in

buildings?
A. Adolf Loss
B. Peter Behrens
C. Philip Johnson
D. Antonio Gaudi

64. In perception of space, which sense enables one to identify materials at a distance
A. Kinesthetic
B. Auditory
C. Visual
D. Tactile

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65. What type of architectural character is derived through the influence of tradition or past
experience?
A. Personality
B. Function
C. Association
D. Materials

66. The time in the year when the sun reaches its northernmost point on the celestial
sphere.
A. Summer solstice
B. Winter solstice
C. Vernal equinox
D. Autumnal equinox

67. Which construction system permit great spans of infinite variety of shapes of concrete,
or steel combined with glass or plastic?

A. Space frame
B. Thin shell construction
C. Frame construction
D. Suspension system

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68. In Greek architecture, what is referred to as a wrestling school interchangeably used

with gymnasium or a place for various kinds of physical exercises?
A. Propylae
B. Agora
C. Palaestra
D. Bouleterion

69. Living architecture is that which faithfully expresses its time. We shall seek it in all
domains of construction.
A. Kenzo Tange
B. Paul Andreau
C. August Perret
D. Ken Yeang

70. Blue-green, red-orange, and blue violet belongs to which group of hues or colors?
A. Tertiary
B. Secondary
C. Quarterly
D. Primary

71. A slight convex curvature built on a beam to compensate for the optical illusion.

A. Amber
B. Sober
C. Camber
D. Cover

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72. Which of the following indicates the name of a color?

A. Intensity
B. Chroma
C. Hue
D. Value

73. Form is not the aim of our work, only the result.
A. Mies Van Der Rohe
B. Thom Mayne
C. Le Corbusier
D. Santiago Calatrava

74. Theory of Architecture, Tropical Architecture, Principles of Planning: I do not believe

architecture should speak too much. It should remain silent and let nature, in the guise
of light and wind, speak.
A. Kisho Kurukawa
B. Tadao Ando
C. Toyo Ito
D. Kenzo Tange

75. The open court in an Italian palazzo.

A. Tumuli
B. Dipteral
C. Prytaneion
D. Cortel

76. St. Peter’s Basilica’s original plan in the form of a Greek cross was designed by
A. Michaelangelo
B. Michaelozo
C. Bernini
D. Bramante

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77. This church, 1st built by the Augustinian Fr. Miguel Murguia, has an unusually large
bell which was made from approximately 70 sacks of coins donated by the towns
people.
A. Panay Cathedral in Capiz
B. Las Pinas Cathedral
C. Quiapo Church
D. Laoag Cathedral

78. Which of the following indicates trabeated style?

A. Pointed arch
B. Post and lintel
C. Mortar joints
D. Bended joints

79. A town square used as a center for social and business life.

A. Palaestra
B. Naval Buildings
C. Agora
D. Stoa

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80. A theory on perception that is based on the belief that objects observed has innate
qualities that make them independent of the perceiver and the environment
A. Ecological
B. Gestalt
C. Speculative
D. Formal

81. Geometry is key to all architecture.

A. Le Corbusier
B. Leoh Ming Pei
C. Ken Yeang
D. Louis Kahn

82. A colonnaded space forming an entrance or vestibule, with a roof supported on at least
one side by columns.

A. Megaron
B. Portico
C. Columnar
D. Porch

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83. The founder of Bauhaus was

A. Mies van de Rohe
B. Eero Saarinen
C. Le Corbusier
D. Walter Gropius

84. The angular distance east or west on the earth’s surface, measured from the prime
meridian.
A. Longitude
B. Latitude
C. Prime Meridian
D. Equator

85. The Beijing National Stadium, also known as “the bird’s nest” will be the main track
and field stadium for the 2008 Summer Olympics. The structural elements mutually
support each other and converge into a grid-like formation – almost like a bird’s nest
with its interwoven twigs. The spatial effect of the stadium is novel and radical, yet
simple and of an almost archaic immediacy, thus creating a unique historical landmark
for the Olympics of 2008. Who is the architect of the said structure?

A. Sherve, Lamb and Harmon

B. Skidmore, Owings and Merrill
C. Herzog and de Meuron
D. Norman Foster

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86. Which of the following is a major contribution of early Christian Architecture?

A. Column and lintel
B. Basilican type of cruciform plan
C. Exterior peristyle
D. Corbeled arch

87. The portion of a column between the base and the capital.
A. Cornice
B. Capital
C. Shaft
D. Pedestal

88. Who is the architect of the Central Bank of the Philippines in Harrison?
A. Crecenciano de Castro
B. Ruperto Gaite
C. Gabriel Formoso
D. Felipe Mendoza

89. In perception of space, which of the following describes the olfactory sense?
A. Identifies materials limiting unpleasant odors
B. Affects material to regulate transfer of sound
C. Affects room size/ceiling heights to avoid discomfort
D. Identifies material at a distance

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90. Design stage that involves synthesis and bringing together a variety of considerations
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Proposal-making
D. Initiation

91. Identify the illustrated architectural masterpiece by Eero Saarinen.

A. Pallazzetto Dello Sports Building, Rome

B. Philharmonie, Berlin
C. TWA Terminal, Kennedy Airport
D. UNESCO Secretarial Building, Paris

92. Which of the following represent the primary colors?

A. Green, orange, violet
B. Red, yellow, green
C. Blue, yellow, violet
D. Red, yellow, blue

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93. Temples having a double line of columns surrounding the naos.

A. Pseudo-peripteral
B. Amphi-prostyle
C. Dipteral
D. Peripteral

94. In terms of constructive principles, what is considered the Gothic style of architecture?
A. Monumental
B. Trabeated
C. Composite
D. Arcuated

95. An American architect and designer. He designs elements ranging from the minimal to
the megastructure. He has relied heavily on Mediterranean and classic examples. His
major buildings include the Portland Building in Oregon, the pastel San Juan Capistrano
Regional Library built in California Spanish Missionary Style, and the Humana Building
in Louiseville, Kentucky. One of this architect’s recent buildings includes an eclectic
hotel and convention complex at the Disney World Epcot center in Florida, topped with
giant dolphins and swans.
A. Richard Rogers
B. Arata Isozaki
C. Rem Koolhaas
D. Michael Graves

96. In Indian structure, which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature?

A. Stopa
B. Horseshoe arch
C. Pointed arch
D. “sikhara”

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97. The steps forming the base of a column Greek temple.

A. Crepidoma
B. Stylobate
C. Stereobate
D. Creep

98. To whom are pilotis (use of pillars) and industrialized units attributed as a contribution
to international architecture?
A. Buckminster Fuller
B. Le Corbusier
C. Pier Luigi Nervi
D. Mies Van Der Rohe

99. In early Christian churches, the bishop took the central place at the end of the church
called ___.
A. Naos
B. Narthex
C. Apse
D. Nave

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100. Greek mythology, god of commerce.

A. Aphrodite
B. Hermes
C. Apollo
D. Ares

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ANSWER KEY: 34. D 68. C

1. B 35. A 69. C
2. A 36. A 70. A
3. A 37. A 71. C
4. C 38. B 72. C
5. C 39. D 73. A
6. B 40. C 74. B
7. D 41. B 75. D
8. B 42. C 76. D
9. C 43. D 77. A
10. C 44. A 78. B
11. D 45. A 79. C
12. C 46. B 80. B
13. D 47. A 81. B
14. A 48. D 82. B
15. D 49. D 83. D
16. D 50. A 84. A
17. A 51. C 85. D
18. D 52. C 86. B
19. A 53. C 87. C
20. B 54. B 88. C
21. C 55. D 89. A
22. D 56. B 90. C
23. B 57. D 91. C
24. A 58. D 92. D
25. D 59. B 93. C
26. D 60. C 94. D
27. B 61. B 95. D
28. D 62. D 96. C
29. D 63. A 97. A
30. A 64. C 98. B
31. A 65. C 99. C
32. D 66. A 100. B
33. A 67. A

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : HISTORY AND THEORY OF ARCHITECTURE

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A small or greatly attenuated, slender column.

A. Colonnete
B. Collonade
C. Columbarium
D. Columnation

2. A decorative niche often topped with a canopy and housing a statue.

A. Baldachino
B. Lacunaria
C. Tabernacle
D. Entablature

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3. The most richly embellished of the three orders developed by the Greeks, with a tall
capital composed of a bell-shaped core (kalathoss) enveloped by layers of acanthus
leaves terminating in the corner volutes, surmounted by concave-sided abacus.

A. Corinthian Order
B. Doric Order
C. Ionic Order
D. Composite Order

4. Greek goddess of earth and agriculture.

A. Dionysios
B. Demeter
C. Artemeis
D. Zeus

5. Who commenced the 'hall of hundred columns'?

A. Darius I
B. Artaxerxes I
C. Xerxes
D. Arsames

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6. Masonry constructed over a wall opening by a series of courses projecting from each
side and stepped progressively further forward until they meet at midpoint; not a true
arch.

A. Corbeled Arch
B. Lancet
C. Ogee
D. Tudor

7. The ornamental pattern work in stone, filling the upper part of a Gothic window.
A. Cavetto
B. Crenel
C. Embrasures
D. Tracery

8. Female statues with baskets serving as columns

A. Astylar
B. Bartizan
C. Crenel
D. Canephora

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9. A masonry block projecting from a wall to support a superincumbent element.

A. Corbel
B. Bracket
C. Cornice
D. Corner

10. An ornamental canopy of stone or marble permanently place over the altar in a
church.
A. Tabernacle
B. Baldacchino
C. Lacunaria
D. Entablature

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11. A pier with columns, shafts, and pilasters attached, sometimes in clusters, to its faces.

A. Cloister
B. Inter-columnation
C. Compound Pier
D. Double Pier

12. One of the five Classical orders; favored in late Roman architecture. On the capital,
large conjoined Ionic volutes are combined with the acanthus leaves of the Corinthian
order.

A. Composite Order
B. Doric Order
C. Ionic Order
D. Tuscan Order

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13. Who is the architect of the US Pavilion in the 1967 Montreal Exposition and introduced
the geodesic dome?
A. Minoru Yamasaki
B. I.M. Pei
C. Buckminster Fuller
D. Edward Durell Stone

14. A vertical, usually cylindrical, support, commonly consisting of a base, shaft, and
capital; in Classical architecture, its parts are governed by proportional rules.

A. Post
B. Column
C. Pilasters
D. Classical Orders

15. A large apsidal extension of the interior volume of a church.

A. Ambulatory
B. Niche
C. Exedra
D. Narthex

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16. Columns or pilasters that rise through several stories; also called a Giant Order.

A. Colossal
B. Inter-columnation
C. Huge Piers
D. Colonnade

17. The most famous structure of Byzantine architecture and notable of its large dome.

A. Basilica of Saint’Apollinare Nuovo

B. Church of San Vitale
C. Hagia Irene
D. Hagia Sophia

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18. Architect of TWA airport

A. Alvar Aalto
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Mies van de Rohe
D. Eero Saarinen

19. Buddhist architecture shown in rock-cut temples with lavishly carved interiors is a
characteristic feature of what style of architecture?
A. Japanese
B. Filipino
C. Indian
D. Chinese

20. Recessed panels, square or polygonal, that ornament a vault, ceiling, or the underside
(soffit) of an arch.

A. Moulding
B. Coffering
C. Underneath
D. Niche

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21. An open square court surrounded by a covered ambulatory, often archaded. It is

generally attached to a church or monastery and is distinguished from a secular
courtyard by its function as a lace of seclusion and repose.

A. Clerestory
B. Cloister
C. Courtyard
D. Garden

22. A roof in which 4 faces rests diagonally between the gables and converge at the roof.
A. Helm Roof
B. Gable Roof
C. Pitch Roof
D. Steeple

23. Living architecture is that which faithfully expresses its time. We shall seek it in all
domains of construction.
A. Kenzo Tange
B. Paul Andreau
C. August Perret
D. Ken Yeang

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24. Ornament in the form of a spiral scroll, and the principal feature of the Ionic capital.
A. Bavaria
B. Acanthus
C. Volute
D. Arabesque

25. An arrangement of column having six columns.

A. Hexastyle
B. Pentastyle
C. Octastyle
D. Distyle

26. The water-leaf and tongue is a usual ornament found in the ___.
A. Cyma Reversa
B. Ovulo
C. Corniche
D. Capitals

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27. The Corona is usually painted with the ___.

A. Mossaic
B. Key Pattern
C. Alabaster
D. Ornaments

28. A part of a building that rises above adjoining roof-tops and is pierced by window
openings to admit light to the interior.

A. Clerestory
B. Triforium
C. Buttress
D. Ailes

29. The open court in an Italian palazzo.

A. Tumuli
B. Dipteral
C. Prytaneion
D. Cortel

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30. The uppermost, projecting portion of an entablature; also the crowing horizontal
molding of a building or wall.

A. Cornice
B. Mouldings
C. Pediment
D. Ornaments

31. Who popularize “thin shell” structures?

A. Walter Gropius
B. Felix Candela
C. Alvar Aalto
D. Robert maillart

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32. Architect of Robinson's Galleria

A. William Cosculluela
B. Jose Siao Ling
C. Jun Palafox
D. M. Recto

33. Memorial monuments of persons buried elsewhere in Roman architecture.

A. Cemetery
B. Crytp
C. Cenotaphs
D. Museleo

34. A vaulted space beneath the pavement of a church, often housing relics or tombs.

A. Cemetery
B. Crytp
C. Cenotaphs
D. Museleo

35. Father of modern picture books of architecture.

A. Mathurin Joss
B. Andrea Palladio
C. Claude Perrault
D. Julien Guadet

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36. The eastern portion of a church set apart for the clergy, and often separated from the
main body of the church by a screen, rail, or steps. The term is also used to describe
the entire east end of a church beyond the crossing.

A. Nave
B. Altar
C. Ambulatory
D. Chancel

37. What type of architectural character is derived through the use of the building?
A. Personality
B. Association
C. Function
D. Materials

38. Structure whose sides are made to face the four cardinal points.
A. Pyramid
B. Mastaba
C. Dome
D. Apex

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39. The body and main sanctuary of a Classical temple, as distinct from its portico and
other external parts; sometimes used synonymously with naos, the principal room of a
temple where the cult statue is housed.

A. Stylobate
B. Cella
C. Naos
D. Opsthodomos

40. Which of the following is a contribution of byzantine architecture?

A. Use of conical timber roof over domes
B. Triumphal arch
C. Use of domes on pendentives
D. Interior peristyle

41. In a Basilican church, the arm that crosses the nave at right angles, usually separating
it from the apse; twin transept arms may also project from the nave without interrupting
it.
A. Transept
B. Apse
C. Narthex
D. Chancel

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42. An arcaded wall passage in a Gothic nave wall, between the clerestory and the main
arcade in a three-story elevation; in a four-story elevation, it appears between the
gallery and the clerestory.

A. Clerestory
B. Triforium
C. Arcade
D. Crypt

43. A Filipino architect whose philosophy is 'the structure must be well oriented'.
A. Caesar Homer Concio
B. Carlos Santos Viola
C. William Cosculluela
D. Jun Palafox

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44. A sculpted female figure used as a support in place of a column or pier.

A. Caryatid
B. Canephora
C. Venus
D. Athena

45. Which of the following represent the secondary colors?

A. Yellow, green, blue
B. Green, orange, violet
C. Red, yellow, blue
D. Green, yellow, violet

46. An architectural system using a horizontal beam over supports, as opposed to an

arched or arcuated system; synonymous with post and lintel.
A. Column and beam
B. Buttress
C. Trabeated
D. None of these

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47. The uppermost part of a column, usually shaped to articulate the joint with the lintel or
arch supported; in Classical types, comprising an abacus, echinus, and other carved
detail.

A. Column
B. Capital
C. Pediment
D. Corniche

48. The basic scheme or concept of an architectural design, usually represented by a

diagram.
A. Content
B. Parte
C. Sketch
D. Composition

49. Which is not part of the three pyramids in Gizeh.

A. Cheops
B. Chefren
C. Mykerinos
D. Hatsepsut

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50. A projecting mass of masonry serving to provide additional strength for the wall as it
resists the lateral thrust exerted by an arch or vault.

A. Columns
B. Buttress
C. Cantilever walls
D. Plying buttress

51. Sculpted ornament of joints, found primarily in vaults.

A. Boss
B. Corniche
C. Groins
D. Soffit

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52. On what aspect was Egyptian architecture specifically based?

A. Social conditions
B. Security
C. Religion
D. Climate

53. In ancient Roman architecture, a large rectangular building used as a tribunal or for
other public purposes and generally arranged with nave, aisles, and one or more apses.
In Christian architecture, it is a longitudinal church of related form.

A. Cathedral
B. Church
C. Abbey
D. Basilica

54. Ornamental intersecting stonework in Gothic windows, panels, and screen of Gothic
buildings; also used on the surface of late Gothic vaults. Varied techniques and patterns
are given names such as plate tracery (built up in corsed layers like the framing walls),
bar tracery (constructed of complex fragments of the total pattern), flowing tracery
(seemingly freehand, curvilinear design, though compass drawn), etc.
A. Tracery
B. Ashlar
C. Architrave
D. Fenestration

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55. Egyptian temples for the popular worship of the ancient and the mysterious gods.
A. Cult Temple
B. Temple of Taffeh
C. Temple of Seti I
D. Luxor Temple

56. A vertical channeling on the shaft of a column.

A. Arris
B. Fillet
C. Wreath
D. Flutes

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57. A transverse arch across the nave of a church partitioning the roof into sections.

A. Curved beam
B. Diaphragm Arch
C. Beam Arch
D. Arcade

58. The use of monsters in doorways is prevalent in what architecture?

A. Greek
B. Roman
C. Persian
D. Christian

59. A shallow cistern or drain area in the center of a house or the square basin in the
centre of the atrium of an ancient Roman house, which received rainwater from an
opening in the roof.
A. Impluvium
B. Pit
C. Canal
D. Catch basin

60. Egyptian temples for ministrations to deified pharaohs.

A. Cult Temple
B. Mortuary Temple
C. Mastaba
D. Pyramid

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61. Structure whose corners are made to face the four cardinal points.
A. Ziggurat
B. Pyramid
C. Obelisk
D. Sphinx

62. A half-cylindrical vault, semicircular or pointed in cross section; also called tunnel
vault.

A. Barrel Vault
B. Rib Vault
C. Fan Vault
D. Groin Vault

63. Which historic style of architecture first introduced the clerestory?

A. Roman
B. Greek
C. West Asiatic
D. Egyptian

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64. Building stone that has been squared and finished, and the masonry constructed of
such blocks.
A. Travertine
B. Ashlar
C. Rubble
D. Coursed

65. A council house or a covered meeting place for the democratically elected councils.
A. Bouleuterion
B. Prytaneion
C. Odeion
D. Stoa

66. The Parthenon is from what architecture.

A. Roman
B. Japanese
C. Greek
D. Egyptian

67. A compound bracket or capital in Japanese architecture.

A. Masu-gumi
B. Torii
C. Pai-lou
D. Tatami

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68. A large convex molding found principally at the base of a column.

