NMAT by GMAC™ Official Guide 2021

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Table of Contents
Letter from President and CEO, GMAC®
How to Use NMAT BY GMAC™ Official Guide

1.0 About the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam

1.0 About the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam
1.1 Why take the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam?
1.2 NMAT by GMAC™ Exam Format
1.3 NMAT by GMAC™ Exam Structure and Features
1.4 NMAT by GMAC™ Scores
1.5 About GMAC™
2.0 Quantitative Skills Review
2.0 Quantitative Skills Review
2.1 Top Tips to Prepare for Quantitative Skills
2.2 Number Properties
2.3 What is Measured?
2.4 Overall Test Taking Strategies
2.5 Arithmetic
2.6 What is Measured?
2.7 Overall Test Taking Strategies
2.8 Algebra and Probability
2.9 What is Measured?
2.10 Overall Test Taking Strategies
2.11 DI-Caselets and Tables
2.12 What is Measured?
2.13 Overall Test Taking Strategies
2.14 DI-Graphs and Charts
2.15 What is Measured?
2.16 Overall Test Taking Strategies
2.17 Data Sufficiency
2.18 What is Measured?
2.19 Overall Test Taking Strategies

3.0 Quantitative Skills Practice

3.1 Practice Questions
3.2 Answers and Explanations

4.0 Language Skills Review

 4.0 Language Skills Review
4.1 Top Tips to Prepare for Language Skills
4.2 Reading Comprehension
4.3 What is Measured?
4.4 Overall Test Taking Strategies
4.5 Para Forming
4.6 What is Measured?
4.7 Overall Test Taking Strategies
4.8 Error Identification
4.9 What is Measured?
4.10 Overall Test Taking Strategies
4.11 Prepositions
4.12 What is Measured?
4.13 Overall Test Taking Strategies
4.14 Sentence Completion
4.15 What is Measured?
4.16 Overall Test Taking Strategies
4.17 Analogies
4.18 What is Measured?
4.19 Overall Test Taking Strategies

5.0 Language Skills Practice

5.1 Practice Questions
5.2 Answers and Explanations

6.0 Logical Reasoning Review

6.0 Logical Reasoning Review
6.1 Top Tips to Prepare for Logical Reasoning
6.2 Critical Reasoning
6.3 What is Measured?
6.4 Overall Test Taking Strategies
6.5 Deductions
6.6 What is Measured?
6.7 Overall Test Taking Strategies
6.8 Analytical Puzzles
6.9 What is Measured?
6.10 Overall Test Taking Strategies
6.11 Other Reasoning
6.12 What is Measured?
6.13 Overall Test Taking Strategies

7.0 Logical Reasoning Practice

7.1 Practice Questions
7.2 Answers and Explanations
Dear Future NMAT by GMAC™ Test Taker and Business
Leader,

Preparing for the NMAT by GMAC™ exam is an important

step in your graduate management education journey. The
Official Guide for NMAT by GMAC™ Review is designed to
help you achieve your personal best in its computer-adaptive
format. New in 2021, the NMAT provides you with earlier
result availability to target your preferred schools, as well as
emphasizing preparedness over speediness.

Our 60+ years of research and experience show that proper

preparation and materials are essential to achieving a
competitive score on any high-stakes exam. To help you
succeed, this Official Guide includes 201 questions from past
NMAT by GMAC™ exams and 475 practice questions along
with answer keys and explanations. You will find guidance on
exam format, structure, and question type, as well as
discussions of concepts within each section.

Founded in 1953, the Graduate Management Admission

Council (GMAC) is a global, non-profit association of leading
graduate business schools. We are actively committed to
advancing the art and science of admissions by convening
and representing the industry and offering best-in-class
products and services for schools and students. GMAC owns
and administers the Graduate Management Admission Test®
(GMAT®) exam, the NMAT by GMAC™ exam, and the
Executive Assessment. GMAC also manages mba.com, the
most frequently visited site for information about graduate
management education.
Our mission is to connect the talent and aspirations of
students globally with the opportunities provided through
business and management education, and our official
preparation materials are designed to help you make that
connection. Using this Official Guide is an important step
toward gaining admission to a high-quality business or
management program of your choice.

I applaud your commitment to preparing for the NMAT by

GMAC™ exam and wish you the best success throughout
your education and career.

Sangeet Chowfla
President and CEO
Graduate Management Admission Council®
 HOW TO USE
NMAT BY GMAC™ OFFICIAL
GUIDE 2021
NMAT by GMAC™ Official Guide has been
designed with the following focus to help you study
and achieve your personal best in the NMAT by
GMAC™ exam:

Understand the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam Format

Chapter 1 provides you in-depth information on the

NMAT by GMAC™ exam format and structure,
scoring pattern, and other key details.

Learn the Key Concepts

The book takes a structured approach to acing the

NMAT by GMAC™ exam by first introducing you to
the key theoretical concepts tested in each of the
three sections—Language Skills, Quantitative Skills
and Logical Reasoning.

Therefore, Chapters 2, 4 and 6 are designed to

provide you in-depth understanding of the key
concepts and strategies for acing each section of the
exam.

Apply the Key Concepts

As the next step, the book provides a practice
chapter after each of the three theory-based
chapters. This helps you immediately test your
learning for maximum knowledge retention.

Hence, Chapters 3, 5 and 7 are designed to provide

you extensive practice with the help of past years’
real NMAT questions as well as other practice
questions.
1.0 About the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam
1.0 About the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam
The NMAT by GMAC™ exam opens doors to the
leading management programmes in India, South
Africa, Nigeria and Philippines with a plan to launch in
other countries. The exam is brought to you by the
Graduate Management Admission Council ( GMAC),
the organisation that owns the GMAT® exam. The
NMAT by GMAC™ enables schools to recruit top talent
with the comfort that the test measures the skills
needed to succeed in their programmes.
Since becoming a computer-based test (CBT) in 2009,
the NMAT by GMAC™ has been at the forefront of
measurement within high stakes testing. The NMAT by
GMAC™ exam is used for securing admissions to
some of the leading graduate business programmes in
India, South Africa, Nigeria and Philippines with a plan
to launch in other countries. Please visit nmat.org for
latest information.
1.1 Why take the NMAT by GMAC™ Exam?
The NMAT by GMAC™ exam has been, and will
continue to be, a symbol of quality—enabling test
takers to access graduate management education and
a career of choice, while providing schools with access
to top talent.
Accepted as an admissions criterion by the leading
management institutions in India, South Africa,
Nigeria and Philippines with a plan to launch in
other countries.
Today the NMAT by GMAC™ is accepted by many
leading institutions and this list is growing. Pursuing a
management degree at one of these universities
makes the pursuit of your dreams that much easier.
For more information, please refer to the NMAT by
GMAC™ Accepting Schools section or visit
www.nmat.org
Measures the skills needed to succeed in business
school
When entering business school, you want to know that
you have what it takes to succeed and graduate with
flying colours. Having been selected using an
assessment that measures the skills needed to
succeed in business school gives you the confidence
that you can handle the curriculum and have a fulfilling
b-school experience.
Designed to give you the confidence to perform to the
best of your ability
When appearing for any test, nerves are always a
contributing factor in how well you perform on the day
of the test. The NMAT by GMAC™ exam was designed
to allay those nerves. Here are some ways that drive
that confidence:
1. Taking the test multiple times: You can take the
NMAT by GMAC™ three times in a given Testing
Year (1st July to 30th June). This gives you the
confidence that you have more than a single
opportunity to perform to your very best.
2. Choosing the section order: The NMAT by
GMAC™ allows you to choose the order in which
you respond to each of the sections on the test.
This allows you to play to your strengths.
3. No negative marking: Sometimes you’re just not
sure of the right answer on the test and are running
out of time. Well, you can make an informed guess
instead of skipping a question without the fear of a
penalty for a wrong answer. The system of no
negative marking is in line with global practices.
4. Does not require any computer typing skills:
The NMAT by GMAC™ user interface is designed
to minimise reliance on computer skills. You do not
need to have prior computer experience to use
CBT. No typing skills are needed. You will use the
computer mouse to highlight and confirm the
selected response as each question appears on
the screen. At the beginning of the test, you will
receive a brief introductory tutorial that will instruct
you on how to use the computer to answer
questions and review responses.
 Designed for your convenience
We know that you are busy and the task of registering
for the test, taking the test and applying to school can
be time consuming and stressful. So we’ve made it
more convenient for you:
1. Choose a date, time and location of your
convenience: A long testing window allows you to
choose a convenient test date of your preference.
2. Self-schedule: You can choose your test
appointment date, time and location in real-time
based on the availability of seats at each test
centre.
3. Register from your mobile: This feature allows
you to register anytime and anywhere.
4. Choose from multiple locations: You can
choose from any of the conveniently located
testing centres to take the exam.
5. Apply to business schools after reviewing
results: You can view your test results and then
decide to apply to a business school or retake the
test depending on your comfort with the results
you’ve obtained.
1.2 NMAT by GMAC™Exam Format
1.2 NMA
T by GMAC™ Exam Format
NMAT by GMAC™ is a computerised adaptive test
which gives each candidate a personalised test, one
question at a time, based on responses to previous
questions. Due to the adaptive nature of the exam,
candidates will not be able to review or change
answers to preceding questions. It has three sections
— Language Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical
Reasoning. All three sections are individually timed
and test takers must answer 108 questions within the
total allotted time of 120 minutes. By measuring
competency across three different domains, it allows
schools to evaluate candidates’ strengths as well as
development needs.
T by GMAC™ Exam Structure and
Features
The NMAT by GMAC ™ exam has three sections
targeted at measuring different skills—Language
Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Logical Reasoning.
 1.3 NMA
Each candidate will receive an exam with 120 items
divided into the following sections:

Language Skills 36 questions 28 minutes

Quantitative
36 questions 52 minutes
Skills
Logical
36 questions 40 minutes
Reasoning
Total 108 questions 120 minutes
Each section is further divided into subsections.
Candidates have a choice of selecting the
order/sequence of the test sections.
The three sections of the NMAT by GMAC™ are
individually timed.
T by GMAC™ Scores
You can see your unofficial score at the test centre
once you submit the test. Your official NMAT by
1.4 NMA
GMAC™ score will be available in your NMAT by
GMAC™ account within 48 hours after the test.
 What is included in your score report?
Your scores will include a scaled score for each section
and total score. The following table lists the range of
scores possible on the different sections of the NMAT
by GMAC™ exam.

Section Score Range

Quantitative Skills 0-120
Language Skills 0-120
Logical Reasoning Skills 0-120
Total 0-360
1.5 About GMAC™
The Graduate Management Admission Council
(GMAC) is a global non-profit organisation comprised
of leading graduate business schools around the
world. GMAC™ is the owner and administrator of the
GMAT® and NMAT by GMAC™ exams.
GMAC™ believes that business and management are
critical to the economic and social well-being of people
worldwide. We advocate for graduate management
education and its value to individuals and society.
GMAC™ strives to increase access in order to grow
and diversify the candidate pool; develop assessments
to meet global management education needs; and
extend the value to schools with our products,
services, and industry knowledge.
GMAC™ meets the needs of management schools,
and current and prospective students, through a wide
array of products, services, and programmes designed
to open doors for students, professionals, and
graduate management programmes worldwide.
GMAC® also serves as the leading source of research
and information about quality graduate management
education.
In various Practice Sections of this book, several
questions are marked as Real NMAT Question. Real
NMAT Question denotes that this question has
appeared in an NMAT™ (now NMAT by GMAC™)
exam in the past.
2.0 Quantitative Skills Review
2.0 Quantitative Skills Review
This section provides a comprehensive review of the key
mathematical concepts assessed in the NMAT by GMACTM exam.
These concepts are elucidated with the help of several examples. It
is recommended that you review the concepts and practice the
different examples to build proficiencies.

The first section, ‘Number Properties’, includes the following

topics:
1. Basics of Numbers, Fractions and Decimals
2. Divisibility of Numbers and finding Unit Digit
3. Factors, Multiples, Least Common Multiples (LCM) and Highest
Common Factors (HCF)
4. Logarithm

The second section, ‘Arithmetic’, includes the following

topics:
1. Percentages
2. Simple and Compound Interest
3. Profit, Loss and Discount
4. Ratio, Proportion and Averages
5. Time and Work and Partnership

The third section, ‘Algebra and Probability’, includes the

following topics:
1. Equations and Inequalities
2. Sequences and Series
3. Permutations and Combinations
4. Probability

The fourth section, includes ‘DI-Caselets and Tables’:

The fifth section includes ‘DI-Graphs and Charts’
The sixth section ‘Data Sufficiency’ includes the following
topics:
1. Number Properties Based
2. Arithmetic Based
3. Algebra and Probability Based

2.1 Top Tips to Prepare for Quantitative Skills

1. You will get 36 questions in the Quantitative Skills section on
the NMAT by GMAC™ exam that you will have to attempt in
52 minutes. This means you have approximately 1.5 minutes
per question.
2. This section will test you on the four important areas of Math—
Number Properties, Arithmetic, Algebra and Probability.
3. Make sure you have looked at all of the questions before the
time allotted for the section runs out. Evaluate each question
on the basis of the time you think it would take you to solve it
and its difficulty level and attempt the easier ones first since
the marks are the same for each question.
4. Time is the most important resource on the NMAT by GMAC™
exam. In the actual exam, there is no option to skip a question.
Therefore, it is recommended that you spend a little time in
understanding the question and then decide whether you feel
confident in attempting it.
5. Do not assume that questions should always be answered
using the long methods you learnt in school. Most of the NMAT
 by GMAC™ quant questions can be solved faster using short
cuts and tricks, some of which you will learn in this book.
6. Start with the basics. Make sure you are clear on fundamental
number properties, formulae and number operations concepts
such as odds and evens, prime numbers, LCM and HCF, etc.,
before moving on to the more advanced concepts.
7. Given the time constraints, your mental math will have to be
quite good to arrive at the answer quickly. So, make sure you
remember multiplication tables and square of numbers up to
20. It also helps to know some common fractions and their
percentage equivalents such as etc.
8. For Data Sufficiency questions, focus on the sufficiency aspect
and not on the actual answer.
9. Read the question carefully so that you understand it properly
before answering. Do not assume anything. A slight
misinterpretation of the question can take you to an incorrect
answer.
10. Take a quick look at the options before you attempt to solve a
question. In some questions, it may be faster and easier to
simply back-solve from the answer choices.

2.2 Number Properties

2.3 What is Measured?

The number properties section comprises topics such as basics of
numbers, fractions and decimals, divisibility of numbers, finding unit
digit, factors, multiples, HCF, LCM, logarithms etc.
Basic number properties test your ability to interpret and solve
problems of a mathematical nature, using such operations as
addition, subtraction, division and multiplication, and in a variety of
problem formats and situations.
While most of the concepts in number properties are quite simple,
the NMAT by GMAC™ will not always test you on straightforward
concepts; rather, it will mix up two or more topics, so you may see
a question that combines divisibility and LCM and HCF.
The number properties section will also test your mental math skills
as you will be required to make quick calculations in your head.

2.4 Overall Test Taking Strategies

1. Read the question carefully.
2. Look at the options once before you start solving the question.
3. Be aware of the common mathematical operations.
4. Remember the divisibility rules for common numbers, frequently
tested squares and cubes and multiplication tables up to 20.
5. Try to pick numbers and back-solve from the answer choices.
The next few sections will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching each topic.
1 Basics of Numbers, Fractions and Decimals
Introduction
In order to understand quantitative skills, it is important to
understand numbers as they are the basic building blocks of entire
mathematics. This unit is about understanding numbers and their
basic properties.
Understanding numbers
While numbers can be divided into various types, for the NMAT by
GMAC™, you need to be conversant with the following types of
numbers.

Natural and whole Numbers

Numbers from 0, 1, 2, 3, so on are known as whole numbers. Natural
numbers do not include 0.

Rational and irrational numbers

The real numbers expressed in the form of (where q ≠ 0) are called
rational numbers. They include fractions, integers, decimals
(terminating and recurring), natural numbers and whole numbers.
,
etc. are the examples of rational numbers.
The real numbers that cannot be expressed in the form of ( where q
≠ 0) are called irrational numbers. They include non-terminating and
non-recurring decimal numbers.
1.67834569012 …, etc. are the examples of irrational numbers.

Integers and fractions

Numbers −1, 0, 1, 2, etc., which have no fractional part, are called
integers. Integers include the counting numbers (1, 2, 3,…), their
negative counterparts (−1, −2, −3,…) and 0.

Important Learning: 0 as a number is neither a negative integer nor

a positive integer. Also, 0 and all positive integers are called non-
negative integers.
A fraction is a quantity that represents a part of a whole. It has two
parts—a numerator and a denominator. There are two types of
fractions:
1. Proper fractions: Fractions of the form where A and B are
integers and A is less than B, are called proper fractions. For
example, and so on.

2. Improper fractions: Fractions of the form where A and B are

integers and A is greater than B, are called improper fractions.
For example, and so on.

Important concepts about fractions

1. If the numerator is increased while keeping the denominator
constant, the fraction increases in value and vice versa.
2. If the denominator is increased while keeping the numerator
constant, the fraction decreases in value and vice versa.
3. A quick method of comparing two positive fractions is to multiply
the numerator of the first fraction with the denominator of the
second and vice versa. If the product on the left side is larger, then
the left fraction is greater and if the product on the right side is
larger, then the right fraction is greater.
For example, compare and On cross-multiplying, we get 3 ×
11 = 33 and 5 × 7 = 35
Since 35 > 33, the fraction that corresponds to 35, that is is
greater.

Prime and composite numbers

A number which has exactly two different factors, that is, 1 and the
number itself is a prime number (3, 11, 19, etc.) and a number
having more than two different factors is a composite number (4 ,
12 , 20, etc. ).
Since the number 1 has only one factor that is 1 itself, it is neither a
prime number nor a composite number.

Important Learning: 1 as a number is neither prime nor

composite.

Some properties and observations on prime numbers are:

1. 2 is the smallest prime number.
2. 2 is the only even prime number; all other prime numbers are odd.
3. There are 25 prime numbers when counted from 1 to 100.
4. Every prime number, except 2 and 3, can be expressed as 1 more
than a multiple of 6 or 1 less than a multiple of 6 (that is, 6 N + 1
or 6N − 1).

Decimals
Decimals are numbers that fall in between integers. They express a
part-to-whole relationship in terms of place value. For example, 1.2
is a decimal. The integers 1 and 2 are not decimals. An integer
written as 1.0, however, is considered a decimal.

Digits and place value

There are 10 digits that make up all numbers: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
and 9. For example, the three-digit number 412 consists of the digits
4, 1 and 2.
Every digit in a given number has a particular place value. The place
value depends upon the digit’s location relative to the decimal point.
Calendars
The topic of calendar includes concepts such as odd days and leap
year and finding the day of the week for a given date.

Concept of odd days

An ordinary year has 365 days, that is, 52 weeks and one odd day.
This means, out of the 365 days in an ordinary year, 364 days will
get converted into 52 weeks and one day will remain. This one day
is referred to as 1 odd day.
Whenever we will have the case of certain number of days in our
calculations, we will convert the days into weeks by dividing the total
number of days by 7 and the remainder will be the number of odd
days.

How the day of the week for the same date shifts from one
year to the next
The concept of odd days means that when we proceed from one year
to the next and the year is ordinary, that is, it has 365 days, the day
will get shifted by one day.
As an example, if the 24th of May 2014 is a Saturday, then 24th of
May 2015 will be a Sunday while 24th of May 2013 would have been
a Friday and so on.
A leap year has 366 days, that is, 52 weeks and two odd days. This
means that when we proceed from one year to the next and the year
has the effect of leap (29th February being included), and the year
has 366 days, the day would get shifted by two days.
As an example, if the 24th of May 2015 is a Sunday, then 24th of May
2016 would be a Tuesday, that is, a shift of two days.

Do not commit this common error: Normally, students make the

mistake of only looking at the years (from which year to which year)
to decide whether the shift will be one day or two days. This is a
wrong approach. When calculating the above, we need to look at
not only the years but also the date from which we are moving to
the other given date. If the 29th of February falls between the two
dates, there will be a shift of two days, otherwise there will be a shift
of one day.

Definition of a leap year

Normally, we define a leap year by saying that a year if divisible by
4 is a leap year, and if not, then an ordinary year. This definition is
unfortunately not complete. The correct definition of a leap year is
as follows:

An end of the century year (the last year of a century, e.g. 1900, 2000 ,
2100, etc.) is a leap year only if divisible by 400. For all the other years,
check the divisibility by 4, and if the year is divisible by 4 it is said to be a
leap year and will have 366 days.
This would mean that the year 1900 in spite of being divisible by 4
was not a leap year and the year 2100 will also not be a leap year.

Important Learning: Do you know why an end of the century year

has to be divisible by 400 to be a leap year? This is because the
revolution of the Earth around the Sun, which is normally said to be
365.25 days, which is what leads to an additional day being added
in February, is actually 365.242 days.
Therefore, when we take 365.25 days in each year in our
calculations, we are introducing an error of approximately 0.008
days in our calendar every year.
This error of 0.008 days does not seem very significant when viewed
alone, but when its effect is taken for 400 consecutive years, it will
introduce an error of 3 complete days in our calendar.
Therefore, it was decided that if the above mentioned error is to be
corrected, then we need to add 3 days less in every 400 years, and
so the 100th, 200th and 300th year are not leap years in spite of
being divisible by 4. This error correction has also meant that after
every 400 years, our calendar repeats itself for the next 400 years.

Counting odd days

1st January AD from where our calendar started was a Monday, and
hence the reason for our week starting on a Monday, and Saturday
and Sunday being called as weekends.
Therefore, if we are calculating from 1st January AD and after
converting into weeks, whenever we have 1 odd day left, it would
be a Monday. If there are 2 odd days left, then the first one would
be a Monday, the second a Tuesday and so on. So, after converting
into weeks,

First odd day = Monday

Second odd day = Tuesday
Third odd day = Wednesday
 Fourth odd day = Thursday
Fifth odd day = Friday
Sixth odd day = Saturday
Seventh or zeroth odd day = Sunday

Concept of total odd days in 100, 200, 300 and 400 years
The total number of odd days form the basis of these calculations:
1. If we take 100 consecutive years from 1st January AD, there will
be 24 leap years (remember the 100th year will not be a leap
year) and 76 ordinary years.
24 leap years = 24 × 2 = 48 odd days, that is, 42 days being
converted into 6 weeks and 6 odd days.
76 ordinary years = 76 × 1 = 76 odd days, that is, 70 days being
converted into 10 weeks and 6 odd days.
Total = 6 + 6 = 12 odd days, that is one week and 5 odd days.
So, 100 consecutive years from 1st January AD will give 5 odd
days.
2. Similarly, 200 consecutive years from 1st January AD = 10 odd
days, that is, 3 odd days.
3. 300 consecutive years will be 15 odd days, that is, 1 odd day.
4. But, 400 consecutive years = 20 + 1, that is, 21 odd days, that
is, 0 odd days. (This is because the 400th year will be a leap
year and contribute 1 extra day.)
Also, any multiple of 400 consecutive years will always give 0
odd days. This is used along with the other four concepts to
calculate a day if a date is given.
5. Also, 100 consecutive years will have 5 odd days, that is, the last
day of 100 years will be a Friday. Similarly, the last day of the
200th, 300th and the 400th years will be Wednesday, Monday
and Sunday, respectively.
 Any two years will have the same calendar if they are both of the
same type (that is, both ordinary or both leap) and the first days
of both the years are the same.

Important Learning: The last day of a century will definitely be

one day out of Friday, Wednesday, Monday or Sunday. Continuing
with the same logic, the first day of a new century will be a
Saturday, Thursday, Tuesday or Monday.

Problem types based on calendars

Type 1

Example 1
What was the day on 24th May 2014?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
(E) Saturday

Solution
In such questions, it would always depend on whether we
have a reference point or not. As we do not have a reference
point in this case, we will start our calculations from 1 st
January AD.
The first 2,000 years = 0 odd days Next
13 years will have:
3 leap years × 2 odd days = 6 odd days
10 ordinary years × 1 odd day = 10 odd days = 3 odd days
 For the year 2014:
January: 31 days, 3 odd days
February: 28 days, 0 odd days
March: 31 days, 3 odd days
April: 30 days, 2 odd days May:
24 days, 24 odd days = 3 odd
days
Total number of odd days for the year 2014 = 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 +
3 = 11 odd days = 4 odd days
Total odd days = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 odd days = 6 odd days Thus,
24th May 2014 will be a Saturday.

The correct answer is E.

Example 2
If 31 March 2017 is a Saturday, find the day of the week on 1
January 2014.
(A) Wednesday
(B) Friday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) Tuesday

Solution
The day of the week on 1 January 2014 can be determined as:
31 March 2017 is a Saturday.
31 March 2016 will be a Friday.
31 March 2015 will be a Wednesday.
31 March 2014 will be a Tuesday.
 3 March 2014 (28 days before) will be a Tuesday.
28 February 2014 will be a Saturday.
31 January 2014 will be a Saturday.
3 January 2014 will be a Saturday.
So, 1 January 2014 will be a Thursday.

The correct answer is C.

2 Divisibility of Numbers and Finding Unit Digit
Now, let us look at the divisibility rules for some important numbers
that will help you make quick calculations.
1. Divisibility rule for 2: A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit
is 0 or even, that is, 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8. All even numbers are
divisible by 2. For example, the last digit of 15646790 is 0 ;
therefore, it is divisible by 2.
2. Divisibility rule for 3: A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of
all the digits of the number is divisible by 3. For example, let
us take the number 4,689. Now, the sum of the digits will be 4
+ 6 + 8 + 9 = 27; and since 27 is divisible by 3, the number
4,689 is also divisible by 3.
3. Divisibility rule for 4: A number is divisible by 4 if the number
formed by its last 2 digits is divisible by 4. Let us take the
example of 4,689. The number formed by the last 2 digits is 89
, which is not divisible by 4. So, the given number is not
divisible by 4. Also, since 89 divided by 4 gives a remainder of
1, so 4 ,689 when divided by 4 will also give a remainder of 1.
4. Divisibility rule for 5: A number is divisible by 5 if its last digit
is 0 or 5. For example, the last digit of 567899239645 is 5 ;
therefore, it is divisible by 5.
5. Divisibility rule for 6: A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible
by both 2 and 3. For example, the last digit of 1236 is 6. It is
even; hence, it is divisible by 2. The sum of its digits (1 + 2 + 3
 + 6) is 12, which is divisible by 3. So, the given number is
divisible by 6.
6. Divisibility rule for 7: If the difference of twice of last digit of
a number and the number formed by its remaining digits is
either 0 or a multiple of 7, then the number is divisible by 7 (
Repeat this process until we get a smaller number whose
divisibility is known to us).
Let us check whether 1456 is divisible by 7 or not.
145 – (6 × 2) = 133
13 – (3 × 2) = 7
Therefore, 1456 is divisible by 7.
7. Divisibility rule for 8: A number is divisible by 8 if the number
formed by its last three digits is divisible by 8. For example, the
last three digits of 123696 are 696. 696 is divisible by 8 ;
therefore, 123696 is divisible by 8.
8. Divisibility rule for 9: A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of
all its digits is divisible by 9. For example, the sum of all the
digits of 6794568 is 45 (6 + 7 + 9 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 8) and 45 is
divisible by 9. Therefore, 6794568 is divisible by 9.
9. Divisibility rule for 10: A number is divisible by 10 if its last
digit is 0. For example, the last digit of 27798870 is 0.
Therefore, it is divisible by 10.
10. Divisibility rule for 11: If the difference between the sum of
digits of a number at odd place and the sum of digits of that
number at even place is either 0 or a multiple of 11, then that
number is divisible by 11.
For example, the difference between the sum of digits of 23452
at odd place (2 + 4 + 2 = 8) and at even place (3 + 5 = 8) is 0 (8
– 8). Therefore, 23452 is divisible by 11.
11. For divisibility of other composite numbers: Any number is
divisible by a composite number N (where N = m × p) if it is
 divisible by both m and p. There is a condition that m and p
must be co-prime.
For example, any number is divisible by 88 if it is divisible by both
8 and 11 , but, not if it is divisible by both 4 and 22.
12. Divisibility rule for 12: A number is divisible by 12 if it is
divisible by both 3 and 4. For example, the sum of all the digits
of 7896 is 30 that is divisible by 3 and the number formed by
the last two digits is 96 that is divisible by 4. So, 7896 is
divisible by 12.
Example 1
If the number 2546bc is completely divisible by 3, find the
possible values of b + c.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 13
(E) 17

Solution
For a number to be divisible by 3, the sum of all the digits should
be divisible by 3.
Now, 2 + 5 + 4 + 6 + b + c should be divisible by 3.
17 + b + c must be divisible by 3.
Therefore, b + c must be a (multiple of 3) + 1.
That is, 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19.
b + c can take the mentioned nine values. 13 is the only value
available in the options.

The correct answer is D.

 Example 2
A number Q gives a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. Find the
remainder when 2Q is divided by 7.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
(E) 9
Solution
2Q when divided by 7 will give a remainder of 2 × 5, that is,
10. This can be divided by 7 and the required remainder will
be 3.
The other way of approaching this question is to pick a number
that satisfies the criteria given in the question, that is, it should
leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. Let us pick Q as 12.
So, when 2Q , that is, 24 is divided by 7, the remainder is 3,
which is your answer. You can try this with any other number,
such as 19, the result will remain the same

The correct answer is B.

Word Problems on Numbers and Variables

There are a few things that need to be known before we look at
various problems based on numbers and variables:
1. A two-digit number will always be written as 10x + y and not as
xy. Similarly, a three-digit number will be written as 100x + 10y +
z. But the digits of a two-digit number will be called x and y.
2. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by
interchanging the digits is always divisible by 11.
3. The difference of a two digit number and the number obtained by
interchanging the digits is always divisible by 9.
4. Any two two-digit numbers can be added to make a maximum
sum of 198.

Example 3
The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by
reversing the digits is a multiple of 88. If the difference of the
digits at the ten’s place and unit’s place is 6, find the digit at the
ten’s place of the number.
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

Solution
Let the two-digit number be 10x + y and so the number obtained
by reversing the digits is 10 y + x.
Their sum will be 11x + 11y, that is, 11( x + y ).
If 11(x + y) is a multiple of 88, then x + y is a multiple of 8, that
is, x + y can be either 8 or 16.
Also, y − x = 6
Thus, one possible result is y = 7 and x = 1. The other result is
y = 11 and x = 5, which is not possible.

The correct answer is E.

VBODMAS
VBODMAS stands for Vinculum Brackets, Of, Division,
Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction. This acronym helps us
remember the sequence in which to carry out arithmetic operations.

Order of Operations

V – Vinculum or Bar
The bar you see on top of the values like must be solved first.

B – Brackets
Parts of calculation inside the brackets are always done first after the
vinculum or bar.

O – Orders
Solve for orders if there is any, like powers, square roots or cube
roots.
DM – Divide or multiply before addition or subtraction AS – Do
addition and subtraction in the last (from left to right).

Note: ‘Of’ is used as a multiply operand in simplification.

While performing simplification, always ensure that the brackets are
opened in the following order of priority, starting from (i)
i. Bar bracket ‘----’
ii. Circular bracket ( )
iii. Curly bracket { }
iv. Square bracket [ ]
Let’s take an example to simplify a statement using the BODMAS
rule:

Number line and absolute value

A number line is a line on which all real numbers can be placed as
per their value. Each point on the number line corresponds to a real
number. For example, in the figure, above, the number 3.5
corresponds to a point on the number line which is halfway between
3 and 4.
The absolute value of a point is its distance from 0 on the number
line. A positive number is already in the same form as that number’s
absolute value. For a negative number, remove the negative sign to
get that number’s absolute value. For example, the absolute value
of −2 is 2. The absolute value is denoted by two vertical parallel
lines.

Important Learning: The absolute value of a number cannot be

negative.

Largest Power of a Number in a Factorial

For Prime Numbers

Largest power of a prime number ‘p’ in factorial of any natural number
‘N’

For any non-negative integer X, [X] denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to X.
For example,
[3.15] = 3

Example 4
 Find the largest power of 3 in 100!
(A) 46
(B) 47
(C) 48
(D) 49
(E) 50

Solution

Largest power of 3 in 100! =

Note that here we cannot take as 35 > 100.

Therefore, the largest power of 3 in 100! = 33 + 11 + 3 + 1 = 48

The correct answer is C.

For Composite Numbers

In order to find the largest power of a composite number in N!
follow the steps given below.
1. Factorise the given number into its prime factors.
2. Find the largest power of largest prime factor of given number in
N!.
The largest power of largest prime factor in N! is the largest power of
given number in N!.

Example 5
Find the largest power of 30 in 50!
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
 (D) 13
(E) 14

Solution
30 = 2 × 3 × 5
Since largest prime factor of 30 is 5, therefore, largest power of
5 in 50! is the largest power of 30 in 50!.
Largest power of 5 in 50! =

Therefore, the largest power of 30 in 50! = 12

The correct answer is C.

Find units digit of pq

Unit’s place of pq depends on unit’s place digit of ‘p’ and the
divisibility of power ‘q’. Consider powers of 2, as we know, 21 = 2 ,
22 = 4, 23 = 8, 24 = 16, 25 = 32, 26 = 64, 27 = 128 and so on. The
units place digit for powers of 2 repeat in an order: 2, 4, 8, 6. So, the
cyclicity of number 2 is 4 (that means the pattern repeats after 4
occurrences) and the cycle pattern is 2, 4, 8, 6. From this, you can
see that to find the units place digit of powers of 2, you have to
divide the exponent by 4.

Shortcuts to solve problems related to units place digit of pq

1. Case 1: If ‘q’ is a multiple of 4
If ‘p’ is an even number, that is: 2, 4, 6 or 8, then the units place
digit is 6
If ‘p’ is an odd number, that is: 1, 3, 7 or 9, then the units place
digit is 1
2. Case 2: If ‘q’ is not a multiple of 4
Let ‘r’ be the remainder when ‘q’ is divided by 4, then units place of
pq will be equal to units place of pr.
Cyclicity of numbers up to 9:

Let us take some examples to understand it clearly.

(a) The last digit for (163)11 is the same as that of 311, that is, 34×2+3
which is the same as the last digit for 33, that is, last digit for 27
and so our last digit for (163)11 is 7.
(b) Last digit for (29)19 is the same as that of 919, that is, 92×9+1 which
is the same as the last digit for 91 = 9.

3 Factors, Multiples, Least Common Multiple and

Highest Common Factor
Factors and Multiples
A factor is a number that is able to completely divide a number
greater than or equal to it. For example, 2 is a factor of 4 and 3 is a
factor of 15, but 2 is not a factor of 15.
On the other hand, a multiple is a number that may be divided by
another number a certain number of times without leaving a
remainder. So, 4 is a multiple of 2, 15 is a multiple of 3, but 15 is not
a multiple of 2 since dividing 15 by 2 will leave a remainder of 1.
Factor foundation rule
If a is a factor of b and b is a factor of c, then a is also a factor of c.
For example, 3 is a factor of 9 and 9 is a factor of 81. Therefore, 3
is also a factor of 81.

Prime factorisation
Prime factorisation is a way to express any number as a product of
prime numbers. For example, the prime factorisation of 30 is 2 × 3
× 5. Prime factorisation is useful in answering questions about
divisibility.

Example 1
Given that 1,176 = 2p × 3q × 7r, find the value of p + q + r.
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 12

Solution
The given number can be written as below:
1176 = 4 × 294 = 4 × 3 × 98 = 4 × 3 × 2 × 49 = 23 × 31 × 72
Since 1176 = 2p × 3q × 7r, therefore, p = 3, q = 1 and r = 2
Hence, p + q + r = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6

The correct answer is A.

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

We already have an understanding of what is a factor. The Highest
Common Factor or HCF is the highest common factor among all the
factors of a set of given numbers. It is also known as the Greatest
Common Factor (GCF) or the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD). For
example, the HCF of 24 and 40 will be 8, since 8 is the largest
number that can completely divide both 24 and 40.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The Least Common Multiple or LCM is the least common multiple
of any set of given numbers. LCM refers to the smallest multiple of
two (or more) integers. Multiples will be equal to or larger than the
given integers. The LCM of 6 and 15 is 30, because 30 is the
smallest number that both 6 and 15 go into.

Properties of HCF and LCM

Following are properties of HCF and LCM:
1. For any set of given numbers, the LCM is always a multiple of the
HCF.
2. For two given numbers, product of the numbers is equal to the
product of their HCF and LCM. (This property will also hold true
for 3 numbers, 4 numbers and so on, provided none of them have
a common factor other than 1.)
3. For a set of given fractions

Before doing this, we need to bring the fractions to the smallest or

lowest form.

Example 2
 What is the smallest integer which is greater than 1 and which
leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by any of the integers 3
, 5 and 7?
(A) 18
(B) 38
(C) 105
(D) 107
(E) 213

Solution
You start by finding out the smallest number that is divisible
by 2, 5 and 7 (which will be their LCM) and add 2 to the result.
The LCM of 3, 5 and 7 is 105, so our desired answer is 105 + 2
= 107.

The correct answer is D.

Example 3
What minimum number must be subtracted from 247 so that
the number is divisible by both 6 and 7?
(A) 35
(B) 36
(C) 37
(D) 38
(E) 39

Solution
LCM of 6 and 7 is 42.
We need to find out a multiple of 42 closest to 247.
 42 × 5, that is, 210 is the multiple of 42 closest to 247 and so
the value to be subtracted from 247 so that the number left is
completely divisible by both 6 and 7 = 247 − 210 = 37.

The correct answer is C.

4 Logarithm
Definition: Every positive real number N can be expressed in
exponential form as

Where ‘a’ is also a positive real different than unity and is called the
base and ‘x’ is called the exponent.
We can write the relation (1) in logarithmic form as

Hence the two relations

are identical where N > 0, a > 0, a ≠ 1

Hence logarithm of a number to some base is the exponent by which
the base must be raised in order to get that number. Logarithm of
zero does not exist and logarithm of (–) ve reals are not defined

Important Learning: Unless stated otherwise, we assume the base to

be 10.

Important Formula
1. Log (ab) = log a + log b
2. Log (a/b) = log a – log b
3. Log (a)n = n log a
4. Logab = log b/ log a (to any base)

The logarithm of 1
Recall that any number raised to the power zero is 1: a0 = 1.
The logarithmic form of this is loga
1=0

Important Learning:

2.5 Arithmetic
2.6 What is Measured?
The arithmetic section comprises topics such as averages, profit
and loss, ratio and proportion, percentages, simple and compound
interest, mixtures, calendars, etc.
Basic arithmetic questions test your ability to interpret and solve
problems of a mathematical nature, using such operations as
addition, subtraction, division and multiplication, and in a variety of
problem formats and situations.
While most of the concepts in arithmetic are quite simple, the NMAT
by GMAC™ will not always test you on straightforward concepts;
rather, it will mix up two or more topics, so you may see a question
that combines percentages and ratio and proportion.
The arithmetic section will also test your mental math skills as you
will be required to make quick calculations in your head.

2.7 Overall Test Taking Strategies

1. Read the question carefully.
2. Look at the options once before you start solving the question.
3. Remember the frequently tested squares and cubes and
multiplication tables up to 20.
4. Be clear about the equivalent of common fractions as percentage
and also about decimal terms.
5. Try to pick numbers and back-solve from the answer choices.
The next few sections will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching each topic.
1 Percentages
Introduction

Percentage is an important topic in the NMAT by GMAC™, not

only because you may be asked questions specifically related
to percentages, but also because the knowledge of
percentages helps you to easily understand and attempt
problems from other areas in arithmetic.
Also, the understanding of percentages forms an important aspect
of data interpretation (DI), in which questions require you to
calculate percentage values, growth rates and other percentage
changes.
So, what is a percentage? Any value expressed on a base of 100
or over a base of 100 is called percentage and is represented as %
( cent represents the base 100).
A fraction is another way in which the value of a particular
percentage can be represented. Therefore, one can say that
percentages and fractions are equivalent and can be converted into
one another as per the need. For example, 25% is the same as
33.33% is the same as 50% is the same as and so on.
1. To convert a percentage into a fraction, divide the percentage by
100.
For example, 20% is same as
2. Similarly, to convert a fraction into a percentage, multiply the
fraction by 100. For example,

Percentage equivalent of fractions

We need to know the percentage equivalent of fractions in order to
enhance our understanding of percentages as a concept and to help
in quick calculations.
For example, the percentage equivalent of will be
Instead of saying or half of any value, we can also say that we are
calculating 50% of the given value.

Students must know the percentage equivalent of fractions up

to
Let us look at some of these values:

Percentage Change

1. Percentage Change

Percentage Increase/Decrease

2. Percentage increase =

3. Percentage decrease =
4. If the price of a commodity increases by R%, then the reduction
in consumption so as not to change the expenditure is

5. If the price of a commodity decreases by R%, then the increase

in consumption so as not to change the expenditure is
 Example 1
If the price of a commodity increases by 20%, then by what
percentage the consumption should be reduced so as not to
increase the expenditure?
(A) 12.5 %
(B) 14.28 %
(C) 16.67 %
(D) 18.12 %
(E) 20.25 %

Solution

Required percentage

The correct answer is C.

Results on Population
Let the population of a town be P now and suppose it increases at
the rate of R% per annum, then:

1. Population after n years

=

2. Population n years ago

=

Results on Depreciation
Let the present value of a machine be P. Suppose it depreciates at
the rate of R% per annum. Then:
1. Value of the machine after n years =
2. Value of the machine n years ago =

Successive Percentage Change

If any quantity is increased by x%, then y% and later on z%, then the
overall or effective percentage increase is:

Successive Percentage Change Formula

When a number increases by A% and then by B%, the overall
percentage increase is equal to

Example 2
A number is increased by 20% and then the increased number
is again increased by 10%. What is the total increment in the
number?
(A) 30 %
(B) 31 %
(C) 32 %
(D) 33 %
(E) 34 %

Solution

Required percentage =

The correct answer is C.

Application of Successive Percentage Change Formula
We can use successive percentage change formula to solve
percentage-related problems where the product of two quantities
equals the third quantity. For example,
Length × Breadth = Area
Price × Quantity purchased = Expenditure

Multiplication factor
To find the value of R% of a number, we multiply that number by
If we want to find out 35% of a given number, we need to multiply

the number by or 0.35.

To increase a number by R%, we multiply the number by and

to decrease a number by R%, we multiply the number by

We need to understand that finding out R% of a number and

increasing or decreasing a given number by R% are different
operations.

The factor with which we multiply a number in order to (a) find the
value of certain percentage of a given number, (b) increase the
value of a number by a particular percentage or (c) decrease the
value of a number by a particular percentage is called the
multiplication factor.
For example, if we have to increase 120 by 20%, we need to multiply
120 by or or 1.2. In this case, 1.2 is the multiplication
factor. The result is 120 × 1.2 = 144. Therefore, if we increase 120
by 20%, the final result will be 144.
Let us look at the multiplication factor for some cases:
1. To increase a number by 17%, the multiplication factor will be

2. To decrease a number by 11%, the multiplication factor will be

3. To increase a number by 34%, the multiplication factor will be 4.

To decrease a number by 30%, the multiplication factor will be

5. To find 40% of a number, the multiplication factor will be 0.4.

Important Learning: If A is 20% more than B, then B will not be 20 %

less than A.

Base and base change

In percentages, it is very important to understand the base on which
the change is happening. For example, let us take two numbers,
say 40 and 50, and carry out the following operations:
1. Determine what percent of 40 is 50.
For this, we need to express 50 as a percentage of 40, that is,
Therefore, 50 is 125% of the given value 40.

2. Express 40 as a percent of 50.

For this, we need to find out 40 as a percentage of the given base
value, that is, 50. Therefore,

Do not commit this common error: There are two things that a
student must appreciate. 50% is what percentage of 40% and 50%
 is how much more than 40% are two different problems. In this
example, we are being asked about how much more is 50 % than
40%. Many students make the mistake of saying that the required
answer is 10%, which is the difference between the given values 50
and 40. The percentage affixed after the given values probably
creates this confusion. What if the two values were 50 km/h and 40
km/h, that is, speed, or 50 kg and 40 kg, that is, weight?

Points to Remember
Some points to remember while resolving percentage related
problems are listed as follows:
1. A% of B = B% of A
For example, 20% of 80 = 80% of 20 = 16
2. If percentage increase in initial quantity is k%, then the new value
= × Initial quantity.

3. If new quantity becomes k times the old quantity, then the

percentage increase is (k – 1) × 100%. For example, if a quantity
becomes 5 times of its initial value, then the percentage increase
is 400%.
4. If A is k% more than B, then B is less than
A.

5. If A is k% less than B, then B is more than

A.
6. If the price of a commodity increases by k%, then to keep
expenditure constant, decrease in consumption is .

7. If the price of a commodity decreases by k%, then to keep

expenditure constant, increase in consumption is
8. If increase in price is of the original price, then decrease in
quantity purchased so that expenditure remains unchanged is
equal to of the original quantity and vice versa; where x is a
natural number. For example, if price increases by 16.67% or
then in order to keep the expenditure unchanged, the quantity has
to be decreased by or 14.28% of its original value.

9. For the same expenditure, if increase in the quantity purchased is

of the original quantity, then decrease in price is equal to of the
original price and vice versa; where x is a natural
number.
For example, if for the same expenditure, increase in quantity
purchased is 20% or of the original quantity, then decrease in

price is equal to 16.67% or of original price.

Example 3
In a class having 60% girls, 40% of the students qualified in a
test. If 50% of the girls qualified, find the number of boys who
did not qualify in the test as a percentage of the total strength
of the class?
(A) 10 %
(B) 30 %
(C) 45 %
(D) 55 %
(E) 90 %

Solution
 Therefore, as a percentage of the total strength of the class,
30% of the boys have not qualified. Let the total number of
students in the class be 100. Then the number of girls = 60
and number of boys = 40. Total number of students who
qualified = 40% of 100 = 40. Of those 40 students, 30 are girls
(since 50% of the girls have qualified and 50% of 60 = 30). So,
10 boys have qualified, which means that 30 boys have not
qualified.
The correct answer is B.

2 Simple and Compound Interest

Interest
Interest is an additional amount that a person gets against
investment of capital. Interest earnings can be of two types: Simple
Interest (SI) and Compound Interest (CI). Let us look at and
understand both of them.

Simple Interest (SI)

The basic formula for Simple interest is

where P is the Principal, R is the rate % per annum and T is the time
period (in years) of investment.

Compound Interest (CI)

Compound interest is calculated on the principal amount and also
on the accumulated interest of previous periods. This compounding
effect can make a big difference to the total interest payable on a
loan.
The following basic formula is used for calculating compound
interest. The formula calculates the amount, using which the interest
can be calculated, that is

where A is the amount, P is the Principal, R is the rate % applicable

and n is the number of periods.
Compound Interest calculation if interest is payable more than
once a year
If interest is paid before completion of the year, then amount

where p = number of times interest is paid in 1 year and n is number

of years. So, if interest is paid semi-annually, quarterly or monthly,
the value of p is 2, 4 and 12 respectively.

Important Learning:

1. In the first period, SI and CI are equal. In all the other periods
after the first period, the CI is greater than the SI.
2. In simple interest, the total rate of interest applicable is the sum
of all the respective rates applicable.
3. In compound interest, the total rate of interest applicable is the
successive effect of the respective rates given.
4. If an amount becomes N times itself in T years at SI, then the
required rate of Interest
5. Difference between compound interest and simple interest
 a. For Two years, CI – SI =

b. For Three years, CI – SI =

6. Ratio of CI and SI for two years,

Example 1
The simple interest for 10 years is Rs. 6,000. The compound
interest for 2 years is Rs. 1,400. Find the rate of interest and
the principal.
(A) 30 %, 1,800
(B) 33.33 %, 1,600
(C) 33.33 %, 1,800
(D) 35 %, 1,500
(E) 66.66 %, 1,600

Solution
SI for 10 years is Rs. 6,000.
Therefore, SI for 1 year will be Rs. 600.
SI for 2 years will be Rs. 1,200.
CI for 2 years is Rs. 1,400.
Difference = Rs. 200. This is because of interest received on
the first period’s interest.
Therefore,

Therefore,

Also, interest for the first period is Rs. 600, rate is 33.33 %
 and time period is 1 year. Therefore,

The correct answer is C.

3 Profit, Loss and Discounts

Introduction
Profit is an additional amount that a customer pays in return for
buying an item that is owned by or sold by someone else.

where SP is the selling price, that is, the price at which the item is
sold, and CP is the cost price, that is, the price at which it was
originally manufactured or purchased by the seller.
When profit is expressed as a percentage of CP, it is known as profit
%. Therefore,

Sometimes, the product is sold at a price lower than the CP. This is
called loss.
Loss can be written either as (CP − SP), in which case it has a
positive sign or (SP − CP), in which case it has a negative sign. So,
loss = SP − CP.

Important Learning: Profit or loss % is always expressed as a

percentage of the cost price.
 Example 1
50 kg of a product is sold and the profit generated is equal to
the cost price of 20 kg of the product. Find the profit
percentage made.
(A) 20 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 35 %
(D) 40 %
(E) 45 %

Solution
As per the problem, we have:
SP of 50 kg − CP of 50 kg = CP of 20 kg
Or, CP of 70 kg = SP of 50 kg Therefore,

The correct answer is D.

False weights
If an item is claimed to be sold at cost price using false weights, then
the overall percentage profit is given by

Example 2
A dishonest dealer claims to sell his good at cost price but
uses a false weight, which reads 1000 gm for 800 gm. What
is his net profit percentage?
(A) 20 %
 (B) 25 %
(C) 35 %
(D) 40 %
(E) 45 %

Solution

Required percentage

The correct answer is B.

Discount
A discount is a reduction in the marked (or list) price of an article.
“25% discount” means a reduction of 25% in the marked price of an
article. For example, if the marked price of an article is Rs. 400, it is
sold for Rs. 300, that is, Rs. 100 less than the marked price. Let us
define the following:

Marked Price (or List price)

The marked price (M.P.) of an article is the price at which the article
is listed for sale. Since this price is written (marked) on the article,
so it is called the marked price.

Net Selling Price (S.P.)

In case of discount selling, the price of the article obtained by
subtracting discount from the marked price is called the Net Selling
price or Selling price (S.P.).

Successive Discounts
When a discount of a% is followed by another discount of b%, then
Total discount =

Important points and formulae

1. While the mark-up is always calculated as a percentage of the
cost price, discount % is always calculated as a percentage of the
marked price.
2. If two items are sold for Rs. x each, the first one at a profit of
P% and the other at a loss of P%, then the overall loss will be =

3. When the CP and SP are either both increased or both decreased

by the same percentage, there is no change in the existing profit
% or loss %.
4. If two discounts are A% and B%, then the single equivalent
discount =

5. If a person wants to make a profit of A% after giving a discount of

B%, then the Marked Price, MP =

4 Ratio, Proportion and Average

Introduction
Ratio is a comparison between two or more similar quantities having
the same dimensions; therefore, ratio happens to be a
dimensionless quantity.
For example, when we mention that the speed of two persons A and
B is in the ratio 2:3, we do not ask whether the speed is in km/h or
m/s, as the ratio is a simple comparison between two similar
variables or values.
A ratio and fraction are synonymous yet different entities. When we
say that a:b is 2:3, we are talking about the ratio. Ratios are used to
make comparisons, but when we need to find the individual
contributions or values, fractions are required for the same.
Therefore, if a:b is 4:3, we understand that for every value of 4 that
a gets, b will get a value of 3, and so a gets a value of 4 for every 7
that they get together. This is known as a fraction.
Fraction of a is that is and fraction of b is that is

Important characteristics and formulae related to ratios

Some of the basic properties of ratios are listed below:
1. If both the antecedent and the consequent are multiplied or
divided by the same number (except 0), the ratio will remain the
same, i.e.

2. Duplicate ratio refers to the ratio of the squares of the antecedent

and the consequent. Duplicate ratio of x : y = x2 : y2.
3. Triplicate ratio refers to the ratio of the cubes of the antecedent
and the consequent. Triplicate ratio of x : y = x3 : y3.
4. Sub-duplicate ratio refers to the ratio of the square roots of the
antecedent and the consequent. Sub-duplicate ratio of x : y =

5. Sub-triplicate ratio refers to the ratio of the cube roots of the

antecedent and the consequent. Sub-triplicate ratio of x : y =

6. Inverse ratio is derived by interchanging the positions of the

antecedent and the consequent. Inverse ratio of x : y = y : x.
7. If the denominator of two ratios is same, then the ratio with larger
numerator is greater than the ratio with the smaller
 numerator.
8. If we are given that then

9. If then

Important Learning: Ratio between two quantities or variables is

only a comparative measure. It does not tell you anything about

the actual values. For calculating actual values, you need to use
fractions.

Example 1
The sum of the ages of the five members in a family is 124
years. If the ages of the children are in the ratio 3:4:5 while the
combined age of their parents is 76, find the age of the
youngest child.
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14
(E) 15

Solution
Combined age of the three children = 124 − 76 = 48 years Age
of the youngest child will be:
The correct answer is B.

Proportion and variation

Proportion is directly connected to ratios. Basically, a proportion is
a statement that tells us that two ratios are equal. It can be written
in two ways:
1. Two equal fractions, or
2. Using a colon, a:b = c:d
When two ratios are equal, the cross-multiplication of the ratios is
also equal. For example,

Important Characteristics and Formulae Related to

Proportions
Some of the basic properties of proportions are listed below:
1. Since the product of extremes is equal to the product of
means, i.e. ad = bc.
2. If a proportion is such that a : x :: x : b, then x is called the mean
proportional or the second proportional of a and b.
3. If a proportion is such that a : b :: b : x, then x is called the third
proportional to a and b.
4. Componendo then rule: If
5. Dividendo rule: then If
6. Componendo and Dividendo (C and D) rule: If then
7. If then
8. Invertendo rule: If then
9. Alternendo rule: If then

Example 2
Three solutions having milk and water in the ratio 2:3, 3:1 and
4:5, respectively, were mixed in the ratio 2:3:4. Find the ratio
of milk to water in the resultant mixture.
(A) 869:751
(B) 219:341
(C) 420:519
(D) 531:622
(E) 640:729 Solution

Let the solutions added be 2, 3 and 4 L, respectively.

Then, the quantity of milk in the solution is as below:

And, the quantity of water in the solution is as below:

Therefore, ratio of milk to water = 869:751

The correct answer is A.

Direct proportionality
Y is said to be directly proportional to X if Y increases as X increases
and Y decreases as X decreases. Here, Y is called the dependent
variable, while X is called the independent variable.
We can write the relation in the form Y = KX, where K is called the
constant of proportionality.

Applications of direct proportionality

1. Distance covered is directly proportional to speed if time of travel
is constant.
2. Amount of work done is directly proportional to the number of
people if the number of days is constant.

Inverse proportionality
Y is said to be inversely proportional to X if Y decreases as X
increases and Y increases as X decreases.
We can write the relation in the form where K is called the
constant of proportionality.

Applications of inverse proportionality

1. Time taken is inversely proportional to speed if distance is
constant.
2. Number of days is inversely proportional to the number of people
if the amount of work done is constant.

Age-related problems
Problems based on ages are a simple application of the concept of
ratios. In all problems of ages, we need to follow the instructions
given in the problem keeping the time shift in consideration.

Important Points
1. We can take the unknown variable as the current age of the
persons in the question or their age a few years earlier or a few
years later. The answer will be the same, provided we keep the
time shift in consideration.
2. The difference between the ages of two persons will always be
the same whether the calculation is done today, a few years
earlier or a few years later.
3. If the average age of a family of n members is x today, after three
years, the average age of the family will be x + 3.

Example 3
Three years ago, the ratio of the ages of a father and a son
was 6:1. After 3 years, the ratio will be 36:11. Find the present
age of the son.
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 8 years
(D) 11 years
(E) 17 years Solution

Let the ages of father and son three years ago be 6x and x.
Today their ages will be 6x + 3 and x + 3 and after 3 years
their ages will be 6x + 6 and x + 6.
Now,

Present age of the son will be x + 3, that is, 5 + 3 = 8 years

The correct answer is C.

Averages
An average is typically the central value of a set of numbers. For a
set of ‘n’ values x1, x2,……xn, the average is given by the following
algebraic expression:

Therefore, the formula for the average of a set of values can be

expressed by the following formula:

Example 4
The average of five consecutive integers is 20. What is the
average of the first 3 of these integers?
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
(E) 21

Solution
We know that the average of consecutive integers is always
the middle value. So, if the average is 20, the integers are 18
, 19 , 20, 21, 22.
So, the first 3 integers in this list are 18, 19, 20 whose average
will again be the middle value, that is, 19.

The correct answer is D.

Properties of average
• If each number in a set of numbers is increased by ‘p’, then their
average is also increased by ‘p’.
• If each number in a set of numbers is decreased by ‘p’, then their
average is also decreased by ‘p’.
• Similarly, if each number in a set of numbers is multiplied or divided
by ‘p’, then their average also gets multiplied or divided by the
same number ‘p’.

Average of two different groups

Let us consider there are two groups; group 1 and group 2 with
respective averages ‘a’ and ‘b’. If the number of total items in group
1 and group 2 are ‘m’ and ‘n’ respectively, then the combined
average of the two groups is given by the following expression:

Change in average on deletion of an item

Let us consider that a value ‘x’ is deleted from a set of ‘n’ values
with average ‘a’,. On deletion of an item the average of the
remaining values may either increase or decrease which depends
on the value of the deleted item. Therefore, it can be defined under
two cases:

Case 1
If the average is increased by µ, then the deleted value ‘x’ is given by

Example 5
The average of a set of five values is 12. If one number is
deleted, the average of the set is increased by 0.6. What is
the value of the deleted number?
 (A) 8.2
(B) 8.8
(C) 9.2
(D) 9.6
(E) 10.2

Solution
Here, the original average (a) = 12
Total number of items (n) = 5
Decrease in the original average (µ) = 0.6
Therefore, the deleted value (x) = a – (n – 1) µ = 12 – (5 – 1)
0.6 = 9.6

The correct answer is D.

Case 2
If the average is decreases by µ, then the deleted value ‘x’ is given
by

Example 6
The average of a set of five values is 12. If one number is
deleted, the average of the set is decreased by 0.6. What is
the value of the deleted number?
(A) 14.2
(B) 14.4
(C) 16.2
(D) 19.6
(E) 20.2

Solution
 Here, the original average (a) = 12
Total number of items (n) = 5
Decrease in the original average (µ) = 0.6
Therefore, the deleted value (x) = a + (n – 1) µ = 12 + (5 – 1)
0.6 = 14.4

The correct answer is B.

Change in average on addition of an item

Let us consider that a value ‘x’ is added to a set of ‘n’ values with
the average ‘a’. On addition of an item, the average may either
increase or decrease which depends on the value of the added item.
Therefore, it can be defined under two cases:

Case 1
If the average is increased by µ, then the added value ‘x’ is given by

Example 7
The average weight of a class of 13 students is 62.875 kg.
When a new student joins the class, the average weight
increases to 62.985 kg. What is the weight of the new student?
(A) 64.415 kg
(B) 65.825 kg
(C) 66.545 kg
(D) 67.215 kg
(E) 69.615 kg

Solution
Original average (a) = 62.875 kg
Increase in average weight (µ) = 62.985 – 62.875 = 0.11
 Number of students (n) = 13
Therefore, the weight of the new students can be calculated
using the formula: x = a + (n + 1) µ
x = 62.875 + (13 + 1) 0.11 = 64.415 kg

The correct answer is A.

Case 2
If the average is decreased by µ, then the added value ‘x’ is given by

Example 8
Virat Kohli has an average score of 54 in the last 15 matches.
After the last match his average becomes 53. What was Virat’s
score in the last match?
(A) 30 runs
(B) 34 runs
(C) 38 runs
(D) 42 runs
(E) 46 runs

Solution
Using the formula discussed above, we get.
Virat’s score in the last match = 54 – (15 + 1) 1 = 38 runs

The correct answer is C.

5 Time, Work and Partnership

Introduction
Time and work problems are important because there is a certain
relationship between the number of persons doing the work, number
of days or time taken by them to complete the work and the amount
of work that is done.
The problems of time and work can primarily be divided into two
types. The first type is the problem where individuals work with
different efficiencies either alone or in combination to complete a
task. The second type is where group efficiencies are involved.
Such types of problems are also known as problems that use the
chain rule.
The NMAT by GMAC™ will test you on both of these types of
problems.

Problems involving individual efficiencies

In such questions, the rates at which some individuals complete a
work alone is given and you are required to calculate the rate at
which they can complete the work together (or vice versa). The
basic formula for solving such problems is

where a and b are the time it takes the two individuals to complete
a job, while working alone and c is the number of hours it takes them
to complete the job working together. Let us look at an illustration to
understand this concept better.

Example 1
A can do a work in 20 days. B can do the same work in 30 days.
In how many days can A and B do the work together?
(A) 8 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 12 days
 (D) 14 days
(E) 16 days

Solution
Unitary method: We have been solving such problems using
the unitary method.
A can do a work in 20 days. Therefore, in 1 day, A will be able
to do of the work.
B can do the same work in 30 days. Therefore, in 1 day, B will
be able to do of the work.

Both of them together can do of the work in 1 day =

of the work in 1 day.

Therefore, the entire work will be completed in days, that is,

12 days.

The correct answer is C.

LCM method
An easier method to do such problems is to understand and
use a method called the LCM method.
Let the total work be 60 units, where a unit is a simple
measurement of work.
Total work = 60 units
A can to do 60 units in 20 days, that is, 3 units per day.
B can to do 60 units in 30 days, that is, 2 units per day.
Together, they are able to do 3 + 2, that is, 5 units per day.
Therefore, they will finish the work in that is, 12 days.
 With a little practice, the LCM method can be effectively used
to solve a problem.

Important Learning: While using the LCM method, it is not

necessary to use the LCM of the individual time taken to do the
problem. One can take any convenient value and solve the
problem.

Problems involving group efficiencies

We will now look at problems where people with the same
efficiencies are working in groups. Let us try to understand this with
the help of an example.

Example 2
A and B can do a work in 20 and 25 days, respectively. With
the help of C and D, they finish the same work in 5 days. If the
efficiency of C is half that of A, find the total time taken by D
to finish the work alone.
(A)
(B) 12
(C)
(D) 15
(E) 20

Solution
Let the total work be 100 units.
A: 20 days 5 units/day
B: 25 days 4 units/day
A + B + C + D: 5 days 20 units/day
 It means C and D can do 11 units per day. Since the efficiency
of C is half of A, C will be able to do 2.5 units per day. It means
D would be doing the remaining 8.5 units per day.
Total time taken by D to finish the work alone =

The correct answer is C.

Example 3
Three boys can do the same work as one woman. If a work is
completed by 36 boys in 28 days working 9 h every day, how
many women must be required to complete the same work in
7 days working 6 h every day?
(A) 36 women
(B) 48 women
(C) 54 women
(D) 66 women
(E) 72 women

Solution
Given that 36 boys will be equivalent to 12 women.
12 women × 28 days × 9 h = y women × 7 days × 6 h Therefore,
y = 72 women

The correct answer is E.