A. Torus
B. Scotia
C. Plinth
D. Stylobate

69. Any form of construction using arches.

A. Archivolt
B. Arcuated
C. Vault
D. Arch

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70. Whose famous dictum/philosophy is this: The city must be subject to growth, decay
and renewal.
A. Kenzo Tange
B. Le Corbusier
C. Minoru Yamasaki
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

71. A molded band carried around an arch.

A. Archivolt
B. Arcuated
C. Vault
D. Arch

72. What historic style of architecture contributed the Doric, Ionic, and Corinthian “Orders
of Architecture?
A. Early Christian
B. Byzantine
C. Greek
D. Egyptian

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73. A square beam that is the lowest of the three horizontal components of a Classical
entablature.

A. Cornice
B. Frieze
C. Architrave
D. Capital

74. A niche in the mosque on any Muslim religious building indicating direction of prayer
toward Mecca?
A. Minaret
B. Metope
C. Mihrab
D. Muqarnas

75. What is the purpose of the disks found on the tree trunks where the Ifugao house
stands?
A. Weeding-out evil spirits
B. Protection against rat’s
C. Structural purpose
D. Decoration/ornamentation

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76. A structural devise, curved in shape, to span an opening by means of wedge-shaped

bricks or stones (voussoirs) that support each other by exerting mutual pressure and
that are buttressed at the sides.

A. Archivolt
B. Arcuated
C. Vault
D. Arch

77. The time in the year when the sun reaches its northernmost point on the celestial
sphere.
A. Summer solstice
B. Winter solstice
C. Vernal equinox
D. Autumnal equinox

78. Mies van der Rohe first envisioned the all-glass skyscraper in the 1920s. A true
genius, he designed a structure that could not be built at that time, but some thirty years
later the technology was at hand. The long-held dream of the crystalline tower was
finally realized in these famous building, 38 stories of black steel and glass.
A. Lever House
B. Seagram Building
C. Lakeshore Drive Apartment
D. S.R. Crown Hall

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79. A series of arches supported on piers or columns. A "blind" arcade is a row of arches
applied to the wall as an ornamental feature.

A. Arcade
B. Arcuated
C. Architrave
D. Diaphragm Arch

80. It is known as the architecture of the curve line.

A. Roman
B. Art Nouveau
C. Renaissance
D. Baroque

81. In Classical temples, the pilaster like projecting end of a portico wall often framing
columns, which are then said to be in antis

A. Anta
B. Ante
C. Apse
D. Colonnade

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82. A semicircular, polygonal, or rectangular extension at the end of a Roman basilica or a

Christian church.

A. Apse
B. Transept
C. Nave
D. Ambulatory

83. A semicircular or polygonal passageway around the apse of a church.

A. Apse
B. Transept
C. Nave
D. Ambulatory

84. Which of the following indicates trabeated style?

A. Pointed arch
B. Post and lintel
C. Mortar joints
D. Bended joints

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85. A table like structure for the celebration of the Sacraments in a Christian building; for
sacrifice or offerings in antiquity.

A. Altar
B. Apse
C. Castrum
D. Pulpit

86. What invention brought about modern high-rise building?

A. Steel beam
B. Curtain wall system
C. Thin shell construction
D. Elevator

87. In a Carolingian or Romanesque church, the towerlike west end, often containing an
entrance vestibule surmounted by a large room open to the nave.
A. Lorsch
B. Westwork
C. Façade
D. Porch

88. A wedge-shaped stone used in the construction of an arch or vault.

A. Keystone
B. Voussoir

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C. Spandrel
D. Plinth

89. A framing motif consisting of an entablature and pediment supported by two columns.

A. Aedicule
B. Porch
C. Foyer
D. Vestibule

90. For the first time perhaps, the pressing problems of architecture, solved in a modern
spirit. Economy, sociology, aesthetics: a new solution using new methods.
A. Peter Behrens
B. August Perret
C. Le Corbusier
D. Louis Sullivan

91. An arched ceiling or roof made of stone, brick, or concrete (cf. barrel vault, fan vault).
A. Vault
B. Arcuated
C. Groins
D. Arcade

92. Architect of Iglesia ni Cristo.

A. Manosa
B. Carlos Santos Viola
C. Recto
D. Palafox

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93. A plant of the Mediterranean region whose serrated leaves were copied in stone to
ornament Corinthian and Composite capitals; used also to decorate moldings and
friezes.

A. Acanthus
B. Tulip
C. Laurel
D. Spinach

94. In perception of space, which of the following describes visual sense?

A. Identifies materials limiting unpleasant odors
B. Affects materials to regulate transfer of sound
C. Identifies materials at a distance
D. Affects room size/ceiling heights to avoid discomfort

95. In a Doric frieze, the projecting block marked by vertical grooves (glyphs) between the
rectangular areas known as ____.

A. Triglyph
B. Metope
C. Pediment
D. Cornice

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96. A concave molding approximately quarter round.

A. Ovolo
B. Cavetto
C. Cyma recta
D. Cyma reversa

97. At the top of a capital, a thick rectangular slab of stone that serves as the flat, broad
surface on which the architrave rests.

A. Plank
B. Abacus
C. Bar
D. Frieze

98. What is not required as a feature in modern Muslim mosque?

A. Minaret
B. Dome
C. Pinnacle
D. Mashrabiya

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99. The cistern storage of collected rainwater underneath the azotea of the bahay na bato.
A. Kalan
B. Pit
C. Alulod
D. Aljibe

100. The Greek male statues used as columns.

A. Atlantes
B. Caryatid
C. Canephora
D. Poseidon

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33. C 67. A
ANSWER KEY: 34. B 68. A
1. A 35. B 69. B
2. C 36. D 70. A
3. A 37. C 71. A
4. B 38. A 72. C
5. C 39. B 73. C
6. A 40. C 74. C
7. D 41. A 75. B
8. D 42. B 76. D
9. A 43. A 77. A
10. B 44. A 78. B
11. C 45. B 79. A
12. A 46. C 80. C
13. C 47. B 81. A
14. B 48. C 82. A
15. C 49. D 83. D
16. A 50. B 84. B
17. D 51. A 85. A
18. D 52. C 86. D
19. C 53. D 87. A
20. B 54. A 88. B
21. B 55. A 89. A
22. A 56. D 90. C
23. C 57. B 91. A
24. C 58. C 92. B
25. A 59. A 93. A
26. A 60. B 94. C
27. B 61. A 95. A
28. A 62. A 96. B
29. D 63. D 97. B
30. A 64. B 98. C
31. B 65. B 99. D
32. A 66. C 100. A

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE & BUILDING LAWS

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. They are the one who is legally and technically qualified to practice architecture.
A. Apprentice
B. Draftsman
C. Architect
D. Contractor

2. The architect has the power to issue or withhold the request for payment of the
contractor. He may recommend withholding of payment if:
A. The contractor fails to submit a complete breakdown of works within 15 days.
B. The architect was not treated a lunch-out by the contractor.
C. Failure of the contractor to furnish progress photographs in 6” by 8” to the
architect.
D. Failure of contractor to make payments to sub-contractors or for materials and
labor.

3. According to PD 223, which of the following are grounds for filing a complaint against a
professional or an examinee?
A. Unprofessional / unethical conduct
B. Insanity
C. Conviction of criminal offense
D. All of these

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4. Under RA 545, it is a printed material stipulating the procedural and administrative

aspects of contract.
A. Instruction to bidders
B. General Conditions
C. Guarantee Bond
D. Specifications

5. No further retention shall be made on the balance of the contract when how may
percent
A. 50 %
B. 40%
C. 30%
D. 15%

6. Under Fire Code of the Philippines, what do you call a device to restrict the passage of
smoke or fire in air duct system?
A. Pipe
B. Damper
C. Ember
D. AHU

7. The UAP Document that regulates Architectural design competitions

A. UAP Doc 209
B. UAP Doc 208
C. UAP Doc 211
D. UAP Doc 206

8. What is the occupant load for drinking establishment?

A. 1.40 sqm
B. 4.60 sqm.
C. 7.40 sqm.
D. 8.40 sqm.

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9. A rule that certain kinds of contracts are enforceable unless signed and in writing or
unless there is a written memorandum of their terms signed by the party to be charged
A. Bonds
B. Written Contracts
C. Statue of Frauds
D. General Conditions

10. Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect?

A. Specialized and allied services
B. Pre-design services
C. Design services
D. None of the choices above

11. Architect D was commissioned to do an urban renewal project. What should he do

first?
A. Examine existing laws, ordinances and political constraints.
B. Identify existing land use, resources, social behaviour and interaction
C. Undertake environmental analysis.
D. Direct all department heads.

12. Under RA 545, it is the contract between the owner and the contractor; including all
supplemental agreements thereto and all general and special provisions.
A. Invitation to bid
B. General Conditions
C. Agreement
D. Special Provisions

13. In PD 957, what is the minimum thickness of road section if concrete is used?
A. 50mm
B. 100mm
C. 150mm
D. 200mm

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14. How many percent of the architect’s fee is payable to the architect upon completion of
the preparation of the schematic design phase and up to final design development
phase?
A. 30 %
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 10%

15. A term used which means purchase or fabricate.

A. Install
B. Furnish
C. Provide
D. Build

16. A contract transferring the right of possession of building, property, etc. for a fixed
period of time, usually for periodical compensation called “rent”.
A. Payment Contract
B. Sell Contract
C. Bond
D. Lease Contract

17. Under PD 957 or Subdivision Law, it is a wall which separates two abutting living units
as to resist the spread of fire.
A. Firewall
B. Fireblock
C. Party Wall
D. Shared Wall

18. Under the National Building Code, it is written authorization granted by the building
official to an applicant allowing him to him proceed with the construction.
A. Construction Permit
B. Building Permit

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C. Occupancy Permit
D. Fencing Permit

19. It is a right enforceable against specific property to secure payment of an obligation

A. Bond
B. Contract
C. Liens
D. Terms

20. Under Fire Code of the Philippines, it is a term as melting or fusing of metallic ores to
separate impurities from pure metals.

A. Smelting
B. Refining
C. Forging
D. Flash Point

21. Means to build in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for
the intended use
A. Furnish
B. Provide
C. Install
D. Work

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22. A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease

A. Bond
B. Leasehold
C. Rent
D. Contract

23. Under RA 545, a term used for earthquake, flood, typhoon, cataclysmic phenomena of
nature.
A. Act of God or force majeure
B. Bad luck
C. Wrong construction
D. Fault line

24. In BP 220, what is the minimum area of shelter component for socialized housing?
A. 20 sqm
B. 18 sqm
C. 36 sqm
D. 22 sqm

25. Under RA 545, it is terms use as guarantee to the quality of materials and equipment
installed.
A. Instruction to bidders
B. General Conditions
C. Guarantee Bond
D. Specifications

26. What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning?

A. PD 1308
B. PD 957
C. PD 1185
D. PD 1096

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27. Under PD 957, a term used as a fireblock which extends vertically from the lowest
portion of the wall.

A. Fireblock
B. Party Wall
C. Shared Wall
D. Firewall

28. Under BP 344 or Economic Socialized Housing, the required area for parks below 150
hectares is___.
A. 3.50%
B. 7%
C. 9%
D. None of these

29. When were the three architectural organizational organizations integrated into one
association of architects called UAP?
A. 1980
B. 1978
C. 1975
D. 1972

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30. Under PD 957, it is a terms used as a paved foot-walk at the side of the street.
A. Ramp
B. Side-walk
C. Walk-way
D. Curb-cut-out

31. What is the effectivity (commencement of work) of a construction contract from receipt
of Notice?
A. 7 days
B. 1 month
C. 2 weeks
D. 10 days

32. Means to purchase and / or fabricate and deliver to jobsite

A. Furnish
B. Provide
C. Install
D. Work

33. Under RA 545, a term used as written or printed description of work to be done
describing the qualities of materials and mode of construction.
A. Instruction to bidders
B. General Conditions
C. Guarantee Bond
D. Specifications

34. What is the process of managing information preparatory to architectural design?

A. Pre-design stage
B. Translation
C. Architectural programming
D. Research

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35. Under BP 344, what is maximum exit of travel if there is fire extinguisher?
A. 45m
B. 60m
C. 12m
D. 10m

36. Architect D was commissioned to design an exposition building albeit similar to Sir
Joseph Paxton’s Crystal Palace, how much would he charge?
A. 6% of CC
B. 7% of CC
C. 8% of CC
D. 12% of CC

37. Under PD 957, a term used as a public way intended to serve for pedestrians and
emergency vehicles.
A. Road
B. Alley
C. Blosk
D. Pavement

38. How many percent of the contract amount is the performance bond?
A. 15 %
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 12%

39. The Architecture Law

A. PD 49
B. RA 454
C. RA 545
D. PD 223

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40. Architect NOFR was commissioned to design a public market in Antipolo City. The
project construction cost is Php 35M, how much would he charge?
A. 6% of CC
B. 7% of CC
C. 8% of CC
D. 12% of CC

41. Liability of architects to their projects.

A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years
D. Lifetime

42. It is the graphical representation of the work involved in the project.

A. Blow up plans
B. Invitation to bid
C. Drawings
D. Specifications

43. How many days prior to canceling insurance be given to the owner stipulating the
intention to cancel?
A. 10 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 12 days

44. This is the approved form of the contractor and his surety to pay all obligations.
A. Proposal Bond
B. Performance Bond
C. Payment Bond
D. Guarantee Bond

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45. How many copies of drawings specifications and other contract documents are usually
given to the owner by the architect?
A. 10
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6

46. Under what classification of projects do Hospitals and medical buildings fall?
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III (exceptional)
D. Group IV

47. Which is not a part of an Architect’s regular services?

A. Schematic Design
B. Pre-Design Development
C. Construction Documents
D. Construction Phase

48. Which of the following is not included in simple projects or Group I?

A. Armories
B. Bakery
C. Restaurants
D. Hangar

49. The site planning process has three basic stages, which among the process below is
the third stage?
A. Design and implementation
B. User definition/ identification
C. Analysis
D. Schematic

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50. What is the Architects fee under proposal phase?

A. 5%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 20%

51. All trees and other plants that need to be transplanted elsewhere within ___ meters
shall be done by the ___at his own expenses
A. 25 / Architect
B. 50 / contractor
C. 25 / Landscaper
D. 50 / Owner

52. It is the positioning of wood as marks for the start of digging and excavation.
A. Drilling
B. Hauling plan
C. Staking plan
D. Concreting

53. Under UAP Doc 202, which of the following is not part of the Pre-Design Services?
A. Economic feasibility studies
B. Physical planning services
C. Selection and analysis
D. Building application services

54. Minimum per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms from office
A. P750
B. P500
C. P1500
D. P5000

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55. Under Fire Code of the Philippines, this is the term used as a hot piece or lump after a
material is burned
A. Fire
B. Coal
C. Ember
D. Flash point

56. What is a bid bulletin?

A. Printed documents stipulating the procedural aspects of the contract
B. Instructions issued prior to bidding to supplement or modify contract
C. Instructions stipulating the manner on how bids are to be prepared
D. Additional information on contract documents issued before bidding date

57. Under BP 344, what is maximum exit of travel?

A. 45m
B. 60m
C. 50m
D. 30m

58. How many days prior to bidding shall the contractor seek the architect’s clarification as
to the particular areas of work, which requires evaluation of the architects?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days

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C. 7 days
D. 20 days

59. You are hired as an architect to design a gymnasium with a project construction cost
of P 15 million. According to UAP documents, how much would be your minimum basic
fee?
A. P 1.2 million
B. P 1,050,000
C. It is unethical to charge the owner for this type of project
D. P 9 million

60. The site planning process has three basic stages, which among the process below is
the second stage?
A. Analysis
B. User definition/ identification
C. Design and implementation
D. Site visit

61. Under PD 1096, which of the following is NOT regulated or controlled in terms of
minimum standard/requirements?
A. Quality of Materials
B. Aesthetics
C. Construction System
D. Use and Occupancy

62. Approximately, how many square meters of office space for the architect is built by the
contractor as temporary facilities for the project
A. 6 sq. m
B. 10 sq. m
C. 12 sq. m
D. 15 sq. m

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63. How many days upon written notice can a contractor terminate a contract with a valid
reason?
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 5 days
D. 20 days

64. The preparations of forms for contract letting, documents for construction, forms for
invitation and instruction to bidders, and forms for bidders' proposals falls under what
phase of the architect's design services?
A. schematic design phase
B. design development phase
C. contract documents phase
D. construction phase

65. The site planning process has three basic stages, which among the process below is
the first stage?
A. Design and implementation
B. Analysis
C. User definition/ identification
D. None of these

66. No payment shall be made on contracts in excess of how many percent of the contract
price
A. 65 %
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 80%

67. What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract?
A. Performance
B. Payment

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C. Guarantee
D. Proposal

68. The offer of a bidder to perform the work described by the contract documents when
made out and submitted on the prescribed proposal form, properly signed and sealed
A. Proposal
B. Invitation to bid
C. Instruction to bidders
D. Agreement

69. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to
seek opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
A. Manufacturers/Dealers
B. Contractor
C. Client
D. Public

70. True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to pay the
contractor any sum within 15 days after its award by arbitration
A. True
B. False (30 days)
C. False (45 days)
D. Not sure

71. Which of the following is not included in the basic physical planning requirements
under PD 957?
A. Accessibility
B. Reacheability
C. Usability
D. Availability

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72. Under 1185, every Class A assembly capacity of more than one thousand persons
shall have at least ____ separate exists as remote from each other as practicable.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

73. General planning instrument undertaken within a short or limited period of time and is
usually non-continuing.
A. Project/action plan
B. Long range plan
C. Annual plan
D. Daily schedule

74. You are to design twelve (10) housing units to be constructed on a single site. If one
housing unit costs 1 million pesos, how much would you charge the client for this
particular housing project so as to conform UAP documents – schedule of minimum
basic fees?
A. P 1,200,000
B. P 640,000
C. P 384,000
D. P 60,000

75. Under NBC construction in a building/structure involving, changing in the materials

used partitioning, location, size of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and
equipment but does not increase its overall area thereof.
A. Construction
B. Alteration
C. Renovation
D. Addition

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76. Under RA 545, a term used as labor or materials or both as well as equipment,
transportation or other facilities.
A. Work
B. Furnish
C. Install
D. Provide

77. Intellectual Property Law

A. PD 1096
B. PD 49
C. RA 545
D. EO 164

78. General planning instrument undertaken within immediate, one year period usually
undertaken as provided in the yearly budget of public or private agencies.
A. Project/action plan
B. Long range plan
C. Annual plan
D. Daily schedule

79. On the remaining 15% retention fee of the architect, where does the 5% go?
A. Construction phase service
B. Upon signing
C. Schematic design
D. Civil code

80. It is a secondary building located within the same premises the use of which is
incidental to that of the main building
A. Construction building
B. Ancillary building
C. Garage
D. Sub-building

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81. All buildings/Structures are required to comply with certain rules/regulations in terms of
design, quality of materials, construction, use, occupancy and maintenance. What legal
mandate governs these requirements
A. Performance
B. Payment
C. Guarantee
D. Proposal
82. Which of the following is not part of Specialized Allied Services of an architect?
A. Interior design
B. Landscape architecture
C. Acoustics
D. Data Centre

83. Under the Civil Code, under what conditions can the Contractor be held liable for
damages within fifteen years after project completion?
A. Structure Collapses due to defective materials
B. Structure collapses due to defects in plans/specifications.
C. Structure collapses due to violation of terms/conditions.
D. Structure collapses due to delayed construction.

84. Under building laws, what is the maximum gradient of ramp?

A. 1:10
B. 1:12
C. 1:15
D. 1:5

85. Who declares bankruptcy as a valid reason for the termination of a contract?
A. Client
B. Contractor
C. Architect
D. Government Officials

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86. Which organization has the power to approve, issue, limit, or cancel permits for foreign
architects who will be practicing architecture in the Philippines?
A. United Architects of the Philippines (UAP)
B. Integrated and Accredited Professional Organization of Architects (IAPOA)
C. Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture (BOA)
D. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)

87. True or false, the contractor can terminate contract if the owner should fail to act upon
any request for payment within 30 days after its certification by the architect
A. True
B. False (15 days)
C. False (10 days)
D. Not sure

88. General planning instrument undertaken within 4 to 5-years time frame, programmed
with annual targets.
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Annual plan
D. Daily plan

89. Under NBC, a term used as any physical change made on a building to increase its
value, utility or to improve its aesthetic quality.
A. Construction
B. Alteration
C. Renovation
D. Addition

90. General planning instrument undertaken in 20-30 years span. It looks beyond the
foreground of pressing current issues to the perspective of problems in the future.
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan

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C. Annual plan
D. Daily plan

91. Architects NOFR uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional

consensus and years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to
whom?
A. Fellow architects
B. PRC
C. Contractors
D. People / public

92. Which of the following is not part of design services under Design Phase
A. Schematic design phase
B. Design development phase
C. Construction phase
D. None of these

93. Additional information on contract documents issued to bidders before date of bidding
A. Invitation to bid
B. Bid Bulletin
C. General Provisions
D. Specifications

94. Which of the following is not part of Group II projects classifications?

A. Court House
B. Library
C. Warehouse
D. School

95. The cashier’s check or surety bond accompanying the proposal submitted by the
bidder, as a guaranteed that the bidder will enter into a contract with the owner for the
construction of the work. If the contract is awarded

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A. Proposal Bond
B. Construction Bond
C. Security Bond
D. None of these

96. What Presidential Decree created the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
which regulates the practice of various professionals in the Philippines?
A. PD 223
B. PD 1098
C. PD 474
D. PD 1081

97. Suspension of work for ___ days by order of any court or other public authority through
no act or fault of the contractor gives to him the right to terminate contract
A. 20 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days

98. Which of the following is NOT included in the set of contract documents which forms
an integral part of an owner-contractor agreement?
A. Labor force
B. Drawings, plans, elevations, etc.
C. Detailed/itemized drawings
D. General conditions

99. The guaranteed bond is equal to how many percent of the contract price?
A. 80 %
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 45%

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100. Written or printed description of work to be done describing qualities of material

and mode of construction. If there is a variance/discrepancy between the drawing and
specifications, what shall be followed?
A. Legend
B. Specifications
C. Drawing
D. Bill of Materials

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 24

ANSWER KEY: 33. D 67. B

34. C 68. A
1. C 35. B 69. D
2. D 36. D 70. B
3. D 37. B 71. D
4. B 38. A 72. C
5. A 39. C 73. A
6. B 40. A 74. B
7. B 41. B 75. B
8. A 42. C 76. A
9. C 43. A 77. B
10. A 44. C 78. C
11. B 45. B 79. A
12. C 46. C 80. B
13. C 47. B 81. C
14. A 48. C 82. D
15. B 49. A 83. A
16. D 50. A 84. B
17. B 51. B 85. B
18. B 52. C 86. C
19. C 53. D 87. B
20. A 54. A 88. B
21. C 55. C 89. C
22. B 56. D 90. A
23. A 57. A 91. D
24. B 58. B 92. D
25. C 59. A 93. B
26. A 60. A 94. C
27. D 61. B 95. A
28. A 62. C 96. A
29. C 63. A 97. C
30. B 64. C 98. A
31. A 65. C 99. A
32. A 66. A 100. B

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE & BUILDING LAWS

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 12 June 2018 (Sunday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. To be qualified as having passed the licensure examination for architecture, a
candidate must obtain a weighed general average of ___ percent with no grade
lower than ___ percent in any given subject
A. 60 and 50, respectively
B. 70 and 50, respectively
C. 75 and 50, respectively
D. 50 and 50, respectively

2. Includes labor or materials or both as equipment, transportation, or other facilities

necessary to commence and complete the construction called for in the contract
A. Install
B. Furnish
C. Work
D. Provide

3. In RA 9266, ___ is defined as a duly notarized written contract or equivalent public

instrument stipulating the scope of services and guaranteeing compensation of such
services to be rendered by an architect registered under the act.
A. Contract agreement
B. Contract documents
C. Service agreement
D. None of these

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4. Under PD 1185, it is fire involving energized electrical equipment.

A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

5. Means to furnish and install

A. Install
B. Furnish
C. Work
D. Provide

6. Under Fire Code, Handrails shall provide a clearance of at least ___________

millimeters between handrails and wall to which it is fastened.
A. 48
B. 40
C. 38
D. None of these

7. Means information, advice or notification pertinent to the project delivered in person

or sent by registered mail to the individual, firm or corporation at the last known
business address of such individual firm or corporation
A. Supplementary Specifications
B. Written Notice
C. Schedule of materials
D. General Conditions

8. Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations

A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 150 %

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9. Under Fire Code, the wet standpipe shall deliver not less than ______ liters of water
per minute.
A. 132
B. 133
C. 134
D. 135

10. Pressure and gravity tanks shall have a capacity sufficient to furnish a least
______liters of water per minute for thirty minutes.
A. 265
B. 266
C. 267
D. None of these

11. Under Fire Code, No single door in a doorway shall be less than ______
centimeters and shall not exceed ______ centimeters.
A. 71, 123
B. 70, 121
C. 71, 122
D. 70, 124

12. The height of every riser and the width of every tread shall be so proportioned that
the sum two risers and a tread, exclusive of its nosing projections is not less than
______ centimeters, but not more than ______ centimeters.
A. 60 cm , 63.5 cm
B. 61 cm, 64.5 cm
C. 62 cm, 65.5 cm
D. None of these

13. The architect has the power to issue or withhold the request for payment of the
contractor. He may recommend withholding of payment if:
A. The contractor fails to submit a complete breakdown of works within 15 days.

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B. The architect was not treated a lunch-out by the contractor.

C. Failure of the contractor to furnish progress photographs in 6” by 8” to the
architect.
D. Failure of contractor to make payments to sub-contractors or for materials and
labor.

14. True or false, upon termination of contract and upon the decision the architect that
materials and equipment left by the contractor which do not belong to him can be
used and rent of such shall be borne by the failing contractor
A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. None of these

15. Which of the following limitations in the registration of a corporation is correct as

prescribed under RA9266 Section 37? (PP081/PP100)
A. Registered and licensed architects shall compose at least 75% of the owners /
Such corporation shall be registered with S.E.C.
B. Registered and licensed architects shall compose at least 70% of the owners /
Such corporation shall be registered with S.E.C. and the Board
C. Registered and licensed architects shall compose at least 75% of the owners /
Such corporation shall be registered with S.E.C. and the Board
D. Registered and licensed architects shall compose at least 70% of the owners /
Such corporation shall be registered with S.E.C.

16. True or false, owner has no right to claim liquidated damages if the takes over the
work from the contractor for failure to complete the project
A. True
B. False
C. Note sure
D. None of these

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17. The architect has responsibilities in relation to the following, but not to ____.
A. People
B. Client
C. Contractor
D. Government Officials

18. Under BP 344, it is a single family attached dwelling containing 3 or more separate
living units.
A. Single house
B. Townhouse
C. Duplex
D. Cluster housing

19. After the contract documents phase, where does the remaining 15% of the
architect’s basic fee go?
A. 10% for construction; 5% for architect’s liabilities under the Civil Code
B. 10% for architect’s liabilities under the Civil Code; 5% for construction
C. 7.5% for construction while 7.5% for liabilities under the Civil Code
D. 7.5% for retention while 7.5% revolving capital for construction

20. How many percent of the contract amount is the payment bond?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15 %
D. 20%

21. Percentage of Architectural Design in Architecture board examination.

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. None of these

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22. A contract provision setting forth the damages a party must pay in the event of his
breach
A. Penalty clause
B. Bond
C. Damage fee
D. Guarantee

23. Which of the following describes General Conditions of a Contract in construction

work?
A. Additional information issued prior to bidding date
B. Instructions on bid preparation and award of contract
C. Type and trade names of materials
D. Procedural and administrative aspects of contract

24. MMDA resolution authorizing the MMDA and local government units to clear the
sidewalks, streets, avenues, alleys, buildings, parks and other public places in Metro
Manila
A. MMDA resolution 02-28
B. MMDA resolution 04-16
C. MMDA resolution 03-31
D. MMDA resolution 02-30

25. Basic fee for Physical Planning type 1 or site such as industrial estates,
commercial centers, sports complex, resorts etc.
A. 5,000 to first 10 hectares
B. 5,000 to first 50 hectares
C. 10,000 to first 20 hectares
D. None of these

26. What is Executive Order # 1008 issued on February 4, 1985?

A. Contractor’s Law
B. Building Administration Law

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C. Construction Industry Arbitration Law

D. Building Maintenance Law

27. When the architect is engaged to render opinion or advice, clarification or

explanation on technical matters pertaining to his profession, the minimum basic fee
shall be __
A. 500/hr
B. 200/hr
C. 1000/hr
D. 1500/hr

28. The fee for an architect/full-time supervisor is ___% of the project construction
cost.
A. 1-1.5
B. 1.5-2
C. 1-2
D. 2-3

29. The Architecture Act of 2004 was passed by Senate on:

A. January 29, 2004
B. January 1, 2004
C. March 30, 2004
D. March 17, 2004

30. The minimum basic fee for hospital with a project cost below 50 million pesos
A. 6%
B. 8 %
C. 10%
D. 15%

31. This is the type of activity that doesn’t really represent work, but merely helps to
observe the rule “ not more than one activity may have the same event number “.

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A. Construction Activity
B. Dummy Activity
C. Daily Activity
D. None of these

32. When rendering service as an expert witness, the architects is compensated

___/hr
A. 500/hr
B. 200/hr
C. 1000/hr
D. 1500/hr

33. Fee of an architect as a consultant

A. 5,000 pesos
B. 5% from cost of work
C. 1 – 1.5% from project construction cost
D. 4% cost of development

34. Type of specification where it are usually brand- name specification. (used
basically where materials are required to match existing material.)
A. Performance Specifications
B. Descriptive Specifications
C. Reference Specifications
D. Closed Specifications

35. Which does not belong in the Parts of Proposal?

A. Mode of agreement
B. Mode of payment
C. Scope of work
D. Scheduling

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36. Methods of planning which is basically a technique that separates planning and
scheduling. It also clarifies the inter-relationship between time and cost.
A. Bar chart
B. Critical Path Method (CPM)
C. Arrow Diagram
D. Pert

37. Minimum basic fee for Group 5 projects (monumental)

A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

38. What group 6-project classification?

A. Monumental structures
B. Repetitive construction
C. Housing projects
D. Extensive dwelling

39. Repairs and corrective works at the expense of the contractor should be done
within how many days after written notice by owner
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days

40. 10 % of 1st unit, 60% 2nd – 10th unit, 30% 11th – above
A. Minimum basic fee for simple projects
B. Minimum basic fee for moderate structures
C. Minimum basic fee for exceptional structures
D. Minimum basic fee for housing projects

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41. The following are four phases of the ____ services of the architect: schematic
design, design development, contract documents, construction.
A. Comprehensive
B. Regular design
C. Project management
D. Construction management

42. For regular design services, the architect is paid a cumulative total of ___% of the
basic fee upon completion of the contract document.
A. 85
B. 50
C. 60
D. 75

43. The Architect’s National Code categorize interior design services, acoustic,
communication and electronic engineering services, landscape design services,
physical planning services, comprehensive planning services as:
A. Related services
B. Specialty fields services
C. Specialized allied services
D. Architecture support services

44. Executive Order No. 1008 covers:

A. Project bidding
B. Economic housing
C. Construction arbitration
D. Contractor-architect relations

45. True or False, The Architect shall affix his signature and seal to any plans or
professional documents prepared by other persons or entities done under his direct
personal supervision.
A. True

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B. False
C. Not really
D. Not under his direct supervision

46. Failure on the part of the contractor to remove condemned work shall give the
owner right to remove said work at contractor’s expense and contractor shall pay the
owner the expenses incurred within how many days form removal by the owner of
said work?
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days

47. “May the Architect be ______; not arrogant, but faithful; just and easy to deal with,
without avarice; not let his mind be occupied in receiving gifts, but let him preserve
his good name with dignity…” Marcus Vitruvius Pollio.
A. Humble
B. Intelligent
C. High-minded
D. Perceptive

48. Predecessor of PC 1096

A. RA 6451
B. RA 545
C. BP 344
D. PD 957

49. Contract time reckoning shall commence on the ___from receipt of ___
A. 5th day / Notice to Proceed
B. 7th day / Notice to Proceed
C. 90th day / mobilization
D. 5th day / materials delivered

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50. UAP Document 200 is also known as

A. Technical Writing
B. Code of ethical conduct
C. Contractor-owner agreement
D. Design-build services

51. The virtues of an architect. “May the architect be high-minded, not ____, but
faithful; Just and easy to deal with, without avarice…”
A. Handsome
B. Asshole
C. Arrogant
D. Lazy

52. Under BP 344, it refers to features that enabled persons to make used of the
primary functions for w/c a structure is built.
A. Accessible
B. Affordable
C. Barrier-free
D. None of these

53. The Guarantee Bond is released how many months after the date of final payment
A. 12 months / 1 year
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 3 years

54. Upon completion and submission of five (5) sets of signed and sealed Contract
Documents – ____of the Architect’s fee. (equivalent to 85% of total fee).
A. 30%
B. 50 %
C. 60%
D. 85%

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55. How many days shall the building official issue a certificate of occupancy after final
inspection of the project
A. 5 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 120 days

56. Under BP 344, it is a strip fastened to the floor beneath a door, usually required to
cover the joint where two types of floor materials meet.
A. Foothold
B. Baseboard
C. Threshold
D. Curb cut-out

57. A statue specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for
alleged damage or injury
A. Performance bond
B. Statue of Limitation
C. Written notice
D. None of these

58. Term use in BP 344 or Accessibility Law to be an exit, or a means of going out.
A. Panic door
B. Fire exit
C. Egress
D. Ingress

59. A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statue

A. Proposal Bond
B. Guarantee Bond
C. Payment Bond
D. Statutory Bond

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60. In a CPM, the maximum amount of time that an activity can be delayed without
exceeding the completion time of the whole project
A. Free float
B. Maximum float
C. Total float
D. Absolute float

61. Under Fire Code, No single door in a doorway shall be less than ____ wide.
A. 55 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 71 cm
D. 90 cm

62. The person receiving a possessory interest in buildings, property, etc. by lease
A. Lessor
B. Lesse
C. Tenant
D. Client

63. Name the new Architecture Law

A. RA 9160
B. RA 545
C. RA 9266
D. RA 546

64. The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost
aside from his fee for regular design services
A. 6%
B. 10 %
C. 12%
D. 15%

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65. Under Fire Code, the minimum width of fire scape stairs is___.
A. 45.7 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 61 cm

66. The person granting a possessory interest in building, property, etc. by lease
A. Lessor
B. Lesse
C. Tenant
D. Client

67. Under PD 1185, it is fire involving ordinary combustible materials such as wood,
cloth, paper, rubber and plastics.
A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

68. Under PD 1185 or Fire Code of the Philippines, a term use as any act that would
remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Blasting agent
B. Curtain board
C. Abatement
D. Flash point

69. Range of the multiplier for Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses

A. 2 - 2.5
B. 2 -3.5
C. 3 – 3.5
D. 1 -2.5

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70. Wrote the virtues of an architect

A. Le Corbusier
B. Antonio Gaudi
C. Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
D. None of these

71. Architect Roco is commissioned to design the Armory is Fort Bonifacio, the cost of
the project is 10 million. How much Architect Roco will charge the client?
A. 500,000
B. 620,000
C. 250,000
D. 1.2M

72. Architects fee for furniture and cabinets detailing.

A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

73. Supervision work is a non-creative work

A. False
B. True
C. It is creative
D. Not sure

74. Architect’s minimum fee for Group 5 projects that include monumental buildings
and other facilities requiring consummate design skill and much precise detailing.
A. 12% of project construction cost
B. 5% of project construction cost
C. 10% of project construction cost
D. 14% of project construction cost

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75. A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services

A. Talent fee
B. Percentage of Construction
C. Basic fee
D. Service fee

76. Under what category of architect’s services does interior design fall?
A. Comprehensive Services
B. Design
C. Specialized Allied Services
D. Post Construction

77. Which is not included in the Qualifications to take Architecture Licensure Exam?
A. 21 years old
B. Asian
C. Graduate of BS Architecture
D. 2-years diversified experience

78. The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million
pesos
A. 6 %
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 12%

79. When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as
prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of the
fee upon submission of the final design
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 85 %
D. 100%

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80. All permits/licenses pertinent to construction are paid by whom?