Partnership
Partnership is defined as a legal agreement between two or more
persons who agree to share profits or losses incurred by a business
entity. Each person in the partnership is called a partner.
If the partnership incurs losses, then partners also share losses; and
vice versa.
If IR = Investment Ratio
And, TR = The ratio of time periods of different partners,
Then, Profit Sharing Ratio (PSR) or Loss Sharing Ratio (LSR) is
calculated as the product of the IR and TR.
Therefore,
PSR or LSR = IR × TR

Important Cases Related to Partnership:

1. If there are two partners who invest I1 and I2 for the same period
of time, then the PSR or LSR between partners 1 and 2 is
calculated as:

2. If there are two partners who invest I1 and I2 amounts for time
periods t1 and t2, then the PSR or LSR of partners 1 and 2 is
calculated as:

3. The share of each partner in a two-person (say Partner 1 and

Partner 2) partnership, when they invest I1 and I2 amounts for
the same duration of time, is calculated as:

4. The share of partners in a three-person (say Partner 1, Partner

2 and Partner 3) partnership, when they invest I1, I2 and I3
amounts for the same duration of time, is calculated as:
 Example 4
A started a business with a capital of Rs. 5,000. Three months
later, B joined with a capital of Rs. 7,000. After another 3
months, A invested Rs. 1,000 more while B withdrew Rs.
2,000. Two months later, C joined with a capital of Rs. 5,000.
In what ratio should the profits get divided at the end of the
year?
(A) 22:4:17
(B) 22:17:8
(C) 22:17:4
(D) 66:51:20
(E) 66:17:20
Solution
As per the problem:
Equivalent contribution of A = 5,000 × 6 + 6,000 × 6 = 6,6000
Equivalent contribution of B = 7,000 × 3 + 5,000 × 6 = 51,000
Equivalent contribution of C = 5,000 × 4 = 20,000 Therefore,
the required ratio = 66:51:20

The correct answer is D.

2.8 Algebra and Probability
2.9 What is Measured?
The algebra and probability section will test you on topics such as
equations, inequalities, sequence and series, permutation and
combination and probability. You will be required to solve linear
equations with one unknown and two unknowns, calculate the roots
of a quadratic equation and work with the concept of absolute value.
Algebra is also tested indirectly in word problems as most of these
questions will require you to make an equation and solve it. You will
also be tested on the expression of common algebraic identities
such as (a + b)2, (a − b)2 and so on.

2.10 Overall Test Taking Strategies

1. As algebra is mostly formula-driven, you should be familiar with
all the commonly used formulae.
2. If you make any change to one side of an equation or inequality,
remember to make that same change to the other side as well.
3. Remember to reverse the inequality sign when changing a
positive number into a negative number or vice versa.
4. A lot of the algebra questions are best tackled through the answer
choices. Instead of finding the actual answer, it may be faster to
back-solve from the answer choices, especially if you are able to
eliminate one or two choices at first glance.
The next few sections will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching each topic.
1 Equations and Inequalities
Equations
While arithmetic primarily deals with numbers, the basic building
block of algebra is a variable which does not have a fixed value.
A variable along with a constant forms the basis of algebra. A
variable by itself or a constant by itself or a variable in combination
with a constant forms a term in algebra. For example, x 3 will be a
term, 8 is also a term, 5x2 is also a term and so on.
When many terms combine together, they form an expression. For
example, x3 − 5x2 + 11 is an expression in variable x. Please note
that an expression is different from an equation. While an
expression does not include the ‘=’ sign, an equation will always
include an ‘=’ sign. Moreover, an expression always has a value,
while an equation has roots or a solution.

Basis of classification
Algebraic expressions can be classified in the following ways:
1. Number of terms: The first basis of classification of algebraic
expressions is based on the number of terms in the expression.
• An expression having a single term is called a monomial, for
example, 5x2y. Please note that the number of variables does
not make any difference as long as the term is single.
• An expression having two terms is called a binomial. For
example, 3x + 5.
• An expression having more than two terms is called a
polynomial. For example, 5x + 2y − 6.
2. Degree of the expression: Before we understand this, we need
to understand the definition of degree. Degree is defined as the
highest or maximum sum of the powers of all the variables in any
term of the expression.
For example,
 • The degree of this expression will be 4 because in the term
2x2yz, the power of x = 2, power of y = 1, power of z = 1. Hence
the degree will be 2 + 1 + 1 = 4.
• An expression of degree 1 is called linear.
• An expression of degree 2 is called quadratic.
• An expression of degree 3 is called cubic and so on.

Important Learning:
• (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a – b)2 + 4ab
• (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2 – 4ab
• a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b)
•
• (a + b)2 – (a – b)2 = 4ab
• (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab (a + b)
• (a – b)3 = a3 – b3 – 3ab (a – b)
• a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 – ab + b2)
• a3 – b3 = (a – b) (a2 + ab + b2)
•
• (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ac)
• If a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

Linear equations
As stated earlier, an equation of degree 1 is called a linear equation.
In this type of equation, all the variables are raised to the first power
only (there are no squares, cubes, etc.). For example,
In order to solve linear equations, we try to isolate the variable
whose value we are trying to find by bringing it on one side of the
equation and taking all other values to the other side of the equation.
So, in the above equation

We can always verify whether we have got the correct answer by

replacing the value of x (that we have arrived at) in the original
equation and checking if it holds true.

Important Learning: To solve a linear equation, you just need to

isolate the variable on one side and take all the numbers on the
other side. Remember to reverse the signs when changing sides.

Example 1
In colony A, there are 12 houses with an average of 4
members per house, while in colony B, there are 20 houses
with an average of Y members per house. If the two colonies
together have an average of 3.5 members per house, find Y.
(A) 3.2
(B) 3.6
(C) 4.8
(D) 5.4
(E) 6.2
 Solution
It is given that the average number of members in the two
colonies together is 3.5. Therefore,
12 × 4 + 20 × Y = 32 × 3.5
48 + 20Y = 112
20 Y = 64
Y = 3.2 members per house

The correct answer is A.

Simultaneous equations
In linear equations, we were working with one variable, namely x. In
simultaneous equations, we will be working with two variables,
namely x and y.
Let us look at this equation

From this equation, can you find the values of x and y? Obviously
not!
As a rule, if you want to find the numerical value for N variables, you
will need N different equations. In linear equations, we are trying to
find the value of one variable, so a single equation is sufficient.
However, in the above equation, we are trying to find the values of
two variables x and y, so we need two different equations that we
will combine and solve simultaneously.

Important Learning: To find the numerical value for N variables,

we need N number of equations.

Let us say we have the following two equations given to us,

We can isolate x in Eq. (1) as

and we can then substitute this value of x in Eq. (2)

We can then solve Eq. (3) as a normal linear equation to get the value
of y as We can then substitute this value of y in either Eq.
(1) or Eq. (2) to find the value of x.

Example 2
The price of two cups, seven pans and four saucers is Rs. 110
while of one cup and two saucers is Rs. 20. Find the price of
three pans.
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 70
(E) 80
Solution
As per the problem:
2. + 7y + 4z = 110
Also, 2x + 4z = 40
 Therefore,
7. = 70 or y = 10
Price of three pans will be Rs. 30.

The correct answer is A.

Example 3
Two apples and five bananas cost Rs. 17, while three apples
and four bananas cost Rs. 15. What is the price of an apple?
(A) Rs. 1
(B) Rs. 1.50
(C) Rs. 2
(D) Rs. 2.50
(E) Rs. 3

Solution
Let the price of an apple be X.
And, the price of a banana be Y.
Now, as per the question, we have:

Multiply Eq. (1) by 4 and Eq. (2) by 5, we get

8 X + 20Y = 68
15 X + 20Y = 75
Solving, we get X = Rs. 1
The correct answer is A.

Quadratic Equations
An equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b and c are real
and a ≠ 0, is called a quadratic equation.

How to solve a quadratic equation

The following two methods are used to solve a quadratic equation:
1. Method of factorisation: This is the most popular method of
solving a quadratic equation. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 is the equation,
we divide b into two parts such that their sum is b and product is
ac.
For example, consider the equation x2 + 5x + 6 = 0.
Now, 5 has to be divided into two numbers such that their
product = 6 and their sum is 5. Therefore,

2. Shridharacharya’s method: This is the method through which

we all learnt the solution of quadratic equations for the first time.
If ax2 + bx + c = 0 is the equation, then

where (b2 − 4ac) is known as D, the discriminant of the equation,

which also decides the nature of the roots of the quadratic
equation, as follows:
• If D > 0, the roots are real and unequal.
• If D = 0, the roots are real and equal.
• If D < 0, the roots are imaginary.
 Important Learning: The solutions to a quadratic equation are
technically called its roots.

Properties of quadratic equations

1. If ax2 + bx + c = 0 is the equation and the two roots are a and b,
then

2. If we know the roots, we can find the equation using

Example 4

If the sum of the roots of an equation is times the product of

the roots, find the relation between b and c.

(
A
)
(
B
)
(
C)
(D)(E)

Solution
 For a quadratic equation,
Sum of the roots = and product of the roots = According

to the problem,

The correct answer is C.

Note: The NMAT by GMAC™ will not test any skills beyond quadratic
equations.

Inequalities
While equations tell us that two parts of an equation are equal,
inequalities tell us that one part is bigger or smaller than the other.

Inequalities basically give us an idea of the relative size of two values.

Solution of an inequality
The value(s) of the variable(s) which makes the inequality a true
statement is called its solutions. The set of all solutions of an
inequality is called the solution set of the inequality. For example,
x – 1 ≥ 0, has infinite number of solutions as all real values greater
than or equal to one make it a true statement. The inequality x 2 + 1
< 0 has no solution in R as no real value of x makes it a true
statement.

How to solve an inequality

An inequality is solved, in the same way as you solve an equation,
by isolating the variable on one side and simplifying it. It is just that
the sign used will not be the ‘=’ sign but the inequality sign, depending
on the relation between the two parts of the inequality.
1. > greater than
2. < less than
3. ≥ greater than or equal to
4. ≤ less than or equal to
So, the solution to the inequality 2x + 3 < 7 is x < 2.
However, there is one major difference between equations and
inequalities that needs to be kept in mind—if the inequality is
multiplied or divided by a negative number, the sign of the inequality
is reversed.
For example, if the inequality −5x > 3 is multiplied by −1, the resulting
inequality is

Important Learning: If an inequality is multiplied or divided by a

negative number, the sign of the inequality gets reversed.

Inequality Rules
Rule 1: Equal numbers may be added to (or subtracted from) both
sides of an equation.
Rule 2: Both sides of an equation may be multiplied (or divided) by
the same non-zero number.

Two Important Results

(a) If a, b ≠ R and b ≠ 0, then
 (i) ab > 0 or a and b are of the same sign
(ii) ab < 0 or a and b are of the opposite sign
(b) If a is any positive real number, i.e., a > 0, then
(i) |x| < a –a<x<a
|x| ≤ a – a ≤ x ≤ a
(ii) |x| > a x < – a or x > a
|x| ≥ a x ≤ – a or x ≥ a

Example 5
Which of the following describes all possible solutions to the
inequality |a + 4| < 7?
(A) a<3
(B) a > −11
(C) 3 > a > −11
(D) −11 > a > 3
(E) a > 11 or a < −11

Solution
Note the absolute value sign in the original inequality. This
basically means that the solution could lie on either side of the
number line. So, you will have to solve this inequality in two
ways to get the entire range of solutions for a.
a − 4 < 7 or a + 4 > −7 So,
a < 3 or a > −11

The correct answer is C.

2 Sequence and Series

Introduction
A series in which a particular relation exists between the terms is
called a progression. There are three types of progressions:
Arithmetic Progression (AP), Geometric Progression (GP) and
Harmonic Progression (HP).
For the NMAT by GMAC™, you need to focus on AP and GP.

Arithmetic progression
Popularly known as AP, it is a series of terms in which the difference
between a term and the next term is constant. This difference is
called the common difference of the AP and is denoted by d.
Some examples of AP are
1. 2 , 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, …
2. −3 , −6, −9, −12, −15, −18,
… 3. 1 , 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, …
4.

Properties of AP
The first term is called a, the common difference is called d and the
number of terms is denoted by n. Therefore, an AP would be like a,
a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d, a + 4d and so on. Some important properties
of AP are listed below:
1. The nth term of an AP is given by Tn = a + (n − 1)d, a relation
between the nth term, the first term, the common difference and
the number of terms.
2. If the same quantity (positive or negative) is added to each term
of an AP, the series will continue to be an AP.
3. If the same quantity (positive or negative) is multiplied with or
divides each term of an AP, the series will continue to be an AP.
4. In an AP, the sum of the terms equidistant from the beginning
and end is a constant and is equal to the sum of the first and last
terms. Let us try to understand this with the help of an example:

• Sum of the first and last terms = 3 + 24 = 27

• Sum of the second and second last terms = 6 + 21 = 27
• Sum of the third and third last terms = 9 + 18 = 27 • Sum of the
fourth and fourth last terms = 12 + 15 = 27
What if the number of terms is odd?
Let us try to understand this with the help of another example:

• Sum of the first and last terms = 4 + 22 = 26

• Sum of the second and second last terms = 7 + 19 = 26
• Sum of the third and third last terms = 10 + 16 = 26
• The middle term in this case, which does not form a pair, will be
half the sum of the first and last terms.
5. Sum to n terms of an AP:

where l is the last term, in this case the nth term of the AP, and l
= Tn = a + (n − 1)d
Substituting for l, we get

One can use either of the above formulae to find the sum to n
terms of an AP.
6. Three consecutive terms in an AP will be a − d, a and a + d.
7. Four consecutive terms in an AP will be a − 3d, a − d, a + d and
a + 3d.
8. Five consecutive terms in an AP will be a − 2d, a − d, a, a + d
and a + 2d.
9. Sum of first n natural numbers
10. Sum of squares of first n natural
numbers =

11. Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers =

12. If a, b and c are in an AP, then b is the arithmetic mean of the

three numbers.

Important Learning: In an AP, the sum of the terms equidistant from

the beginning and end is a constant and is equal to the sum of the
first and the last terms.

Example 1
Which term of the AP series 3, 8, 13, ... is the term 78?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) 18

Solution
In the given AP an = a
+ (n − 1)d = 78
We have a = 3, d = 8 − 3 = 5. Therefore,
 3 + (n − 1) × (5) = 78 (
n − 1) × 5 =78 − 3 = 75

n = 15 + 1 = 16

The correct answer is C.

Example 2
A man pays a rent of Rs. 50 for the first day, Rs. 100 for the
second day and so on, with the rent on each day being Rs. 50
more than the rent on the previous day. What is the total rent
paid for the first 10 days?
(A) 2,750
(B) 2,800
(C) 3,050
(D) 3,100
(E) 3,350

Solution
The series is an AP with a = 50, d = 50 and n = 10

The correct answer is A.

Geometric Progression
GP refers to a series in which the ratio of a term to its previous term
is constant. This ratio is called the common ratio of the GP and is
denoted by r.
Some examples of GP
are 1. 2 , 4, 8, 16, 32, 64,
… 2.

3. −2 , 4, −8, 16, −32, 64, …

Properties of GP
The first term is called a, the common ratio is r and the number of
terms is denoted by n. Therefore, a GP would be like a, ar, ar 2, ar3,
ar4 and so on.
Some important properties of a GP are listed below:
1. The nth term of a GP denoted by Tn is given by Tn = ar(n−1).
2. If a constant term (positive or negative) is multiplied with or divides
each term of a GP, the series continues to be a GP.
3. Sum to n terms of a GP is given by

4. Three consecutive terms in GP will be a and ar.

5. Four consecutive terms in GP will be ar and ar3.
6. If a, b and c are in GP, then

Then, b is called the geometric mean (GM) of a and c. GM of three

numbers a, b and c is the cube root of the product of the three
numbers.
 Example 3

Find the sum to infinite terms of the series

(
A
)
(
B
)
(
C
)
(D)
(E)

Solution
As per the problem,
and r =

Sum to infinite terms =

The correct answer is B.

Harmonic Progression
A series of terms is said to be in Harmonic Progression (HP) if the
reciprocal of the terms are in AP. As an example, if a, b and c are
HP, then

in and will be in AP. Therefore,

where b is called the harmonic mean (HM) of a and c.

Example 4
If the second term of a harmonic progression is 5 and the 5 th
term of the same harmonic progression is 11, then find the 56
th term.
(
A
)
(
B
)
(
C
)
(D)(
E)

Solution
The reciprocals of the HP form an arithmetic progression a, a +
d, a + 2d ….
 Then, a + d = and, a + 4d =
Solving above two equations, we get

Therefore, 56th term of AP = a + 55d Hence,

56th term of HP =

The correct answer is E.

Relationship between the means of AP, GP and HP

If AM, GM and HM be the arithmetic, geometric and harmonic means
between a and b, then the following results hold:

Therefore, we can write:

Or
Also, we have
which is positive if a and b are positive; therefore, the AM of any two
positive quantities is greater than their GM. Also, from Eq. (4) we
have,

Clearly then, GM is a value that would fall between AM and HM and

from Eq. (5) it is known that AM > GM, therefore we can conclude
that GM > HM. In other words, we can say that the arithmetic,
geometric and harmonic means between any two + ve quantities
are in descending order of magnitude.

Sum to n Terms of Special Series

1. Sum of the first n natural numbers:

2. Sum of the squares of first n natural numbers.

3. Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers:

Example 5
Evaluate: 62 + 72 + 82 + 92 + 102 + 112
(A) 449
(B) 450
(C) 451
(D) 452
(E) 453
 Solution
Required Sum = (12 + 22 + 32 +…112) – (12 + 22 + 32 +…52)

The correct answer is C.

3 Permutation and Combination

Introduction
Permutation and combination are two of the most logical topics in
mathematics, and their applications can be observed and verified in
real-life situations.

Fundamental principle of counting

The concepts in permutation and combination are based on the
fundamental principle of counting, which in turn comprises the rule
of multiplication and the rule of addition. These are listed as follows:
1. Rule of multiplication: If a certain task can be done in m ways
and after having done it, another can be done in n ways, then
the total number of ways in which the two tasks can be done
together is m × n.
Thus, if there are three ways of going from A to B and four ways
of going from B to C, then the number of ways of going to C from
A via B = 3 × 4 = 12 ways.
2. Rule of addition: If a certain task can be done in m ways and
another can be done in n ways, then either of the two tasks can
be done in m + n ways.
Thus, when tasks A and B both have to be completed, we multiply,
but when either A or B has to be completed, we add.

Important Learning: Whenever the concept in the question is the

same as ‘and’ we will use multiplication and whenever the concept
is same as ‘or’ we will use addition.

Permutation
While a combination deals only with selection, permutation is
selection and arrangement both, that is, in permutation, we are not
only interested in selecting the things, but we also take into
consideration the number of possible arrangements of the selected
things.
The permutation of n different things taken r at a time is

The concept of permutation is illustrated in the following example.

Example 1
Suppose there are four children in a group. Find the number
of ways in which any two children out of the four can be
arranged for a photograph.
(A) 8 ways
(B) 10 ways
(C) 12 ways
(D) 14 ways
(E) 16 ways

Solution
 We need to select two children out of the four, and then
arrange them. So, we need to take the permutation of four
different things, taken two at a time.

The correct answer is C.

Permutation of N different things taken all at a time

The permutation of n different things taken all at a time is

This is the result of selecting n things out of n given things, and then
arranging them. But, if n things are being selected out of n things,
then selection will be possible in only one way and so the result
obtained, that is, n! is entirely due to the arrangement of the selected
things.
This leads to a very important result of permutation, that is, n different
things can be arranged in a straight line in n! ways.
For example, if four students are to be arranged in a straight line for
a photograph, the total number of ways of doing so is 4! = 4 × 3 × 2
× 1 = 24 ways.

Permutation of identical things

This refers to the number of permutations of n things taken all at a
time. Here, p things are alike of one kind, q of second kind, r of third
kind and so on. The permutation is given by

that is, divide by the factorial of the number of identical things. The
concept is illustrated by means of the following example.
 Example 2
In how many different ways can the letters of the word
ARRANGE be arranged?
(A) 1200 ways
(B) 1240 ways
(C) 1260 ways
(D) 1300 ways
(E) 1340 ways

Solution

Total number of ways =

The correct answer is C.

Circular permutation
The total number of ways in which n different things can be arranged
in a circle = (n − 1)! ways.
For example, if three people are to be seated on a circular table for
dinner, the number of ways of doing so is (3 − 1)! = 2 ways.

Important Learning: If there are n different things, they can be

arranged in a circle in (n − 1)! different ways.
Distribution

Case 1
Different things to be distributed to different groups.

Example 3
In how many ways can five different balls be distributed in three
different boxes?
 (A) 143 ways
(B) 243 ways
(C) 343 ways
(D) 443 ways
(E) 543 ways

Solution
The first ball can go into any of the three boxes, and therefore,
the first ball can be distributed in three ways. Having done this,
the second ball can be distributed in three ways and so on.
Therefore, the five balls can be distributed in 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
= 35 ways or 243 ways.

The correct answer is B.

Case 2
Identical things to be distributed to different groups.

Example 4
In how many ways can five identical balls be distributed in three
different boxes?
(A) 15 ways
(B) 18 ways
(C) 20 ways
(D) 21 ways
(E) 24 ways

Solution
Five identical balls have to be distributed in three different
boxes. If space has to be divided into three boxes, we can do
so by using two partitions.
 Now, one of the possible arrangements will be that is,

three balls in the first box, two balls in the second box and no
balls in the third box.
Other possible arrangements can be:

1.

2.

3.

4.

If you observe closely, we are arranging and rearranging

seven things in a straight line, out of which five (balls) are
identical of one type and two (partitions) are identical of
another type.
Thus, required number of ways =

The correct answer is D.

Example 5
In how many different ways can 10 students of a class with roll
numbers from 1 to 10 be seated in a straight line such that one
of the extreme positions has a student with an odd roll number
while the other extreme position has a student with an even
roll number?
(A) 48 × 6!
(B) 44 × 12!
(C) 50 × 8!
 (D) 50 × 6! (E) 52 × 8!

Solution
Let the first place have an odd number. This place can be filled
in five ways (1, 3, 5, 7 and 9).
The other extreme position can be also filled in five ways (2 , 4
, 6, 8 and 10).
These two extreme positions can be interchanged also.
Therefore, the two extreme positions can be first filled in
5 ways × 5 ways × 2 ways = 50 ways
Now, the remaining eight people can occupy eight available
positions in 8! ways.
Total ways = 50 × 8! ways

The correct answer is C.

Example 6
Eight students were to be seated along two rows such that
four students will be seated in each of the two rows called A
and B. Two of the eight students definitely want to be seated
in row A while one of them definitely wants to be seated in row
B. In how many different ways can the eight students be
seated?
(A) 5,760
(B) 5,960
(C) 6,500
(D) 6,760
(E) 7,160

Solution
 The two students who want to be in row A can be seated in 4 ×
3 = 12 ways
The student who wants to be in row B can be seated in four
ways
The remaining five people can be seated in 5! ways = 120 ways
Therefore, total number of ways = 12 × 4 × 120 = 5,760 ways

The correct answer is A.

Combination
Combination means selection only, that is, in combination, we are
only interested in the selection of things and not in their
arrangement.
In general, the number of combinations of n different things taken r
at a time is given by nCr , where

where n! (read as n factorial) = n × (n − 1) × (n − 2) × … × 4 × 3 × 2

×1
Thus,

0! = 1 (by definition )
1! = 1
2! = 2 × 1
3! = 3 × 2 × 1 and so on

Let us try to understand the concept of combination by taking an

example.

Example 7
 There are four fruits, an apple, a mango, a banana and an
orange, and we need to select any two fruits out of these four
fruits. In how many ways can we do this?
(A) 4 ways
(B) 5 ways
(C) 6 ways
(D) 7 ways
(E) 8 ways

Solution
Number of ways of selecting two fruits from four fruits is 4C2,
that is,

that is, six different ways, which will be AM, AB, AO, MB, MO
and BO.

The correct answer is C.

Rules of combination
1. nC0 = 1 way (there is only one way to select 0 things out of n
different things).
2. nCn = 1 way (there is only one way to select n things out of n
different things).
3. nC1 = n ways (there are n ways to select one thing out of n different
things).
4. nCr = nCn–r (the number of ways of selecting r things out of n
different things is the same as identifying those (n – r) things that
will not be selected).
Combination of N different things taken 0 or some or all at a
time
The number of combinations of n different things taken 0 or some or
all at a time is:

The above expression is the binomial expansion of (1 + 1)n = 2n

Therefore,

Example 8
Eleven players are to be selected for a match out of an
available list of 14 players. In how many ways can this be done
such that the best two identified players are always selected?
(A) 14C11

(B) 12P9

(C) 12C9
12
(D) C9 × 2!
(E) 12C11
Solution
If two people have to be definitely selected, then nine people
have to be selected of the remaining 12 people = 12C9.

The correct answer is C.

4 Probability
Introduction
Probability is defined as the chance of happening of an event and
is a measure of the likelihood that an event will occur. It is used to
quantify an attitude of mind towards some proposition of whose truth
we are not certain. The certainty we adopt can be described in terms
of a numerical measure and this number, between 0 and 1 (where
0 indicates impossibility and 1 indicates certainty), is called
probability.
Thus, the higher the probability of an event, the more certain we are
that the event will occur. A simple example would be the toss of a
fair coin. As the two outcomes are deemed equiprobable, the
probability of ‘heads’ equals the probability of ‘tails’, and each
probability is or equivalently a 50% chance of either ‘heads’ or
‘tails’.
In many ways, the concept of probability can be said to be an
extension of the concepts of permutation and combination.
In examples and problems where the event is described, the basis
of solving the problem happens to be the classical definition of
probability, which says

where the favourable number of outcomes or cases is as defined in

the problem under the given set of conditions and the total number
of outcomes or cases is the number of ways of doing the task without
any condition being applicable.

Example 1
What is the probability that the month of May will have five
Tuesdays?
(A)
(B)
 (
C
)
(
D
)(
E)

Solution
The month of May will have 31 days which would get converted
into 28 days (4 weeks) and 3 odd days.
Therefore, each of the 7 days will definitely appear 4 times.
The remaining 3 days can be
1. Mon, Tue, Wed
2. Tue, Wed, Thu
3. Wed, Thu, Fri
4. Thu, Fri, Sat
5. Fri, Sat, Sun
6. Sat, Sun, Mon
7. Sun, Mon, Tue
Total number of cases = 7.
Number of favourable cases = 3 (There are the three cases in
which Tuesday appears.)
Required probability =

The correct answer is D.

Elements of probability
1. Scope: Probability is always defined for the future.
2. Random experiment: A random experiment is an experiment,
trial or observation that can be repeated numerous times under
the same conditions. The outcome of an individual random
experiment must be independent and identically distributed. It
must in no way be affected by any previous outcome and cannot
be predicted with certainty.
3. Sample space: The total number of ways in which an event can
happen is called the sample space of the event.

• Sample space for toss of coins:

(A) Tossing a coin: two elements (H or T)

(b) Tossing two coins: two elements × two elements = four elements
(HT, TH, TT, HH)
(d) Tossing three coins: two elements × two elements × two
elements = eight elements

• Sample space for throwing one or more dice:

(A) Throw a dice: six elements (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)

(b) Throw two dice: 36 elements [(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3)…(1, 6), (2, 1)
, (2, 2)…(2, 6) and so on till (6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6
, 6)]
4. Range of probability of any event: As the number of
favourable outcomes cannot be greater than the total number
of outcomes, therefore 0 ≤ P(E) ≤ 1, that is, probability of any
event will always lie between 0 and 1.
 Important Learning: The range of probability of any event will always
lie between 0 and 1, both inclusive.

5. Any event will either happen or not happen: P(E) + P(~E) =

1, that is, sum of the probability of happening of an event and
the probability of its not happening = 1.
6. Odds for and against an event: It is not necessary that a
problem will always provide probabilities. There are examples
where odds in favour of an event or odds against an event are
provided.

7. Mutually exclusive events: Any two events are said to be

mutually exclusive events if they cannot occur together. For two
mutually exclusive events A and B

and if the events are not mutually exclusive, then

In these expressions, P(A or B) represents the probability of either

event A happening or event B happening.
8. Independent events: Any two events where the probability of
happening of one event is not dependent on the other are said
to be independent events.
For two independent events A and B,
 The above result will be true for any number of independent
events.
For three independent events A, B and C

9. Pack of cards: Problems related to a pack of cards are

frequently asked as a part of questions on probability. In case
of a pack of cards, remember the following:
• A pack has 52 cards (26 black and 26 red), which get divided
into 13 cards each of four different types or variety.
• These 13 cards are (Ace, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, J, Q and K)
and the four types are Hearts, Diamond, Spade and Club.
Technically, these four types are called suits. So, in a normal
pack of cards, there will be four aces, four ones, four twos and
so on, thus, making a total of 52 cards.
• King, Queen and Jack are also popularly known as face cards.
A pack of cards will, therefore, have 12 face cards.

Example 2
What is the probability that a card drawn at random from a pack
of cards is either black or a jack?
(A)(

B)
 (
C
)(
D
)(E)

Solution
There are a total of (13 + 13) = 26 black cards and 4 jacks in
a pack of cards. But remember that two of these jacks are also
black cards, so we will have to account for this overlap.
Therefore, number of favourable cards = 13 + 13 + 4 − 2 = 28.
Total cards = 52.
Required probability =

The correct answer is B.

10. AND rule: Suppose the probability of event A is P(A) and that
of event B is P(B). Now, if these two events are to occur
together, i.e. if we want to calculate the probability of
occurrence of event A and that of event B, we need to multiply
the individual probabilities of A and B.
Therefore, the probability of occurrence of A and B will be P(A) ×
P(B).
11. OR rule: When the probabilities of two events are given and
we need to calculate the probability that at least one of them
occurs, we need to add the individual probabilities of the two
events. Therefore, if the probability of event A is P(A) and that
 of event B is P(B), then the probability that at least one of the
two events occurs is P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B).
12. Conditional Probability: When A and B are dependent
events, then P(A/B) denotes probability of happening of event
A when B has already occurred. Similarly, P(B/A) denotes
probability of happening of B when A has already occurred.

Example 3
Two students are selected from a class of 5 girls and 12 boys.
Find the probability that a particular pair of girl and boy is
selected.
(
A
)
(
B
)
(
C)
(D)(
E)

Solution
Total number of possibilities
=
Number of favourable cases =1
Therefore, the required probability
=
The correct answer is A.

Example 4
A bag contains five red and nine black balls, while another has
three red and five black balls. A ball is first selected at random
from bag 1 and transferred to bag 2, and then a ball is drawn
from bag 2. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red?
(
A
)
(
B
)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Solution
We need to consider both the cases here.
Red ball is transferred, and then red ball is drawn.
Black ball is transferred, and then red ball is drawn.

The correct answer is B.

Example 5
Three cards are drawn from a pack of cards at random. Find
the probability that they consist of both colours.
 (
A
)

(
B
)

(C)

(D)
(E) None of these

Solution
Number of favourable cases = 2 red and 1 black or 1 red and
2 black
= 26C2 × 26C1 + 26C1 × 26C2 = 2 × 26C2 × 26C1
Total cases = 52C3

Therefore, required probability =

The correct answer is B.