A. Architect
B. contractor
C. project manager
D. Client

81. Minimum basic fee for simple projects

A. 6 %
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 12%

82. What do you call the study which determines the viability of a project, such as the
cost of development which brings about a potential return to the owner?
A. Economic feasibility study
B. Project financing study
C. Promotional services
D. Project development and evaluation

83. It is supervised by the architect and the structural engineer.

A. Finishing
B. Concreting
C. Reinforcements
D. Excavation

84. Architectural programming is one of the architect’s services that falls under:
A. Specialized allied services
B. Design
C. Pre-design
D. Design-build

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85. A method of selection most often employed by committees representing

institutions, corporations and government agencies.
A. direct selection
B. comparative selection
C. design competitions
D. none of the above

86. The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building

A. 6 %
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 12%

87. O ne of the methods of compensating the services of the architect, which is

applicable only to non-creative work such as accounting, supervision and data
gathering
A. Professional plus reimbursing expenses
B. Multiple of direct personnel expenses
C. Per Diem plus reimbursable expenses
D. Percentage of construction cost

88. Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect

A. Design services
B. Specialized allied services
C. Comprehensive planning
D. None of these

89. All except one of these are documents for bidding

A. General conditions
B. Technical specification
C. Instructions to bidders
D. Invitation to bid

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90. What percentage of an architect’s work is liability under the civil code
A. 5%
B. 10 %
C. 15%
D. 20%

91. How many sets of drawings and specifications will the owner furnish the contractor
free of charge?
A. 2 sets
B. 3 sets
C. 5 sets
D. 1 copy only

92. For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee
upon submission of the final design
A. 25%
B. 50 %
C. 75%
D. 100%

93. The third phase of an architects regular services

A. Schematic Design Phase
B. Design Development Phase
C. Contract Documents Phase
D. Construction Phase

94. What type of specifications specifies a number corresponding to a number in a

published specification?
A. Performance specifications
B. Reference specifications
C. Descriptive specifications
D. Multi-product specifications

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95. The Professional Regulation Commission’s powers include all except which of
these:
A. Prescribe academic requisites
B. Act on violations of rules
C. Supervise practicing foreigners
D. Regulate us of business names

96. In design-build services, the single point responsibility of project delivery puts the
legal liability for both the design and construction on the
A. Designer
B. Architect
C. Contractor
D. Client

97. It is the binding resolution of disputes by one or more neutral persons as a

substitute for judicial proceeding.
A. Agreement
B. Arbitration
C. Bid Bulletin
D. Proposal

98. Which of the following methods of compensation is not covered by UAP Document
208?
A. Percentage of construction cost
B. Commission on cost of materials
C. Multiple of direct personnel expense
D. Per diem plus reimbursable

99. A price given by a contractor, sub-contractor, material supplier or vendor to furnish

material, labor or both
A. Bidding
B. Quotation

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C. Price list
D. Bill of quantity

100. Open space requirements for interior lot.

A. 50%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 5%

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have questions or
comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

www.paleor.net 696
 23

ANSWER KEY: 33. B 67. A

34. D 68. C
1. B 35. D 69. A
2. C 36. B 70. C
3. C 37. C 71. B
4. C 38. B 72. D
5. D 39. A 73. B
6. C 40. D 74. A
7. B 41. B 75. B
8. D 42. A 76. C
9. A 43. C 77. B
10. A 44. C 78. A
11. C 45. A 79. C
12. A 46. C 80. D
13. D 47. C 81. A
14. A 48. A 82. A
15. C 49. B 83. D
16. B 50. B 84. C
17. D 51. C 85. B
18. D 52. A 86. D
19. B 53. A 87. B
20. C 54. B 88. B
21. B 55. C 89. B
22. A 56. C 90. B
23. D 57. B 91. D
24. A 58. C 92. B
25. B 59. D 93. C
26. C 60. B 94. B
27. B 61. C 95. D
28. A 62. B 96. B
29. D 63. B 97. B
30. B 64. B 98. B
31. B 65. A 99. B
32. A 66. A 100. A

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE & BUILDING LAWS

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 05 January 2018 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. A full time construction inspector hired by the owner for assisting in supervision of the
project work.
A. Construction manager
B. Watchman
C. Project inspector
D. Project representative

2. What code holds the architect responsible for the building structure he designed for a
certain period of time?
A. Architect’s National Code of Ethics
B. National Building Code
C. Civil Code
D. Code of Professional Practice

3. His responsibility is to provide full information as to requirements for the project and
promptly pay for architectural and all other engineering and allied services required for
the project.
A. Client
B. Architect
C. Contractor
D. Consultant

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4. Under the owner-architect agreement, which of the following is/are chargeable to the
owner?
A. Mural Paintings
B. Interior Design
C. Acoustics
D. All listed items

5. Project financing falls under what kind of service of the architect.

A. Pre-design services
B. Design Services
C. Specialized Allied Services
D. Design-build Services

6. Who prepares the as-built drawings?

A. Architect
B. Full-time construction supervisor
C. Contractor
D. Dealers and manufacturers

7. Comprehensive planning falls under what service of the architect.

A. Pre-design services
B. Design Services
C. Specialized Allied Services
D. Design-build Services

8. True or false, if the Owner requires the services of specialist consultants, they shall be
engaged with the consent of the Architect. The cost of their services shall be paid for
separately by the Owner and shall not be deducted from the Architect’s fee.
A. True
B. False
C. Not really
D. None of these

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9. Under the FCP, court houses are under what occupancy

A. Education
B. Business
C. Institutional
D. Industrial

10. Clients choose between other architects for the best suited for the project.
A. Direct selection
B. Comparative selection
C. Design competition
D. None of these

11. The fee of the architect for design-build services on a guaranteed maximum cost aside
from his fee for regular design services.
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 12%
D. 20%

12. In the Architect’s code of ethics, to whom does the architect have responsibility to
refrain from associating himself with any enterprise of doubtful character?
A. People
B. Client
C. Contractor
D. Colleagues and Subordinates

13. UAP Document 206

A. Post- Construction Services
B. Comprehensive Architectural Services
C. Design- Build Services
D. Selection of Architects & Methods of Compensation

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14. The Socialized Housing Law

A. BP 220
B. BP 344
C. PD 23
D. RA 545

15. Which is not part of Post Construction Services

A. Building and equipment maintenance
B. Building and grounds administration
C. Compensation
D. Evaluation

16. What percentage of an architect's work is liability under the civil code.
A. 05%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. None of these

17. Under the FCP, the time duration that a material or construction can withstand the
effect of standard fire test is known as:
A. Flame spread rating
B. Flame retardant
C. Fire resistance rating
D. Fire wall

18. For interior design services, the architect shall be paid what percentage of the fee
upon submission of the final design.
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 85%
D. None of these

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19. The Condominium & Subdivision Buyers Protective Law

A. PD 957
B. PD 1185
C. PD 49
D. PD 1096

20. Five copies of drawings are given to:

A. Contractor and Site
B. Owner
C. Office of the building official and Fire Dept.
D. All of these

21. Under the FCP, classified as places of assembly, travel distance to exits for spaces
not protected by automatic fire suppression system shall not be more than:
A. 35 mts
B. 71 mts
C. 46 mts
D. 81 mts

22. This includes: Billing of tenants, Monitoring of Security and Janitorial services,
Update of local ordinances and building regulations.
A. Building and equipment maintenance
B. Building and grounds administration
C. Post-construction evaluation
D. Compensation

23. When the owner fails to implement the plans and documents for construction as
prepared by the architect, the architect is entitled to receive what percentage of his fee.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 85%

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24. In a typical owner agreement, which of the following is generally chargeable to owner?
A. Movable Furniture
B. Five sets of contract documents
C. Income taxes on professional fees
D. Structural/electrical/sanitary engineering

25. Architects percentage method for being a project manager.

A. 1 – 2%
B. 2 – 3%
C. 2 – 5 %
D. None of these

26. The minimum basic fee for specialized decorative building.

A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

27. What is CPM?

A. Critical Path Method
B. Critical Performance Method
C. Company Performance Method
D. None of these

28. Is one of the methods of selection where it is used when undertaking a relatively small
project. The Client selects his Architect on the basis of: Reputation, Personal or
business acquaintance or recommendation of a friend, Recommendation of the
Architect’s former Client, Recommendation of another Architect.
A. Comparative selection
B. Direct selection
C. Design competition
D. None of these

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29. The minimum fee per appearance of an architect when rendering service as an expert
witness shall be.
A. PHP 1000
B. PHP 5000
C. PHP 100
D. PHP 500.00

30. Which one is not a Method of Compensation?

A. Professional Fee plus Expenses
B. Lump Sum or Fixed Fee
C. Per Diem Reimbursable Expense
D. Cash Basis

31. Architects fee for residential projects.

A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 150%

32. He pays for the Building Permit (cannot be reimbursed, not included in Estimates)
A. Architect
B. Client
C. Contractor
D. Consultant

33. The Law Enhancing the Mobility of Disabled

A. BP 220
B. BP 344
C. PD 23
D. RA 545

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34. Which are the codes of ethics?

A. General Objectives, Ideals & Success
B. Remuneration, Interest of the Client & Professional Prerogative
C. Business Venture, Behavior, Criticism & Creative Endeavour
D. All of these

35. The minimum basic fee for industrial buildings with a project cost below 50 million
pesos.
A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

36. Under the FCP for Class A and Class B stairs the minimum headroom shall be:
A. 2.40 m
B. 2.00 m
C. 3.00 m
D. 2.50 m

37. A change in the use or occupancy of the building or any portion thereof which has
different requirement
A. Alteration
B. Renovation
C. Construction
D. Conversion

38. The minimum basic fee for hospitals with a project cost below 50 million pesos.
A. 8%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

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39. Under the FCP, a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety in
an electrical system is a:
A. Horse reel
B. Jumper
C. Damper
D. Pypophoric

40. UAP Documents 208

A. Post- Construction Services
B. Comprehensive Architectural Services
C. Design- Build Services
D. Selection of Architects & Methods of Compensation

41. Architects fee for moderate buildings.

A. 6%
B. 7%
C. 15%
D. 10%

42. Scope of an Architect When a Client calls upon the Architect to give oral or written
advice and direction, to attend conferences, to make evaluations and appraisals
regarding a contemplated project and similar activities, the Architect renders valuable
inputs whether or not the Client pursues the project.
A. Pre-design services
B. Consultation
C. Feasibility studies
D. Space planning

43. In design-build services, the single-point-responsibility of project delivery puts the legal
liability for both the design and construction on the___.
A. Client
B. Architect

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C. Contractor
D. Civil Engineer

44. The release of 10% retention by the owner shall be done after how many months from
the date of final payment.
A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 12 months
D. 6 months

45. Under the FCP for Class A ramps the width shall be:
A. 110 cm and greater
B. 76 to 110 cm
C. 112 cm and greater
D. 76 to 112 cm

46. Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspect of the contract.
A. Agreement
B. General conditions
C. Special Provisions
D. Specifications

47. An outline specification enumerating the type and trade names of materials to be used.
A. Schedule of material and finishes
B. Supplementary Specs
C. General Conditions
D. None of these

48. A statement from the architect confirming the amount of money due the contractor for
work accomplished.
A. Billing
B. Verification for billing

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C. Certificate of payment
D. Change orders

49. Which of the following does not belong to Group 1?

A. Packaging plants
B. Warehouse
C. Public market
D. Dormitories

50. The Architect determines the adequate size and appropriate configuration and
assemblage for a proposed project in consideration of the use, allocation and interface
of spaces for given activities. Space planning is done mainly through primary data
gathering such as interviews, consultations, interfaces, focus group discussions (FGDs),
space planning surveys, space audits, etc. and subsequent analyses i.e. spatial layouts
with stacking concepts, particularly for multi-storey structures.
A. Architectural programming
B. Space planning
C. Design brief
D. Space management studies

51. Which are Pre-design services?

A. Economic Feasibility Studies & Project Financing
B. Architectural Programming & Site Selection and Analysis
C. Site Utilization and Land-Use Studies, Space Management Studies &
Promotional Services
D. All of these

52. An offer to perform the work prescribed in a contract at a specified cost.

A. Quotation
B. Bid
C. Invoice
D. Price list

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53. This method of compensation may be applied to government projects since they entail
more paper work and time-consuming efforts.
A. Professional fee plus expenses
B. Lump sum or fixed fee
C. Per diem
D. Mixed method

54. A bond furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee to execute the work
in accordance with the terms of the contract.
A. Performance bond
B. Proposal bond
C. Guarantee bond
D. Payment bond

55. The fee of the architect for design-build services by administration.

A. 7%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D. 15%

56. A stipulation of the use of specific products or processes without provision for
substitution.
A. Open specification
B. General specification
C. Closed specification
D. Detailed specification

57. This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work

A. Professional plus reimbursing expenses
B. Multiple of direct personnel expenses
C. Per Diem plus reimbursable expenses
D. Percentage of construction cost

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58. A list of instructions stipulating the manner on which bids are to be prepared.
A. Bid bulletin
B. General agreement
C. Instruction to bidders
D. Invitation to bid

59. The performance and Payment Bonds shall be released by the owner after the
expiration of how many months from the final acceptance of the work.
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 month
D. 6 months

60. These Buildings of exceptional character and complexity of plan / design which shall
include but not be limited to the following: Airports / Wet & Dry Ports & Terminals,
Mental Institutions, Aquariums, and Breweries.
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

61. How many days shall the Building Official issue a certificate of occupancy after final
inspection of the project.
A. 7 days
B. 12 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

62. A statute specifying the period of time within which legal action must be brought for
alleged damage or injury.
A. Surety
B. Statute of Limitation

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C. Penalty Clause
D. Arbitration

63. Building permit validity

A. 90 days
B. 365 days
C. 120 days
D. 2 years

64. A bond, the form or content of which is prescribed by statute.

A. Payment Bond
B. Statutory Bond
C. Guarantee Bond
D. Proposal Bond

65. Under the FCP, no single door in a doorway shall be less than:
A. 50 cm
B. 70 cm
C. 65 cm
D. 71 cm

66. This type of compensation is only applied to non-creative work.

A. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
B. Percentage of construction cost
C. Lump sum
D. Professional fee

67. Supervision Work is a non-creative work, true or false.

A. True
B. False
C. Not really
D. None of these

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68. This group belong to projects where the plan / design and related Contract
Documents are re-used for the repetitive construction of similar buildings without
amending the drawing and the specifications
A. Group 5
B. Group 6
C. Group 7
D. Group 8

69. Under the Fire Code of the Philippines, classification of occupancy, parking garages
shall be classified as:
A. Mercantile
B. Business
C. Storage
D. Industrial

70. Under the FCP, the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in
sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air is known as:
A. Electrical arc
B. Smelting
C. Flash point
D. Pyrophoric

71. A world-wide used method of compensation for architectural services.

A. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
B. Percentage of construction cost
C. Lump sum
D. Professional fee

72. This method of compensation is applied only to pre-design services, supervision work,
and other works which the Architect may perform other than the regular and specialized
allied services.
A. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses

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B. Percentage of construction cost

C. Lump sum
D. Professional fee

73. Building Code

A. PD 1185
B. PD 1096
C. PD 957
D. PD 49

74. Which are fire protection features or fire-fighting equipment?

A. Sprinkler Systems
B. Hose boxes
C. Hose reels and Standpipe
D. All of these

75. Professional Fee for the Architect as a full-time supervisor.

A. 1 - 1.5%
B. 1 – 2%
C. 2 - 5%
D. None of these

76. Submission of shop drawings shall be accompanied by a ___ in duplicate.

A. Letter of transmittal
B. Delivery note
C. Courier fee
D. None of these

77. For reimbursable expenses, how many kilometers from the Architect's office shall a
work be located to allow reimbursable expenses.
A. 50 kms.
B. 30 kms.

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C. 20 kms.
D. 10 kms.

78. This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship
on a series of projects.
A. Professional Fee Plus Expenses
B. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
C. Percentage of construction cost
D. Lump sum

79. The full-time construction inspector shall be under the technical control and
supervision of the ___.
A. Site supervisor
B. Contractor
C. Architect
D. Consultant

80. How many sets of shop drawings for approval shall the contractor submit to the
Architect?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

81. Who shall have the responsibility of securing, but not liable for non-issuance, of the
final occupancy permit.
A. Site supervisor
B. Contractor
C. Architect
D. Consultant

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82. True or false, can the owner relegate to the contractor the responsibility of
establishing the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the
owner pays the lot lines, boundary lines, easements, and benchmarks provided that the
owner pays the contractor for such works?
A. True
B. False
C. Not really
D. None of these

83. Who shall have the responsibility for establishing lot lines, boundary lines, easements,
and benchmarks?
A. Architect
B. Owner
C. Contractor
D. Consultant

84. Who shall pay for the services of a licensed surveyor for confirmation and certification
of the location of column centers, piers, walls, pits, trenches, pipe work, culvert work,
utility lines, and other similar works required by the contract?
A. Architect
B. Owner
C. Contractor
D. Consultant

85. What PD created the PRC which regulates the practice of various professionals?
A. PD 1096
B. PD 957
C. PD 49
D. PD 223

86. At what interest rate per month should a client pay the architect should the former fail
to pay the latter beyond 30 days from receipt of billing?

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A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 5%

87. Under PD 1096, what should be the proportion of sidewalk width to that of the road
right- of-way?
A. (1/3)
B. (1/6)
C. (2/3)
D. None of these

88. Professional fee for the Construction Manager.

A. 1 – 2%
B. 1.5 - 3%
C. 2 - 5%
D. None of these

89. Means to build-in, mount in position, connect or apply any object specified ready for
the intended use.
A. Install
B. Furnish
C. Provide
D. Construct

90. What type of compensation is applied to cases where the architect's personal time is
required, such as conferences, joint venture activities, etc.?
A. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
B. Percentage of construction cost
C. Lump sum
D. Per Diem + Reimburse Expenses

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91. Minimum Per diem paid to the architect if work is beyond 50 kms. From office.
A. PHP 500.00
B. PHP 600.00
C. PHP 750.00
D. PHP 1,000.00

92. His primary responsibility is the exercise of overall cost control which relieves the
owner of many of the anxieties that usually beset , particularly those concerned with
forecasting cost and completion dates.
A. Contractor
B. Site Engineer
C. Project Manager
D. Architect

93. Minimum basic fee for alterations/renovations.

A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 10%
D. 5%

94. What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from the contract?
A. Guarantee Bond
B. Payment Bond
C. Proposal bond
D. Bib bond

95. Architect XYZ uses paid advertisements without sanction by professional consensus
and years of experience. His action is unethical with respect to his relation to whom?
A. Public / People
B. Government
C. Profession
D. None of these

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96. What presidential decree institutionalized the profession of environmental planning?

A. PD 1308
B. PD 1096
C. PD 957
D. PD 49

97. If the Project Manager is hired by the owner, who shall have the responsibility of hiring
the Construction Manager?
A. Architect
B. Project Manager
C. Consultant
D. None of these

98. True or false, based on the Civil Code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility
insofar as design and construction is concerned.
A. True
B. False
C. Not really
D. None of these

99. In the architect's code of ethics, to whom does the architect has responsibility to seek
opportunities for constructive service in civic and urban affairs?
A. Government
B. Public / People
C. Colleagues
D. None of these

100. How many percent of the contract amount is the Performance Bond?
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 15%

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comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

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Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

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ANSWER KEY: 33. B 67. A

34. D 68. B
1. D 35. A 69. C
2. C 36. B 70. C
3. A 37. D 71. B
4. D 38. A 72. A
5. A 39. C 73. B
6. B 40. D 74. D
7. C 41. B 75. A
8. A 42. B 76. A
9. B 43. B 77. A
10. B 44. A 78. A
11. A 45. C 79. C
12. D 46. B 80. C
13. B 47. A 81. B
14. A 48. C 82. A
15. D 49. D 83. B
16. B 50. B 84. C
17. C 51. D 85. D
18. B 52. B 86. B
19. A 53. B 87. B
20. D 54. A 88. B
21. C 55. A 89. A
22. B 56. C 90. D
23. D 57. B 91. C
24. B 58. C 92. C
25. C 59. A 93. A
26. C 60. C 94. B
27. A 61. D 95. A
28. B 62. B 96. A
29. D 63. C 97. B
30. D 64. B 98. A
31. B 65. D 99. B
32. C 66. A 100. D

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 Republic of the Philippines
Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : SITE PLANNING & URBAN DESIGN

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Refers to those activities concerned with planning, development, and
management of social services, facilities required by specific population groups,
community, town, city, province, region, or nation.
A. Environmental Planning
B. Economic Planning
C. Social Planning
D. None of these

2. A term used in urban planning as a center of activity; distinguished from a

landmark by virtue of its active function; it is a distinct hub of activity.