Bayes’ Theorem
Bayes’ theorem is a direct application of conditional probabilities.
This theorem is used to find the conditional probability of an event
P(A/B), say, when the “reverse” conditional probability P(B/A) is
known.
Let A1, A2, ... , An be a set of mutually exclusive events that together
form the sample space S. Let B be any event from the same sample
space, such that P(B) > 0. Then,
We know that P(Ak ∩ B ) = P(Ak )P(B/Ak ), so, Baye’s theorem can
also be expressed as

Example 6
Three companies P, Q and R supply 20%, 30% and 50% of
the books to a college. Past experience shows that 2%, 4 %
and 5% of the books produced by these companies are
defective. If a book was found to be defective, what is the
probability that the book was supplied by company Q?
(
A
)
(
B
)
(
C)
(D)(
E)
Solut
ion

Let us consider that P, Q and R be the events that books are

supplied by companies P, Q and R respectively.
 Suppose D be the event that books are defective.
According to the question,
P(P) = 0.2, P(Q) = 0.3 and P(R) = 0.5
Also, P(D/P) = 0.02, P(D/Q) = 0.04, P(D/R) = 0.05

The correct answer is C.

2.11 DI-Caselets and Tables

2.12 What is Measured?

The DI-Caselets and Tables section consists of caselets and tables
that you will need to analyse and apply while answering the
questions.
Your mental math skills get tested indirectly as you will need to
make a lot of quick calculations especially using concepts of
percentages, ratios, etc.
Your estimation skills also get tested as, in a lot of the questions,
you will be able to arrive at the answer just by intelligent estimation
and elimination of wrong answer choices.
2.13 Overall Test Taking Strategies
1. Scan the data once quickly but do not pay too much attention to
every small detail as you can always do so later, based on the
questions that you get.
2. The figures are all drawn to scale so you can estimate the answer,
especially if the answer choices are very far apart.
3. Do not confuse percentages with actual numbers.
The next few pages will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching this topic.

Introduction
Data Interpretation is an important area in testing the aptitude of a
candidate. The primary objective in Data Interpretation ( henceforth
referred to as DI) is to:
1. Assess the capability of data assimilation, that is, to understand a
data in its given form.
2. Carry out calculations based on the given data.
3. Take effective business decisions based on the calculations.
The data could be in the form of a caselet, bar graph, line graph, pie
chart, histogram, frequency polygon, etc.

Concepts in data interpretation

Growth and growth rate

Growth in essence is the change in the value of a variable from one
point in time to another point in time. Although it is generally
associated with an increase in the value of a variable,
mathematically, the value of growth can be negative.
Since, growth and growth rate are associated also with the change
in a variable with respect to time, both of them are usually calculated
on the immediate previous value until and unless mentioned
otherwise. While growth is the change in the absolute value of a
variable, growth rate is the percentage change in the value of a
variable. In order to understand the concept of growth and growth
rate, let us look at an example:

Example 1
The following table gives the value of the total sales of AR
Associates across four years. The sales value is in Rs. (’000).

(A) Find the growth in the sales of AR Associates in the year

2014.
(B) Find the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year
2015.
(C) Find the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the period
2012–2015.
(D) Find the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year
2012.
(E) If the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2012
is 25%, find the value of the sales of AR Associates in the
year 2011.

Solution
(A) The growth in the sales of AR Associates in the year 2014

(B) Growth rate of sales in the year 2015

 (C) Growth rate of sales in the period 2012–2015

(D) If we want to find out the growth rate of sales in the year
2012, we need to find the value of sales in the immediately
preceding year, that is, 2011.
Since this data is not provided, the answer to the question
cannot be determined.
(E) Let y be the sales of AR Associates in the year 2011.
Therefore,

Percentage change in growth rate

Many of us do not differentiate between the calculation of
percentage change in growth and growth rate. Actually, these are
two different concepts.
Percentage change in growth rate gives the percentage change
between two values that are expressed in percentage terms, that is,
percentage change in growth rate gives the percentage change in
two values that are growth rates.
To understand the concept better, consider Example 1 again.

Example 2
Find the percentage change in the growth rate of AR associates
in the year 2014.
(A) Decrease of 20%
 (B) Increase of 20%
(C) Decrease of 40%
(D) Increase of 40%
(E) Increase of 50%

Solution
In order to answer this question, we would need the value of
the growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2013 and
the year 2014.
Growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2013

Growth rate of sales of AR Associates in the year 2014

Therefore, percentage change in growth rate

That is, a decrease of 40%.

The correct answer is C.

Percentage points
Percentage point is the difference between two values that are
expressed in percentage terms. Consider the following example.

Example 3
A girl got 55% marks in the fifth semester and 57.5% marks in
the sixth semester. By how many percentage points are the
 marks in the sixth semester more than the marks obtained in
the fifth semester?
(A) 1.5 percentage points.
(B) 2.5 percentage points.
(C) 3.5 percentage points.
(D) 4.5 percentage points. (E) 5.5 percentage points.

Solution
Required value = 57.5% − 55% = 2.5 percentage points.

The correct answer is B.

Market share
Market share is the total percentage of the market serviced by a
company, product or brand. Market share can be calculated either
on volume basis (number of units sold) or value basis (revenue or
sales or turnover). Also average product price is equal to the total
market value divided by the total market volume. Consider the
following example.

Example 4
In a market there are three products being sold. The price
along with the total sale in units is given for each of the three
products.

(A) Find the market share of product P on volume basis.

 (B) Find the market share of product Q on value basis. (C)
Find the average market price.

Solution
(A) Total market volume = 45,000 units.
Total sale of product P = 10,000 units.
Market share of P on volume basis
=

(B) Total market value = Rs. 50,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs.

90 ,000 = Rs. 20,000
Sales of product Q = Rs. 60,000
Market share of product Q on value basis =

(C) Average market price is given by

1 DI-Caselets
A DI-Caselet is a set of information that is given in the paragraph
form. In a caselet, no graphs or tables is given. You need to read
the given information and organise the given data in tabular or
pictorial form to solve the questions.
Data for Examples 1–3: A person was looking at the performance
data of four companies namely A, B, C and D for the year 2014. He
observed that the sale of company A for the year 2014 was twice
the expenses for company D in the same year. The profit for
company C in the year 2014 was 25% while its sale was Rs. 300
crore. The ratio of the sales of company B and the expenses of
company D was 4:5. Also, the expenses of company B were half of
the total expenses of company D in the same year.
It was also observed that the sale of company D was Rs. 250 crore
while its profit for the year was Rs. 150 crore. Also, the expenses of
company A in the year 2014 were such that its profit was 50%.
(For the questions based on above data, consider, Profit = Sale
Expenses)

Example 1
What is the profit percentage of company B in the year 2014?
(A) 35 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 55 %
(E) 60 %

Example 2
Find the value of profit of company A in the year 2014.
(A) Rs. 33.33 crore
(B) Rs. 45 crore
(C) Rs. 50 crore
(D) Rs. 55 crore
(E) Rs. 66.66 crore

Example 3
Which company had the highest profit percentage in the year
2014 ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) Both A and D

General Explanation for Examples 1–3:

For company C:
Sales of company C = Rs. 300 crore and profit = 25%.
Therefore, Expenses ×
Expenses = Rs. 240 crore.
For company D:
Sales = Rs. 250 crore
Profit = Rs. 150 crore
Expenses = 250 − 150 = Rs. 100 crore.
For company A:
Sales of company A in 2014 = 2 × 100 = Rs. 200 crore. Profit
of company A = 50%
Therefore, Expenses ×

Expenses =
For company B:
Ratio of the sales of company B to the expenses of company
D = 4:5
Therefore, sales of company
Sales of company B in 2014 = Rs. 80 crore
Expenses of company B in 2014 = Rs. 50 crore
Therefore, profit of company B in 2014 = Rs. 30 crore Thus
overall performance of companies can be tabulated as:
 Now, all the questions can be solved easily:
1. ( E )
2. ( E )
3. ( D )

2 DI-Tables
A DI-Table is a set of data arranged in rows and columns. It is one
of the most common ways of putting information across to people.
A table consists of several boxes with information inside. The first
row and the first column are generally used to denote the titles.
Data for Examples 1–3: The following table gives the sales of four
companies in lakhs across four years from 2004 to 2007. Read the
data carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Example 1
 By what percentage are the sales of company B in the year
2005 more than that of company A in the year 2004?
(A) 20 %
(B) 33.33 %
(C) 38.33 %
(D) 40 %
(E) 46 %

Solution
Required value

The correct answer is C.

Example 2
By how much value is the average sale of company C more
than the average sale of company D during the period?
(A) 35 lakhs
(B) 38 lakhs
(C) 45 lakhs
(D) 55 lakhs
(E) None of these

Solution
Average sales of company C is
170 + 185 + 190 + 200 =

Average sales of company D is 110 + 125 + 140 + 150 =

Difference =
The correct answer is D.

Example 3
If the four companies account for a 40% market share by value
in 2007, what was the total sale of the market?
(A) 14 crore
(B) 16 crore
(C) 17.5 crore
(D) 18 crore
(E) 20 crore

Solution
Total sales of the four companies in 2007 = 160 + 190 + 200
+ 150 = Rs. 700 lakh
This is 40% of the total sales. Therefore,
Total sales = 700 × 2.5 lakh = Rs. 17.5 crores

The correct answer is C.

Data for Examples 4–6: Two thousand students applied for
admission to various programmes at AU University. Out of the total
applicants, 20% did not take the admission test. The following table
gives the cumulative frequency in percentage of the mark range
received by those students who appeared for the admission test.

Marks Cumulative Frequency (%)

≤ 10 marks 15

≤ 20 marks 25

≤ 30 marks 40
 ≤ 40 marks 60

≤ 50 marks 85

≤ 60 marks 100
Example 4
What is the number of students who received marks in the
range of 21–30 in the admission test?
(A) 240
(B) 400
(C) 500
(D) 640
(E) None of these

Solution
As per the problem, 2,000 students applied out of which 20 %
did not appear for the test.
Number of students who appeared = 80% of 2,000 = 1,600
Percentage of students in the range of 21–30 marks = 40 −
25 = 15%
Therefore, 15% of 1,600 = 240 students

The correct answer is A.

Example 5
If more than 40 marks are required to qualify for the next
round, find the difference between the number of students
who qualified for the next round and those who failed to qualify
for the next round.
(A) 160
(B) 240
 (C) 320
(D) 380
(E) 420

Solution
Percentage of students who qualified for the next round =
40 %
Percentage of students who did not qualify for the next round
= 60%
Difference between the two = 20% of 1600 = 320 students

The correct answer is C.

Example 6
By what percentage is the number of students in the range of
41 –50 marks more than those in the range of 0–10 marks?
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 33.33 %
(D) 55.55 %
(E) 66.66 %

Solution
Percentage of students in the range of 41–50 marks = 25%
Percentage of students in the range of 0–10 marks = 15%
Therefore,

The correct answer is E.

 Important Learning: The knowledge of fractional equivalents of
various percentages, such as 12.5% is the same as will be very
important while attempting data interpretation questions.

Data for Examples 7–9: Go through the following information and

solve the questions based on them.

Example 7
If the real estate property of Alok is currently valued at Rs. 69
lakh, what will be the difference in lakhs between equity and
debt in the proposed structure?
(A) Rs. 150 lakh
(B) Rs. 9 lakh
(C) Rs. 82.5 lakh
(D) Rs. 67.5 lakh
(E) Rs. 70.5 lakh

Solution
 As per the problem:
46. of the total = Rs. 69 lakh
Total = Rs. 150 lakh
Difference between equity and debt = 70 − 25 = 45% of the total
= 0.45 × 150 = 4.5 × 15 = Rs. 67.5 lakh

The correct answer is D.

Example 8
If the difference between the contribution of equity to that of
all the other components put together in the proposed
structure is Rs. 16 lakh, find the value of cash in the existing
structure.
(A) Rs. 1.6 lakh
(B) Rs. 2 lakh
(C) Rs. 2.6 lakh
(D) Rs. 4 lakh
(E) Cannot be determined

Solution
As per the problem:
40. of the total = Rs. 16 lakh
Total = Rs. 40 lakh
Cash in the existing structure = 4% of 40 lakh = Rs. 1.6 lakh

The correct answer is A.

Example 9
By what percentage is the contribution of equity in the
proposed structure more as compared to the contribution of
equity in the existing structure?
 (A) 42 %
(B) 100 %
(C) 120 %
(D) 150 %
(E) 200 %

Solution

The required value will be

The correct answer is D.

2.14 DI-Graphs and Charts
2.15 What is Measured?
The DI-Graphs and Charts section consists of charts and pie
diagrams that you will need to analyse and apply while answering
the questions.
Your mental math skills get tested indirectly as you will need to
make a lot of quick calculations especially using concepts of
percentages, ratios, etc.
Your estimation skills also get tested as, in a lot of the questions,
you will be able to arrive at the answer just by intelligent estimation
and elimination of wrong answer choices.

2.16 Overall Test Taking Strategies

1. Scan the data once quickly but do not pay too much attention to
every small detail as you can always do so later, based on the
questions that you get.
2. The figures are all drawn to scale so you can estimate the answer,
especially if the answer choices are very far apart.
3. Do not confuse percentages with actual numbers.
The next few pages will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching this topic.

1 Bar Graph
A bar graph is a chart whose main purpose is to compare two or more
categories. This comparison is done on the basis of quantitative
value associated with each category. Horizontal or vertical bars are
used to show comparisons among categories.
Data for Examples 1–3: The given bar graph shows the total sales
value (in Rs. lakh) and the profit percentage for a company ABC
Ltd. for 4 years from 2008 to 2011. Answer the questions based on
the following data.

Example 1
If the total sales is equivalent to the selling price, what is the
value of profit for ABC Ltd. for the year 2010?
(A) Rs. 35 lakh
(B) Rs. 38.75 lakh
(C) Rs. 40 lakh
(D) Rs. 45 lakh
(E) None of these

Solution
We need to find out the profit for the year 2010. Therefore,
The correct answer is A.

Example 2
Which year has shown the highest percentage change in profit
%?
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
(E) Cannot be determined

Solution
Percentage change in profits for 2008 cannot be calculated
since we do not know the profits for 2007.
Percentage change in profits for 2009 = = 25%

Percentage change in profits for 2010 = = 66%

approx

Percentage change in profits for 2011 = = 60%

Thus, the maximum change has been for the year 2010.

The correct answer is C.

Example 3
By what percentage is the sales in 2011 more or less than the
cost in 2008?
(A) 50 %
(B) 100 %
(C) 200 %
(D) 250 %
 (D) 300 %

Solution
Cost in 2008 = Rs. 100 lakhs
Sales in 2011 = Rs. 200 lakhs
Percentage change =

The correct answer is B.

Data for Examples 4–9: The following bar graph depicts the details
of the number of students in four different sections of grade 1 in Ann
Mary School. While the first bar represents the number of students
in that section in the current year, the second bar represents the
percentage change in the number of students in that section from
the previous year.

Further, it was noted that no two sections had the same number of
students in any of the two years.
The number of sections that saw an increase in the number of
students was the same as the number of sections where the total
strength decreased.

Example 4
What was the total strength of Section B in the previous year?
(A) 60
(B) 90
(C) 80
(D) 70
(E) Cannot be determined

Example 5
In the previous year, what was the ratio of the number of
students in Section C to those in Section D?
(A) 1:3
(B) 3:1
(C) 2:3
(D) 3:5
(E) None of these

Example 6
Which among the following sections saw the least change in
the number of students from the previous year?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
(E) A and C
Example 7
If 50% of the total decrease is attributed to students shifting to
other schools while the entire increase is due to new
admissions, what is the difference between the number of
students shifting to other schools and new admissions?
(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 26
(D) 39
(E) 60

Example 8
Which two sections saw a decrease in the number of students
in the current year as compared to the previous year?
(A) B and C
(B) A and D
(C) B and D
(D) A and C
(E) A and B

Example 9
Find the number of students in the previous year in Section D.
(A) 40
(B) 120
(C) 60
(D) 80
(E) Cannot be determined
General Explanation for Examples 4–9:
 Let y be the variable which represents the number of students
in each of the four sections in the previous year. Section C has
88 students and there is a percent change of 10% from the
previous year. The only possibility is

For section A, the change has to be an increase of 25%.

Therefore,

There will definitely be a decrease in the strength of the other

two sections B and D.
For section B, we have

For section D, we have

Now, all the questions can be solved easily:

4. (B)
5. (C)
6. (C)
7. ( B) Decrease in section B = 90 − 72 = 18 students
Decrease in section D = 120 − 60 = 60 students
Total decrease = 78 students
50 percent of this is due to students shifting to other schools
= 39 students
New admissions = 8 + 10 = 18 new admissions
Difference = 39 − 18 = 21
8. ( C )
9. ( B )
2 Pie Chart
It is a type of graph in which we have a circle, which is divided into
sectors each of which represents a proportion of the whole. We can
also say a pie is divided into slices where length or area of each
slice or sector represents the proportion of the total quantity it
represents.
Data for Examples 1–3: The given pie chart shows the percentage
market share by volume of five companies P, Q, R, S and T in the
television market in the year 2011. The total sale volume-wise in the
market in the year 2011 is 4,00,000 TV sets.

Example 1
If S is the others category and company X has a share of 30%
in this category, find the number of TV sets sold by company
X in the year 2011.
(A) 10,000
(B) 12,000
(C) 15,000
(D) 18,000
 (E) 20,000 Solution Total sale of the others category = 10% of

4,00,000 = 40,000 Sales of company X = 30% of 40,000 =

12,000

The correct answer is B.

Example 2
If the total sale of two products P2 and P3 of company P is
30000, find the percentage contribution of products P2 and P3
to the total sales unit-wise of company P in the year 2011.
(A) 37.5 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 60 %
(D) 75 %

Solution
P2 and P3 have together sold 30000 units.
Company P has a total sale of 20% of 4,00,000 = 80,000
Therefore, contribution of P2 and P3

The correct answer is A.

Example 3
By what percentage is the market share of R more than the
market share of P?
 (A) 20 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 35 %
(D) 40 %

Solution
The percentage by which the market share of R is more than
that of P is

The correct answer is B.

2.17 Data Sufficiency

2.18 What is Measured?

Data sufficiency questions measure your ability to analyse data and
decide whether it is enough to answer the given question. The
actual answer to the question is irrelevant for our purpose.
A lot of the data sufficiency questions will test you on arithmetic
concepts such as prime numbers, odd and even numbers, negative
exponents and fractions, etc.
2.19 Overall Test Taking Strategies
1. Do not try to solve every statement. You only need to determine
whether the given statement is sufficient to answer the given
question.
2. Consider each statement separately, especially when you are
looking at the second statement.
3. Read the question carefully. If the question asks you whether
you can find the value of y and you realise that you cannot do
so, you still have a definite answer, that is, no.
4. Remember the answer choices—(A), (B), (C), (D), ( E)—and
what each of them stands for.
The next few pages will provide you with in-depth strategies for
approaching the topic.

1 Data Sufficiency
Introduction
The primary objective of data sufficiency questions is to find out
whether the given data is sufficient to answer the question asked.
In order to understand data sufficiency, we will need to look at the
following aspects:
1. The structure of a data sufficiency problem.
2. The answer choices of a data sufficiency problem.
3. How to approach a data sufficiency problem.
4. The common errors in a data sufficiency problem.

Structure of a data sufficiency problem

In a data sufficiency problem, a question is asked which needs to
be answered based on the given data. The given data is usually in
the form of two statements called (1) and (2). The question asked
needs to be answered based on the two given statements. For
example:
Question: What is the speed of the train?
(1) The train covers 50 km in 30 minutes.
(2) The length of the train is 200 m.

Answer choices
The answer choices given in a data sufficiency problem are as
follows:
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient, but
NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient, and
additional data is needed.
Note: Although the options will be the same in most of the cases, it
is not necessary that they will always be the same. It is suggested
that a student should always read the instructions about the options
while answering the question.

Approach to a data sufficiency problem

The following steps are to be followed while solving a data sufficiency
problem:
1. Check whether the question can be answered using statement 1
alone without using the data given in statement 2.
2. Check whether the question can be answered using statement 2
alone without using the data given in statement 1.
3. If neither of the two given statements can answer the question
alone, combine the data given in the two statements to answer
the question asked. In this case, the answer option of the question
will be option (C).
4. If the question asked cannot be answered by using the given data,
the answer option will be option (E).

Types of questions generally asked

Questions on data sufficiency are asked on the following three topics:
1. Number Properties Based
2. Arithmetic Based
3. Algebra and Probability Based

Common errors in data sufficiency problems

Some commonly made errors are listed as follows:
1. While checking whether the question asked can be answered by
using any one of the two statements alone, you pick up data from
another statement by mistake.
2. You need to combine the two statements only when you are sure
that either of the two statements cannot answer the question
alone.
3. If you get more than one answer, it is not acceptable in a data
sufficiency problem. For example, if x2 = 49, then x will have two
values of +7 and −7. In a situation like this, we would say that
the question cannot be answered.
4. Even a definite ‘No’ is an answer to a data sufficiency problem.
For example, if the question asked is: ‘Is 1 an example of a prime
number?’, then it has a definite answer which is ‘No’.
These common errors in approach to data sufficiency problems are
illustrated through the following examples.
 Example 1
What is the value of x?
(1) x2 − 5x + 6 = 0

Solution
If we solve for x, the quadratic equation will give the values as
x = 2 or x = 3.
So the given problem has more than one answer. This is not
acceptable in data sufficiency. We always need a unique
solution. It is here that data sufficiency is different from
quantitative skills.

Directions for examples 2-10: Each data sufficiency problem

consists of a question and two statements, labelled (1) and (2) ,
which contain certain data. Using these data and your knowledge of
mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in
July or the meaning of the word counterclockwise), decide whether
the data given are sufficient for answering the question and then
indicate one of the following answer choices:
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is
not sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Example 2
 Can I fill up the tank of 100 L capacity completely?
(Measurements are accurate and there should be no
overflow.)
(1) I have a bucket which can exactly measure 5 L.
(2) I have a mug which can exactly measure 3 L.

Solution
Many students make the mistake of thinking that only
statement I alone can answer the question asked because the
important aspect for them is that the tank should be filled
whereas the important aspect is whether we can answer the
question uniquely about the tank getting filled.
Therefore, in the above example, using statement I alone, the
answer is yes, the tank can be filled completely and so
statement 1 alone is able to answer the question asked.
Similarly, using statement 2 alone, the answer is a definite no,
the tank cannot be filled completely and so statement 2 alone
is also able to answer the question asked.
So, as per the standard answer options of data sufficiency, the
correct answer to the question is option (D).

The correct answer is D.

Let us now look at some more illustrative examples to
understand the options better.

Example 3
What is the value of x?
(1) x3 = −27
(2) x2 = 9

Solution
 If we use the first statement alone, we will get a unique value
of x = −3. Therefore, the question can be answered by using
statement 1 alone.
If we use statement 2 alone, we will get two values of x as 3
and −3. As data sufficiency requires a unique answer, the
question cannot be answered by using statement 2 alone.

The correct answer is A.

Important Learning: Even though one of the two answers to the

question using statement 2 is −3 which is obtained from statement
1 also, the question cannot be answered by using statement 2
alone.

Example 4
On which day was Naveen born?
(1) On 25th November, Naveen celebrated his ninth birthday.
(2) Naveen was born on a Friday.

Solution
The question is asking about the day when Naveen was born
and not the date. From statement 1 we get the date but not the
day.
Using statement 2 alone, we can conclude that Naveen was
born on a Friday.
The question can be answered by using statement 2 alone but
not by using statement 1 alone.

The correct answer is B.

Example 5
 What is the speed of the train?
(1) In an hour, the train covers a distance of 50 km after
stopping for 15 min.
(2) The train is 150 m long and crosses a man moving in the
same direction at 5 km/h in 10 s.

Solution
We can find the speed of the train using statement 1 alone.
Do remember, the question does not want us to find the value
of the speed of the train.
What is required to be known is that distance covered and
time taken can be used to find out the speed of a moving
body.
Similarly, using statement 2 alone, the question can be
answered.

The correct answer is D.

Example 6
What is the profit earned in rupees?
(1) The marked price is Rs. 400 and it is sold at a discount of
30 %.
(2) The marked price is 50% more than the cost price.
Solution
In order to answer the question, we will require the values of
the cost price and the selling price.
While statement 1 can give us the selling price, we do not know
the cost price.
Also, statement 2 can give us the cost price but we do not know
the selling price.
 Therefore, either of the two statements is not sufficient to
answer the question alone.
Both the statements together can answer the question asked.

The correct answer is C.

Example 7
What is the ratio of the prices of A and B?
(1) Three years ago, their prices were in the ratio 4:5.
(2) In the last 3 years, the price of both A and B has increased
by Rs. 5000.

Solution
When we look at a question like this, many of us would be
tempted to mark option (C) as the answer.
The question cannot be answered by using either of the two
statements alone, and therefore, we will try and answer the
question by combining the two statements.
Let their prices be 4x and 5x, respectively.
Also, their prices have increased by Rs. 5000 each.
The ratio of their prices will be (4x + 5000):(5x + 5000), which
will not give any definite value of their prices.

The correct answer is E.

Example 8
In how much time will the work be completed if 15 men work for
8 h every day?
(1) 20 women working for 7 h can do the work in 12 days.
(2) 8 men working for 15 h can do the work in 18 days.

Solution
 The question cannot be answered by using statement 1 alone
because we do not know the efficiency comparison of a man
and a woman.
Using statement 2 alone and equating the total work to be done
in the section Time and Work, we have

Solving, we get y = 18 days

The correct answer is B.

Important Learning: Do not make the mistake of picking up

information from Statement 1 while checking Statement 2 and vice
versa.

Note: In data sufficiency problems that ask for the value of a

quantity, the data given in the statements are sufficient only when it
is possible to determine exactly one numerical value for quantity.

Example 9
Find the value of the number if it is less than 100.
(1) The number is a perfect square.
(2) It is a multiple of 16.

Solution
Using Statement 1 alone, the question cannot be answered as
there can be a number of possibilities, such as 1, 4, 9, 16 , 25
, 36 and so on.
Using Statement 2 alone, there will again be a number of
possibilities, such as 16, 32, 48, 64, etc.
However if we combine both the statements, there is only one
possibility = 64.
 Thus, C is the answer.

The correct answer is C.

Example 10
Find the speed of the stream.
(1) A log of wood travels 4 km in 3 h.
(2) Speed of a boat while moving downstream is 7 km/h.

Solution
A log of wood does not have any power of its own so it moves
at the same rate as the speed of the stream. Thus, Statement
1 is sufficient to answer the question.
The speed of a boat does not tell us anything about the speed
of the stream. So Statement 2 is not sufficient.

The correct answer is A.

3.0 Quantitative Skills Practice
3.1 Practice Questions
Solve the problems and indicate the best of the answer
choices given.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: A figure accompanying a problem-solving
question is intended to provide useful
information for solving the problem. Figures
drawn as accurately as possible.
Exceptions be clearly noted. Lines shown
as straight are straight, and lines that
appear jagged are als straight. The
positions of points, angles, regions, etc.,
exist in the order shown, and a measures
are greater than zero. All figures li a plane
unless otherwise indicated.
1 Number Properties
1. Which of the following is equal to

(A) (B)
 (C)

(D)

(E)

2. Express as a fraction:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

3. Prakash bought a bag of 15 magic pencils for Rs.

60. One-third of the pencils cost Rs. 2 each and the rest cost
Rs. 5 each. If there was a hole in the bag and all of the more
expensive pencils fell out, the lost pencils represented approximately
what percentage of the money Prakash paid for all the pencils?
(A) 7%
(B) 13%
(C) 67%
(D) 83%
(E) 88%
4. Company H distributed Rs. 4,000 and 180 pens evenly among its
employees, with each employee getting an equal integer number of
Rupees and an equal integer number of pens. What is the highest
number of employees that could work for Company H?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 40
(E) 180
5. If t is divisible by 12, what is the least possible integer value of a for
which might not be an integer?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 40

6. If 5k+ 1 = 2,000, what is 5k + 1?

(A) 399
(B) 401
(C) 1,996
(D) 2,000
(E) 2,001

7. Which of the following is equal to ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
8. If 12514488 is written as an integer, how many consecutive
zeroes will that integer have at the end?
(A) 22
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 50
(E) 112

9. If n is the smallest of three consecutive positive integers, which of the

following must be true?
(A) n is divisible by 3
 (B) n is even
(C) n is odd
(D) (n)(n + 2) is even
(E) n(n + 1)(n + 2) is divisible by 3

10. If is expressed as a terminating decimal, how many zeroes are

located to the right of the decimal point before the first non-zero digit?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 15
(E) 17

11. If 25546 = 10x + a, and x is an integer, what could be the minimum

positive value of a?
(A) 0
(B) 30,000
(C) 30,000,000
(D) 10,000,000,000
(E) 30,000,000,000
12. What is the unit digit of 786?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 7
(E) 9

13. What is the difference between the sum of all even positive integers
between 1 and 100 (inclusive) and the sum of all odd positive integers
between 100 and 150?
(A) –575
(B) –475
 (C) 225
(D) 475
(E) 575

14. Find the smallest 4-digit number which, when increased by 8, is divisible
by 12, 18, 30 and 45. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 1,072
(B) 1,080
(C) 1,088
(D) 1,096
(E) 1,120

15. The sum of the last digits of the numbers of the form 22n + 1, for n =
0 , 1, 2, 3 and 4, when divided by 7 gives a remainder
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
16. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are prime numbers, then what is the H.C.F. of the numbers
(a2 + b2), (a + b + 1) and (a2 + b2 – 1)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) Cannot be determined

17. A three digit number is such that its hundredth digit is equal to the
product of the other two digits which are prime numbers. Also, the
difference between the number and its reverse is 297. Then, what is the
ten’s digit of the number?
(A) 2
(B) 3
 (C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

18. When a two digit number is divided by the sum of its digits, the quotient
is 4. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 6 less than twice the
original number. The number is
(A) 12
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 42
(E) Both (C) and (D)

19. A five-digit number is formed using the digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without

repetition. What is the sum of all such possible numbers?
(A) 6666600
(B) 6666660
(C) 6666666
(D) 6666000
(E) None of these

20. A positive integer ‘A’ is a multiple of 180 and it has 40 factors. If ‘A’ is
less than 3000, then the value of is

(A) 54
(B) 60
(C) 240
(D) 270
(E) Cannot be determined

21. If the number 5237ab is completely divisible by 3, find the possible

values of a + b.
(A) 2
(B) 5
 (C) 8
(D) 15
(E) 16

22. A number A gives a remainder of 7 when divided by 9. Find the

remainder when 2A is divided by 9.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 8
(E) 14

23. At a nature trail camp, one-fifth of the total members went rock climbing;
twice the square root of the total members went hiking up a mountain
trail. The remaining 10 were exploring in caves. How many members
went hiking? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
(E) 25

24. Simplify:

(A )

(B )

(C)

(D)

(E )
(Real NMAT Question)

25. What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + … + 600! is divided by 6 ?

(Real NMAT Question)
 (A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

26. What is the digit in the unit place of (9843 × 12222) + 72959 + 2543 ?
(Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9

27. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9? (Real NMAT

Question)
(A) 1,203
(B) 2,256
(C) 42,651
(D) 71,623
(E) 92,423

28. What is the LCM of nC1 and nC2, where n is odd? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) n
(B)

(C)

(D)
(E) (n − 1)
29. The number of female employees in a bank is 7 times the number of
male employees in the bank. Which of the following cannot be the total
number of employees in the bank? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 40
(B) 48
(C) 54
(D) 64
(E) 128

30. If August 15, 1947 was a Friday, then, what was the day on January 26
, 1950?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
(E) Monday

31. What was the day on April 20, 1984?

(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
(E) Monday

32. If in a certain year, the month of January had exactly 4 Wednesdays

and 4 Sundays, then January 1 of that year was a -
(A) Saturday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
(E) Thursday

33. Puja born in 1900s realised that in 1980 his age was the square root of
the year of her birth. When was Puja born?
 (A) 1929
(B) 1936
(C) 1940
(D) 1946
(E) 1949

34. If 09.12.2001 happens to be a Sunday, then 09.12.1971 would have

been a
(A) Saturday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
(E) Thursday

35. If log102 = 0.3010, what is the value of log5256? (Real NMAT

Question)
(A) 3.11
(B) 3.26
(C) 3.44
(D) 3.67
(E) 3.82

36. Find the value of ‘x’ if 625log366 + 12log749 = 11logx169

(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) 19

37. If log30 3 = x and log30 5 = y, then find the value of log8 30.
 (A) 3(1 – x – y) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

38. If ap = bq = cr = ds, then find the value of loga (bcd).

(A)

(B) 1
(C)

(D)

(E)

39. If logy x = 10, then find the value of

(A)
(B)

(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) Both and

40. If P = , then find the value of ‘P’.

(A) 90
(B) 92
(C) 122
(D) 136
(E) 154
2 Arithmetic
1. The number that is 50% greater than 80 is what percent less than the
number that is 25% less than 200?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
(E) 25%

2. Aakash spends 50% of his income on rent, utilities, and insurance, and
20% on food. If he spends 30% of the remainder on video games and
has no other expenditure, what percent of his income is left after all the
expenditure?
(A) 0%
(B) 9%
(C) 20%
(D) 21%
(E) 30%

3. In a class of 40 students, exactly 90% had lower marks than Varun’s

marks. 60 new students join Varun’s class. If Varun’s marks were
higher than those of 80% of the new arrivals, what percent of the
combined class now had higher marks than Varun’s marks?
(A) 86%
(B) 85%
(C) 16%
(D) 15%
(E) 14%

4. Machines X and Y pack books continuously, each working at a

constant rate, but Machine Y works 50% faster than Machine X. If
Machine Y packs 48,000 more books in a 24-hour period than Machine
X does, what is Machine X’s packing rate in books per hour?
 (A) 4,000
(B) 6,000
(C) 8,000
(D) 12,000
(E) 16,000

5. The production of rice increased by 75% from 1990 to 1995. From

1995 to 2000, there was a 100% increase. What is the percentage
increase in the production of rice from 1990 to 2000? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 250%
(B) 280%
(C) 285%
(D) 290%
(E) 295%

6. Ankur bought 5 Pizzas, 7 Samosas and 4 ice-creams. Sanjeev bought

6 Pizzas, 14 Samosas and 8 Ice creams for an amount which was 50%
more than what Ankur paid. What percentage of the total amount spent
by Ankur was spent on the Pizzas?
(A) 37.5%
(B) 45%
(C) 50%
(D) 56.5%
(E) 62.5%

7. By selling the burger at Rs. 260 per piece, Sameer gains 30%. Find
the cost price of the burger per piece?
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 300
(E) Rs. 350
8. Ghosh Babu, a trader, marked up his goods 30% over the cost price
and then he gave the discount of 5%. What was the profit percentage
of Ghosh Babu in the whole transaction?
(A) 19.5%
(B) 21.5%
(C) 23.5%
(D) 25.5%
(E) None of these

9. The value of (p % q + q% of p) is:

(A) p% of q
(B) q% of p
(C) 2% of pq
(D) pq% of 3
(E) None of these

10. ‘p’ is five times as large as ‘q’. By what percent is q less than p?
(A)
(B) 37.5%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
(E) 90%

11. A 735 gm sample of a 16% (by weigh) solution of iodine in alcohol is

kept for three days. Some of the alcohol gets evaporated and the
concentration of the solution becomes 20% (by weight). What amount
of alcohol gets evaporated?
(A) 135 gm
(B) 140 gm
(C) 147 gm
(D) 150 gm
(E) 215 gm
12. The interest rate, compounded annually, that would bring a principal of
Rs. 1,200 to a final value of Rs. 1,650 in 2 years is approximately:
(A) 17%
(B) 18%
(C) 19%
(D) 20%
(E) 21%

13. An amount becomes 3 times in 6 years on a certain rate of simple

interest. In how many years it will become 24 times?
(A) 48 Years
(B) 50 Years
(C) 69 Years
(D) 70 Years
(E) 72 Years

14. What is the value of the rate of interest if the difference between the
compound interests of the first and the second year is 4 times that of
the principal?
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 150%
(D) 200%
(E) 400%

15. Some amount was divided into two equal parts. The first part was
invested at 10% per annum at simple interest for 4 years. The second
part was invested at 10% per annum at compound interest for 3 years.
If the difference in the interests earned from the two investments is Rs.
1000, find the approximate value of the total initial amount.
(A) Rs. 28,485
(B) Rs. 28,985
(C) Rs. 29,485
(D) Rs. 29,985
 (E) Rs. 30,485

16. The value of a car depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum. If its
present value is Rs. 121500, then what was the value of the car two
years ago?
(A) Rs. 100000
(B) Rs. 150000
(C) Rs. 200000
(D) Rs. 250000
(E) Rs. 300000

17. Ram lent Rs. 800 to a friend for 2 years and one-fourth of this amount
to another friend for 3 years. He received Rs. 275 in total as simple
interest. What was the rate of interest?
(A) 10.5%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 15.5%
(D) 17.5%
(E) 19.5%

18. At what interest rate per annum will a sum of money double itself in 8
years?
(A)

(B) 13%
(C) 15%
(D) 17%
(E) 19%
19. Parikshit invests Rs. 1546 in BNP bank at a certain rate of compound
interest per annum. At the end of 8 years, he finds that his money has
doubled. What approximately is the rate of interest BNP bank paid
him?
(A) 9%
(B) 12%
 (C) 15%
(D) 16%
(E) 18%

20. Giri divided his property between his children Suma and Dev. Suma
invested her share at 10% per annum simple interest and Dev invested
his share compounded at 8% per annum. At the end of 2 years, the
interest received by Suma is Rs. 13,360 more than the interest
received by Dev. What was Suma’s share if the total amount divided
was
Rs. 2,50,000? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 63,360
(C) Rs. 1,13,360
(D) Rs. 1,50,000
(E) Rs. 1,63,360

21. If Rs. 23,579 triples itself in 3 years when invested in a bond for which
the investment interest rate is compounded annually, then in how many
years will it become 27 times of itself? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 18
(D) 27
(E) 81

22. Arvind sells clothes at a roadside market for which he pays Rs. 150
per day to rent a table plus Rs. 10 per hour to his salesman. He sells
an average of Rs. 78 worth of clothes per hour. Assuming no other
costs, which of the functions below best represents profit per day P in
terms of hours h that Arvind works for?
(A) P(h) = 238 – 10h
(B) P(h) = 72 – 10h
(C) P(h) = 68h – 150
(D) P(h) = 78h – 160
 (E) P(h) = –160h + 78

23. A batch of clips costs Rs. (p + 15) for a company to produce and each
batch sells for Rs. p (9 – p). For which of the following values of p does
the company make a profit?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

24. In a school exhibition, hand-made crafts are displayed for sale. Some
students are assigned the work of selling crafts. The overall profit p
depends on the number of students x selling the crafts on that
particular day and is given by the equation p = 250x – 5x2. The school
manager claims to have made a maximum profit. Find the number of
students engaged in selling the crafts and the maximum profit made.
(Real NMAT Question)
(A) 25 and Rs. 1,800
(B) 25 and Rs. 2,900
(C) 25 and Rs. 3,125
(D) 30 and Rs. 3,900
(E) 34 and Rs. 4,000

25. A person purchased a smartphone for Rs. 8,000 and sold it at a profit
of 25%. From that amount, he purchased another phone and
sold it at a loss of 20%. What is his overall profit or loss? ( Real NMAT
Question)
(A) profit of Rs. 2,000
(B) profit of Rs. 1,000
(C) loss of Rs. 2,000
(D) loss of Rs. 1,000
(E) neither profit nor loss
26. A shopkeeper claims a loss of 4% on his goods, but uses weight equal
to 840 gm instead of 1 kg. The shopkeeper actually makes a:
(A) 11 gain

(B) 14 gain
(C) 4% loss
(D) 4% gain
(E) 2% loss

27. A product priced at Rs. 1000 would earn a shopkeeper a profit of 15%.
Find the profit percentage earned by him if he decides to sell the
product at a discount of Rs. 50 during the festivals.
(A) 3.34%
(B) 9.15%
(C) 9.25%
(D) 9.30%
(E) 9.50%

28. On selling 630 pens, a shopkeeper makes a profit equal to the selling
price of 90 pens. Find the approximate profit percentage. (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 12.5%
(B) 14.28%
(C) 16.67%
(D) 20%
(E) 22.22%

29. The capital of a company, Estyle, is made of 75,000 preferred shares

with a dividend of 15% and 20,000 common shares, with the par value
of each type of share as Rs. 10. The total profit of Estyle was Rs.
2,40,000 of which Rs. 40,000 was kept in a reserve fund. The
remaining profit was distributed to the shareholders. What would be
the difference in the dividend percentage given to the common
shareholders if the amount kept away in the reserve fund was reduced
to Rs. 25,000? (Real NMAT Question)
 (A) 5.75%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 10%
(D) 12.75%
(E) 15%

30. Yalda sold two MP3 players using two different online sites. She sold
one for Rs. 1,710 at a loss of 5% and the other for Rs. 2,520 at a profit
of 20%. What is her total profit or loss percentage? ( Real
NMAT Question)
(A) gain of 4.8%
(B) loss of 5.1%
(C) loss of 6.4%
(D) gain of 8.5%
(E) loss of 9.2%

31. Satish works on 15% commission on the total cost of the book sets he
sells. He sold 10 book sets at Rs. 850 each, 5 at Rs. 750 each, and 10
at Rs. 700 each. How much more commission would he have made
had he sold all the book sets at Rs. 850 each? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 100
(B) Rs. 150
(C) Rs. 300
(D) Rs. 350
(E) Rs. 400

32. The ratio of the cost price to the selling price of an item is 4 : 5. The
item is sold at a profit of Rs. 500. What is the selling price of the item?
(Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs. 2,000
(D) Rs. 2,500
(E) Rs. 4,500
33. How much tea selling at Rs. 10.40 per kg should be mixed with tea
selling at Rs. 8.80 per kg to get a resulting mixture of 15 kg for Rs.
146.40? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 6 kg
(B) 7 kg
(C) 8 kg
(D) 9 kg
(E) 10 kg

34. A chemist is mixing a solution of ink and water. She currently has 30
litres of mixture solution, of which 10 litres are ink. How many litres of
ink should the chemist add to her current mixture to attain a 50:50
mixture of ink and water if no additional water is added?
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
(E) 20

35. A full glass of lemonade is a mixture of 20% lime juice and 80 % soda.
The contents of the glass are poured into a pitcher that is 200% bigger
than the glass. The remainder of the pitcher is filled with 16 litres of
water. What was the original volume of lime juice in the mixture?
(A) 1.6 litres
(B) 3.2 litres
(C) 4.8 litres
(D) 6.4 litres
(E) 8 litres

36. In a college dramatics team, the ratio of boys to girls is 6 : 7. If there

are 2 more girls than boys in the team, how many boys are in the team?
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 24
 (D) 30
(E) 36

37. X cornflake is 55% fibre and Y cornflake is 70% fibre. Sharad combines
a certain amount of the two cereals in a single bowl, creating a mixed
cereal that is 65% fibre. If the bowl contains 120 grams of cereal, how
much of the cereal, in grams, is X?
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 80
(E) 90

38. If a:b = b:c = c:d = 3, then find the value of (Real NMAT
Question)
(A)

(B)

(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) Cannot be determined
39. In what ratio, solution X which contains 50% milk and solution Y which
contains 30% milk be mixed so that the obtained solution contains 45%
milk?
(A) 1:3
(B) 2:3
(C) 3:2
(D) 3:5
(E) 3:1

40. A tank has a solution consisting of milk and water in equal proportion.
This solution is transferred into a vessel having 100 ml pure water at
the rate of 10 ml per second. In how much time from the start of the
transfer, will the ratio of milk to water in the vessel be 1 : 3?
 (A) 5 seconds
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 15 seconds
(D) 20 seconds
(E) 25 seconds

41. The sum of the ages of the six members in a family is 130 years. If the
age of the children is in the ratio 1:2:6:7 while the combined age of
their parents is 82 years, find the age of the eldest child.
(A) 7 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 28 years
(E) 35 years

42. A rectangular playground has a length that is twice as great as its

width. If its length is halved while its width is quadrupled, what is the
ratio of its original area to its new area? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 1:2
(B) 1:3
(C) 1:4
(D) 1:5
(E) 1:6

43. Two jars P and Q contain the same quantity of a mixture of milk and
water. The milk and water in P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 2 and 4 : 1
respectively. What will be the ratio in which these two mixtures have to
be blended to obtain a new mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3 :
1? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 5:6
(B) 1:1
(C) 4:3
(D) 7:5
(E) 3:2
44. If the average of a, b, c, 5, and 6 is 6, what is the average of a, b, c,
and 13?
(A) 8
(B) 8.5
(C) 9
(D) 9.5
(E) 10.5

45. Average weight of 37 students is 42 kg. When their teacher joined

them, their average weight increased by 2 kg. What is the weight of the
teacher?
(A) 112 kg
(B) 114 kg
(C) 116 kg
(D) 118 kg
(E) 120 kg

46. Two persons of average age 40 years leave a group and hence the
average age of the remaining group increases from 50 to 52 years.
Find the number of persons originally in the group.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 12

47. If the average weight of 8th, 9th and 10th class is in the ratio of a:b:c and
the number of students in class 8th, 9th and 10th is in the ratio of x:y:z,
then the average weight of all the three classes considered together is
(A)

(B)
 (C)

(D)
(E) Cannot be determined

48. The average age of a husband and wife who were married
5 years ago, was 25 years then. The average age of the
family including the husband, the wife and two children who were born
during the interval is 16 years now. How old are the children now? [All
of them have different ages with integral values.]
(A) 1 year, 3 years
(B) 4 years, 1 year
(C) 2 years, 3 years
(D) 2 years, 2 years
(E) None of these

49. In a group of students, if a student aged 19 years is replaced by a

student aged 25 years, the average age of the group increases by 0.4
years. Find the number of students in the group. (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15
(E) 16

50. The average age of three people living in a house – man, woman and
child, is 24 years. If the man leaves and his mother stays in his place,
then the average age in the house becomes 34 years. How much older
is the mother than her son? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 32
(E) 36
51. The time it takes to construct a hut is inversely proportional to the
number of workers doing the work. If it takes 40 workers giving 3 hours
each to do the job, how long will it take for 140 workers to do the job,
to the nearest minute?
(A) 51 minutes
(B) 52 minutes
(C) 53 minutes
(D) 54 minutes
(E) 55 minutes

52. A ski resort has enough wood to keep 20 rooms heated for 14 days. If
the resort decides to save wood by turning off the heat in 5 unoccupied
rooms, and each room requires the same amount of wood to heat it,
how many extra FULL days will the wood supply last?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 18
(E) 19

53. Working alone at their respective constant rates, Ajay can complete a
certain job in 4 hours, while Firoz can do the same job in 3 hours. Ajay
and Firoz worked together on the job and completed it in 2 hours, but
while Ajay worked this entire time, Firoz worked for some of the time
and took 3 breaks of equal length. How many minutes long were each
of Firoz’ breaks?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 10 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) 20 minutes
(E) 25 minutes

54. A machine can manufacture 20 pens per hour, and exactly 10 such
pens fit into every box. Mahesh packs pens in boxes at a constant rate
of 3 boxes per hour. If the machine ran for 2 hours and was then turned
 off before Mahesh started packing the pens in boxes, how many
minutes would it take Mahesh to pack all the pens that the machine
had made?
(A) 40 minutes
(B) 45 minutes
(C) 80 minutes
(D) 160 minutes
(E) 800 minutes

55. Two taps can separately fill a tank in 4 minutes and 5 minutes
respectively. Due to a small hole at the bottom of the tank, the two taps
together take 30 seconds more time to fill the tank. The hole can empty
the completely filled tank in
(A) minutes

(B) minutes
(C) minutes

(D) minutes

(E) minutes

56. Three taps P, Q and R when filling together can fill a cistern in 3 hours.
After 1 hour tap P is closed and the cistern is filled in 4 more hours.
Find the time in which tap P alone can fill the cistern?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 5 hours
(D) 6 hours
(E) 7 hours

57. Pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively.
Both are kept open for X minute(s) and then Q is closed and P fills the
rest of the tank in 5 minutes. The time X after which Q was closed is
(A) 2 minutes
(B) 3 minutes
 (C) 4 minutes
(D) 6 minutes
(E) 7 minutes

58. Pipe X pours a mixture of acid and water, and pipe Y pours pure water
into a bucket. After 1 hour, the bucket got filled and the concentration
of acid in the bucket was noted to be 8%. If pipe Y was closed after 30
minutes and pipe X continued to pour the mixture, concentration of acid
in the bucket after 1 hour would have been 10%. What is the ratio of
acid to the water in the mixture coming out of pipe X?
(A) 13: 2
(B) 2 : 15
(C) 3 : 20
(D) 1:5
(E) 2 : 13

59. Two taps P and Q can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 18 minutes
respectively. If both the taps are opened together, how long it take to
fill the cistern?
(A) minutes

(B) minutes

(C) minutes

(D) minutes

(E) None of these

60. There are 12 workers who have been recruited to dig a 20 km long
tunnel. It takes one worker to dig 250 m of tunnel in a week. How many
more workers are needed to complete the work in 2 weeks?
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 24
 (E) 28

61. If 33 unskilled workers can do a work in 15 days of 12 hours each, how

many skilled workers can do 50% more work in 11 days of 9 hours
each? (Assume that it takes 2 skilled workers to do the work of 5
unskilled workers. )
(A) 36
(B) 42
(C) 64
(D) 90
(E) 100
62. Ajay finishes a work in certain number of days. He got two assistants
who work as fast as him. If all three work together, then in what
fraction of time would they finish the job as compared to Ajay working
alone?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

63. A and B can do a piece of work in 22 days, B and C can do it in 16

days, A and C can do the work in 15 days. Arrange the three in

decreasing order of productivity.
(A) C>A>B
(B) B>C>A
(C) A>C>B
(D) C>B>A
(E) B>A>C
64. Nishit works twice as fast as Pradeep. Nishit and Pradeep together can
work three times faster than Bhuvan. If Nishit, Pradeep and Bhuvan
together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?
(Real NMAT Question)

Note: The ratio of individual share of earnings for all 3 workers is the
same as the ratio of their relative efficiencies.
(A) 2:1:1
(B) 2:3:1
(C) 4:2:1
(D) 4:2:3
(E) 4:3:2
65. FDB Builders was awarded the contract to construct a bridge. The
company employed 100 workers to finish the work in 120 days. When
four-fifths of the work was completed in 80 days, the company wanted
to reduce the number of workers. How many workers can be let go
without affecting the completion schedule of the construction of the
bridge? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 25
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 65
(E) 75

66. A tank can be filled by a pipe in 10 minutes and can be emptied by

another pipe in 8 minutes. If both pipes are opened when the tank is
full, then how long will it take for the tank to be empty? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 1 hours
(B) 1.5 hours
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 40 minutes
(E) 45 minutes
67. Sanya, Babli and Jhanvi started a new business. Sanya’s capital was
invested for a period which was equal to four times Jhanvi’s period of
investment whereas Sanya and Babli invested for the same period.
Also, twice Sanya’s investment is equal to Jhanvi’s investment, and
Babli’s investment is equal to of Sanya’s investment. If the total year-
end profit from this business yielded Rs. 4,40,000, then what was the
total share of Sanya and Babli in this profit? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) Rs. 2,40,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 2,55,000
(D) Rs. 2,60,000
(E) Rs. 3,30,000

68. Tina, Ishan, Abhishek and Fatima jointly started a business and
invested a total of Rs. 80. If Tina’s share increases by Rs. 3, Ishan’s
share increases by one-third of his share, Abhishek’s share decreases
by 20% and Fatima’s share decreases by Rs. 4, all of them would have
equal amounts of money. What is Fatima’s original share?
(A) Rs. 20.25
(B) Rs. 23. 50
(C) Rs. 23.75
(D) Rs. 24.25
(E) Rs. 24.75

69. Mukesh, Manish, Lalu and Jaggi bought a MOKIA mobile for £60.
Mukesh paid one–half of the sum of the amounts paid by the other
persons. Manish paid one–third of the sum of the amounts paid by the
other persons. Lalu paid one–fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by
the other persons. How much did Jaggi have to pay?
(A) £ 13
(B) £ 15
(C) £ 17
(D) £ 23
(E) None of these
 70. Yogesh and Mohan, two business partners, invest Rs. 21000 and Rs.
17500 respectively in their garment business and at the end of the year
both of them make a profit of Rs. 26400. Find their individual shares in
the profit.
(A) Rs. 14400 and Rs. 12000
(B) Rs. 12000 and Rs. 14400
(C) Rs. 14000 and Rs. 12400
(D) Rs. 14200 and Rs. 12200
(E) none of these
3 Algebra and Probability
1. If 3x3 – 7 = 185, what is x2 – x?
(A) –4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) 27

2. A certain number of teams participated in a charity Rugby tournament.

Each team played with every other team participating in the
tournament exactly once. If the number of matches played in the
tournament is 120, then how many teams participated in the
tournament? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 15
(E) 16

3. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are reciprocal of the roots

of the equation px2 + qx + r = 0, then which of the following represents
relation(s) between a, b, c, p, q and r? (Real NMAT Question)
(A)
 (B)

(C)
(D) a = p, c = r and b = 1
(E) a = r, c = p and b = q
4. If a, b and c are the three positive integers in geometric progression,
then the roots of the equation ax2 + 4bx + 2c = 0 are
(A) Imaginary
(B) Equal
(C) Rational
(D) Real
(E) Irrational

5. If p and q are roots of x2 + 7x + 12 = 0, then the equation whose roots

are (p + q)2 and (p – q)2 is
(A) x2 – 50x + 49 = 0
(B) x2 + 50x – 49 = 0
(C) x2 – 10x + 3 = 0
(D) x2 – 10x + 4 = 0
(E) x2 – 50x – 49 = 0

6. Which of the following could be the quadratic equation for which one root
is times the other root and the difference between the roots is 1?

(A) x2 + 3x + 3 = 0
(B) x2 + 4x + 3 = 0 (C) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0

(D) x2 + x – 6 = 0
(E) x2 – 3x – 3 = 0

7. If p and q are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then what is the
value of p4 – q4? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) a4 – b4 + c4
(B) a4 + b4 – c4
 (C)
(D)

(E)

8. If 2(x – 1)3 + 3 ≤ 19, then the value of x must be:

(A) greater than or equal to 3
(B) less than or equal to 3
(C) greater than or equal to –3
(D) less than or equal to –3
(E) less than –3 or greater than 3

9. If , then
(A )

(B )
(C)
(D)

(E )

10. If x is an integer and and which of the following can

be the value of x?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
 (E) 12

(A) ab < 0

(B)
11. If and are reciprocals, and, which of the
following must be true? (C)

(D)

(E)

12. It costs a certain chair manufacturing unit Rs. 11,000 to operate for one
month, plus Rs. 300 for each chair produced during the month. Each of
the chairs sells for a retail price of Rs. 700. What is the minimum number
of chairs that the manufacturing unit must sell in one month to make a
profit?
(A) 26
(B) 27
(C) 28
(D) 29
(E) 30

13. Which of the following describes all possible solutions to the inequality
|p + 5| < 9?
(A) p < 4
(B) p > –14
(C) 4 > p > –14
(D) –11 > p > 3
(E) p > 4 or p < –14

14. What is the minimum value of , where x

> 0? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 2
 (B) 4
(C) 16
(D) 49
(E) It cannot be determined.
15. Manish has 60 marbles that he wants to divide among himself and his
12 friends. The marbles don’t necessarily have to be divided equally. If
Manish wants to have more marbles than any of his friends, what is the
least number of marbles he can have?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 12

16. If a2 − b2 = 0 and ab ≠ 0 which of the following must be true? Indicate all

such statements.
1. a = b 2.
|a| = |b|

3.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only (E) 2 and 3 only
17. If (x – y) = and (x + y) =
(A )
(B )
(C)
(D)
(E )

18. If ab ≠ 0, =

(A ) 1 what is the value of x2 – y2 ?

(B) a – b
(C) (a + b) (a – b)
(D) (a2 + b2) (a2 – b2)
(E)

19. Which of the following is equal to (a – 2)2 + (a – 1)2 + a2 + (a + 1)2 + (a

+ 2)2 ?
(A) 5a2
(B) 5a2 + 10
(C) a2 + 10
(D) 5a2 + 6a + 10
(E) 5a2 – 6a + 10

20. a is inversely proportional to b. Also, it is given that a = 24 when b =

2 . What is the value of b when a = 6?
(A) –2
(B) –1
(C) 2
(D) 4
(E) 8

21. Three people sit down to eat 14 pieces of cake. If two of the people eat
the same number of pieces, and the third person eats two more pieces
 than each of the other two, how many pieces are eaten by the third
person?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

22. There are a number of beads of three different colours: red, blue and
yellow, and each colour has a different value. If the value of a red bead
plus a blue bead is 4.25, the value of a blue bead plus a yellow
bead is 2.75, and the value of a red bead plus a blue bead plus a
yellow bead is 4.5, what is the value of a red bead plus a yellow bead?
(A) 0.25
(B) 2
(C) 2.25
(D) 2.75
(E) 3

23. National Cricket Academy offers two different pricing packages for
cricket coaching. Under the ‘Regular’ pricing plan, classes can be
bought for a flat rate of Rs. 80 per hour. Under the ‘Exclusive’ pricing
plan, after paying an initial fee of Rs. 495, classes can be availed for a
rate of Rs. 15 per hour. If Karan buys the ‘Exclusive’ pricing plan, how
many classes does he need to take in order to have spent exactly 40%
less than he would have under the ‘Regular’ plan?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) 20

24. A student took a test in which 3 marks were given for each correct
answer and 0.5 marks were deducted for an incorrect answer. If the test
had 25 questions and the student attempted all the questions and got
 40 marks in total, what is the difference between the number of correct
and incorrect answers?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15
(E) 18

25. A group of friends contributed to the cost of a party where each person
had to contribute the same integer amount. Since three people did not
participate, the remaining people had to pay Rs. 10 more. If the total
amount contributed is the minimum value possible, what would be the
per person contribution had 10 people contributed to the party?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 5
(C) Rs. 6
(D) Rs. 8
(E) Rs. 10

26. If p + q + r = 0, where a ≠ b ≠ c, then =

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) –1
(D) pqr
(E) p + q + r

27. Out of a group of swans, seven times half of the square root of the
number of swans were seen going away from a bank of a river and only
one pair remained in the water. How many swans were there in the
group?
(A) 9
(B) 16
(C) 25
 (D) 36
(E) 49

(A )

(B )

28. If (C) = m and pq = , find

(D)

(E)

29. Let f(x + 2) + f(5x + 6) = 2x – 1 for all real x. Find the value of f(1).
(A) –2
(B) –1
(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

30. For what value of K, the given set of equations would have no solution?

4 x – Ky = –7 and 5x + 3y = 2
(A)

(B) 0
(C)

(D)

(E)

Directions for Questions 31 and 32: Answer the questions based on the
following.
The following operations are defined for real numbers.
A @ B = A if A is greater than B else A @ B = B
A % B = AB if A x B is positive else A % B = A
Note that all other mathematical symbols have their usual meanings.

31. [( – 4)@( – 5)]%2

(A) – 8
(B) – 10
(C) – 5
(D) – 4
(E ) – 7

32. , K ≠0

(A ) K 2
(B )

(C)

(D) 1
(E) Cannot be determined

33. If the sum of the roots of an quadratic equation is times the

product of the roots, find the relation between b and c.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

34. If a and b are positive integers such that a2 + 2b = b2 + 2a + 5, find the

value of b. (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 0
 (B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) Cannot be determined

35. Manoj plans to work at a coffee shop during his summer holidays. He
will be paid as per the following schedule: at the end of the first week,
he will receive Rs. 1000. At the end of each subsequent week,
he will receive Rs. 1000, plus an additional amount equal to the sum
of all payments he has received in the previous weeks. How much
money will Manoj be paid in total if he works for 6 weeks at this coffee
shop?
(A) Rs. 18000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 42000
(D) Rs. 63000
(E) Rs. 81000

36. If the collection of a movie is Rs. 100,000 for the first day, Rs. 120,000
for the second day, Rs. 140,000 for the third day and so on, that is, the
collection increases by Rs. 20,000 every day, then find the total
collection for the first 10 days.
(A) Rs. 1200,000
(B) Rs. 1400,000
(C) Rs. 1600,000
(D) Rs. 1700,000
(E) Rs. 1900,000

37. On January 1, Ajit put Re 1 in his piggy bank. Every day, he put in Rs.
2 more than the total amount of money already in the piggy bank.
Which of the following expressions gives the total amount of money in
Ajit’s piggy bank at the end of January? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 230
(B) 231
 (C) 3(230) – 2
(D) 3(231) – 2
(E) 3(230)

38. A person saves Rs. 200 more each year than in the previous year. If
he started with Rs. 400 in the first year, how many years would he take
to save Rs. 18,000 (excluding interest)?
(A) 10 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 18 years
(E) None of these

39. If the second term of a geometric progression is 6 and the fifth term is
48, then what is its tenth term?
(A) 2236
(B) 2146
(C) 1536
(D) 1246
(E) 1146

40. p, q, r and s are any four positive real numbers, the minimum value of
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 2
(E) 4

41. If a, b, c and d are in GP, then (a3 + b3)–1, (b3 + c3) –1, and (c3 + d3) – 1
are in ____ .
(A) AP
(B) GP (C) HP
 (D) AP or GP
(E) None of these

42. A man pays a rent of Rs. 70 for the first day, Rs. 80 for the second day
and so on, with the rent on each day being Rs. 10 more than the
rent on the previous day. What is the total rent paid for the first 20 days?
(A) Rs. 2,300
(B) Rs. 2,700
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 3,200
(E) Rs. 3,300

43. In one day, what is the sum of the numbers on which the hour hand of
a clock points each time the minute hand is on 12? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 12
(B) 78
(C) 156
(D) 160
(E) 178

44. Compute the expression below. (Real NMAT Question)

(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 39
(D) 48
(E) 63

45. For a cricket match team selection, 2 batsmen, 3 bowlers, and 1

wicketkeeper are to be picked. There are 23 players available to play
as batsmen, 21 other players available to play as bowlers, and 9 other
players available to play as wicketkeepers. If the maximum possible
number of complete sets of 6 players are formed, how many of the
available players will not be on a team?
 (A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 13
(E) 15

46. How many five-digit numbers can be formed using the digits 5, 6, 7 , 2
, 9, 0 if no digits can be repeated?
(A) 64
(B) 120
(C) 240
(D) 600
(E) 720

47. Five friends, Akshita, Binod, Chetan, Dravid, and Eshan are to be
arranged in a line. How many such arrangements are possible if Binod
is not allowed to stand next to Dravid?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 72
(D) 96
(E) 120

48. How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 , 5
and 6 (without repetition) that are divisible by 8? (Real NMAT
Question)
(A) 56
(B) 64
(C) 72
(D) 84
(E) 96
49. Among three different boxes, 10 identical balls have to be distributed.
In how many ways can this be done such that every box has at least 2
balls?
(A) 15
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 81
(E) None of these

50. There are 6 equally spaced points A, B, C, D, E and F marked on a

circle whose radius is R. How many convex pentagons of distinctly
different areas can be drawn using these points as vertices?
6
(A) P5
6
(B) C5
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) 6

51. One of the management test papers comprises of 9 questions divided

equally among three sections, namely section I, section II and section
III. There are fifteen different questions available such that there are
five questions for every section for designing the test. If no two sections
bear a common question, then how many different tests can be
designed?
(A) 480
(B) 640
(C) 800
(D) 880
(E) 1000

52. A shop sells 5 different types of sweets. In how many different ways a
total of 8 sweets can be purchased?
(A) 125
(B) 495
 (C) 795
(D) 840
(E) 930
53. A box contains 90 balls of different colours: 13 yellow, 19 green, 27
red, 10 black, 7 brown and 14 white. Find the smallest number V such
that any V balls drawn from the box will contain at least 14 balls of the
same colour.
(A) 69
(B) 70
(C) 72
(D) 76
(E) 79

54. Salim has total 9 friends, 5 girls and 4 boys. In how many ways can
Salim invite them for his birthday party, if there have to be exactly 3
girls in the invitees list?
(A) 80
(B) 160
(C) 200
(D) 240
(E) 320

55. There are 12 holes made in the ground. At least 3 are to be filled with
a red ball and the other holes can be filled with any colour ball. In how
many different ways can all the holes be filled from a box of 5 red balls
and 10 mixed colour balls? (Real NMAT Question)
(A) 345
(B) 425
(C) 445
(D) 465
(E) 485

56. How many arrangements of the word ABOVE are possible such that
O is always in the middle? (Real NMAT Question)
 (A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 48

Directions for Questions 57–59: The following table represent the number of
players nominated for different cricket teams.