A. Districts
B. Edges
C. Landmarks
D. Nodes

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3. It is defined by RA 7160, a minimum income of P20 M, at least 10,000 has. In
land area or minimum population of 150,000, a political or legal status granted by
the government.
A. City
B. Highly Urbanized City
C. Component City
D. Urban Area

4. They are the planning, regulatory and quasi-judicial instrumentality of

government for land use development in the Philippines.
A. HLURB
B. HUDCC
C. NEDA
D. None of these

5. It is the term used by HLURB as key to orderly and rational land development in
any local government unit, i.e. a city or municipality.
A. Organization
B. Planning
C. Land use plan
D. None of these

6. Which of the following is not part of maintaining a garden?

A. Watering and fertilizing
B. Pruning and Weeding
C. Monitoring and controlling insects and disease
D. None of these

7. This is a term used in site planning as major and minor routes of circulation to
move about, the city has a network of major routes and a neighborhood network

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 of minor routes; a building has several main routes which people use to get to it
or from it. An urban highway network is a network of pathways for a whole city.
A. Pathways
B. Districts
C. Edges
D. Landmarks

8. It prescribes the development pace, direction and strategies for the optimum use
of land resources in a community as well as its role in provincial and national
development.
A. CLUP (Comprehensive Land Use Plan)
B. HLURB – Housing & Land Use Regulatory Board
C. HUDCC – Housing and Urban Development Coordinating Council
D. None of these

9. A term used in landscaping as a row of closely planted trees or shrubs clipped into a
green wall. It creates an outdoor architectural feature.
A. Hedges
B. Treillage
C. Palisade
D. Espalier

10. A louvered awning the metal fins of which are angled to shade a window from
direct sunlight and glare while preserving the outside view and admitting soft,
diffused light.
A. Sunshade
B. Shutter panel
C. Shutter blind
D. Sun control

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11. These are the prominent visual features of the city; some are very large and are
seen at great distances; some are very small and can only be seen up close
(street clock, a fountain, or a small statue in a park). Landmarks help in orienting
people in the city and help identify an area.

A. Pathways
B. Districts
C. Edges
D. Landmarks

12. This refers to those activities concerned with uplifting the quality of life and
income levels of the population through assessment of advantages from
economic activities in either: agriculture, industry, tourism, services, etc.
A. Environmental Planning
B. Economic Planning
C. Social Planning
D. None of these

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13. What is the land use map color code for RESIDENTIAL?

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green

14. A panel of miniature external louvers for shading a window from direct sunlight
and glare while allowing a high degree of visibility.
A. Sun control
B. Shutter blind
C. Brise-soliel
D. Solar screen

15. A point representing the intersection of the central axis of vision and the picture
plane in linear perspective.
A. Station point
B. Cone of vision
C. Center of vision
D. Sightline

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16. Proposed the Linear City that would serve as a satellite to the city of Madrid
A. Jose Marseilles
B. Diego San Andres
C. Geoffrey Selecios
D. Soria Y Mata

17. The planner who coined the term “conurbation”.

A. Clarence Perry
B. Patrick Gaddes
C. Edward Ullman
D. Francois Blondel

18. The highway should be the spine of communications which would provide access
to industry and housing bordering upon it.
A. Daniel Burnham
B. Ian Bently
C. Soria Y Mata
D. Frank Floyd Wright

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19. “ La Ville Contemporaine “ The city for tomorrow for 3,000,000 people. Sixty-
storey office building with the density of 1, 200 persons per acre and covering
only five percent of the ground area set within landscape open space. The hub of
the plan is the transportation center for motor and rail lines, that proof of which is
the air field, main highways are elevated.
A. Daniel Burnham
B. Le Corbusier
C. Ian Bently
D. Soria Y Mata

20. “ Make no little plans “

A. Daniel Burnham
B. Le Corbusier
C. Ian Bently
D. Soria Y Mata

21. A term used in landscaping as a row of closely planted shrubs or low-growing

trees forming a fence, wall or boundary. As a hallway marker it directs
movement through the garden.
A. Allee
B. Hedge
C. Tapis Vert
D. Parterre

22. What is the land use map color code for INSTITUTIONAL?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green

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23. The time of the year, on or about June 21 when the sun reaches its
northernmost point on the celestial sphere, marking the beginning of summer in
the northern hemisphere is known as
A. Equinox
B. Summer solstice
C. Winter solstice
D. Horizontal difference

24. Broadacres is essentially a “linear “city form. It distributes industries, commerce,

housing, social facilities and agriculture along the railroad artery and its access to
highways. The unit dominates this plan is the minimum of one acre of the land for
each family rather than the neighborhood unit.
A. Daniel Burnham
B. Ian Bently
C. Soria Y Mata
D. Frank Floyd Wright

25. Emphasized five general features of a good city planning, namely: permeability,
variety, legibility, robustness and visual appropriateness.
A. Frank Floyd Wright
B. Le Corbusier
C. Ian Bently
D. Soria Y Mata

26. Allow for the integration for the variety of uses such as residential, commercial,
recreational, open space within the site at relatively higher densities.
A. Mixed-used Development
B. TND
C. Cluster Development
D. TOD

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27. The side of a building that receives the most solar radiation and therefore the
hottest side is the
A. Northeast facing side of the building
B. Southeast facing side of the building
C. Northwest facing side of the building
D. Southwest facing side of the building

28. For Southwest facing side of a building it is best to use _____ type of
sunshades to protect the building from unnecessary heat gain due to direct solar
radiation.

A. Eggcrate
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Horizontal louvers

29. To produce a relatively high wind speed in MOST of the room, the
A. Air inlet must be the same size as the outlet

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 B. Air inlet must be larger than the outlet
C. There must be no outlet
D. Air inlet must be smaller than the outlet

30. The science or art of cultivating fruits, vegetables, flowers, or ornamental plants.
A. Landscaping
B. Horticulture
C. Urban Planning
D. Agriculture

31. It refers to a document embodying a set of policies accompanied by maps and

similar illustrations which represent the community desired pattern of population
distribution and a proposal for the future allocation of land to the various land-
using activities.
A. Zoning
B. Land Classification
C. Land Use Plan
D. None of these

32. For East facing side of a building it is best to use ______ type of sunshades to
protect the building from unnecessary heat gain due to direct solar radiation.
A. Eggcrate
B. Bris soliel
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal

33. He proposed regular street layout along gridiron patterns.

A. Socrates
B. Vitruvius
C. Aristotle
D. Hippodamus

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34. It is an important component of growth management because it helps focus the
community’s development initiatives on the existing fabric of the town or city
rather than focusing on the undeveloped land.
A. Mixed-used Development
B. Cluster Development
C. TOD
D. None of the above

35. Emerged during the medieval times as the first “university town”
A. Venice
B. Versailles
C. Genoas
D. Vienna

36. The main proponent of the urban realms model of urban development.
A. James Vance
B. E.W. Burgess
C. Charney Harris
D. Homer Hoyt

37. Designer of Laguna West in California

A. Peter Kafz
B. Andres Duany
C. Peter Calthrope
D. Edwin Hall

38. Built at a neighborhood scale or larger, focus on the pedestrian, and include a
mixed of land uses and housing types.
A. Mixed-used Development
B. Cluster Development

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 C. TND
D. TOD

39. According to Eliel Saarinen;

A. In the creating of health environment natures collaboration is not only
important, but also indispensable
B. Every community needs a symbol of its existence much of modern
community frustration has come into being because a symbol of the visual
meaning for its life is missing. Because no symbol is found, there is no
center on which to focus life.
C. In every historical epoch except our own, the cultivated and influential
person, the civilized, polite and urban citizen, inevitable lived within the
city.
D. All of the above

40. The ideal size of a city or polis; less than 10,000 people are too few to
constitute a viable political entity and more than 20,000 are too unwieldy.
A. Socrates
B. Vitruvius
C. Arsitotle
D. Hippodamus

41. Introduced the idea of major and minor streets- too many streets at right angles.
They were called a “Cardo “and decumanus and divided the town into four
quarters.
A. Greeks
B. Egyptians
C. Filipinos
D. Romans

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42. Point reference external to observer that may vary widely in scale
A. Paths
B. Nodes
C. Edges
D. Landmarks

43. He coined the term “connurbation” to describe the waves of population inflow to
large cities.
A. Patrick Geddes
B. Barry Parker
C. Robert Owen
D. Ebnezzer Howard

44. What is the ideal distances and travel time for Residential Zones to Health
Centre (Hospitals)?
A. 750m or 15mins; minor CBD: 12kms or 15-30mins; major CBD: 45-
60mins
B. 5mins travel or 15mins on foot
C. Minimum of 800m or 10-20mins travel time
D. Minimum of 15mins by public transport

45. The smallest in geographical size among Metro Manila’s cities and
municipalities
A. Pateros
B. Taguig
C. Marikina
D. Manila

46. City shape that develops its form from transportation spines or natural valleys
A. Sheet
B. Branch

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 C. Radiocentric
D. Linear

47. It is the horticultural and ancient agricultural practice of controlling woody plant
growth for the production of fruit, by pruning and tying branches to a frame.

A. Hedge
B. Topiary
C. Espalier
D. Bush

48. It refers to lands devoted to agricultural activity and not classified as mineral,
forest, residential, commercial or industrial land.
A. Acquifer Recharge
B. Agricultural Land
C. Environmentally Critical Areas
D. None of these

49. Concept coined by Jean Gottman for urban complexes in the Northeastern
United States
A. Metropolis
B. Acropolis
C. Megapolis
D. Polis

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50. A map that shows analysis of soil and slope of an area.
A. Land capability map
B. Development constraints map
C. Erosion hazard map
D. None of these

51. Early type of settlement in the Americas taken after the “baug” (military town)
and “fauborg” (citizen’s town) of the medieval ages
A. Medieval organic city
B. The European Planned City
C. Medieval bastide
D. The Speculator’s Town

52. Under the National Govt/DAR, it is the act of putting a piece or parcel of land
into a type of use other than that for which it is currently being utilized.
A. Zoning
B. Land Use Conversion
C. Land Classification
D. None of these

53. The most important key to this element is singularity

A. Paths
B. Districts
C. Nodes
D. Landmarks

54. One of Bentley’s 7 levels of responsive environments that can be translated to

space flexibility
A. Variety
B. Legibility

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 C. Robustness
D. Richness

55. Which of the following is not an example of the European planned community of
the settlements of Americas?
A. Boston
B. Savannah
C. Williamsburg
D. Charleston
56. Covered markets in early Roman Cities that later became law courts; integral
element of the Roman forum
A. Domus
B. Insulae
C. Curia
D. Basilica

57. This refers to activities concerned with the management and development of
land, as well as, the preservation, conservation, and rehabilitation of the human
environment.

A. Environmental Planning
B. Economic Planning
C. Social Planning
D. None of these

58. Author of the “New Town’s Act” in England in the 1940s

A. Gruen
B. Silken
C. Sitte
D. Abercrombie

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59. The design of this city in France highlighted the emergence of landscape
architecture as an urban design component
A. Karlsruhe
B. Versailles
C. Vienna
D. Paris

60. The ideal population size of the mother city in the garden cities cluster
A. 25,000
B. 30,000-32,000
C. 58,000-65,000
D. 80,000-100,000

61. Who was the architect/planner of Philamlife Homes?

A. Juan Arellano
B. Carlor Arguelles
C. Amang Parica
D. William Parsons

62. Landscape architect involved in the master plan of Quezon City

A. Harry Frost
B. Louis Croft
C. Frederick Law Olmstead
D. Zeny Galingan

63. It is defined by NSO: in their entirety, all cities and municipalities with a density
of at least 1000/sq km; central districts (poblaciones) of municipalities and cities
with a density of at least 500/sq km; central districts, regardless of population
size, exhibiting a street pattern or street network, at least 6 establishments, a
town hall, church or chapel, public plaza, park, cemetery, market; and barangays
having at least 1000 people and meeting the previous conditions.

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 A. City
B. Highly Urbanized City
C. Component City
D. Urban Area

64. Filipino architect involved in the master plan of Quezon City

A. Juan Arellano
B. Carlos Arguelles
C. Cesar Concio
D. Juan Nakpil

65. First introduced housing variations and specialized buildings into town planning
A. Romans
B. Greeks
C. Egyptians
D. Feudal Lords

66. Renaissance city that epitomized Landscape design as an integral part of town
designs
A. Venice
B. Versailles
C. Genoas
D. Vienna

67. Acknowledged as the oldest city in the history of settlements

A. Babylon
B. Eridu
C. Constantinople
D. Mohenjo-Daro

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68. Target vacant, under-utilized sites within designated growth of urban areas and
outline strategies to promote higher densities of development within these sites.
A. Mixed-used Development
B. Cluster Development
C. TND
D. None of the above

69. Author of “Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Social Reform” and main proponent of
the Garden Cities
A. Robert Owen
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. James Oglethorpe
D. Soria Y Mata

70. The first garden city designed by Raymund Unwin and Barry Parker
A. Welwyn
B. Hampstead
C. Letchworth
D. Windsor

71. Designed Brasilia, the new capital of Brazil during the City Beautiful Era
A. Albert Meyer
B. Edward Lutyens
C. Le Corbusier
D. Lucio Costa

72. Frank Lloyd Wright’s project proposal that would allot one acre of land to each
American family
A. Le Contemporaine
B. Unite Habitation

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 C. Broadacres
D. Aereville

73. Proposed the “Aerology Alternative” or 3D City

A. Soria Y Mata
B. Paolo Soleri
C. Frank Lloyd Wright
D. Kiyonori Kikutake

74. Propose the first “Floating City” as an alternative to land reclamation

A. Soria Y Mata
B. Paolo Soleri
C. Frank Lloyd Wright
D. Kiyonori Kikutake

75. Believed that planning should first start at the micro level and thus designed the
“neighborhood unit”
A. Clarence Perry and Clarence Stein
B. Frank Lloyd Wright and Louis Sullivan
C. Ebenezer Howard
D. Louis Kahn

76. Urban planner and designer famous for his words “Make little plans, they have
no magic to stir men’s blood”
A. Le Corbusier
B. Daniel Burnham
C. Parsons
D. Ebenezer Howard

77. Acknowledged as the icon of middle class suburbanization during the 1950s
A. Projects 1 to 8

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 B. Forbes Park
C. Philam-life Homes
D. Quezon City

78. Largest in land area among Metro Manila’s 12 cities

A. City of Manila
B. Kalookan City
C. Quezon City
D. Muntinlupa City

79. Among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as lateral references that
are not coordinate axes
A. Paths
B. Edges
C. Nodes
D. Districts

80. Among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as intensive foci from
which the object is travelling
A. Paths
B. Edges
C. Nodes
D. Districts

81. Architect and urban designer who worked on the design of Shanghai; author of
“Designing Cities”
A. Edmund Bacon
B. Jane Jacobs
C. Camillo Sitte
D. Peter Wong

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82. The practice of forming beds of low-growing foliage plants, all of an even height,
in patterns that resemble a carpet both in intricacy of design and in uniformity of
surface. Designs can vary from geometrical shapes to images and lettered
inscriptions.
A. Lawn
B. Carpet Bedding
C. Meadow
D. Parterre

83. What type of urban design plan the Quezon City was designed after?
A. City Beautiful Movement
B. New Capital
C. The Garden City
D. The Neighborhood Unit

84. The tendency of air or gas in a shaft or other vertical space to rise when heated,
creating a draft that draws in cooler air or gas from below is known as
A. Vertical gas draft
B. Chimney effect
C. Air change
D. Shaft exchange

85. The shape of urban cities formed by two corridors of intense development
crossing the center
A. Radiocentric
B. Rectilinear
C. Articulated sheet
D. Linear

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86. Under the principles of design components in landscaping, it differentiates the
more important from the less important. It is created by increasing the
dominance of certain elements and the subordination of minor elements.

A. Emphasis
B. Proportion
C. Repetition
D. Rhythm

87. The third level of Ian Bentley’s responsive environments; important in terms of
physical form and activity patterns
A. Permeability
B. Legibility
C. Robustness
D. Richness

88. According to Ian Bentley, responsive environments that focus on details, with a
wide vocabulary of visual cue possess
A. Legibility
B. Variety
C. Visual appropriateness
D. Personalization

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89. Under the principles of design components in landscaping, it is restraint,
moderation, and fitness of design. These qualities give permanence to the work
of great architects and landscape architects.

A. Variety
B. Simplicity
C. Sequence
D. Symmetry

90. Human comfort as determined by the ability of the body to dissipate the heat
and moisture it produces by metabolic action is known as
A. Vertical gas shaft
B. Cooling effect
C. Comfort differential
D. Thermal comfort

91. What is the ideal distances and travel time for Residential Zones to
Neighborhood Center?
A. 750m or 15mins; minor CBD: 12kms or 15-30mins; major CBD: 45-
60mins
B. 5mins travel or 15mins on foot
C. Minimum of 800m or 10-20mins travel time
D. Minimum of 15mins by public transport

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92. World fair in Chicago 1891, setting off the City Beautiful Era
A. The Columbian Exposition
B. World Cities Expo
C. The White City
D. City Beautiful Movement

93. The prevailing wind in the Philippines from November to April, also known as
the Amihan comes from the
A. Southwest
B. Southeast
C. Northwest
D. Southeast

94. Designed the Garden City of Welwyn

A. Unwin and Parker
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. Louis de Soisson
D. Clarence Perry

95. The angular elevation of a celestial body above the horizon is known as the
A. Azimuth
B. Equinox
C. Altitude
D. Horizontal difference

96. Acknowledged as the oldest continually inhabited city in the world

A. Babylon
B. Eridu
C. Damascus
D. Athens

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97. Which of the following configuration of fins produce the best wind circulation
within a room?
Fig. a Fig. b Fig. c

A. Fig. A
B. Fig. B
C. Fig. C
D. None of the above

98. Designed the reconstruction of Paris using the principles of the city beautiful
movement
A. John Nash
B. Daniel Burnham
C. Charles Buckingham
D. Baron Hausmann

99. Leader of the Reform Movements during the Industrial Revolution

A. Robert Owen
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. James Oglethorpe
D. Soria Y Mata

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 100. Based on the fig. what is the required width of sunshade for the figure
below on October 16, 10am?

A. 0.87m
B. 1.85m
C. 1.10M
D. None of the above

A. Soria Y Mata

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

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ANSWER KEY: 34. D 68. D
1. C 35. D 69. B
2. D 36. C 70. C
3. A 37. C 71. D
4. A 38. C 72. C
5. B 39. A 73. B
6. D 40. C 74. D
7. A 41. D 75. A
8. A 42. D 76. B
9. C 43. A 77. B
10. B 44. C 78. C
11. D 45. A 79. B
12. B 46. D 80. C
13. B 47. C 81. A
14. B 48. B 82. B
15. C 49. C 83. A
16. D 50. C 84. B
17. B 51. A 85. B
18. C 52. A 86. A
19. B 53. D 87. B
20. A 54. S 88. C
21. B 55. A 89. B
22. C 56. D 90. D
23. B 57. A 91. A
24. D 58. B 92. A
25. C 59. B 93. B
26. A 60. C 94. C
27. D 61. B 95. C
28. A 62. B 96. C
29. D 63. D 97. A
30. B 64. A 98. D
31. C 65. A 99. A
32. C 66. B 100. C
33. D 67. B

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 1

Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : SITE PLANNING & URBAN DESIGN

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. First conceptualized the “Garden Cities”; and author of “Tomorrow: A Peaceful
Path to Social Reform”.

A. Ebenezer Howard
B. Daniel Schereber
C. Patrick Geddes
D. Charles Eliot

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 2

2. A term used to a person who helps people find a place to live, specializing and
matching wants of buyers with the local supply. Their mission is to complete
documentation for a real estate transaction between the buyer and seller.
A. Real Estate Agent
B. Real Estate Broker
C. Real Estate Salesperson
D. All of these

3. Le Corbusier planned a high density building that was a “super building” that
contained 337 dwellings in only ten acres of land. What is this structure that
supposed to be located in Marseilles?