57. In how many ways can a team selector select 6 batsmen from team A?
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 28
(E) 30

58. In how many ways a team selector can select 10 players in team B
where 6 are bats men, 3 are bowlers and 1 is an all-rounder?
(A) 720
(B) 800
(C) 840
(D) 900
(E) None of these

59. In how many ways a team selector can select 11 players in team C
where 8 are bats men, 2 are bowlers and 1 is an all-rounder?
(A) 4455
(B) 4545
(C) 4465
 (D) 4475
(E) None of these

60. Each factor of 210 is written on a piece of paper, and all the pieces of
paper are mixed up. If a piece of paper is randomly picked up from this
mix, what is the probability that a multiple of 42 is written on the paper?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

61. As per a weather forecast, the probability of hail is for any given day
next week. What is the chance that there will be hail on both Thursday
and Friday?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

62. A classroom has 12 girls and 20 boys. of the girls in the class have
cell phones. If a child is selected at random from the class, what is the
probability that she is a girl who does not have a cell phone?
(A)

(B)

(C)
 (D)

(E)

63. A cube has sides numbered 1 through 6. If the cube is rolled three
times, what is the probability that at least one of the rolls will result in a
number higher than 4?
(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

64. There is an 80% chance that Deeksha will skip her lunch and 25 %
chance that there will be a power failure. If these events are
independent, what is the probability that Deeksha will skip her lunch
OR that there will be a power failure?
(A) 20%
(B) 80%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%
(E) 105%

65. Bag A contains 3 white and 3 red beads. Bag B contains 6 white and
3 red beads. One of the two bags will be chosen at random, and then
two beads will be drawn from that bag at random without replacement.
What is the probability that the two beads drawn will be of the same
colour?
(A) (B)

(C)
(D)

(E)
66. Two different unbiased dice are rolled together. What is the probability
of getting a sum of more than or equal to 10 after adding the numbers
shown on the tops of both the dice?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

67. Two apples and five bananas are defective out of 10 apples and 20
bananas contained in a fruit basket. If Sanjeev takes out two fruits at
random, what is the probability that either both are bananas, or both
are good?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

68. If ‘M’ and ‘N’ are two independent events and P(M) = 0.5 and P(N) =
0.4 , find P(M/N ).
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.74
(E) 0.88
69. The roll numbers of students in the class are in the range from 100 to
199 (both inclusive). If the teacher selects one student at random, what
is the probability that his/her roll number is divisible by 3?
 (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

70. An integer x is chosen at random from the numbers 1 to 50. Find the
probability that x + ≤ 50.

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(E)
4 DI- Caselets and Tables
Directions for Questions 1–4: The table below* shows the information
about number of laptops (figures in 1000s) of different models produced and
rejected by a company over six years.
Number of laptops of different models produced and rejected by a company
over the years (figures in 1000s)

1. In case of Type Q laptop, in which year was the ratio of rejection to

production the highest among the given years?
(A) 2010
 (B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2014
(E) 2015

2. In which year was the ratio of rejection to production the lowest among
the given years for type T laptop?
(A) 2010
(B) 2012
(C) 2013
(D) 2014
(E) 2015

3. What was the difference in Type R laptops rejected between 2011 and
2012?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 2000
(E) 2400

4. The acceptable (not rejected) Type T laptops in 2012 were what

percentage of those in 2011 ?
(A) 8
(B) 14
(C) 106
(D) 108
(E) 110

Directions for Questions 5–8: Refer to the following table and answer the
questions that follow:
Number of trousers produced by 5 factories over 5 months of 2016.
5. For which factory was the number of trousers manufactured in March
the highest percentage of the total number of trousers produced by that
factory during the five-month period?
(A) Prisma
(B) Shelby
(C) Kooper
(D) Wendy
(E) Caret
6. The number of trousers manufactured by Wendy in April is what
percentage of the number of trousers manufactured by Wendy in
January?
(A) 10%
(B) 91%
(C) 110 %
(D) 115 %
(E) 125%

7. Which of the five factories has the highest ratio of the number of trousers
manufactured in April to number of trousers manufactured in February?
(A) Prisma
(B) Shelby
(C) Kooper
(D) Wendy
(E) Caret
 8. For which factory was the number of trousers manufactured in February
and March together the lowest among the five factories?
(A) Caret
(B) Wendy
(C) Kooper
(D) Shelby
(E) Prisma

Directions for Questions 9–12: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The table given below* shows the number of two-wheelers ( motorised ) running
on the roads of a country XYZ during the period 2006 – 2010.
These are the only type of two-wheelers on the roads of the country.

9. The second highest annual growth over the entire period has been
experienced by which of the following two-wheelers:
(A) RHONDA
(B) SICTOR
(C) VTS
(D) SCHAPE
(E) BAJAZ

10. What is the difference between the total numbers of two-wheelers on

the roads of the country from the year 2007 to year 2009?
 (A) 4900
(B) 4500
(C) 5100
(D) 5200
(E) 5400

11. What is the approximate percentage of RHONDA two-wheelers out of

the total number of two-wheelers on the roads of the country in the year
2008?
(A) 30%
(B) 33.33%
(C) 35%
(D) 38%
(E) 45%

12. What is the average number of two-wheelers running on the roads of

the country in the year 2008?
(A) 118756
(B) 118765
(C) 119576
(D) 181756
(E) 191756

Directions for Questions 13–15: Read the information given below* and
answer the questions that follow.

The table given at the bottom of this page depicts the marks obtained by 1000
students in English and Computer Science in an entrance exam conducted by
JET (Junior Entrance Test)

13. What is the difference between the percentage of students who secured
more than 60% marks in aggregate and those who secured more than
40% marks in aggregate?
(A) 0%
(B) 27%
 (C) 46%
(D) 54%
(E) 73%

14. What is the total number of students securing more than 20 marks in
English and 40 marks in Computer Science?
(A) 40
(B) 70
(C) 260
(D) 840
(E) Cannot be determined
15. The percentage of the number of students securing more than 60 %
marks in Computer Science is approximately what percent of those
getting more than 40% marks in aggregate?
(A) 20%
(B) 29%
(C) 31%
(D) 36%
(E) 42%

Directions for Questions 16–19: Use the table to solve the question.

The following table gives the sales of various sections of three departmental
stores that began operations in 2005. All values are in million dollars. ( Real
NMAT Question)
16. For which year did the sales increase the most, relative to the previous
year, for the men’s section of Olivestyle?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008
(E) 2009

17. Which of the following represents the years during which the total sales
of men’s sections of the three departmental stores lay between 30% and
40% of the total sales of all the sections for the three stores?
(A) 2005 and 2006
(B) 2005 and 2007
(C) 2005, 2006 and 2007
 (D) 2005, 2006 and 2008
(E) 2006, 2008 and 2009

18. The highest percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together,
relative to the previous year, was achieved in:
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008
(E) 2009

19. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) The ‘Others’ section has contributed to more than 50% of sales for
Topper’s Top across all years.
(B) Between 2006 and 2009, sales of the women’s section of Topper’s
Top declined steadily whereas that of the ‘Others’ section steadily
increased.
(C) The men’s section sales at Oliveside are always the lowest among
all three stores.
(D) The women’s section sales at Eastside have always been higher
than the average sales of all three sections at Eastside.
(E) The ‘Others’ section sales of Eastside are always the highest
among all three stores.

Directions for Questions 20–23: Table 1 shows the number of Science and
Engineering doctorates from different countries between 1989 and 1993.
Table 2 shows the number of only Engineering doctorates from the same
countries for the same period of time. Go through the given tables and solve
the questions based on them. (Real NMAT Question)
20. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of
Science doctorates from India between 1989 and 1991?
(A) 1.16%
(B) 2.00%
(C) 7.33%
(D) 42.00%
(E) 43.00%

21. In 1993, what percentage of the Science doctorates from Asia were from
India?
(A) 6.87%
(B) 34.32%
(C) 37.34%
(D) 50.67%
(E) 62.65%

22. The table shows the number of only Engineering doctorates from the
same countries in 2003.
 Which country recorded the least percentage increase in the number of
engineering doctorates from 1989 to 2003?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Japan
(D) Taiwan
(E) South Korea

23. From 1989 to 1993 what percentage of Engineering doctorates from

Asia were from countries other than India?
(A) 12.39%
(B) 16.18%
(C) 50.36%
(D) 61.71%
(E) 88.91%

Directions for Questions 24–27: In the Copa America league, four football
teams namely, Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay and Paraguay, take part where
each team is to play against the other three teams at most once. For a win, a
draw and a loss, 2 points, 1 point and 0 points are awarded respectively. After
several matches have been played in the league, a table is compiled which
gives information about the points earned by teams at this stage in the league.
(Real NMAT Question)

It is also known that Uruguay has not won any matches so far. Brazil has
scored the same number of goals as other teams have scored against it.
Paraguay has lost at least one match. The total points of Brazil are not known.

24. How many matches have resulted in a draw so far?

(A) 0
 (B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

25. How many teams have played matches against every other team?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4

26. How many points were scored by Brazil?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

27. What is the difference between the number of drawn matches played by
Brazil and Argentina?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 0 or 1
(E) 0 or 2

Directions for Questions 28–30: Read the information given below and
answer the questions that follow.

The table below* depicts the number of students of five engineering colleges
A, B, C, D and E who were placed in different companies during campus
placement drives.
28. What is the approximate percentage of students of college C who got
selected during campus placement drives?
(A) 45%
(B) 50%
(C) 55%
(D) 60%
(E) 65%

29. What is the percentage of Mechanical Engineering students from all the
colleges who got selected during campus placement drives?
(A) 40%
(B) 44%
(C) 49%
(D) 51%
(E) 53%
30. What is the total number of students of Electrical Engineering from all
the colleges who got selected during campus placement drives?
(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 130
(E) 136
5 DI-Graphs and Charts
Directions for Questions 1–4: Refer to the following graph and answer the
questions.

Comparison of GPAs of 3000 students in 1980 and in 2010

1. What was the mode for the GPA among the 3,000 students in 2010?
(A) 3.7
(B) 3.3
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.7
(E) 2.3

2. What was the median GPA among the 3,000 students in 1980?
(A) 3.7
(B) 3.3
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.7
(E) 2.3
 3. Approximately what percentage of the students in 2010 earned at least
a 3.0 GPA?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 67%
(D) 80%
(E) 97.5%

4. Approximately what percentage of the students in 1980 earned a GPA

less than 3.0?
(A) 33%
(B) 37.5%
(C) 50%
(D) 62.5%
(E) 75%

Directions for Questions 5–8: Go through the given graph and solve the
questions based on it.

5. What is the ratio of male players to female players on the Athletics

team?
(A) 37 : 61
(B) 9 : 17
 (C) 16 : 23
(D) 14 : 19
(E) 61 : 37

6. All players, except those in Athletics and Cricket teams, are a part of
only one team. If there are a total of 76 male players in different
university sports teams, how many male players are in both Athletics
team and Cricket team?
(A) 11
(B) 17
(C) 37
(D) 54
(E) 76

7. In which of the following university sports team(s) do male players

outnumber female players?
(A) Athletics, Tennis and Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Football and Cricket
(D) Football
(E) Tennis and Athletics

8. What is the ratio of female tennis players to male basketball players on

the university sports teams?
(A) 5 : 14
(B) 9 : 14
(C) 7 : 18
(D) 14 : 9
(E) 18 : 7
Directions for Questions 9–12: Study the following chart to answer the
question given below:
 Percentage distribution of the population of seven towns of the state in
2005.

9. In 2006, the populations of Town A and Town B each increased by 10%

as compared to 2005. If the population of Town A in 2005 was 5000 and
the percentage of the population living below the poverty line for all
seven towns in 2006 remains the same as in 2005, which of the following
is the approximate population of Town B below the poverty line in 2006?
(A) 2500
(B) 3000
(C) 3500
(D) 4000
(E) 4500
10. In 2007, the population of Town D increased by 10% as compared to
2005 and the population of Town G reduced by 5% as compared to
2005. If the population of Town G in 2005 was 9000, what is the total
population of Towns D and G in 2007?
 (A) 19200
(B) 19770
(C) 19870
(D) 19970
(E) None of these

11. If in 2005 the total population of the seven towns together was
approximately 55,000, what will be the approximate population of Town
F in that year below the poverty line.
(A) 2500
(B) 3000
(C) 3500
(D) 4000
(E) 4500

12. The population of Town C is 2000 in 2005. What will be the ratio of the
population of Town C below the poverty line to that of Town E below the
poverty line in that year?
(A) 207 : 76
(B) 76 : 207
(C) 152 : 207
(D) 76 : 307
(E) 87 : 207

Directions for Questions 13–16: Go through the given graphs and solve the
questions based on them. (Real NMAT Question)
13. In 2010, the total number of students surveyed in the five countries who
liked science was 8,450. Which statement is true about the total number
of students surveyed in the five countries who liked science?
(A) It remained the same between 1998 and 2008 but changed
between 2008 and 2010.
(B) It increased by 13.05% between 1998 and 2008 but decreased by
15.03% between 2008 and 2010.
(C) It decreased by 13.05% between 1998 and 2008 but increased by
15.03% between 2008 and 2010.
(D) It increased by 27.03% between 1998 and 2008 but decreased by
25.19% between 2008 and 2010.
 (E) It decreased by 27.03% between 1998 and 2008 but increased by
25.19% between 2008 and 2010.

14. In the year 2000, the total number of students surveyed in the five
countries who liked science was 10% more than the total number of
students surveyed in the five countries in 1998 who did not like science.
Out of the total number of students surveyed in the five countries who
liked science in the year 2000, there were 2,000 students who liked only
physics but not chemistry and biology, 4,346 students who liked only
chemistry but not physics and biology and 5,579 students who liked
biology. How many students surveyed in the five countries who liked
science in the year 2000 did not like biology but liked both physics and
chemistry?
(A) 925
(B) 1,000
(C) 1,320
(D) 2,425
(E) 2,835

15. In 2010, this survey was conducted in Country F. The number of

students of Country F who participated in the survey was equal to the
difference between the number of students surveyed in countries A, B,
C, D and E who liked science in 2008 and the number of students
surveyed in countries A, B, C, D and E who liked science in 1998. What
was the sample size of the survey conducted in Country F in the year
2010?
(A) 2,500
(B) 4,250
(C) 5,500
(D) 6,750
(E) 9,250

16. All the countries which recorded a percentage change of less than 50%
in the number of students who liked science from 1998 to 2008 ,
were surveyed for a second time in 2008 to verify the results. When
the same population was surveyed for a second time for those
countries, it was found that the data was 900 more than the actual
 value for 2008. What was the percentage error in plotting the value for
2008?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 85%
(E) 90%

Directions for Questions 17–19: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.
The line graph below depicts the number of employees who left the company
ABC Pvt. Ltd. and the number of new joinees in that year. Also, it is known
that the number of employees in the year 2012 was 2000.

17. What was the percentage change in number of employees in the

company from the year 2012 to year 2013?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
(E) Data insufficient
18. In which of the following years was the number of employees in ABC
Pvt. Ltd. the maximum?
(A) 2014
(B) 2015
 (C) 2016
(D) 2017
(E) None of these

19. In which of the following two years was the number of employees in ABC
Pvt. Ltd. the same?
(A) 2013 and 2017
(B) 2013 and 2015
(C) 2016 and 2017
(D) 2014 and 2017
(E) None of these

Directions for Questions 20–22: Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below.

The bar chart represents the volume of cars sold in a particular year and the
sales per unit volume of a particular year.

20. By what percentage is the total volume of sales in the year 2015
greater/smaller than that in 2011 ?
(A) 45.6%
(B) 50.3%
(C) 54.2%
(D) 61.4%
(E) 66.67%
 21. What is the difference between the average of the volume of cars sold
and that of the sales per unit volume for the whole period?
(A) 40.00
(B) 41.57
(C) 43.21
(D) 45.12
(E) 50.73

22. In how many of the years, the trend is such that when there is an
increase in volume sold over the previous year, then there is a decrease
in the sales per unit volume over the previous year and vice versa?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Directions for Questions 23–26: The given graph shows the distribution of
a net property tax of 16.6 million dollars levied by a district government. Go
through the given graph and solve the questions based on it. (Real NMAT
Question)
23. If points A, O, and B can be joined to form a straight line, what was the
property tax levied by the government on Libraries?
(A) 3,40,000 dollars
(B) 4,88,235 dollars
(C) 5,64,400 dollars
(D) 16,60,000 dollars
(E) 18,30,000 dollars

24. The tax levied on Schools, Libraries, and Counties was 75% of the total
tax levied. The total tax levied on Townships and Cities and Towns was
3.652 million dollars. What was the tax levied on Other Units?
(A) 4,98,000 dollars
(B) 5,15,000 dollars
(C) 8,30,000 dollars
(D) 12,45,000 dollars
(E) 16,60,000 dollars
25. The combined tax levied on Townships, Cities and Towns, and Other
Units was equal to the tax levied on Counties. The tax levied on
 Counties was half the combined tax levied on Schools and Libraries.
How much tax was levied on Counties?
(A) 25,00,000 dollars
(B) 27,50,000 dollars
(C) 32,60,000 dollars
(D) 41,50,000 dollars
(E) 83,00,000 dollars

26. The tax levied on Cities and Towns was 6 times the tax levied on Other
Units and 4.5 times the tax levied on Townships. If the tax levied on
Other Units was 4,98,000 dollars, what per cent of the total taxes was
levied on Townships?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 13.5%
(D) 18%
(E) 20%

Directions for Questions 27–30: A survey on Body Mass Index was

conducted on a group of 2,000 people of different age groups. The first graph
shows the Body Mass index of different age groups. The second graph shows
the distribution of age groups of the people who took the survey. Go through
the given graphs and solve the questions based on them. (Real NMAT
Question)
27. How many people who were 50 years and above had an ideal body
mass index?
(A) 60
(B) 170
(C) 200
(D) 500
(E) 1,200

28. How many people below 40 years did not have an ideal body mass
index?
(A) 460
(B) 640
(C) 900
(D) 1,100
(E) 1,600

29. What percent of people who took the survey were obese?
(A) 10%
(B) 16%
(C) 25%
(D) 42%
 (E) 100%

30. Of the total number of overweight people, what percent was in the age
group of 50 – 59?
(A) 4.50%
(B) 17.65%
(C) 21.42%
(D) 30.00%
(E) 45.00%
6 Data Sufficiency
Directions for Questions 1 to 30: A question is followed by
two statements, numbered (1) and (2). Using the information
provided and general knowledge, decide whether the
information given is sufficient to solve the problem.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) ALONE is not
sufficient.
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) ALONE is not
sufficient.
(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER
statement ALONE is sufficient.
(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
(E) Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

1. What are the values of 3 integers a, b and c? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) ab =8
(2) bc = 9

2. What is the value of Q? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) Ratio of P and Q is 3:5, where P is positive.
(2) Ratio of P and Q is where Q is positive.

3. What percentage of a group of people are men with MBA degrees?

(1) Of all the men in the group, 25% have MBA degrees.
(2) Of all the women in the group, 30% have MBA degrees.

4. In a classroom, one student is to be selected at random to solve a

question. What is the probability that a girl will be selected?
(1) Two-fifths of the students in the classroom are boys.
(2) 15 of the students in the classroom are boys.

5. Find the average speed of tiger ‘x’. (Real NMAT Question)

(1) Initially tiger ‘x’ covers some part of the distance at 57 m/s.
 (2) Tiger ‘x’ covers the remaining part of the distance at 43 m/s.

6. If a is an integer, is a + 1 even?
(1) a + 2 is an even integer.
(2) a – 1 is an odd integer.

7. If Udit saved Rs. 1200 of his earnings last month, how much did Udit
earn last month?
(1) Udit spent of his earnings last month on household
expenses and saved of the remainder.

(2) Of his earnings last month, Udit paid twice as much in rent as he
saved.

8. Water is pumped into a partially filled swimming pool at a constant rate

through an inlet pipe. At the same time, water is pumped out of the pool
at a constant rate through an outlet pipe. At what rate, in litres per
minute, is the amount of water in the pool increasing?
(1) The amount of water initially in the pool is 500 litres.
(2) Water is pumped into the pool at a rate of 50 litres per minute and
out of the pool at a rate of 20 litres every 4 minutes.

9. What is the price of tea?

(1) The price of coffee is Rs. 5 more than that of tea.
(2) The price of coffee was Rs. 5 less than the price of a cold drink,
which cost three times the price of tea.

10. What is the cube root of y?

(1) The 7th root of y is 12.
(2) The 22nd root of y is 2.

11. In triangle ABC, if AB = x units, BC = x + 4 units, and AC = y units, which

of the three vertex angles of triangle ABC has the greatest degree
measure?
(1) y = x + 8
(2) x = 4
12. What percentage of Debating club members enrolled at a certain school
are from India?
(1) Of the Indian students enrolled at the school, 20% are members of
the Debating club.
(2) Of the non-Indian students enrolled at the school, 45% are
members of the Debating club.

13. If the sequence S has 150 terms, what is the 121st term of S ?
(1) The first term of S is 32.
(2) The 138th term of S is 1248, and each term of S after the first is 18
more than the preceding term.

14. What is the selling price of the mixture if the ratio of the two qualities of
tea mixed is 3:4? (Real NMAT Question)
(1) Cost price of the first quality of tea is Rs. 180 per kg.
(2) Cost price of the second quality of tea is Rs. 225 per kg.

15. What is the area of the quadrilateral? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) The co-ordinates of the vertices are (1, 5), (2, 3), (5, 4) and (4 , 7).
(2) The intersection of its diagonals is at the origin.

16. The absolute difference between a two digit number and the number
formed by reversing the digits of that number is D. What is the number?
(1) D = 36
(2) The sum of the digits of the number is 12.

17. Who is the shortest among the five friends A, B, D, E and F?

(1) D is taller than F but shorter than A and F is not the shortest.
(2) E is shorter than B.

18. If a, b and c are digits, is (a + b + c) a multiple of 9? (A digit can be one

of the integers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7, 8 or 9.)
(1) The three digit number abc is a multiple of 9.
(2) [(a × b) + c] is a multiple of 9.

19. What is the value of X, if X is an integer?

 (1) X =
(2) X2 – 1 < 0

20. Is parallelogram ABCD a rhombus?

(1) The four triangle enclosed by the diagonals and the sides have
equal areas.
(2) A circle can be inscribed in ABCD touching all the four sides.

21. Is a = b = c = 1?
(1) a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca
(2) a2 + b2 = 2c2

22. Pipe A can fill a tank in ‘a’ hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in ‘b’
hours. If both the pipes are opened together for 2 hours, then what is
the volume (in cc) of water in the tank after 2 hours?
(1) a = 6 and b = 8
(2) Volume of the tank is 100 cc

23. Four lectures Arithmetic, Biology, Chemistry and Dermatology were

scheduled, one on each day on four consecutive days, but not
necessarily in that order. On which day was Chemistry scheduled?
(1) The first lecture was scheduled on Monday, 14th January 2016 and
was followed by Dermatology.
(2) Arithmetic was not scheduled on 16th January 2016 and there was
a gap of one day between Arithmetic and biology.

24. Are the integers A and B co-primes? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) The numbers A and B are the squares of two successive even
numbers.
(2) Both A and B are distinct primes.
25. Find the value of x. (Real NMAT Question)

Statements:
(1) x =
(2) x64 = 8128
 26. What is the sum of 3 successive prime numbers? (Real NMAT
Question)
(1) The 3 prime numbers are in arithmetic progression.
(2) The first of them is 5.

27. What is Mr Kashyap’s salary? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) Mr Kashyap bought 50 kg rice with one-fourth of his salary.
(2) Had the rice been 20% cheaper than its current price, Mr Kashyap
could have bought 50 kg rice for $100 more than onetenth of his
salary.

28. Is z > 1? (Real NMAT Question)

(1) [x is an integer]
(2) z2 < z

29. What is the probability of drawing a Rs. 5 coin from a bag containing
23 coins? (Real NMAT Question)
(1) Rs. 2 coins are 12 in number.
(2) Rs. 5 coins are 8 in number.

30. Find the value of (Real NMAT Question)

(1)

(2)
3.2 Answers and Explanations
The following discussion is intended to familiarise you
with the most efficient and effective approaches to the
kinds of problems common to quantitative skill
questions. The particular questions in this chapter are
generally representative of the kinds of problem-solving
questions you will encounter on the NMAT exam.
Remember that it is the problem-solving strategy that is
important, not the specific answers or details of a
particular question.
1 Number Properties

1.

Thus, we get

The correct answer is C.

2.

The correct answer is A.

3. of all the pencils is 5 pencils. These 5 pencils each cost Rs. 2, for a
total of Rs. 10.

The remaining 10 pencils cost Rs. 5 each, for a total of Rs. 50.

If all of these more expensive pencils are lost, then the lost pencils
represent of all the money paid.

Thus, required % = x 100 = approximately 83%

The correct answer is D.
4. The answer is the greatest common factor (GCF) of the two numbers.

4,000 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 ×5 =
25 × 53

180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 22 × 32 ×5

These numbers have 2 × 2 × 5 in common, so 20 is the GCF.

The correct answer is C.

5. If t is divisible by 12, then t2 must be divisible by 144 or 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 ×

3 × 3. Therefore, t2 can be divided evenly by 2 at least four times, so a
must be at least 5.

The correct answer is C.

6. The key to solving this problem is realising that

5k+ 1 = 5k51

Now, 5k+1 = 2,000

5k51 = 2,000

Now divide both sides by 5:

5k = 400

So, 5k + 1 = 401

The correct answer is B.

7. Since a square root is the same as a exponent and a cube root is the

same as a exponent.

Therefore, converting the given expression into fractional exponents,

we get:

The correct answer is E.

8. In order to answer this question, you have to understand what creates
zeroes at the end of a number. You will notice that zeroes are created
by 10’s, each of which is created by one 2 and one 5. So to answer this
question, you simply need to work out how many pairs of 2’s and 5’s are
in the given expression

12514488 = (53)14 × (24 × 3)8 = 542 × 232 × 38

Even though there are 42 powers of 5, there are only 32 powers of 2 ,

so you can only make 32 pairs of one 5 and one 2. Therefore, the
number of consecutive zeroes at the end = 32 The correct answer is
B.

9. For three consecutive integers, the possibilities are [odd, even, odd] or
[even, odd, even].

Since n could be an odd or an even, option (B) and (C) are eliminated.

Option (D) is true only if n is even, but not if n is odd, so option (D) is
also eliminated.

In any set of three consecutive integers, one of the integers must be

divisible by 3, but not necessarily n, so option (A) is also eliminated.

For the same reason, (E) must be true, as n (n + 1)(n + 2) can be

thought of as “the product of any three consecutive integers.” Since
one of these integers must be divisible by 3, the product of those three
numbers must also be divisible by 3.

The correct answer is E.

10. Decimal placement can be determined by how many times a number

is multiplied or divided by 10. Multiplying moves the decimal point to
the right, and dividing moves the decimal point to the left. Look for
powers of 10 in the given fraction, remembering that 10 = 2 × 5.
 There is no zero to the right of the decimal point before the first
nonzero digit in 0.136. However, dividing by 1010 will move the decimal
to the left 10 places, resulting in 10 zeros between the decimal and the
‘136’ part of the number.

The correct answer is A.

11. Note that 25 x 4 = 100, and the other side of the equation involves a
power of 10. Separating out the ‘pairs’ of 25 and 4 on the left, we have:

25546 = 10x + a

41(45255) = 10x + a

41(100)5 = 10x + a

4(1010) = 10x + a

40,000,000,000 = [a power of 10] + a

To minimise ‘a’ while keeping it positive, maximise the power of 10 while

keeping it less than 25546.

The greatest power of 10 that is less than 40,000,000,000 is

10,000,000,000, or 1010.

Thus:

40,000,000,000 = 10,000,000,000 + a

30,000,000,000 = a

The correct answer is E.

12. The units digits of 7 to positive integers create a repeating pattern (this
works for digits other than 7 also). By multiplying 7 by itself repeatedly
in the calculator, you can generate the pattern:
71 = 7

72 = 49

73 = 343
 74 = 2,401

75 = 16,807

76 = 117,649

77 = 823,543

78 = 5,764,801

Pattern: 7, 9, 3, 1

To find the 86th item in a pattern of 4 repeating items, find the

remainder when 86 is divided by 4, that is, 2. The second element in
the pattern is 9.

The correct answer is E.

13. Remember that when dealing with evenly spaced integers, the average
is the middle value.

The sum of the even integers between 1 and 100 = 51 × 50 = 2550

The sum of the odd integers between 100 and 150 = 125 × 25 = 3125

The required difference = 2550 – 3125 = –575 The

correct answer is A.

14. The LCM of 12, 18, 30 and 45 is 180. Thus, the answer has to be 8 less
than a multiple of 180.

1080 – 8 = 1072 is the only number that fits and should be the correct
answer.

The correct answer is A.

15. For n = 0, 22n + 1 = 20 + 1 = 21 = 2 For n = 1, 22n + 1 = 22 + 1 = 23 = 8

For n = 2, 22n + 1 = 24 + 1 = 25 = 32

For n = 3, 22n + 1 = 26 + 1 = 27 = 128

For n = 4, 22n + 1 = 28 + 1 = 29 = 512

 Therefore, the sum of the last digits of the above numbers = 2 + 8 + 2
+ 8 + 2 = 22

When 22 is divided by 7, it gives a remainder of 1.

The correct answer is A.

16. If a and b are odd prime numbers, then a2 + b2 = even number a + b +

1 = odd number a2 + b2 – 1 = odd number

Therefore, the H.C.F. of these numbers will be 1.

Similarly for the case a = b = 2, the H.C.F. will be 1.

When only one of them is equal 2, it will again give the H.C.F. as 1.
Alternatively,

a2 + b2 – 1 and a2 + b2 are two consecutive positive integers, whose

H.C.F. will always be equal to 1.

The correct answer is A.