A. Letchworth
B. Unite d’ Habitation
C. Une Ville Contemporaine
D. None of these

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 3

4. What type of urban design plan the Quezon City was designed after?

A. City Beautiful Movement

B. New Capital
C. The Garden City
D. The Neighborhood Unit

5. Which building component receives priority over the location to have the morning
sun?
A. Bedrooms
B. Kitchen
C. Living Area
D. Garage

6. Urban Planning is defined briefly as the guidance of ___.

A. Orientation
B. Growth and Change
C. Success
D. Progress

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 4

7. Designed the reconstruction of Paris using the principles of the city beautiful
movement?
A. John Nash
B. Daniel Burnham
C. Charles Buckingham
D. Baron Hausmann

8. A lattice structure that serves as a summer house.

A. Club house
B. Cottage
C. Gazebo
D. Tent

9. Renaissance city that epitomized Landscape design as an integral part of town

designs.
A. Venice
B. Versailles
C. Genoas
D. Vienna

10. In landscaping, ground cover is represented by ___.

A. Grass and Plants
B. Stones and pebbles
C. Water feature
D. Bushes

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 5

11. The art of arranging buildings and other structures in harmony with the
landscape.
A. Urban Planning
B. Site Planning
C. Schematic Design
D. City Planning

12. A wide area of parks of undeveloped land surrounding a community.

A. Greens
B. Marshland
C. Greenbelt
D. None of these

13. The process in which a piece of land, referred to as the parent tract, is
subdivided into two or more parcels.
A. Cutting
B. Sub-dividing
C. Platting
D. Surveying

14. Filipino architect involved in the master plan of Quezon City

A. Juan Arellano
B. Carlos Arguelles
C. Cesar Concio
D. Juan Nakpil

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 6

15. The shape of urban cities formed by two corridors of intense development
crossing the center.

A. Radiocentric
B. Rectilinear
C. Articulated sheet
D. Linear

16. Approaches town planning as a science which include planning and design with
the contribution of other disciplines, all of those are focused into one science
known as____________.
A. Ekistics
B. Utopianism
C. Garden Cities
D. Ecclesiastics

17. In the Philippines, this type of land use planning emphasizes the proper
management of land resources to ensure that the present generation can benefit
from its continued use without compromising future generations.
A. Sustainable Land Use Plan
B. Farm land development

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 7

C. Urban Planning
D. Utopia

18. Angles measured clockwise from any meridian, usually north; however, the
National Geodetic Survey uses south.

A. Azimuths
B. Compass
C. Zenith
D. Nadir

19. Written document to transfer the property to one person to another.

A. TCT
B. Contract
C. Deed
D. Invoice

20. A Land Development Decision is also what kind of decision.

A. Urban Flow
B. Circulation
C. Traffic
D. Walkable

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 8

21. Under PD 1308, which of the following activities is not a part of the practice of
environmental planning?
A. National Development Planning
B. Development of a community, town, city or region
C. Development of a site for a particular need such as housing, centers for
activities concerned with research, education, culture, recreation, etc.
D. Land use and zoning plans for the management and development
preservation, conservation, rehabilitation, and control of the environment.

22. This is a type of a retaining wall made of rectangular baskets made of

galvanized steel wire or PVC coated wire hexagonal mesh which are filled with
stones to form a wall.

A. Brick Wall
B. Rip rap
C. Gabion Wall
D. Shear Wall

23. A very steep slope of rock or clay.

A. Cliff
B. Mountain

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 9

C. Sea-shore
D. Hills

24. An English Architect who prepared plan for London i.e., Ct. Peter’s and St. Paul
Cathedral; Proposed a Network of avenues connecting the main features of
London.
A. Sir Christopher Wren
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Daniel Burnham
D. Soria Y Mata

25. Point reference external to observer that may vary widely in scale

A. Paths
B. Nodes
C. Edges
D. Landmarks

26. It can greatly affect the urban patterns circulation system, building form and
texture, utility systems, size and shape.
A. Star
B. Relationship with nature
C. Topography
D. Radiocentric

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 10

27. A piece of grassy land, especially one used for growing hay or as pasture for
grazing animals; low grassy land near a river or stream.

A. Farm
B. Meadow
C. Green belt
D. Marshland

28. A tool used to control the manner in which raw kind is subdivided and placed on
the marker for residential development.
A. Subdivision Regulations
B. Mohon
C. Lot Plan
D. Land Regulations

29. In the book called “The Neighborhood Unit” he discussed the idea of organized
towns into cohesive neighborhoods which was applicable not only to new towns
but to large city areas.
A. Kiyonori Kikutake
B. Edgar Chambless
C. Paolo Soleri
D. Clearance Perry

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 11

30. Constellation of cities around a main

center.
A. Constellation
B. Satellite
C. Articulated Sheet
D. Sheet

31. It is usually the last stage of the final site development process prior to issuance
of building permit.
A. Construction Drawing
B. Site Plan
C. Final Plat
D. Subdivision Plan

32. A long, narrow chain of hills or mountains.

A. Cliffs
B. Plateau
C. Ridge
D. Marshland

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 12

33. An efficient and rapid transport system for automobiles to circulate across
urban to urban areas.
A. High-way
B. Freeways
C. Local Street
D. Expressway

34. Among the cities in Manila, what is the smallest in terms of land area?
A. Pateros
B. Taguig
C. Marikina
D. Quezon City

35. He is remembered for his “Ideal Cities” – star shaped plans with street radiating
from central point, usually proposed for a church, palace or castle.
A. Brunelleschi Filippo
B. Leon Battista Alberti
C. Bramante
D. Andrea Palladio

36. The orderly arrangement of urban streets and public spaces.

A. City Planning
B. Urban Planning
C. Site Development
D. Subdivision Plan

37. The science of human settlement.

A. Utopianism
B. Garden Cities
C. Ekistics
D. Ecclesiastics

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 13

38. A 20th century problem emanating from rapid urbanization of areas surrounding
a city which eats up the remaining adjacent rural open spaces.

A. Overpopulation
B. Urbanization
C. Urban Decay
D. Urban Sprawl

39. The improvement of slum, deteriorated, and underutilized areas of a city.

A. Urban Renewal
B. Conservation
C. Adaptive Reuse
D. Rehabilitation

40. A type of planning which emphasizes that the proper role of the planner is not to
serve the general public interest but rather to serve the interests of the least
fortunate or least well represented groups in society.
A. Methodism
B. Utopianism
C. Advocacy Planning
D. Radical Planning

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41. Closely related to education and worshipping functions and too often sacrificed
in favor of temporary economic concerns.
A. Economic
B. Education
C. Housing
D. Cultural

42. Formulated by economist Homer Hoyt in 1939. Developed under the premise
that other uses grow with the CBD in specific directions, often following rail or
highway arteries, high or low ground or simply clustering on the same side of the
city.

A. Urban Models
B. Multiple Nuclei Model
C. Sector Models
D. Urban Realms

43. This code mandates that all Local Government Units shall prepare their
comprehensive land use plans and enact them through zoning ordinances.
A. Local Govt Code, 1991 – RA 7160
B. HUDCC
C. NHA
D. HLURB

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44. The rough equivalent of the present tenement cities that existed in ancient
Rome, which resulted from the population growth of the city and the congestion
that existed in streets.

A. Eridu
B. Insula
C. Babylon
D. Jericho

45. It is the rate at which water within the soil moves through a given volume of
material (also measured in cm or inches per hour).
A. Legibility
B. Richness
C. Permeability
D. Variety

46. In urban geography, a concept where urban settlement is confined to the area
within the legal limits of the city and the congestion and virtually all of this area is
occupied by urban residents.

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A. Truebounded City
B. Metropolis
C. Conurbation
D. Radial Planning

47. It is the landscaping; bodies of water, nature in general and its relationship with
the urban fabric are significant features of a city.
A. Star
B. Relationship with nature
C. Topography
D. Radiocentric

48. Refers to the program of the NHA of upgrading and improving blighted squatter
areas within the cities and municipalities of Metro Manila pursuant to existing
statutes and issuances. (R.A. 7279)
A. ZIP or Zonal Improvement Program
B. CARL or Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
C. Equitable Acquisition
D. Urbanizable

49. He conceptualized the 'City Beautiful Movement'.

A. Richard Norman Shaw
B. Antonio Gaudi
C. Le Corbusier
D. Daniel Burnham

50. A profession which falls between planning and architecture. It deals with the
large-scale organization and design of the city, with the massing and
organization and the space between them, but not with the design of the
individual buildings.
A. Landscape Design

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B. Urban Design
C. Architecture
D. Developer

51. The author of “The Death and Life of Great American Cities” – one of the most
influential book in the history of planning.
A. Robert Owens
B. Tony Garnier
C. Paolo Soleri
D. Jane Jacobs

52. It is similar to floor area ration but it is established by dividing the area of the
total floor-space of the buildings on any particular site by the site area, including
half the area of any roads adjoining it.
A. Urban Design Guidelines
B. Floor Space Index (FSI)
C. Environmental Impact Statement
D. Urban Development Strategies

53. By definition, settlement inhabited by man.

A. Human Settlement
B. Community
C. City
D. Megalopolis

54. Planning for roads, bridges, schools, parking structures, public buildings, water
supply, and waste disposal facilities.
A. Capital Facilities Planning
B. Urban Planning
C. City Planning
D. Districts

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55. The conversion of buildings into different uses without significantly altering the
structure.
A. Urban renewal
B. Adaptive Reuse
C. Rehabilitation
D. Conservation

56. The container of man, which consists of both the natural and man-made or
artificial element.
A. Physical Settlement
B. Artificial Settlement
C. Housing
D. Hamlet

57. A spatial organization concept a

general view of the pattern of land use
in a city developed by Ernest W.
Burgess. The city is conceived as a
series of five concentric zones with the
cores as the central business district
and fanning out from which are the
residential and commuter zones.

A. Sector Model
B. Multiple Nuclei Model
C. Concentric Zone Concept
D. Urban Realms

58. A long, deep, narrow valley eroded by running water.

A. Ravine

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B. Stream
C. Rives
D. Plateau

59. Whose theory is the explanation of

residential land uses in terms of wedge-
shaped sectors radial to the city center
along established lines of
transportation?
A. EW Burgees
B. Homey Hoyt
C. Friedrich Engels
D. Hippodamus of Miletus

60. He is the author of the Design of the Cities 1967.

A. Buckminster Fuller
B. Edmund Norwood Bacon
C. Constantinos Doxiadis
D. Sir Leslie Patrick Abercrombie

61. The remaining space in a lot after deducting the required minimum open
spaces.
A. Sealable Area
B. Buildable Area
C. Set-back
D. Green Area

62. A habitable room for 1 family only with facilities for living, sleeping, cooking, and
eating.
A. Ancillary Unit
B. Dwelling Unit

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C. House
D. Condo

63. A British pioneered in regional planning for the Doncaster area (1920-1922) and
East Kent; Involved in greater London Plan; Use of open space as structuring
element.
A. Edmund Bacon
B. Tony Garnier
C. Jane Jacobs
D. Leslie Patrick Abercombie

64. It is the first developed Garden City where it is a combination of landscaping,

informal street layouts, and main axis focusing on town center.
A. Three Magnets
B. Broadacre City
C. Mile High Tower
D. Letchworth

65. This process means selecting a site that suits best the given use and
requirements of the project.
A. Site Planning
B. Site Selection Process
C. Geology
D. Geomorphology

66. On land, an encumbrance limiting its use, usually imposed for community or
mutual protection.
A. Restriction
B. Rules and Regulations
C. Boundary
D. Allowable

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67. Of land, a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, which is subject
to a single ownership, and which is legally recorded as a single piece.
A. Lot area
B. Parcel
C. Border
D. TCT

68. The one who believed in curving forms rather than formal grid patterns.
A. Lewis Silkin
B. Francois Perroux
C. Sir Frederic James Osborn
D. John Nash

69. A wall that serves 2 dwelling units, known also as party wall.
A. Partition Wall
B. Division Wall
C. Common Wall
D. None of these

70. It is the natural science that studies the Waters of the Earth and their reaction to
the living environment including their relation to all living things.
A. Vegetation
B. Soil Erosion
C. Hydrology
D. Hydrologic Cycle

71. In architectural terms, it is the relationship of the number of residential

structures and people to a given amount of space.
A. Land Use

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B. Density
C. Urbanism
D. Population

72. Niemeyer believed that relating large areas to each other is freedom as in the
planned city of___.

A. Brasilia
B. Baguio
C. Canberra
D. New York

73. The government arm responsible for the development and implementation of
low cost housing in the Philippines.
A. National Shelter Program
B. NHA
C. HLURB
D. DENR

74. When was the first Land Use zoning in New York initiated particularly the
Incentive zoning?
A. 1916
B. 1850
C. 2011
D. 1920

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75. The city of Washington conforms to the plan type of ___.

A. Rectilinear
B. Star
C. Satellite
D. Branch

76. Housing provided for low-income groups generally through government

intervention and characterized by substantial subsidies and direct assistance.
A. Condominium
B. Apartment
C. Row House
D. Social Housing

77. It is an environmental engineering where plants reduce reflection caused by

sunlight.
A. Erosion Control
B. Noise
C. Glare and Reflection
D. Air Purification

78. The first documented early settlement

with street in Cyprus dated 5500 B.C.

A. Jericho
B. Khirokitia
C. Catalhoyuk
D. Eridu

79. A written agreement between parties, but it allows a specific period during
which the buyer can investigate the property and make a decision.

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A. Option to buy
B. Pre-selling
C. Turn-over
D. Open-house Visit

80. He is the pioneer of the American park system. He is also a farmer, landscape
designs as solution to social ills (ex. Urban Park)
A. Daniel Schreber
B. Frederick Law Olmstead
C. Charles Eliot
D. Jens Jensen

81. It refers to activities concerned with the management and development of lands,
as well as the preservation, conservation, and rehabilitation of the human
environment
A. Physical Planning
B. Social Planning
C. Environmental Planning
D. Economic Planning

82. It is derived from the science of cybernetics : cybernetics was identified by

Norman Weiner in 1948, an American mathematician and thinker.
A. Systems Planning
B. Comprehensive Planning
C. Central Pole Theory
D. Core Periphery

83. It is defined by NSO, in their entirety, all cities and municipalities with a density
of at least 1000/sqkm - exhibiting a street pattern or street network
A. City
B. Highly Urbanized Area

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C. Component City
D. Urban Area

84. What is not part of the image of the city?

A. Pathways and Districts
B. Edges and Landmarks
C. Nodes and Pathways
D. None of these

85. Land use map color code for Industrial.

A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Violet
D. Blue

86. The National Housing Authority is the sole government agency engaged in
direct shelter production focused on providing housing assistance to the lowest
30% of urban income-earners through slum upgrading, squatter relocation,
development of sites and services, and construction of core housing units. It
Undertakes programs for the improvement of blighted urban areas and provides
technical assistance for private developers undertaking low-cost housing
projects.
A. HUDCC
B. NHA
C. HGC
D. HLURB

87. What is the difference between Urban Design and Urban Planning?
A. Urban Design focuses on the physical improvement of the public
environment, while Urban Planning focuses on the management of private
development through established planning methods and programs.

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B. Urban Design focuses on the physical improvement of the public

environment, while Urban Planning focuses on the circulation of the city.
C. Urban Design is designing public environment, while Urban Planning is
management of private development.
D. None of these

88. It is influenced by the world fairs of the late 19th century, like the 1891
Columbian Exposition, Chicago. Emphasis was on grand formal designs, with
wide boulevards, civic spaces, arts, etc.

A. The City Beautiful Movement

B. The City of Towers
C. Broadacres
D. The Mile High Tower

89. As per the LGU record for the last 2 consecutive years based on 2000 constact
prices, what should be the income of the local government to become a city?
A. 250,000
B. 150,000
C. 25,000
D. 5,000

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90. The theory of Hippodamus of Miletus, which says the center of the city contains
the agora (market place), theaters, and temples. Public rooms surround the city’s
public arena. The plan can be laid out uniformly over any kind of terrain since it
is based on angles and measurements.
A. Concentric Zone Theory
B. Sector Theory
C. Multiple Nuclei Theory
D. Gridiron Model

91. Urban form and function where a large circle with radial corridors of intense
development emanating from the center.

A. Radiocentric
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Satellite

92. Major Planning Theory which believes that planning is most effective when it
proposes sweeping changes that capture the public imagination. Daniel
Burnham’s Plan of Chicago, Frank Lloyd Wright’s Broadacre City, and Le
Corbusier’s La Ville Contemporaine are often cited as utopian works.
A. Utopianism
B. Methodism
C. Radical Planning
D. Incrementalism

93. It is an Urban Ecological Process which is “Forcing” the old population out of the
area because of social or racial differences.
A. Invasion
B. Centralization

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C. Block-boosting
D. Gentrification

94. This is one of the criteria for responsive environment, which describes building
and outdoor spaces the design of which does not limit users to a single fixed use
but, rather, supports many different.
A. Permeability
B. Variety
C. Legibility
D. Robustness

95. The largest city of Metro Manila.

A. Caloocan
B. Quezon City
C. Pasig
D. Marikina

96. During 2000 to 4000 b.c. Under the history of settlements, this is known to
have the largest city with 80,000 inhabitants.
A. City of Eridu
B. City of Damascus
C. City of Babylon
D. None of these

97. This is the business, financial, commercial, convention, and recreational center
of the Metropolitan Region covering an area of 979 hectares. Begun by the Ayala
conglomerate in 1948.
A. Manila CBD
B. Ortigas CBD
C. Makati CBD
D. Fort Bonifacio Global City

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98. Theory of Frank Lloyd Wright which

Proposed to house a significant
amount of Manhattan residents to free
up space for greenfields. 10 or more
of these could possibly replace all
Manhattan building.

A. The City Beautiful Movement

B. The City of Towers
C. Broadacres
D. The Mile High Tower

99. Under the Philippine early settlement, it is the result of several ordinances of the
Laws of Indies. It is surrounded by important buildings such as: church, town
hall, marketplace, schools, etc.
A. The Plaza Complex
B. The Rotunda
C. The Casa
D. None of these

100. The place in Manila where the trading port is located which developed by
the Chinese and Arabs.
A. Quiapo
B. Binondo
C. Sta. Cruz
D. Sampaloc

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Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

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ANSWER KEY: 34. A 68. D

1. A 35. B 69. C
2. D 36. A 70. C
3. B 37. C 71. B
4. C 38. D 72. A
5. A 39. A 73. A
6. B 40. C 74. A
7. D 41. D 75. B
8. C 42. C 76. D
9. D 43. A 77. C
10. A 44. B 78. B
11. B 45. C 79. A
12. C 46. A 80. B
13. C 47. B 81. C
14. A 48. A 82. A
15. B 49. D 83. D
16. A 50. B 84. D
17. A 51. D 85. C
18. A 52. B 86. B
19. C 53. A 87. A
20. C 54. A 88. A
21. A 55. B 89. B
22. C 56. A 90. D
23. A 57. C 91. A
24. A 58. A 92. A
25. D 59. B 93. C
26. C 60. B 94. D
27. B 61. B 95. B
28. A 62. B 96. C
29. D 63. D 97. C
30. B 64. D 98. D
31. C 65. B 99. A
32. C 66. A 100. B
33. B 67. B

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : SITE PLANNING & URBAN DESIGN

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. The technology of cooling spaces through proper siting of structure and use of
energy-efficient materials, with
the overall objective of energy
conservation.
A. Tropical Design
B. Passive Cooling
C. Active Cooling
D. Sustainable Design

2. What is the optimum slope

requirement for factories?
A. 2%
B. 1%
C. 5%
D. 10%

3. Urban Land Use Map color code for

Forest.
A. Green
B. Dark Green
C. Light Green
D. Olive Green

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4. It is regarded as the first “planned” city.

A. Mesopotamia
B. Jericho
C. The city of Miletus
D. Damascus

5. It is the sole regulatory for housing and land development. Ensures rational land
use for the equitable distribution and enjoyment of development benefits.
Charged with encouraging greater private sector participation in low-cost
housing through liberalization of development standards, simplification of
regulations, and decentralization of approvals for permits and licenses.
A. HUDCC
B. NHA
C. HLURB
D. HDMF

6. An open space of ground of some size- covered with grass and kept smoothly
mown.
A. Grassland
B. Garden
C. Lawn
D. Topiary

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7. It is the same as street or highway frequently used to designate streets of a

certain direction.

A. Freeway
B. Avenue
C. Boulevard
D. Expressway

8. A provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by

periodic charges against the capital account.
A. Amortization
B. Lending
C. Credit
D. None of these

9. It is the Illustrado Territory. The enclave of the rich and powerful. Also the
manifestation of folk religiosity.
A. Tondo
B. Binondo
C. Quiapo
D. Sampaloc

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10. Codes that deal with the use, occupancy, and maintenance of existing
buildings.
A. Housing Codes
B. Building Code
C. City Codes
D. None of these

11. It is called the new and old cities.

A. Neopolis and paleopolis
B. Hippodamus of miletus
C. Anyang and Indus valley
D. None of the above

12. This is one of the hierarchies of settlements which is called a neighborhood or a

small village.

A. Megalopolis
B. Conurbation
C. Community
D. Hamlet

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13. Which of the following reduce excessive glare and radiation in outdoor
environments?
1. small shaded parking areas or carports
2. grass ground covers adjacent to dwelling units
3. tree shaped roadways and parking areas
4. parking areas adjacent to dwelling units
A. 2,3,4
B. 1,2,4
C. all
D. 1,2,3

14. A geographic area of land bounded by topographic features and height of land
that captures precipitation.

A. Aquifer
B. Solar Radiation
C. Watershed
D. Water Table

15. The most famous architect and planner of antiquity.

A. Camillo SItte
B. Vitruvius (1st Century BC)

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C. Kenzo Tange
D. Johann Heinrich Von Thunen

16. One of the monsoons in the

Philippines which appear in
October and disappears in April.
Coming from North East.

A. Habagat
B. Amihan
C. Leedward
D. Windward

17. It is the variety of sense experiences that users can enjoy. It is the decision
about appearances already discussed still leave room for maneuvering at the
most detailed level of design.
A. Robustness
B. Richness
C. Legibility
D. Variety

18. The sole government agency engaged in direct shelter production, focusing in
providing housing assistance to the lowest 30% of urban income earners
through slum upgrading , squatter relocation development of sites and services
and construction of core housing units.
A. National Housing Authority
B. Pag Ibig
C. Philam Life homes
D. None

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19. It is one of the elements of Human Settlements which links within the settlement
and with other settlements, transportation systems, communication systems,
water supply systems, power and electrical systems, etc.
A. Nature
B. Man
C. Shells
D. Networks

20. A highway of major cross sectional longitudinal dimension, designed to

accommodate very heavy traffic at high speed rate. May also have provision for
rapid transit in a median or side trip.
A. Highway
B. Super highway
C. Way
D. Street

21. It is locating uses on the site, under Ian Bentley’s Responsive Environment.
A. Permeability
B. Variety
C. Personalization
D. Robustness

22. It is a radio centric form with open spaces between the outreaching corridors of
development.

A. Relationship with nature

B. Topography
C. Radiocentric
D. Star

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23. An area which is within the city limits, or closely linked to it by common use of
public utilities and services.
A. Site Area
B. Urban Area
C. Sub-urban Area
D. None of these

24. Who first introduced housing

variations and specialized
buildings into town planning?

A. Greeks
B. Egyptians
C. Romans
D. Feudal Lords

25. This agenda puts more emphasis on other values such as sanitation, housing
and aesthetic improvements.
A. The Polish Agenda
B. The American Agenda
C. The Philippine Agenda
D. None of the above

26. This town is built from King Philip II’s city guidelines that produced 3 types of
towns the pueblo (civil), the presidio (military) and the mission (religious).
A. The English Renaissance
B. Medieval Organic City
C. The Spanish “Laws of the Indies” town
D. None of the above

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27. The oldest continually inhabited city in the Fertile Crescent.

A. The city of Damascus

B. The city of Eridu
C. The city of Babylon
D. Mesopotamia

28. On ___ by virtue of Act No. 183 the city of Manila was incorporated. Time when
Manilla is recognized as the first chartered city.
A. July 31, 1903
B. July 30, 1913
C. July 31, 1905
D. July 20, 1900

29. It is a type of industrial village in Indiana built by Owen’s son.

A. New England
B. New Sound
C. New Farm
D. New Harmony

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30. A survey of landed property establishing or reestablishing lengths and directions

of boundary line.
A. Land Survey
B. Geodetic
C. Property Line
D. None of these

31. This was meant only for housing

but with a variety of housing types
lined along streets with
terminating axes on civic buildings
in a large common green.

A. Hampstead Heath
B. Hampstead Garden City
C. Hampstead Garden
Suburbs
D. None

32. Which of these is not an innovation that influenced the development of early
cities?
A. Herding and eventually for defense
B. The plow and rectilinear farming
C. The circular and radiocentric planning
D. None of the above

33. It is a characteristic that goes from one place to another.

A. Eccentric
B. Nomadic
C. Optimistic
D. Semiotic

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34. The exact period of the City Beautiful era is vague, but theorist suggests it
began with the ____

A. Victorian period 1885

B. Medieval ages 1880
C. Columbian Exposition in 1891
D. None of the above

35. Emphasis was on a linear connection between the place de concord., Arc de
Triumph, and Eiffel tower strengthened by a large boulevard now known as ____
A. Paris
B. Isle of White
C. Champs de Ellysee
D. None

36. It is one of the school of thought who believed that the problems of the cities
should be tackled one item at a time, beginning with the improvement of health
and sanitary system.
A. Specialist
B. Analyst
C. Consultant
D. Government Bodies

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37. The field of ____ may be one of the deepest of all environmental professions.
A. Architecture
B. Engineering
C. Medicine
D. Cosmetology

38. These are the natural factors that affect the development and growth of urban
areas. Which is not included?
A. Climate
B. Potential for natural calamities
C. Slope and terrain and other forms of natural defenses
D. Dirt and bacteria

39. These are natural caves, enlarged by erecting piles of rocks at entrance.
A. Neanderthal living
B. Eccentric houses
C. Primitive dwellings
D. None of the above

40. It is the largest city in the Fertile Crescent with 80,000 inhabitants.
A. The city of Damascus
B. The city of Eridu
C. The city of Babylon
D. Mesopotamia

41. The part of the surface of the earth not permanently covered by water.
A. Land
B. Seashore
C. Marshland
D. Beach

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42. It is the civilization in 3000BC where there is urban mobility, no need for
defensive walls, and there is a dependence on the Nile River.
A. Indian civilization
B. Egyptian civilization
C. Citizens of Babylon
D. None of the above

43. It is the largest city of the Yellow River Valley.

A. TongYang
B. Mao Tse
C. Anyang
D. None of the above

44. ___ is definded as a “city-state”. Most famous in the Acropolis. A religious and
defensive structure up on the hills, with no definitive geometric plan.
A. Neopolis
B. Polis
C. Sparta
D. None of the above

45. Romans as ____ built aqueducts, public baths, utility systems, fountains etc.
A. Architects
B. Scientists
C. Engineers
D. Contractors

46. It is affected the urban design of most towns.

A. Capitalism
B. Optimism
C. Feudalism
D. Mechanism

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47. The rise of the church as a main urban design component was signified in ____
and Sienna,Italy.
A. Mesopotamia
B. Yellow river
C. Babylon
D. Constantinople

48. The plaza was surrounded by important buildings. Which is not included?
A. Catholic church
B. Municipal or town halls
C. Leisure parks
D. Elementary school

49. It is the second Garden City

built in 1920 was designed by
Louis de Soisson.

A. Wynwyn
B. Welworth
C. Welwyn
D. Wenthworth

50. Elaborate network of cities in ____ were built by the Zapotecs, Mextecs, and
Aztecs in rough rugged land.
A. Mesopotamia
B. Mesoamerica
C. Miletus
D. None of the above

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51. In ___ Greek Cities spread through the Aegean Region – westward to France
and Spain.
A. 700BC
B. 800 BC
C. 900 BC
D. 1900 BC

52. This city’s design reflected the principles of the city beautiful movement with a
triangular formation of 3 important buildings: the Court of Justice, the Parliament
House and the Capitol building.

A. Sydney
B. Canberra
C. Wales
D. Victoria

53. ____ is the center for commerce. There is a continuous increase in size while
the power of the feudal lords declined.
A. Greek Cities
B. Italian Cities
C. Feudalist Cities
D. Mercantilist Cities

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54. This place has emerged as the city of culture and the arts and the first
“university town”
A. Italy
B. Athens
C. Cairo
D. Vienna

55. Cabet conceptualized the city of ____ in Red River, Texas

A. Damascus
B. Columbus
C. Icarus
D. Bicarius

56. The City of Towers was first conceptualized by Le Corbusier in his book ____

A. The Future of the Cities

B. The Cites of Yesterday
C. The Cities of The Present
D. The Cities of Tomorrow

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57. Term used in Real Estate, which sometimes called "subscription money", this is
a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has serious
intentions.
A. Earnest Money
B. Down Payment
C. Deposit
D. None of these

58. This city was proposed by Spanish Engineer____

A. Soria Inamorata
B. Soria Y Mata
C. Paolo Soleri
D. None of the above

59. The Neighborhood Unit’s ____ is the center of development and the size of the
neighborhood was dependent on the population of the school.

A. High School
B. Elementary school
C. University
D. None of the above

60. It was defined as the physical

environment wherein social,
cultural, educational and
commercial are within easy
reach of each other.
A. The Metropolis
B. The Subdivision
C. The Neighborhood Unit
D. None

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61. The ___generated jobs, increased productivity, and opened up mass markets
for goods.
A. The Victorian Period
B. The Industrial Revolution
C. The French Revolution
D. None

62. In ____ they were formed for security or to be close to critical resources like
food and water.
A. Post-colonial times
B. Pre-colonial times
C. Victorian era
D. None

63. This was a result of several ordinances of this law, under the settlement
planning in the Philippines.

A. The plaza complex

B. The town complex
C. The town squares
D. None

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64. It is known as the walled city of Manila _____

A. Paco
B. Intramuros
C. Port Bonifacio
D. Quiapo

65. First Planner and developed the Gridiron.

A. Neopolis and paleopolis

B. Hippodamus of miletus
C. Anyang and Indus valley
D. None of the above

66. The middle class residential homes developed by Philamlife Insurance

Company. Master Plan designed by Architect and Planner, Carlos P. Arguelles,
based on suburban developments in California with modifications.
A. BLISS
B. Philamlife Homes
C. Phil Homesite and Housing Corp
D. None of these

67. These are large cities were the exception prior to the 20th century, but a few did
exist in antiquity.
A. Billionaire cities
B. Millionaire village
C. Millionaire cities
D. None

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68. Which of these is a characteristic of Paths?

A. Channels along which the observer moves

B. Predominant element for many person’s image
C. Spatial extremes highlight paths
D. All of the above

69. A composite of cities, metropolises, and urban areas.

A. Acropolis
B. Metropolis
C. Conurbation
D. Megalopolis

70. _____ and the electric elevator represent two important factors in the growth of
very large cities in recent times.
A. Agriculture industry
B. Machinery
C. Iron and steel construction technology
D. None

71. Under the LGU record, what must be the income budget of Barangays?
A. Php 20M
B. Php 100M
C. Php 2.5M
D. None

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72. These are point references considered to be external to the observer.

A. Nodes
B. Landmarks
C. District
D. Town

73. The author, planner and propagandist. He advocated these garden city
principles be accepted as integral elements of government planning policies.
A. John Nash
B. Lewis Silkin
C. Francois Perroux
D. Sir Frederic James Osborn

74. ____ in the old days means

important buildings stood out.
A. Robustness
B. Legibility
C. Variety
D. None of the above

75. Which of these is NOT a key factor that supports long term robustness?
A. Passive spaces
B. Access

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C. Building depth
D. Building height

76. Usually with two corridors of intense development crossing the center, usually
found in small cities rather than in large.
A. Ring
B. Rectilinear
C. Linear
D. Branch

77. It is measured in KMs across or center to outskirts or square KM.

A. External extent
B. Physical extent
C. Density formulas
D. Routes

78. The original master plan of Chandigarh was by ___ but Le Corbusier eventually
took over.

A. Albert Meyer
B. Albert Mayer
C. Albert Myer
D. None of the above

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79. A well-defined public streets, plazas, parks, playgrounds, quadrangles etc.

A. Grain
B. Texture
C. Urban spaces
D. Urban places

80. This traditional CBD in the Philippines is a center of business and commerce,
has population nucleus and seats the national government.

A. Manila CBD
B. Makati CBD
C. Cubao CBD
D. Ortigas CBD

81. An early settlement in Cyprus around 5500 BC. It was the first documented city
with streets. The main street was narrow but had a wide terminal.
A. Jericho
B. Babylon
C. Israel
D. Khirokitia

82. This function is due to the diversity of people, ideas, jobs, etc.
A. Economic

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B. Education and Culture

C. Housing
D. None of these

83. He is the author of Ekistics, which addresses the problem of urbanization in a

worldwide scale.
A. Buckminster Fuller
B. Edmund Norwood Bacon
C. Constantinos Doxiadis
D. Sir Leslie Patrick Abercrombie

84. It is similar to floor area ration but it is established by dividing the area of the
total floor-space of the buildings on any particular site by the site area, including
half the area of any roads adjoining it.

A. Urban Design Guidelines

B. Floor Space Index
C. Environmental Impact Statement
D. Urban Development Strategies

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85. Consciously renewing the outworn areas of towns and cities. It covers most
aspects of renewal including both re-development and rehabilitation.
A. Urban renewal
B. Adaptive Reuse
C. Rehabilitation
D. Conservation

86. Improving the physical set-up and consequently affecting the market for
previously run-down areas.
A. Invasion
B. Gentrification
C. Block-boosting
D. Centralization

87. It is a universal human activity that consists of making choices among options
that appear to be open to the future.
A. Site planning
B. Planning
C. Urban planning
D. Organizing

88. It is GEOLOGY is the natural science that studies the Earth – its composition;
the processes that shaped its surface; and its history. Earth is made up of rocks
(including soil, sand, silt and dust); rocks are composed of minerals; minerals
are made up of atoms.
A. Hydrology
B. Geomorphology
C. Geology
D. Vegetation

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89. It is a type of map that depicts a single feature; represents a single theme or
subject connected with a specific geographic area.
A. General
B. Analytical
C. Thematic
D. None of the above

90. It is officially designed as a mixed use community with an average distance of

670 meters from a transit stop and commercial core area.

A. Transit Oriented Developments

B. New Urbanism
C. Traditional Neighborhood Developments
D. None of the above

91. It is a famous case study where a 75 acre redevelopment in San Jose California
by Peter Calthorpe and Associates in 1991, originally an industrial town,
redeveloped with new housing and commercial uses.
A. Jackson Taylor
B. Kentlands
C. Laguna West
D. Seaside

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92. TODs should be located to maximize access to their ______.

A. Core Commercial Buildings

B. Core Commercial Business
C. Core Commercial Developments
D. Core Commercial Areas

93. This creates a weak urban fabric. Also creates unpleasant environments at the
street level.
A. Transit Oriented Developments
B. New Urbanism
C. Traditional Neighborhood Developments
D. Suburban Sprawl

94. This is where urbanism is defined by its diversity, pedestrian scale, public space
and structure of bounded neighborhoods.
A. The Neighborhood, the district and the Corridor
B. The Region

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C. The Street, the Block, the Building

D. The context of new urbanism

95. It is a new urbanism strategy used when redevelopment is no longer an option.

The best utilization of existing infrastructure comes from infill development.
A. Redevelopment
B. New towns
C. Infill
D. None of the above

96. The one who proposed the planning concept of “differentiation without division”
A. Louis Kahn
B. Albert Mayer
C. Jane Jacobs
D. Lewis Mumford

97. He wrote the main proponent of the growth pole theory.

A. John Nash
B. Lewis Silkin
C. Francois Perroux
D. Sir Frederic James Osborn

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98. It is when rocks are broken down into small fragments.

A. Vegetation
B. Soil Erosion
C. Hydrology
D. Hydrologic Cycle

99. One climatic control which helps to control temperature. When it is of low
velocity, they may be pleasant, but when velocity increases, may cause
discomfort or damage.

A. Air
B. Wind
C. Soil
D. Vegetation

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100. An Austrian art historian and writer of the

book City Planning According to Artistic
Principles.

A. Camillo Sitte
B. Vitruvius (1st Century BC)
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Johann Heinrich Von Thunen

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have
questions or comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

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ANSWER KEY: 34. C 68. D

1. B 35. C 69. C
2. A 36. A 70. C
3. B 37. A 71. D
4. B 38. D 72. B
5. C 39. A 73. D
6. C 40. C 74. B
7. A 41. A 75. A
8. A 42. B 76. B
9. C 43. C 77. B
10. A 44. B 78. B
11. A 45. C 79. C
12. D 46. C 80. A
13. D 47. D 81. D
14. C 48. C 82. B
15. B 49. C 83. C
16. B 50. B 84. B
17. B 51. A 85. A
18. A 52. B 86. B
19. D 53. D 87. B
20. B 54. D 88. C
21. B 55. C 89. C
22. D 56. D 90. A
23. B 57. A 91. A
24. C 58. B 92. D
25. B 59. B 93. B
26. C 60. C 94. B
27. A 61. B 95. C
28. A 62. B 96. B
29. D 63. A 97. C
30. A 64. B 98. B
31. C 65. B 99. B
32. D 66. B 100. A
33. B 67. C

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Republic of the Philippines

Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
Professional Regulatory Board of ARCHITECTURE (PRBoA)
Licensure Examination for Architects (LEA)

SUBJECT : SITE PLANNING & URBAN DESIGN

(Non-Drafting Examination Format)
DATE/ TIME: 25 January 2019 (Friday), 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
VENUE : City of Manila, Philippines (PH)

ONE HUNDRED (100) SAMPLE TEST QUESTIONS

1. Often enclosed and secluded from the street, whose high density and variety of
planting conveys a garden image. It sometimes included flower planters and a
water feature and usually supplies a variety of seating possibilities.

A. Garden Oasis
B. Green belt
C. Plaza
D. Park

2. It relaxes certain restrictions if builders and developers provide desirable public

features and amenities such as plazas, arcades, and other open spaces.
A. Land Use Planning and Zoning
B. Cluster Zoning
C. Floor area ratio
D. Incentive Zoning

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3. It is an administrative religious center with 40000 inhabitants in 2500BC.