17. The two digits at unit’s place and ten’s place can be only 2 or 3. So, the
hundredth digit must be 6. So, the number is either 632 or 623. The
difference between 623 and 326 is 297.

The correct answer is A.

18. Such questions can be solved easily on working with the answer
choices.

Checking option (C), we get

= 4 and 24 × 2 = 48

Digits when reversed, number is 42.

So, the difference is (48 – 42) = 6 The

correct answer is C.
19. If we assume that any digit out of five digits is at fixed position, then the
remaining four digits can be arranged in 4! (24) ways. So, each of the
five digits will appear at each of the five places 4! (24) times.

So, the sum of the digits at each position is 24

(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) = 600 and hence the sum of all such numbers will be

= 600(1 + 10 + 100 + 1000 + 10000) = 6666600 The

correct answer is A.

20. 180 = 22 × 32 × 51

We know that for a number N = ap × bq × cr, the number of factors of N

is calculates as:

n = (p + 1) × (q + 1) × (r + 1)

Now, we should try to break-up 40 as a product of 3 factors. The only

possible value of A satisfying all the given conditions is as below:

A = 24 × 33 × 51 (As 5 × 4 × 2 = 40)

Therefore, the required value

The correct answer is A.

21. For a number to be divisible by 3, the sum of all the digits should be
divisible by 3.

Now, 5 + 2 + 3 + 7 + a + b should be divisible by 3.

17 + a + b must be divisible by 3.

Therefore, a + b must be a (multiple of 3) + 1.

That is, 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19.

The correct answer is E.

22. 2A when divided by 9 will give a remainder of 2 × 7, that is, 14. This can
be divided by 9 and the required remainder will be 5.
 The correct answer is C.

23. Let the total number of members be x².

The, the number of members went for rock climbing =

And, the number of members went for hiking = 2x

The remaining members are = 10

Hence, + (2x) + 10 = x²

Solving the equation, we get:

x = 5, –

Since number of members cannot be negative,

So, x = 5

So, number of members went for hiking

= 2 × 5 = 10

The correct answer is B.

24.

The correct answer is C.

25. We have to find the remainder when 1! + 2! +…+ 600! Is divided by 6.

From 3 ! (i.e., 6) onwards each number in the series will be divisible by

6.
 Therefore, the remainder will occur only due to first two terms.

Remainder = 1! + 2! = 3

The correct answer is C.

26. We have to find the digit in the unit place of the following:

(9843 × 12222) + 72959 + 2543

The cyclicity of the digits present at the unit place of the numbers given
in the expression are as below:

Cyclicity of 8 = 4 (8, 4, 2, 6)

Cyclicity of 2 = 4 (2, 4, 8, 6)

Cyclicity of 9 = 2 (9, 1)

Therefore, the given expressions can be written as below:

(984×10+3 × 1224×5+2) + 7292×29+1 + 24×135+3

Hence, the unit place of the above expression,

= (83 × 22) + 91 + 23

= (2 × 4) + 9 + 8

= 8+9+8= 5

The correct answer is A.

27. The divisibility rule of 9 says that the sum of the digits must be divisible
by 9.

So, checking the options one by one, we get:

Option A: 1 + 2 + 0 + 3 = 6 ➜ Not divisible

Option B: 2 + 2 + 5 + 6 = 15 ➜ Not divisible

Option C: 4 + 2 + 6 + 5 + 1 = 18 ➜ Divisible

Option D: 7 + 1 + 6 + 2 + 3 = 19 ➜ Not divisible

 Option E: 9 + 2 + 4 + 2 + 3 = 20 ➜ Not divisible The

correct answer is C.

28. We have to find the LCM of nC1 and nC2, where n is odd

We know that,

Therefore,

And,

The correct answer is B.

29. Let the number of female employees be x and the number of male
employees be y.

According to the question, we have: x

= 7y

The ratio of female employees to male employees

So, the total number of employees should be a multiple of 8.

As 54 is not a multiple of 8 so 54 cannot be the total number of

employees in the bank.
 The correct answer is C.

30. In an ordinary year, there are 52 weeks and one extra day and in a leap
year there are 52 weeks and 2 extra days.

From August 15, 1947 to August 14, 1949, there is one ordinary year
and one leap year, that is,

1 + 2 = 3 odd days

So, August 15, 1949 would be a Friday + 3 days, that is, Monday.

Number of days from August 15, 1949 to January 26, 1950 = 16 + 30 +

31 + 30 + 31 + 26 = 164

Therefore, number of odd days = 3

Hence, January 26, 1950 day would be Monday + 3 days, that is,
Thursday.

The correct answer is A.

31. In such questions, always start from today. If today is 8 March, 2018 ,
and it is Thursday, we can work backwards to April 20, 1984.

From 8 March, 1984 to 8 March, 2018, there are 34

years, of which there are 8 leap years and 26 normal
years.
So, there would be 8 × 2 + 26 × 1 = 42 odd days, which means 0 odd
days.

So, 8 March, 1984 was also Thursday.

Now, from 8 March, 1984 to 20 April, 1984, number of days = 23 + 20

= 43, which means 1 odd day. So, April 20, 1984 would be Friday. The
correct answer is B.

32. Since there are exactly 4 Wednesdays and 4 Sundays in the month of
January having 31 days, the 1st of January that year has to be on
Thursday because only then the month will end on a Saturday, with the
month having 5 Thursdays, 5 Fridays and 5 Saturdays.
 The correct answer is E.

33. If her age is x in the year 1980, then she was born in the year 1980 – x.

As per the question,

x= or x + 2x – 1980 = 0

Or x = = 44

So, she was born in 1936. The

correct answer is B.
Alternatively,

The year of birth has to be a perfect square. The only option is 1936.

34. Total difference of years = 30 years Leap years in these 30 years = 8

Normal years in these 30 years = 22

So, total number of odd days = 8 × 2 + 22 = 38

So, final odd number of days = = 3 days

On 09.12.2001 is Sunday, so on 09.12.1971 there would have been

Thursday.

The correct answer is E.

35. log102 = 0.3010 and also log1010 = 1 So, log10(2 × 5) = 1 log102 +

log105 = 1 and so log105 = 0.6990

Now, log5256 = log10256/log105 = log1028/log105

= 8log102/log105 = 8 × 0.3010/0.6990 = 3.44 The

correct answer is C.
36. Given 625log366 + 12log7 49 = 11logx 169

625½log66 + 12log7 7 = 11logx 169

625½ + 122 = 11logx 169

25 + 144 = 11logx 169

169 = 11logx 169 x
= 11.

The correct answer is B.

37. log30 3 + log30 5 + log30 2 = 1

[ log a + log b + log c = log abc

] x + y + log30 2 = 1 log30 2
=1–x–y 3 log30 2 = 3(1 –
x – y) log30 8 = 3(1 – x – y)

log8 30 =

The correct answer is B.

38. Let ap = bq = cr = ds = k

Or, a = k1/p, b = k1/q, c = k1/r and d = k1 /s loga (bcd)

= logk1/p (k1/q × k1/r × k1/s)

log
= k1/p (k1/q + 1/r + 1/s)

=
 The correct answer is A.

⇒ logx y = 39. logy x = 10

So,

The correct answer is B.

40. Given P =

= 34 + 32 + 25 = 122

The correct answer is C.

2 Arithmetic
1. The number that is 50% greater than 80 = 1.5(80) = 120.

Similarly, the number that is 25% less than 200 = 0.75(200) = 150.

Thus, the required percentage = = 20%

The correct answer is D.

2. The expenditure on rent, utilities, and insurance = 50%

The expenditure on food = 20%

The total expenditure on rent, utilities, insurance and food = 50% + 20

% = 70%.

The income left = 100% – 30% = 30%

The expenditure on video games = 30% of 30% = 0.30 × 0.30 = 0.09 ,

or 9%.

Therefore, the percentage of the income left after all of the

expenditure = 30% – 9% = 21% The correct answer is D.

3. 90% of 40 students or 0.9(40) = 36 students had lower marks than

Varun.

Of the 60 new students, 80% or 0.80(60) = 48 students had lower marks

than Varun.

Thus, 36 + 48 = 84 students in the new, larger class have marks lower

than Varun.

The new class has 100 students, 84 of whom have lower marks than
Varun.

There are 16 students remaining, one of which is Varun. Since Varun

has the lowest marks of this group of 16 students, there are 15 students
above him.
 Since the class has exactly 100 students, the required percentage =
= 15%.

The correct answer is D.

4. Machine Y’s work in a 24-hour period exceeds Machine X’s work by

48,000.

Let Machine X’s packing rate in books per hour be a That

is to say:

36a – 24a = 48,000

12a = 48,000 a =
4,000

Machine X packs 4,000 books per hour.

The correct answer is A.

5. Let the production of rice in 1990 be 100 tonnes.

Then, the production of rice in 1995

= 100 × 1.75 = 175 tonnes

And the production of rice in 2000

= 175 × 2 = 350 tonnes

Thus the percentage increase in production from

The correct answer is A.

6. Let 5 pizzas, 7 samosas and 4 ice-creams cost Rs. x. That is,

5 pizzas + 7 samosas + 4 ice-creams = x (1)

 Then, 6 pizzas, 14 samosas and 8 ice-creams will cost Rs. 1.5 x. That
is,

6 pizzas + 14 samosas + 8 ice creams = 1.5x (2)

In the first case, if Ankur has decided to buy all the items double, it would
cost him Rs. 2x. That is,

10 pizzas + 14 samosas + 8 ice-creams = 2x (3)

Subtracting Eq. (2) from (3), we get 4 Pizzas

cost Rs. 0.5x.

So, 5 Pizzas will cost Rs. 0.625x.

This is the amount that Ankur have spent on Pizzas. Hence, fraction of
the total amount paid

= 0.625 = 62.5%

The correct answer is E.

7. Cost price = 260 × = Rs. 200

The correct answer is B.

8. Let cost price be Rs. 100.

Then, marked price = Rs. 130

On this a discount of 5% is given.

So, discount = 5% of 130 = Rs. 6.5

Hence, the selling price of goods

= Rs. (130 – 6.5) = Rs. 123.5

So, the profit percentage = 23.5%
The correct answer is C.

9. (p % q + q% of p)
 =

= 2% of pq

The correct answer is C.

10. Given that, p = 5q

Percentage by which q is less than p

The correct answer is D.

11. Amount of iodine in the mixture = 16% of 735 gm

Now, the amount of iodine becomes 20% of the mixture.

If amount of mixture after evaporation is x, then

20 % of x = 16% of 735 or x = 0.8 × 735

Amount evaporated = 735 – 0.8 × 735 = 147 gm
The correct answer is C.

12.

(where A = amount; P = principle; r = rate of interest; t = time intervals)

 Thus, r = approximately 17%.

The correct answer is A.

13. Given that an amount ‘A’ becomes three times in 6 years which means
increment of ‘2A’ occurs in 6 years. That is, increment of ‘A’ occurs in
3 years.

For the amount to be 24 times, increment of ‘23A’ is required. Therefore,

it will take 69 years to become 24 times.

The correct answer is C.

14. Let us consider the compound interests for the first and the second
year be CI 1 and CI 2 respectively.

CI for the first year , CI1 =

CI for the second year ,

Therefore, the difference between the compound interests for the first
year and the second year is given by:

CI2 – CI1 =

According to the question,

 4P =

R = 200%

The correct answer is D.

Alternatively,

We know that difference between SI and CI for the first two years is
. It is given that difference of CI in the second year and that in the
first year is 4 times the principal. Since CI for first year is same as SI
for each of the years, the above difference is also the difference
between CI of the first and the second year.

So, = 4P or r = 200%

15. Let the amount be 2x.

Interest earned on amount deposited at

Simple interest = = 0.4x

Interest earned on amount deposited at

Compound interest = = 0.331x

Difference = 0.069x = 1000

x=

Therefore, total initial amount

= 2x = = Rs. 28,985

The correct answer is B.

16. According to the question,

 The correct answer is B.

17. Let the rate of interest be r.

According to the question,

Solving the above equation, we get r

= 12.5%

The correct answer is B.

18. Simple interest =

P=

R = 12.5%

The correct answer is A.

Alternatively,

In case of simple interest, an amount doubles if the rate of interest

becomes 100%.

Let us consider the rate of interest is r.

Then, the time period ‘td’ in which total interest becomes 100% is given
by as below:

19. An amount doubles if the rate of interest becomes 100%.

Let us consider the rate of interest compounded annually is r.

 Then, we know that the time period ‘td’ in which total interest becomes
100% is given by as below:

The correct answer is A.

20. Let Dev’s share be Rs. x. Suma’s share = Rs. (250000 – x)

Suma invested her share at 10% per annum simple interest for 2 years

Suma’s interest

Dev invested his share compounded at 8% per annum for 2 years

According to the question,

Suma’s share= Rs. (250000 – x)

= Rs. (250000 – 100000) = Rs. 1, 50,000 The
correct answer is D.
21. Principal = Rs. 23579

Pricipal triples itself in 3 years when compounded annually.

Let the rate be R% per year.

According to the question,

We have to find in how many years will it become 27 times of itself.

Cubing Eq. (1) on both the sides, we get

Let time taken for it to become 27 times be T .

Comparing Eq. (2) and (3), we get

T = 9 years

The correct answer is B.

22. Arvind’s per hour sale = Rs. 78

Amount paid to the salesman per hour = Rs. 10

Therefore, the profit per hour = Rs. 68

Also, the amount paid for the roadside market per day = Rs. 150

So, the formula for his daily profit will be

 Profit = Revenue – Expenses

P(h) = 68h – 150

The correct answer is C.

23. We know that profit equals revenue minus cost. Therefore, the
company’s profit is

p (9 – p) – (p + 15) = 9p – p2 – p – 15

= –p2 + 8p – 15

= –(p2 – 8p + 15)

= –(p – 5)(p – 3)

When p = 5 or p = 3, the profit becomes 0), so eliminate (A) and ( C ).

For p > 5, the profit becomes negative (that is, the company loses
money). The profit is only positive if (p – 5) and (p – 3) have opposite
signs, which occurs when 3 < p < 5.

The correct answer is B.

24. For profit to be maximum, the derivative of p with reference to x must be

0 and hence

250 –10x = 0

So, x = 25

Now p for x = 25 is 250(25)

–5(25)2 = Rs. 3,125 The
correct answer is C.
25. Selling price of smartphone = 8000 × 1.25
= 10000

CP of 2nd phone = 10000

 SP of 2nd phone = 10000 × 0.8 = 8000 Hence,
overall the person made no profit or loss.

The correct answer is E.

26. If CP is Rs. 100 for 1 kg, actual CP = Rs. 84

And, SP = Rs. 96 So, profit =

= 14 % gain

The correct answer is B.

27. Profit = 15%, Discount = 5% So, net profit% = 15 – 5 +

= 10 – 0.75 = 9.25%.

The correct answer is C.

28. Let SP of 1 pen be Re. 1. So, SP of 630 pens = Rs. 630

Profit = SP of 90 pens = Rs. 90

So, CP of 630 pens

= SP of 630 pens – Profit from the same

= 630 – 90 = Rs. 540 So, profit

percent = = 16.67%

The correct answer is C.

29. Amount kept in reserve fund = Rs. 40,000

Total dividend

= Rs. 240000 – Rs. 40000 = Rs. 200000

Face value of each preferred share = 10 Dividend per preferred share

Total dividend in all preferred shares

= 1.5 × 75000 = Rs. 1, 12,500

Total dividend in all common shares

= 200000 – 112500 = 87500 Face value

of each common share = 10

Let the dividend for common share be x%.

Dividend per common share =

Total dividend in all common shares

= 0.1x × 20000 = 2000x

According to the question,

2000 x = 87500
x = 43.75%

New, total dividend in all common shares

= 240000 – 112500 – 25000

= Rs. 102500

Let the new dividend for common share be y%.

Dividend per common share

New total dividend in all common shares

= 0.1y × 20000 = 2000y

According to the question,

 2000 y = 102500
y = 51.25%

Required difference =
51.25% – 43.75% = 7.5%
The correct answer is B.

Alternatively,

Difference in money distributed as dividend to common shareholders =

40000 – 25000 = 15000

If x% and y% are the percentage dividend in the earlier and later cases,
then

y% of 10 x 20000 – x% of 10 x 20000 = 15000

30. SP of one mp3 player = Rs. 1710

Loss = 5%

So,

SP of other mp3 player = Rs. 2520

Gain = 20%

So,

Total CP = (1800 + 2100) = Rs. 3900

Total SP = (1710 + 2520) = Rs. 4230

Gain = SP – CP

Total gain = (4230 – 3900) = Rs. 330

 The correct answer is D.

31. Satish’s commission on 10 book sets sold at Rs. 850 each

Satish’s commission on 5 book sets sold at Rs. 750 each

Satish’s commission on 10 book sets sold at Rs. 700 each

Tota number of book sets sold by Satish

= 10 + 5 + 10 = 25

If all book sets sold at Rs. 850, then Satish’s Commission

Required answer

= Rs. 3187.50 – Rs. (1275 + 562.50 + 1050)

= Rs. 300

The correct answer is C.

Alternatively,

Extra payment would be received in case of second and third

transaction.
So, extra commission

= 15% of (5 × Rs. 100 + 10 × Rs. 150)

 = Rs. 300

32. Let the CP of item be 4x.

Then, SP will be 5x.

Profit = SP – CP = 5x – 4x = x
According to the question, x =
500

Then, SP = 5x = (5 × 500) = Rs. 2500 The

correct answer is D.

33. Let the quantity of tea costing 10.40 in the mixture be x

Then the quantity of tea costing 8.80 = 15 – x

According to the question, 10.40 x

+ 8.80 (15 – x ) = 146.40 or,
10.40x + 132 – 8.80x = 146.40 or,
1.6x = 14.40

or, x =

The correct answer is D.

34. The chemist now has 10 litres of ink in a 30-litre mixture, so she must
have 20 litres of water. You want to know the amount of ink you must
add in order to make this mixture a 50% solution. Since no additional
water is added, the solution must finish with 20 litres of water.
Therefore, she also needs a total of 20 litres of ink, or 10 more litres
than the mixture currently contains.

The correct answer is C.

35. 200% bigger means ‘three times as big as’ the original. If the pitcher is
three times as big as the glass, then pouring the contents of the glass
 into the pitcher will make the pitcher full. If adding another 16 litres
fills up the pitcher, the 16 litres must be equal to the remaining of the
pitcher’s capacity.

Then, of the pitcher’s capacity = = 8 litres.

So, the quantity of the juice mixture = 8 litres.

Therefore, the volume of lime juice in the mixture = 20% of 8 litres.

= (8)(0.2) = 1.6 litres

The correct answer is A.

36. The ratio of boys to girls is 6 : 7. If you introduce the unknown multiplier
x, the number of boys is 6x, and the number of girls is 7 x, where x is a
positive integer.

According to the question,

7 x – 6x = 2 or,
x=2

Finally, substitute the value of x into the expression for the number of
boys: 6x = 6(2) = 12. There are 12 boys on the team.

The correct answer is A.

37. Use the weighted average formula to get the ratio of X to Y:

, where x is the amount of

X and y is the amount of Y.

0.55 x + 0.70y = 0.65(x + y )

0.55 x + 0.70y = 0.65x + 0.65y

55 x + 70y = 65x + 65y

55 x + 5y = 65x
 5 y = 10x

Thus,

Since y and x are in a 2 to 1 ratio, of the total is y and of the total is

x.

Since the total is 120 grams, X accounts for x 120 = 40 grams of the
mixed cereal.

The correct answer is B.

38.

The correct answer is B.

39. Given that solution X contains 50% milk and solution Y contains 30 %
milk. Using the Alligation method, we can determine the ratio of volume
of the two mixtures:

Therefore, the required ratio = 3:1

The correct answer is E.
40. Let the required time be ‘x’ seconds. Volume of solution transferred =
10x ml

Volume of milk transferred = 5x ml

Volume of water transferred = 5x ml

Ratio of volume of milk to the volume of water in the solution = 5x : 5

x + 100 = 1 : 3 x = 10 seconds

The correct answer is B.

41. Combined age of the three children = 130 – 82 = 48 years

Age of the eldest child will be

The correct answer is C.

42. Let the width of the rectangle be x.

Then, the length will be 2x.

Area of rectangle = Length × Width

Original area = 2x × x = 2x2

Now, width is quadrupled and length is halved.

New width = 4x and new length = x

New area = 4x × x = 4x2

Ratio of original area to new area

= 2x2 : 4x2 = 1:2

The correct answer is A.

43. Use alligation
 Fraction of milk in P and Q are and respectively. The resultant

mixture has milk fraction . Refer to the following

diagram:

Similarly,

Therefore, required ratio =

= 28 : 20 = 7 : 5
The correct answer is D.

44.

It is not necessary, or possible, to determine the values of a, b, and c

individually. The second average includes all three variables, so the
values will be summed again anyway.

Required average =

The correct answer is A.

45. Weight of the teacher

= Average weight + Weight contributed by increase in average

= 42 + 38 × 2 = 118 kg
 The correct answer is D.

46. Let number of men be n.

Total weight of n men initially = 50 × n = 50n (1)

After 2 persons leave, then resultant weight

= 52(n – 2) (2)

Eq. (1) and (2) can be written as

50 n = 52(n – 2) + 80
n = 12

The correct answer is E.

47. Let average weight of class 8th, 9th and 10th students be ka, kb and kc.

Let number of students in class 8th, 9th and 10th be jx, jy and jz.

Here we do not have the value of k and hence it cannot be determined.

The correct answer is E.

48. The average age of husband and wife now is 30 years and the average
age of husband, wife and the children now is 16 years. Total ages of
children = (16 × 4) – (30 × 2)

= 4 years
As all of them have different ages with integral values, the only
possibility is (1, 3) years.
 The correct answer is A.

49. If a student aged 19 years replaced by a student aged 25 years.

Increase in total age of group = 6 years

Increase in total average age of group = 0.4 years

Therefore, total number of student

= = 15 students

The correct answer is D.

50. Average age of man, woman and child = 24 years

Total age of man, woman and child

= 24 × 3 = 72 years (1)

Average age of mother, woman and child = 34 years

Total age of mother, woman and child

= 34 × 3 = 102 years (2)

Difference in age of mother and son can be calculated using Eq. (1) and
(2).

Required difference = 102 – 72 = 30 years The

correct answer is C.

51. As the product of time taken to construct a hut and the number of
workers doing the work is always constant, we have:

(3 hours) x (40 workers) = (t hours) x (140 workers)

= approximately 51 minutes.
 The correct answer is A.

52. The resort has 20(14) = 280 of wood.

If the resort only needs to heat 15 rooms instead of 20, divide 280 by
15 to get 18.666…. You are asked for extra FULL days, So extra
FULL day will be 4.

The correct answer is B.

53. Ajay and Firoz’ combined rate So, in 2 hours, they should

have completed = of the job.

Therefore, Firoz’ breaks cost them –1= job worth of productivity.

Thus, Firoz’ break time = the amount of time it would have taken him to
do of the job = 30 minutes

Therefore, each of his 3 breaks was minutes long.

The correct answer is B.

54. First, figure out how many boxes worth of pens the machine produced
in the 2 hours that it was on.

20 pens per hour is the rate, and 2 hours is the time :

Work = (20 pens per hour) × (2 hours) = 40 pens.

Now, since there are 10 pens per box, compute the number of boxes:

The number of boxes

So Mahesh must pack 4 whole boxes to accommodate all the pens that
the machine had made.
Mahesh’s rate is 3 boxes per hour, while the total work is 4 boxes.
Rearrange and plug in:
 Time

The correct answer is C.

55. Without the hole, the two taps will fill the tank in minutes

Let the hole empties the tank in X minutes, then

The correct answer is B.

56. If x, y and z are the time taken by P, Q and R respectively to fill the
cistern alone, then

Also, P works for 1 hour, whereas Q and R work for 5 hours in total.
Then,

Multiplying Eq. (1) by 5 and subtracting Eq. (2) from it, we get

x = 6 hours

So, P alone can fill the cistern in 6 hours.

The correct answer is D.

57. P works for X + 5 minutes whereas Q works for X minutes only. So,
 Or X = 4 minutes

The correct answer is C.

58. In one hour,

Suppose the quantity of water from pipe Y = w1

The quantity of water from pipe X = w2 ,

And, acid from pipe X = a

In first case, when the bucket is full,

In second case, the bucket is not full

The ratio of acid to water in pipe X = 2 : 13 The

correct answer is E.

59. Part of the cistern filled by tap P in 1 minute = Part of the cistern

filled by tap Q in 1 minute =

Part of the cistern filled by both the taps in 1 minute =

 So, the cistern can be filled in min

The correct answer is D.

60. Given that one worker can dig 250 m of tunnel in a week. It means one
worker in two weeks can dig 500 m of tunnel.

So, for digging 20,000 m of tunnel in two weeks, the number of workers
required is given by:

n= = 40 workers

The number of existing workers = 12

So, the number of extra workers required

= 40 – 12 = 28

The correct answer is E.

61.

The correct answer is A.

Alternatively,

Use the formula: .

So, or y = 36

62. Since each of the two assistants work 3/4 as fast as Ajay, all the three
put together will work
 as fast as ajay alone can do it.

Hence, if all three work together, they can finish the work in of the time
taken by Ajay alone to do the work.

The correct answer is D.

Alternatively,

Let Ajay does 4 units per day. The job is 4 units of work. So assistants
would do 3 units each per day. Hence, it takes them days
which is of what Ajay takes working alone.

63. The minimum time is taken by C as he is not present in the maximum

time of 22 days.

Similarly, the maximum time is taken by B as he is not present in the

minimum time of 15 days.

The correct answer is A.

64. Let the efficiency of Pradeep be x.

Nitish works twice as fast as Pradeep.

So, efficiency of Pradeep = 2x

Nitish and Pradeep works together thrice as fast as Bhuvan.

So, efficiency of Nitish and Pradeep together

= x + 2x = 3x

Efficiency of Bhuvan = =x

Share of earnings is proportional to efficiencies of all the three workers.

Therefore, ratio of earnings share of all three

= 2x : x : x = 2 : 1 : 1
 The correct answer is A.

65. We know that

Here, M1 = 100, D1 = 80, 1 W=

And, M2 = ?, D2 = 40, W2 =

Putting the values, we get

M2 = 50

Therefore, the number of workers that can be let go

= 100 – 50 = 50

The correct answer is C.

66. Rate of filling of tank in 1 minute =

Rate of emptying of tank in 1 minute =

So, in 1 minute the full tank will be emptied

Thus, the time required to empty the full tank = 40 minutes The
correct answer is D.

67. Let’s assume Sanya and Babli invested for 12 months

Therefore, Jhanvi invested for 12/4 = 3 months

Let Sanya’s investment be 100

Therefore, Jhanvi’s investment = 100 × 2 = 200
 And, Babli’s investment = 0.5 × 100 = 50 Therefore,
their total contribution is:

Sanya = 100 × 12 = 1200

Jhanvi = 200 × 3 = 600

Babli = 50 × 12 = 600

Thus, the ratio of Sanya : Jhanvi : Babli

= 1200 : 600 : 600

= 2:1: 1

Therefore, the share of Sanya and Babli in profit

= × 440000

= 330000

The correct answer is E.

68. Let Tina’s share be T, Ishan’s share be I, Abhishek’s share be A and

Fatima’s share be F.

Given that T + 3 = I + = F – 4 We

get:

Also given that, T + I + F + A = 80 (4)

Substituting the values from Eq. (1), (2) and (3) in Eq. (4), we get:
 – 7 – 3 – 5 = 80
F = Rs. 23.75

The correct answer is C.

69. Mukesh paid 1/2 of what others paid.

Mukesh paid 1/3rd of the total amount = £ 20

Similarly,

Manish paid 1/4th of the total amount = £ 15 and Lalu paid 1/5th of the
total amount = £ 12.

Remaining amount of £ 60 – £ 20 – £ 15 – £ 12 = £
13 is paid by Jaggi.

The correct answer is A.

70. Since their investments in the business are for the same duration i.e. 1
year, profits will be shared in the ratio of their investments i.e. 21000 :
17500 = 6 : 5.

So, Yogesh’s share = × 26400 = Rs. 14400

Mohan’s share = × 26400 = Rs. 12000

The correct answer is A.

3 Algebra and Probability
1. 3x3 – 7 = 185 or, 3x3 = 192

or,

Thus x = =4

Thus, x2 – x = 16 – 4 = 12

The correct answer is C.

2. Let the number of teams that
participated be n. According to the
question,

n2–n–240 = 0 n2–16n +
15n–240 = 0 n(n –16) +
15(n–16) = 0 ( n–16) (n
+ 15) = 0

n = 16 (since n can’t be negative) The

correct answer is E.

3. Let the roots of equation ax2 + bx + c

= 0 be m and n.

Then roots of equation, px2 + qx + r

= 0 are 1/m and 1/n

Now, m + n = –b/a and mn = c/a

1 /m + 1/n =–q/p and 1/mn = r/p

Also, 1/m + 1/n = (m + n)/mn.

So, –b/c =–q/p and also c/a = p/r

By these relations we get a = r, c = p and b = q The

correct answer is E.

4. Discriminant, D = (4b)2 – 4a(2c) Since

a, b and c are in GP, b2 = ac

Hence, discriminant, D = 16b2 – 8b2 = 8b2 > 0

 Note that 8b2 cannot be zero as a, b and c are positive integers.

Hence, roots are real and distinct.

The correct answer is D.

5. The roots are –4 and –3. Then, (p +

q)2 = (–7)2 = 49;

(p – q)2 = (–4 + 3)2 = 1

So, required equation is x2
– (49 + 1)x + (49)(1) = 0

Or, x2 – 50x + 49 = 0

The correct answer is A.

6. Let p and q be the roots of the quadratic equation.

Given that, p = 1.5q and p – q = 1 or q – p = 1

From these equations, we get p = 3 and q = 2
(or) p = – 3 and q = – 2

Since the quadratic equation with roots p and q is given by (x – p) ( x

– q), it follows that equations can be x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 (or) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
The correct answer is C.

7. p and q are roots of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0

We have to calculate value of p4 – q4

To calculate the answer we have to get the value of

 Putting values of Eq. (1) and (2), we get

The correct answer is E.

8. 2(x – 1)3 + 3 ≤ 19

2(x – 1)3 ≤ 16
(x – 1)3 ≤ 8 x
–1≤2
x≤3

The correct answer is B.

9.
 The correct answer is D.

10.

The correct answer is D.

11. If , then the two fractions must have opposite signs, that is, must be the

negative inverse of or

Thus, D is the answer. The other choices may or may not be true.

The correct answer is D.

12. Let b equal the number of chairs sold. Each chair sells for Rs. 700 , so
the total revenue is Rs. 700b. The cost is equal to 11,000 plus 300 for
every chair sold.

(700b) – (11 ,000 + 300b) > 0

700b – 11 ,000 – 300b > 0

400b – 11 ,000 > 0

400b > 11,000
b > 27.5

If b must be greater than 27.5, then the manufacturing unit needs to sell
at least 28 chairs to make a profit.
 The correct answer is C.

13. Note the absolute value sign in the original inequality. This
basically means that the solution could lie on either side of the
number line. So, you will have to solve this inequality in two ways
to get the entire range of solutions for p.

p + 5 < 9 or –(p + 5) < 9 p

< 4 or p > –14

–14 < p < 4

The correct answer is C.

14. Let x2401 be a.

We have to minimise (a + 1/a + 2 × a × 1/a)1 / 2

For a and 1/a we have A.M. (arithmetic mean)

G.M. (geometric mean) = =2

As, we know A.M. ≥ G.M.