A. Kilimanjaro
B. Miletus
C. Mohenjo-daro
D. None of the above

4. He is the author of “Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Social Reform” first

conceptualized the Garden Cities. These are new cities built in the countryside
with rail access to the original city.
A. Hyzen Howard
B. Enebezer Howard
C. Ebenezer Howard
D. None

5. The ___ was to be an integral part of Manila as the main artery of trade and
commerce.

A. Marikina River
B. Nagtahan River
C. Pasig River
D. None of these

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6. The study of an existing pattern of use, within an area, to determine the nature
and magnitude of deficiencies which might exist and to assess the potential of
the pattern relative to development goals.
A. Land-use Survey
B. Land-use Analysis
C. Land-use Plan
D. None of these

7. It is derived from a Central Business District at the center, around which all
other uses formed.

A. Urban Zone Theory

B. Radio centric Zone Theory
C. Concentric zone theory
D. None

8. These are located on local or feeder bus line within 10 minutes transit travel
time.
A. Neighborhood TOD
B. Urban TOD
C. Street and circulation systems
D. None of the above

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9. He came up with the proponent of the location theory.

A. Camillo SItte
B. Vitruvius (1st Century BC)
C. Kenzo Tange
D. Johann Heinrich Von Thunen

10. When slopes are selected according to building type and the activities
associated with it.
A. Slope Analysis
B. Topographic Map
C. Desirable Slopes
D. Slope Map

11. Romans as ____built forum after forum.

A. Gladiators
B. Conquerors
C. Citizens
D. None of the above

12. They develop or improve the land as well as construct houses.

A. Developers
B. Architect
C. Brokers
D. None of these

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13. It is a famous case study where a 1,045 acre new development in Sacramento
County, California also designed by Peter Calthorpe and Associates and
developed by Phil Angelides in 1990. The plan puts emphasis on well-defined
public spaces and amenities.
A. Jackson Taylor
B. Kentlands
C. Laguna West
D. Seaside

14. The proportions between the built area of the building and the lot area.

A. Land Use Planning and Zoning

B. Cluster Zoning
C. Floor area ratio
D. Incentive Zoning

15. Towns were ____ with winding roads and sequenced views of the Cathedral or
military fortifications. Expansion was limited to the size the city could support but
was not limited in land area during Medieval Ages.
A. Small and crowded
B. Overpopulated
C. Fine and intimate
D. Empty and small

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16. This signified as the change from manpower to assembly lines.

A. The stone age
B. The machine age
C. The primitive age
D. The computer age

17. It is the concept coined by Jean Gottman for urban complexes in the
Northeastern US.

A. Acropolis
B. Metropolis
C. Conurbation
D. Megalopolis

18. It is the activities concerned with the management and development of land.
A. PD 1308 Law regulating the environmental planning profession in the
Philippines.
B. PD 1307 Law regulating the environmental planning profession in the
Philippines.
C. PD 1309 Law regulating the environmental planning profession in the
Philippines
D. None of these

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19. Who designed New Delhi?

A. Sir Edward Lutyens
B. Edgar Chambless
C. Paolo Soleri
D. None of these

20. This is an incentive foci from which an observer is travelling. This also has
junctions and concentrations.

A. District
B. Town
C. Nodes
D. City

21. In 1939, ____ authorize the transfer of the capital to an area of 1572 hectares.
A master plan of Quezon City was completed in 1941 by Architects Juan
Arellano, Harry T. Frost, Louis Croft and Eng. AD Williams.
A. Commonweath Act No. 457
B. Commonwealth Act No. 458
C. Commonwealth Act No. 459
D. None

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22. Reason for planning- in urban design topic.

A. Promote Human Growth
B. To organize activities
C. To anticipate the future expansion
D. None of these

23. It is the oldest city in 3000-4000BC in the Fertile Crescent.

A. The city of Damascus

B. The city of Eridu
C. The city of Babylon
D. Mesopotamia

24. Lands for well-being like parks, plazas, and of similar nature.
A. Health and General Use
B. Economic Use
C. Physical use
D. None of these

25. New ____ towns in Europe were mostly Coastal port towns.
A. 12th Century
B. 11th Century
C. 15th Century
D. 13th Century

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26. An early type of Planned Unit development that had all amenities in one
compound with multi-level circulation patterns.

A. The floating City

B. The arcology alternative
C. The barbican City
D. None

27. Creating special zoning policies and regulations for medium to large sized
controlled developments.
A. Land Use Planning and Zoning
B. Cluster Zoning
C. Floor area ratio
D. Incentive Zoning

28. An early settlement in Turkey around 7000BC. It was the largest Neolithic city
with 13 hectares of land for a population about 10k people. It was an intricately
assembled complex without streets.
A. Jerusalem
B. Catalhoyuk
C. Jericho
D. Mediterranean settlement

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29. The term used to describe the idea of repairing, redecorating and in some
cases converting, existing structurally sound property to a standard compatible
with modern requirements of amenity and health. This term is frequently
interchanged with renovation.
A. Urban renewal
B. Adaptive Reuse
C. Rehabilitation
D. Conservation

30. A tenure by lease; real estate held under a lease.

A. Credit
B. Balance
C. Down payment
D. Leasehold

31. This is a later suburb which is also the red-light district of Manila.

A. Sampaloc
B. Ermita
C. Malate
D. Paco

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32. During the English Renaissance, these two cities developed as capitals in
Chesapake Bay Region and designed by Gov Col. Francis Nicholson.

A. Athens and Santorini

B. Annapolis and Williamsburg
C. Brooklyn and Tribeca
D. None of the above

33. ___ spearheaded the City Beautiful Movement with his design of Chicago and
with his famous axiom “make no little plans they have no magic to stir men’s
blood”
A. Daniel Burham
B. Daniel Burntham
C. Daniel Burnham
D. Daniel Burdham

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34. ___ was the first developed Garden City started in 1902 nd designed by
Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker.
A. Brussels
B. Athens
C. Manchester
D. Letchworth

35. A study and recording of the way in which land is being used in an area.
A. Land-use Survey
B. Land-use Analysis
C. Land-use Plan
D. None of these

36. It appears to be the most important single control on soil erosion. Plant roots
bind together aggregates the soil particles.

A. Soil Erosion
B. Hydrology
C. Vegetation
D. Hydrologic Cycle

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37. It is the natural science that studies the Waters of the Earth and their reaction to
the living environment including their relation to all living things.

A. Vegetation
B. Soil Erosion
C. Hydrology
D. Hydrologic Cycle

38. Developments were driven by speculation with emphasis on equality.

A. The Machine Age
B. The Speculators town
C. The Mills in Manchester
D. None of the above

39. Early type of settlement in America taken after the “boug” (military town) and
“faubourg” (citizen’s town) of the medieval ages.
A. Medieval Organic City
B. Medieval Bastide
C. Spanish “Laws of the Indies” town
D. None of these

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40. Three general types of structures.

A. Primitive, Vernacular, and Grand
B. Primitive, Classical, and Modern
C. Stone, Concrete, and Glass
D. None of these

41. Developed by the sociologist James Vance under the observation that cities
tended to identify with each of the three previous conceptualizations rather than
one exclusively. It presents the emergence of large self-sufficient suburban
sectors.

A. Urban Models
B. Multiple Nuclei Model
C. Sector Models
D. Urban Realms

42. A piece of land with an economic use for farming.

A. Productive Use
B. Economic Use
C. Physical Use
D. None of these

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43. It is the planet’s water cycle described by the movement of water.

A. Vegetation
B. Soil Erosion
C. Hydrology
D. Hydrologic Cycle

44. A monument, fixed object, or marker used to designate the location of a land
boundary on the ground.
A. Nodes
B. District
C. Landmarks
D. Edge

45. An urban ecological process in city land use patterning referring to an increase
in population at a certain geographic center.
A. Invasion
B. Gentrification
C. Block-boosting
D. Centralization

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46. _____ showcased palaces and gardens, best displayed in the plans of Lenotre
for Versailes in France and its adaptation in the design of Karisruhe in Germany.
A. Engineering
B. Interior design
C. Architecture
D. Landscape architecture

47. It is Pakistan today, it was called ____ in 2500BC.

A. Yellow River
B. Indus Valley
C. Mesopotamia
D. Kilimanjaro

48. A narrow passageway bordered by trees, fences, or other lateral barrier

A. Lane
B. Road
C. Path-walk
D. None of these

49. Appraisal of adequacy of a city's water and sewer systems needs of future land
uses are embodied in the ___.
A. Comprehensive Plan

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B. Transportation System
C. Land-Use Plan
D. None of these

50. Also called the blood-stream of a city.

A. Comprehensive Plan
B. Transportation System
C. Land-Use Plan
D. None of these

51. Le Corbusier also planned ____ designed for a population of 3,000,000 people.

A. Le Miserables
B. Le Voulez
C. Le Contemporaine
D. None of the above

52. He proposed that every family in the US live in one acre of land in a city
complete with all necessary amenities.
A. Wentworth Wright
B. Frank Lloyd Wright
C. Gilbert Wright
D. None of the above

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53. Preparations of an accurate base map for urban planning starts with ___.
A. Accurate Aerial Mosaic
B. Contour
C. Survey
D. Site Visit

54. A slope profile or silhouette of a slope drawn to known proportions with distance
on the horizontal axis and elevation on the vertical axis.
A. Good Drainage
B. Poor Drainage
C. Angle of Repose
D. Slope Form

55. He also suggested that 10 or more of

these could possible replace all Manhattan
buildings.

A. The Mile High Club

B. The Mile High Building
C. The Mile High Tower
D. None of the above

56. It is designing the external image.

A. Legibility
B. Robustness
C. Visual appropriateness
D. Personalization

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57. Is the branch that deals with the origin, nature, and distribution of land forms?

A. Site Planning
B. Site Selection Process
C. Geology
D. Geomorphology

58. Minimum road width in a neighborhood development to ease traffic flow.

A. 6.00 meters
B. 3.00 meters
C. 12.00 meters
D. 2.50 meters

59. It allows people to achieve an environment that bears the stamp of their own
tastes and values.

A. Permeability
B. Variety
C. Personalization
D. Robustness

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60. A large circle with radial corridors of intense development emanating from the
center.

A. Star
B. Relationship with nature
C. Topography
D. Radiocentric

61. The study of the dynamic relationship between a community of organisms and
its habitat.
A. Biology
B. Hydrology
C. Ecology
D. Anatomy

62. Which of these is not part of the sections of Miletus?

A. Artisans
B. Neanderthals
C. Farmers
D. Military

63. Published the book called “Fields, Factories and Workshops: or Industry
Combined with Agriculture with manual work.
A. William Penn
B. Robert Owens
C. King Philip
D. Peter Kropotkin

64. Urban Land Use Map color code for Swampland or Marshes.
A. Blue
B. Green

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C. Aqua
D. Violet

65. The study of the community and its social and economic structures are done to
determine whether there is a need, an interest, or any objections on the project.
A. Utilities / Services
B. Existing Land Use
C. Socio-Economic Factors
D. Density and Zoning

66. In this era, cities in the Fertile Crescent were formed by the Tigris and
Euphrates river valleys of Mesopotamia.

A. 1000-2000BC
B. 1000-2000 AD
C. 2000-4000 BC
D. 3000-4000 AD

67. It is a slope pattern for Elementary and High school campus where slopes are
gentle to mild and have moderately difficult terrain.
A. 10-15%
B. 5-10%
C. 1-2%
D. None of these

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68. It is defined as legal regulation of the use of land. It allocates types of uses
based on growth patterns.
A. Land Use Planning and Zoning
B. Cluster Zoning
C. Floor area ratio
D. Cluster Zoning

69. Which of these is not a characteristic of edges?

A. Lateral references, not coordinate axes

B. May be barriers or seams
C. Can be disruptive to city form
D. None of the above

70. Determines the value of the house and also is familiar with trends in the local
market and in the industry.
A. Appraiser
B. Broker
C. Developer
D. Banker

71. Elements of human settlement who are individual, Homo Sapiens – biological
needs (oxygen, nutrition), sensation and perception (five senses), emotional
needs (satisfaction, security, sense of belonging), moral values.

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A. Society
B. Man
C. Networks
D. None of these

72. Phrase used to characterize development that meets the needs of the present
generation without compromising the needs of the future generations.
A. Sustainable Development
B. Transit Oriented Developments
C. Traditional Neighborhood Developments
D. None of these

73. ____ was among the architects employed to design the buildings in Brasilia.

A. Oscar Wilde
B. Oscar Nietzche
C. Oscar Roi
D. Oscar Niemeyer

74. The new capital of Brazil was designed by ___ with a lot of influence from Le
Corbusier.
A. Lucio Acosta
B. Lucio Coste
C. Lucio Costa
D. None of the above

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75. It was designed to be the capital of Punjab province in India.

A. Brasilia
B. New Delhi
C. Chandigarh
D. None of the above

76. A type of urban ecological process defined as the entrance of a new population
and/or facilities in an already occupied area.
A. Invasion
B. Gentrification
C. Block-boosting
D. Centralization

77. A contract transferring the right of possession of buildings, property, etc., for a
fixed period of time, usually for periodical compensation called 'rent'.
A. Lease
B. Deed
C. TCT
D. None of these

78. Forcing the old population out of the area because of social or racial
differences.
A. Invasion
B. Gentrification
C. Block-boosting
D. Centralization

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79. These are finely integrated, walkable communities with a strong identity and
with convivial public places.

A. Transit Oriented Developments

B. Traditional Neighborhood Developments
C. New Urbanism
D. None of the above

80. The first noted urban planner is ___.

A. Zapotecs
B. Vitruvius
C. Hippodamus
D. None of the above

81. Historic and urban functions of the city that is obsolete today.
A. Economic
B. Transportation
C. Worship and governance
D. Defense and protection

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82. ___adopted Greek forms but with different scale-monumental, had a social
hierarchy.

A. Roman gates
B. Roman cities
C. Basilica
D. None of the above

83. It is the focal points of Roman

city planning.

A. Roman cities
B. Roman gates
C. Roman forums
D. None of these

84. It is an environmental engineering where plants reduce reflection caused by

sunlight.
A. Erosion Control
B. Noise
C. Glare and Reflection
D. Air Purification

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85. These are points, the strategic spots in a city into which an observer can enter,
and which are the intensive foci to and from which he is traveling.

A. Nodes
B. District
C. Edge
D. Landmarks

86. Plants are primary means of preventing erosion from storm water runoff.
A. Noise
B. Glare and Reflection
C. Erosion Control
D. Air Purification

87. It is important to establish the relationship between soil composition and land
uses (other than agriculture). Soil surveys help guide in site selection for
residential, industrial, and other forms of development that involve surface and
subsurface structures.
A. Composition
B. Soil and Soil Development Suitability
C. Texture
D. Organic Matter

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88. This refers to the material that makes up

the soil.

A. Composition
B. Soil and Soil Development Suitability
C. Texture
D. Organic Matter

89. The projection of a future pattern of use within an area, as determined by

development goals.
A. Land-use Survey
B. Land-use Analysis
C. Land-use Plan
D. None of these

90. In surveying, the North-South component of a traverse course.

A. Latitude
B. Departure
C. Bearing
D. None of these

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91. It is the quantity that varies radically in soils.

A. Composition
B. Soil and Soil Development
Suitability
C. Organic Matter
D. Texture

92. It is a type of point of reference where the observer does not enter within them,
they are external. They are usually a rather simply defined physical object,
buildings, sign, store or mountain.

A. Nodes
B. District
C. Edge
D. Landmarks

93. He spearheaded the Reform Movement by proposing his ideal city meant for
800 to 1200 persons on at least 600-1800 acres of land.
A. William Penn
B. Robert Owens
C. King Philip
D. None

94. Two major hindrances to the prefabrication industry.

A. Code of Municipalities and Tradition
B. Manpower and machine
C. Resources and extraction
D. None of these

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95. It is an industrial village at _____ that was self-sufficient and complete with
agricultural, light industrial, educational and recreational facilities.

A. New Harmony
B. New Manchester
C. New Lanark Mills in Manchester
D. None of the above

96. The planned area of this city covers 2550 hectares yet growth beyond a
population of 57000 people was not contemplated as extremely low garden-city
type density was envisioned.
A. New Delhi
B. Bali
C. Singapore
D. Canberra

97. Differences of Romans and Greeks in terms of building their cities.

A. In urban design, Greek has a sense of finite, while Romans use political
power and organization

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B. In using scale: Greek based on human measurements, while Romans

used proportions that would relate parts of the building
C. In streets: Greek made space for circulation as a leftover, while Romans
built the street first before the buildings
D. All of these

98. The floating city is designed by ____.

A. Soria Y Mata
B. Kiyonori Kikutake
C. Paolo Soleri
D. Frank Lloyd Wright

99. Similarly as the cost of the land, neighborhood character have this effect.
A. Social Implications
B. Economic Implications
C. Environmental Implications
D. None of these

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100. It is two of the largest cities in 700 BC.

A. Mesopotamia and Athens

B. Greece and Mesopotamia
C. Sparta and Athens
D. None of the above

Don’t forget to download the sample answer sheet here. You must feel like it is in actual
exam.

To get FREE reviewers and tips about the exam, visit www.paleor.net. If you have
questions or comments about this reviewer, send an email to [email protected]

Good-luck to your exam!

Keep reading, listening, and watching your review materials.

Always remember to trust yourself and just do it!
-Paleor team-

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 33

ANSWER KEY:
1. A 35. A 69. D
2. D 36. C 70. A
3. C 37. C 71. B
4. C 38. B 72. A
5. C 39. A 73. D
6. B 40. A 74. C
7. C 41. D 75. C
8. A 42. A 76. A
9. D 43. D 77. A
10. C 44. C 78. C
11. B 45. D 79. B
12. A 46. D 80. C
13. C 47. B 81. D
14. C 48. A 82. B
15. C 49. A 83. C
16. B 50. B 84. C
17. D 51. C 85. A
18. A 52. B 86. C
19. A 53. A 87. B
20. C 54. D 88. A
21. A 55. C 89. C
22. A 56. B 90. A
23. B 57. D 91. C
24. A 58. A 92. D
25. B 59. C 93. B
26. C 60. D 94. A
27. B 61. C 95. C
28. B 62. B 96. A
29. C 63. D 97. D
30. D 64. C 98. B
31. B 65. C 99. A
32. B 66. C 100. C
33. C 67. A
34. D 68. A

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REFERENCES: (To be updated always)

1. Future Forms and Design for Sustainable Cities BY: Mike Jenks and Nicola Dempsey
(Q.99,
2. RA 7279_Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992

3. The Death and Life of Great American Cities by Jane Jacobs (1961)

4. Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practice Edited by Gary Hack, et al. (2009)

5. The Image of the City by Kevin Lynch (1960)

6. Good City Form by Kevin Lynch (1995)

7. Cities of Tomorrow: An Intellectual History of Urban Planning and Design in the

Twentieth Century by Peter Geoffrey Hall (1996 Updated Edition)

8. A Pattern Language: Towns, Buildings, Construction by Christopher Alexander, Sara

Ishikawa, and Murray Silverstein (1976)

9. Design With Nature by Ian L. McHarg (1995)

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