Its minimum possible value is 2 (for A.M. = G.M.)

So, minimum possible value of (a + 1/a + 2 × a × 1/a)1/2 = (2 + 2)1 / 2 =

2

The correct answer is A.

15. The simplest way to approach this question is to divide the marbles
evenly among all 13 people and then adjust this number so that Manish
ends up with the most marbles.

Let Manish have 5 marbles. Then each of his friends can have at the
most 4 marbles, giving a total of (12 × 4) + 5 = 53 marbles. We still
have 7 marbles left, so Manish may not necessarily end up with the
most number of marbles.

Then, let Manish have 6 marbles. Now each of his friends can have at
the most 5 marbles, giving a total of (12 × 5) + 6 = 66 marbles. But we
only have a total of 60 marbles, so if Manish keeps 6, there is no way
any of his friends can end up with a greater number of marbles. Thus,
the answer is 6.

The correct answer is B.

16. a2 – b2 = 0 can be rewritten as a2 = b2.

From here, it might look as though a = b, but this is not necessarily the
case. For example, a could be 3 and b could be –3.
Algebraically, when you square root both sides of a2 = b2, you do NOT
get a = b, but rather |a| = |b|. Thus, statement 1 is not necessarily true
and statement 2 is true.

Statement 3 is also true:

a2 – b2 = 0

or, a2 = b2

or, The

correct

answer is

E.
17. The algebraic identity

Then,

The correct answer is B.

18. We know that x2 – y2 = (x + y) (x – y) a8 can be written as (a4)2 a4 can be

written as (a2)2

The given expression can now be solved as follows:

Now, factor a4 – b4 according to the same pattern:

= (a + b) (a – b )

The correct answer is C.

19. We know that (a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 and

(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2

Then,

(a – 2)2 + (a – 1)2 + a2 + (a + 1)2 + (a + 2)2

= (a2 – 4a + 4) + (a2 – 2a + 1) + (a2) + (a2 + 2a + 1) + (a2 +
4a + 4)

= (a2 + 4) + (a2 + 1) + (a2) + (a2 + 1) + (a2 + 4)

= 5a2 + 10

The correct answer is B.

20. The phrase “inversely proportional” means that a = k/b or ab = k, where
k is a constant.

As the product of a and b is always constant, we have:

24 × 2 = 6 × b,
or b = 8.

The correct answer is E.

21. Let the number of pieces of cake eaten by each of the two people who
eat the same quantity be P and the number of pieces of cake eaten by
the third person be T.

According to the question:

P + P + (P + 2) = 14

3P + 2 = 14

3P = 12
P=4

You can use the value of P to solve for T:

Therefore, the number of pieces eaten by the third person = 4 + 2 = 6

The correct answer is D.

22. Suppose the value of the red beads, the blue beads and the yellow
beads are r, b and y respectively. From the question, r + b = 4.25 b + y
= 2.75
r + b + y = 4.5

You need to find out ‘r + y’

If r + b = 4.25, then r + b + y = 4.5 could be rewritten as:

 4.25 + y = 4.5
y = 0.25

Since b + y = 2.75 and y = 0.25:

b + 0.25 = 2.75 b
= 2.5

Since r + b = 4.25 and b = 2.5:

r + 2.5 = 4.25 r = 1.75

Therefore, r + y = 1.75 + 0.25 = 2.

The correct answer is B.

23. Let us consider,

E = price under the ‘Exclusive’ plan R

= price under the ‘Regular’ plan x = the
number of classes Karan takes

Then,

E = 495 + 15x

R = 80x

0.6 R = E

Now, solving the above equations by substitution:

0.6 R = 495 + 15x

0.6(80x) = 495 + 15x

 48 x = 495 +
15x 33 x = 495
x = 15

The correct answer is C.

24. Let the number of correct answers be x; so the number of incorrect

answers will be 25 – x.

According to the problem,

3 x – 0.5(25 – x) = 40
3x – 12.5 + 0.5x = 40
x = 15

The number of incorrect answers = 25 – 15 = 10

The required difference = 15 – 10 = 5 The

correct answer is A.

25. Let the number of persons be x and contribution per person be Rs. y.

Therefore, the total contribution = Rs. xy

Also, the total contribution

= (x – 3)(y + 10) = xy + 10x – 3y – 30 Since

the contribution is the same, therefore:

xy = xy + 10x – 3y – 30

10x – 3y = 30

3y = 10x – 30

If x = 3, y = 0; this is not possible as the total contribution will be 0.

 ( Note that when x = 3 or 4, y will not be an integer value ).
If x = 6, y = 10; this condition is possible, so the minimum total
contribution possible is Rs. 60.

If 10 people had joined for the party, contribution per person = = Rs.
6

The correct answer is C.

26. Assume some values of p, q and r such that p + q + r = 0 and find the
value of the expression that is given, so suppose p = 1, q = – 1 and r
= 0.

We find that,

The correct answer is B.

27. Let the number of swans be x.

So, we get:

Now using options, we realise that x = 16 satisfies the equation.

So, number of swans is 16.

The correct answer is B.

28.

The correct answer is C.

29. Given f(x + 2) + f(5x + 6) = 2x – 1

When (x + 2) = 1, x = – 1, at which the value of (5 x

+ 6) is also 1.

So, putting x = –1 in the given equation, we get:

 f(1) + f(1) = – 3
f(1) =

The correct answer is D.

30. For no solution of the equations

4x – Ky = –7 and 5x + 3y = 2

The correct answer is C.

31. –4 > –5, therefore, [(–4)@(–5)] = (–4) Then, (–4)%2 = –4 (Since A × B

is negative) The correct answer is D. 32.

The correct answer is C.

33. For a quadratic equation,

Sum of the roots =

And product of the roots =

According to the problem,

The correct answer is C.

34. a2 + 2b = b2 + 2a + 5 a2 – 2a = b2 – 2b + 5

Adding 1 to the both sides of the expression, we get

Comparing the value, weget

The correct answer is D.

35. The given information can be tabulated as follows:

The correct answer is D.

36. The collection figures are in AP, with the first term as 100,000 and the
common difference is 20,000.

Then,

S10 = [2a + (n – 1) × d]

= 5[200,000 + (9 × 20,000)]
= 5 (380,000)

= Rs. 1900,000
 The correct answer is E.

37. Ajit puts Re 1 on January 1, Rs. 3 on January 2, Rs. 6 on January 3 ,

Rs. 12 on January 4 and so on.

So, the series is 1 + 3 + 6 + 12 + 24 + …

The 2nd to 31st term are in G.P. with 1st term 3 and
common ratio = 2

So, the total money in Ajit’s piggy bank at the end of January is sum of
series 1 + 3 + 6 + 12 + 24…

= 1 + sum of 30 terms of G.P. with 1st term and common ratio 3 and 2
respectively

= 1 + a(rn – 1)/(r – 1) (where a = 3; r = 2 and n = 30)

So, amount at the end of January is

= 1 + 3(230 – 1)/(2 – 1)

= 1 + 3(230 – 1)

= 1 + 3(230) – 3

= 3(230) – 2

The correct answer is C.

38. Here, the person saves Rs. 400 in the first year, Rs. 600 in the second
year, Rs. 800 in the third year and so on.

Hence, this forms an AP with the first term, a = 400 and the common
difference, d = 200.

According to the question,

Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
18000 = [800 + (n – 1)200]

18000 = [600 + 200n] = 300n + 100n2

 We have n2 + 3n – 180 = 0

n = 12

The correct answer is B.

39. Given that, T2 = ar = 6 and T5 = ar4 = 48

Hence, r = 2 and a = 3

So, T10 = 3 × 29 = 1536

The correct answer is C.

40. are all positive real numbers and for positive numbers. A.M. ≥

G.M. So,

or,

The correct answer is E.

41. Suppose b = ar, c = ar2 and d = ar3. Then,

Clearly, (a3 + b3)–1, (b + c )

common ratio –1
, and (c3 + d3) –1 are also in GP with
The correct answer is B.

42. The series is an AP with a = 70, d = 10 and n = 20.

 The correct answer is E.

43. We have to calculate the sum of values of hour hand in a day when
minute hand is on 12.

Also, when minute hand is on 12, hour hand point towards inegeral
values between 1 to 12 because of exact hour completion.

In a single day, hour hand rotates two times pointing integer between 1
to 12.

Therefore, summation of required values

The correct answer is C.

44. We have to compute the value of expression

The expression can also be written as

The correct answer is D.

45. To figure out the ‘limiting factor’, take the number of players available
for each position and figure out how many sets could be formed in each
case, if there were more than enough players in all the other positions.

Batsmen: 23 players available ÷ 2 players needed per set = 11.5 sets =

11 complete sets.

Bowlers: 21 players available ÷ 3 bowlers needed per set = 7 complete

sets.

Wicketkeepers: 9 players available ÷ 1 wicketkeeper needed per set =

9 complete sets.

Thus, only 7 complete sets can be formed, using all of the available
bowlers and some of the other players. A total of 7 × 2 = 14 batsmen
are required, leaving 23 – 14 = 9 unused batsmen. Likewise,
7 × 1 = 7 wicketkeepers are required, leaving
9 – 7 = 2 unused wicketkeepers. In all, there are 9 + 2 =
11 unused players, who will not be on any team.

The correct answer is C.

46. For the first digit, there are only five options
(5, 6, 7, 8, and 9) because a five-digit number must start with a nonzero
integer. For the second digit, there are 5 choices again, because now
zero can be used but one of the other numbers has already been used,
and numbers cannot be repeated. For the third number, there are 4
choices, for the fourth there are 3 choices, and for the fifth number
there are 2 choices. Thus, the total number of choices is (5)(5)(4)(3)(2)
= 600.

The correct answer is D.

47. The number of ways in which the friends can be arranged with Binod
and Dravid separated is equal to the total number of ways in which the
friends can be arranged minus the number of ways they can be arranged
with Binod and Dravid together.

The total number of ways to arrange 5 people in a line is 5! = 120.

To compute the number of ways to arrange the 5 friends such that

Binod and Dravid are standing together, group Binod and Dravid as
 one person, since they must be lined up together. Then the problem
becomes one of lining up 4 students, which gives 4! possibilities.

However, remember that there are actually two options for Binod and
Dravid coming together: Binod first and then Dravid or Dravid first and
then Binod. Therefore, there are (4!)(2) = (4)(3)(2)(1)(2) = 48 total
ways in which the five friends can be lined up with Dravid and Binod
standing together.

Therefore, there are 120 – 48 = 72 arrangements where Binod will be

separated from Dravid. The correct answer is C.

48. Any number is divisible by 8 if its last 3 digits are divisible by 8.

So, we have to make total possible 5 digit numbers so that last 3 digits
are divisible by 8 using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and without
repetition.

So, we must first fix the last 3 digits and only then can the other digits
be fixed.

Case 1 3rd digit is 1

(a) If 4th digit is 2 then we have only 120 and 128 divisible by 8 but,
these can’t be used.
(b) If 4th digit is 3 then there is only 1 possibility of 136 — these are
such 6 possible numbers (as we have 3 × 2 × 1 × 1 × 1 such
possible numbers).
(c) If 4th digit is 4 — we can’t find the number which is divisible by 8.
(d) If 4th digit is 5 then 152 is only possible number divisible by 8 —
we again have such 6 numbers (again 3 × 2 × 1 × 1 × 1).
(e) If 4th digit is 6 — we can’t have such a number which is divisible
by 8.

Case 2 3rd digit is 2

(a) If 4th digit is 1 then we have only 216 and so such 6 numbers are
possible.
(b) If 4th digit is 3 then there is no such number.
(c) If 4th digit is 4 — we can’t find the number which is divisible by 8.
(d) If 4th digit is 5 then 256 is the only possible number divisible by 8
— we again have such 6 numbers (again 3 × 2 × 1 × 1 × 1).
(e) If 4th digit is 6 — we have 264 divisible by 8 and again such 6
numbers are possible.

Case 3 3rd digit is 3

(a) If the 4th digit is 1 then we have only 312 and so such 6 numbers
are possible.
(b) If the 4th digit is 2 then there is no such number.
(c) If the 4th digit is 4 — we can’t find the number which is divisible by
8.
(d) If 4th digit is 5 then 352 is only possible number divisible by 8 —
we again have such 6 numbers (again 3 ×2 ×1 ×1 ×1). (e) If the
4th digit is 6 — no such number is possible.

Case 4 3rd digit is 4

(a) If the 4th digit is 1 then we have only 416 and so such 6 numbers
are possible.
(b) If the 4th digit is 2 then no such number is possible.
(c) If the 4th digit is 3 then we have 432 and such 6 numbers are
possible.
(d) If the 4th digit is 5 then 456 is the only possible number divisible
by 8 — we again have such 6 numbers (again 3 × 2 × 1 × 1 × 1).
(e) If the 4th digit is 6 — no such number is possible.

Case 5 3rd digit is 5

(a) If the 4th digit is 1 then we have only 512 and so such 6 numbers
are possible.
(b) If the 4th digit is 2 then there is no such number.
(c) If the 4th digit is 3 — 536 and so such 6 numbers are possible.
(d) If the 4th digit is 4 — no such number is possible.
(e) If the 4th digit is 6 — no such number is possible.

Case 6 3rd digit is 6

(a) If the 4th digit is 1 then no such number is possible.
(b) If the 4th digit is 2 then 624 is possible and so 6 numbers can be
formed.
(c) If the 4th digit is 3 then we have 632 and such 6 numbers are
possible.
(d) If the 4th digit is 4 then no such number can be formed. (e) If the
4th digit is 5 — no such number is possible.

Total such possible numbers are 12 + 18 + 12 + 18 + 12 + 12 = 84 The

correct answer is D.

Alternatively,

The last three digits of the number can be from 121 to 165, or 213 to
265 , …, or 612 to 654.

In the list 121 to 165, the numbers which are multiples of 8 without
repetition of digits and which use available digits only, are 136 and
152.

Similarly, in the list 213 to 265, the numbers are 216, 256 and 264.
In the list 312 to 365, the numbers are 312 and
352.

In the list 412 to 465, the numbers are 416,

432 and 456.

In the list 512 to 546, the numbers are 512 and

536.

In the list 612 to 654, the numbers are 624 and

632.

The leftmost two digits in each of the above cases can be filled in 3 × 2
= 6 ways
 So, total such numbers are 6 × 14 = 84

49. First distribute 2 balls in each of the boxes. So, we are left with 4 identical
balls to be distributed in 3 boxes.

We know that the number of ways of distributing ‘n’ identical balls

among ‘k’ different boxes = n+k–1Ck–1 The number of ways = 4+3–1C3 – 1
= 6C 2 = = 15

The correct answer is A.

50. Since the hexagon formed by joining those 6 points is regular, any
pentagon formed using 5 vertices will be congruent.

Hence, only one pentagon with distinctly different area can be formed.

The correct answer is D.

51. In each section 3 questions are to be selected from the five designated
questions. This can be done in 5C3 ways.

Hence, the total number of different tests

= 5C3 × 5C3 × 5C3 = 1000

The correct answer is E.

52. If five different types of sweets A, B, C, D and E then the required answer
will be non-negative integral solution of the equation

A + B + C + D + E = 8 Hence
required answer

= 8+5–1C5–1 = 12C4 = 495

The correct answer is B.

53. We have 13 Y (yellow) balls, 19 G (green) balls, 27 R (red) balls, 10 B

(black) balls, 7 b (brown) balls and 14 W (white) balls in all. Let us take
out maximum 13 balls of different colours, then we can
 take out (13Y) + (13G) + (13R) + (10B) + (7b) + (13W) balls = 69 balls.

If we take one more ball out now, we will certainly get 14 balls of either
green, red or white colour. That is, if we take out 70 balls from the bag,
we will get 14 balls (at least) of same colour.

The correct answer is B.

54. Out of 5 girls, 3 girls can be invited in 5C3 ways. Nothing is mentioned
about the number of boys that Salim has to invite.

Salim can invite 1, 2, 3, 4, or even no boy.

Out of 4 boys, Salim can invite them in the said manner in = 5C3 ×
(2)4 = 10 × 16 = 160

The correct answer is B.

55. Out of total 12 holes, at least 3 holes with red coloured balls can be filled
in the following ways:

3 red coloured balls + 9 other coloured balls

= 5C3 × 10C9 = 100

4 red coloured balls + 8 other coloured balls

= 5C4 × 10C8 = 225

5 red coloured balls + 7 other coloured balls

= 5C5 × 10C7 = 120

The sum of these three cases

= 100 + 225 + 120 = 445

The correct answer is C.

56. The possible arrangements are as below:

_ _ O_ _
 So, the remaining 4 letters can be arranged at the remaining four places
in 4! ways.

So, number of ways of arranging remaining 4 letters

= 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24 ways

The correct answer is D.

57. There are total 8 batsmen in team A and we want to select 6. The

required number of ways = 8C6 =

= 28 ways.

The correct answer is D.

58. Total number of ways = 10C6 × 4C3 × 1C1

The correct answer is C.

59. Number of ways = 12C8 × 3C2 × 3C1

The correct answer is A.

60. The factors of 210 are as follows:

1 and 210

2 and 105

3 and 70

5 and 42

6 and 35

7 and 30
 10 and 21

14 and 15

Out of the list of 16 factors, there are two multiples of 42 (42 and 210).

Thus, the answer is

The correct answer is C.

61. In this case, there are two independent events: hail on Thursday and
hail on Friday. The question asks about the probability that there will be
hail on both the days. Hence, we simply need to multiply the individual
probabilities together as follows to arrive at the answer:

The correct answer is A.

62. There are 12 girls and 20 boys in the classroom. If of the girls have

cell phones, then there are girls with cell phones. Therefore,

there are 12 – 3 = 9 girls who do NOT have cell phones.

Therefore, the probability of choosing a girl who does not have a cell
phone is the number of girls without cell phones divided by the total
number of children, which is

The correct answer is B.

63. The probability that at least one roll results in a number higher than 4 is
equal to 1 minus the probability that all three of the rolls result in
numbers 4 or lower. For one roll, there are 6 possible outcomes and 4
ways in which the outcome can be 4 or lower, so the probability is
. Thus, the probability that all three rolls result in numbers 4 or
lower is . This is the result that you do NOT want; subtract this from 1
to get the probability that you do want:
 Therefore, the required probability =

The correct answer is D.

64. This question is an OR question, so you may be tempted to simply add

the two probabilities. However, this will give you a number greater than
100%, which is NEVER possible: 0.8 + 0.25 = 1.05. This is because this
figure double-counts the cases where Deeksha skips her lunch and
there is a power failure. Subtract out these cases in order to find the
desired value.

In order to calculate the probability that Deeksha will skip her lunch
AND that there will be a power failure, multiply the individual
probabilities together:

0.8 × 0.25 = 0.2

Then, subtract to find the required probability:

1.05 – 0.2 = 0.85, or 85%

The correct answer is C.

65. The probability of choosing Bag A, P(A), and the probability of choosing
Bag B, P(B), must be the same, that is, P(A) = P(B) = .

If Bag A is chosen, what is the probability of a matched pair? First,

compute the probability of two whites. The probability of the first white
is and the probability of the second white is so the probability of a

first AND second white is . Similarly, the probability of two

reds is . If Bag A is chosen, you can obtain a match by

either choosing a pair of white OR a pair of red, so you must add their
probabilities to get the total chance of a pair. This gives P (Bag A Pair)
= .
 Similarly, if Bag B is chosen, the probability of a pair of white beads is
and the probability of a pair of red beads is . Therefore, the

probability of a pair is P (Bag B pair)

= . The probability of choosing Bag A and a pair from Bag A is the

product of the two events, .

Similarly, the probability of choosing Bag B and a pair from Bag B is

. The total probability of choosing a pair will be the probability
of choosing Bag A and a pair from Bag A or choosing Bag B and a pair
from Bag B, meaning you must sum up these two events. This gives:
P (pair)

The correct answer is C.

66. Total possible results on rolling two dice, n(S) = 62 = 36

Let A be the event that a sum of 10 or more occurs.

A = {(4,6), (5,5) (5,6), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)}

n (A) = 6

Required probability =

The correct answer is C.

67. Let A be the event of getting two bananas and B be the event of getting
two good fruits.

Therefore, (A ∩B) will be the event of getting two good bananas.

 P(A) = P(Get 2 bananas) =

P(B) = P(Get 2 good fruits) =

P(A ∩B) =

P(A B) = = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B) =

The correct answer is B.

68. Since the events are independent, the outcome of one will not affect the
other.

Given that P(M) = 0.5 and P(N) = 0.4

P(M/N) means the probability of the event M given that the event N
has already occurred. So, the P(M/N) = P(M) = 0.5 The correct
answer is B.

69. Total number of roll numbers = 100

The number of rolls numbers which are multiples of 3 = 33

So, the required probability = The

correct answer is C.

70. Let the number be x. Then, x + ≤ 50 or (x – 8)(x – 42) ≤ 0

Or, 8 ≤ x ≤ 42

So, x can be anything from 8 to 42, that is, 35 numbers.

Required probability =

The correct answer is A.

4 DI-Caselets and Tables
1. Ratio in 2010 = = 0.06 Ratio in 2011 = = 0.044

Ratio in 2012 = = 0.0625

Ratio in 2014 = = 0.052

Ratio in 2015 = = 0.051

Thus, the ratio was highest in 2012.

The correct answer is C.

2. Ratio in 2010 = = 0.066 Ratio in 2012 = = 0.056

Ratio in 2013 = = 0.037

Ratio in 2014 = = 0.044

Ratio in 2015 = = 0.046

Thus, the ratio was lowest in

2013 The correct answer is C.

3. The required difference = 700 – 550 = 150 The correct answer is A.

4. The required percentage =

= approximately 108%
The correct answer is D.

5. The required percentage for Prisma

 = = approximately 23.33 %

The required percentage for Shelby

= = approximately 19 %

The required percentage for Kooper

= = approximately 23.25 %

The required percentage for Wendy

= = approximately 20 %

The required percentage for Caret

= = approximately 22 %

The correct answer is C.

6. The required percentage

The correct answer is C.

7. While you can try calculating the required ratio for all the companies to
get to the answer, the faster way to calculate this question is to look at
the figures for the companies for April and February. Only in the case of
Shelby is the April figure greater than the February figure. Thus, the
highest ratio has to be that of Shelby.

The correct answer is B.

8. The number of trousers manufactured in February and March by Caret

= 850 + 950 = 1800

The number of trousers manufactured in February and March by Wendy

= 1150 + 1100 = 2200
The number of trousers manufactured in February and March by Kooper
= 1050 + 1050 = 2050
 The number of trousers manufactured in February and March Shelby =
700 + 800 = 1500

The number of trousers manufactured in February and March by

Prisma= 1050 + 800 = 1850 The correct answer is D.

9. Only Sulpar and Sictor have more than doubled over the entire period.

Overall growth of Sulpar

Overall growth of Sictor

Therefore, Sictor experienced the second highest annual growth rate.

The correct answer is B.

10. Total number of two-wheelers on roads of the country in year 2007

= 1300 + 249200 + 42300 + 479200 + 172600 + 1600 + 137600 +

65000 + 14400

= 1163200

Total number of two-wheelers on roads of the country in year 2009

= 1900 + 325000 + 49200 + 416700 + 162400 + 3000 + 125700 +

68000 + 16500

= 1168400

Required difference = 1168400 – 1163200 = 5200

The correct answer is D.

11. Total number of RHONDA two-wheelers in the year 2008 = 403400

Total number of two-wheelers in the year 2008

= 1800 + 266000 + 43300 + 403400 + 150400 + 2300 + 121700 +

 64900 + 15000 = 1068800

So, the required percentage

= × 100 = 37.74% ≈38%

The correct answer is D.

12. From the explanation of the previous question, we have:

Total number of two-wheelers in the year 2008

= 1068800

Therefore, average number of two-wheelers in the year 2008

= = 118756

The correct answer is A.

13. Percentage of students securing more than 60% marks in aggregate =

27%
=

And percentage of students securing more than 40% marks is = × 100=

73%

Hence, the difference = 73% – 27% = 46% The

correct answer is C.

14. The number of students securing more than 20 marks in English = 800

The number of students securing 40 marks in Computer Science cannot

be determined from the given information.
The correct answer is E.

15. Number of students securing more than 60% in computers is 210 and
number of students securing more than 40% in aggregate is 730.

So, the required percentage = × 100

= 28.67% = 29%
 The correct answer is B.

16. By the close observation of the table, we see that the sale for the men’s
section of Olivestyle increases only in the year 2008 (17.2 million dollars
to 18.5 million dollars). For the rest of the years the sale decreases.

The correct answer is D.

17. Total sales of men’s section of three stores in year 2005

= 13.5 + 21.5 + 4.3 = 39.3 million dollars

Percentage related to total sales

Total sales of men’s section of three stores in year 2006

= 12.5 + 18.5 + 5.4 = 36.4 million dollars

Percentage related to total sales

Total sales of men’s section of three stores in year 2007

= 9.8 + 17.2 + 8.6 = 35.6 million dollars

Percentage related to total sales

Total sales of men’s section of three stores in year 2008

= 11.5 + 18.5 + 11.2 = 41.2 million dollars

Percentage related to total sales

Total sales of men’s section of three stores in year 2009

= 12.5 + 15.4 + 9.5 = 37.4 million dollars

 Percentage related to total sales

Therefore, years 2005, 2006 and 2008 represent total sale of men’s
section between 30% and 40% of the total sale.

The correct answer is D.

18. The percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together in
2006

= = 1.24%

The percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together in 2007

= = 6.66%

The percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together in 2008

= = 7.31%

The percentage growth in the sales of all three stores together in 2009

= = 3.21%
Hence, the highest percentage growth in the sales of all three stores
together, relative to the previous year, was achieved in 2008.

The correct answer is D.

19. Option A:

Total sales of the men’s section of Topper’s Top across all the years =
59.8

Total sales of the women’s section of Topper’s Top across all the years
= 70.4

Total sales of the other’s section of Topper’s Top across all the years =
109.9

Clearly, percentage of other’s section is less than 50%.

So, option A is incorrect.

Option B:

Sales of the women’s section of Topper’s Top increases from 2006 to

2009.

So, option B is incorrect.

Option C:

The men’s section sales at Oliveside are always the highest among all
three stores.

So, option C is incorrect.

Option D:

Average of all three sections in the year 2005

Average of all three sections in the year 2006

Average of all three sections in the year 2007

Average of all three sections in the year 2008

Average of all three sections in the year 2009

Clearly, the women’s section sales at Eastside have always been higher
than the average sales of all three sections at Eastside.

Option E:
 The ‘Others’ section sales of Eastside are always the lowest among all
three stores.

So, option E is incorrect.

The correct answer is D.

20. Total number of science and engineering doctorates from India in

1989 = 4209

Total number of engineering doctorates from India in 1989 = 586

Total number of science doctorates from India in 1989 = 4209 – 586 =

3623

Total number of science and engineering doctorates from India in 1991

= 4294

Total number of engineering doctorates from India in 1991 = 629

Total number of science doctorates from India in 1989 = 4294 – 629 =

3665

Required percentage

The correct answer is A.

21. Total number of science and engineering doctorates from Asia in

1993 = 12587

Total number of engineering doctorates from Asia in 1993 = 4700

Total number of science doctorates from Asia in 1993 = 12587 – 4700

= 7887

Total number of science and engineering doctorates from India in 1993

= 4320

Total number of engineering doctorates from India in 1993 = 323

 Total number of science doctorates from India in 1993 = 4320 – 323 =
3997

Required percentage

The correct answer is D.

22. Percentage increase in the number of engineering doctorates from

1989 to 2003 in China

Percentage increase in the number of engineering doctorates from 1989

to 2003 in India

Percentage increase in the number of engineering doctorates from 1989

to 2003 in Japan

Percentage increase in the number of engineering doctorates from 1989

to 2003 in South Korea

Percentage increase in the number of engineering doctorates from 1989

to 2003 in Taiwan
 Hence, India recorded the least percentage increase in the number of
engineering doctorates from 1989 to 2003.

The correct answer is A.

Alternatively,

From the figures of 1989 and 2003, we can easily understand that
except India, the figures for the rest of the countries are more than
doubled.

Therefore, least percentage increase in the number of engineering

doctorates was in India only.

23. From 1989 to 1993 number of Engineering doctorates from Asia = 3621
+ 4100 + 4700 = 12421

From 1989 to 1993 number of Engineering doctorates from India

= 586 + 629 + 323 = 1538

From 1989 to 1993 number of Engineering doctorates from Asia other
than India

= 12421 – 1538 = 10883

From 1989 to 1993 percentage of Engineering doctorates from Asia

were from countries other than India

The closest option is 88.91%.

The correct answer is E.

General Solution for Questions 24 to 27:

Uruguay has not won any matches so far which means point scored by
the team is only from draws.

Brazil has scored same number of goals as the team scored against it
means any number loss for Brazil will be accompained by a win to
equalise the number of goals. Draws has equal number of goals
already.

Point scored by Argentina is 5 and atmost a team win 3 matches. So,

we are left with only one combination of 2 wins and 1 draw.

Paraguay has not drawn or won any matches because its total score is
0.

Each team can play against other atmost once and both Uruguay and
Paraguay haven’t won any matches and Paraguay also hasn’t played
any draw which means both didn’t play against each other.

So, the final fixtures of points by these teams will be as below:

Argentina = Win + Win + Draw = 5

Uruguay = Draw + Draw

Argentina has played 3 matches, 1 against each and won 2 matches

and drawn one which means a win against Paraguay, a draw against
Uruguay and a win against Brazil.
A loss for Brazil must be accompanied by a win for Brazil to equalise
the goals. As Uruguay & Paraguay hasn’t played against each other,
so, it must have won against Paraguay and drawn with Uruguay to
finalise the fixture.

Therefore, the final table can be drawn as below:

 Now all the questions can be solved easily.

24. From the above table, we have: Number of draw matches = 2 The
correct answer is C.

25. From the above table, we have:

Number of teams which played 3 matches = 2 The

correct answer is C.

26. From the above table, we have: Point of Brazil = 3 The correct answer
is C.

27. From the above table, we have:

The number of drawn matches played by Brazil = 1

And, the number of drawn matches played by Argentina = 1

Therefore, required difference = 0 The

correct answer is A.

28. Total number of students in college C

= 60 + 60 + 50 = 170
 Number of students who got selected during campus placement drives

= 24 + 30 + 40 = 94
Required percentage

The correct answer is C.

29. Total number of Mechanical Engineering students from all the colleges

= 60 + 60 + 60 + 60 + 60 = 300

Number of students who are selected during campus placement drives

= 40 + 30 + 24 + 35 + 18 = 147

Required percentage

The correct answer is C.

30. Total number of Electrical Engineering students from all the colleges
who got selected during campus placement drives

= 24 + 36 + 30 + 18 + 12 = 120 The
correct answer is C.

5 DI-Graphs and Charts

1. The mode of a list of numbers is the number that occurs most
frequently in the list. In the bar graph for GPA, dark gray bars represent
the students in 2010, and the mode of that data set is indicated by the
tallest dark gray bar. This is at grade point average of 3.3. There were
625 students with a grade point average of 3.3 in the year 2010, more
students than had any other grade point average.

The correct answer is B.

2. The median is the ‘middle value’ of an ordered list of numbers, dividing
the list into roughly two equal parts. For the 3,000 students in 1980,
the median GPA is the average of the 1,500th and the 1,501st highest
GPA. The students in 1980 are represented by the light gray bars.

150 students had a 4.0 GPA.

225 students had a 3.7 GPA.

(Total with this GPA and higher = 150 + 225 = 375)

300 students had a 3.3 GPA.

(Total with this GPA and higher = 375 + 300 = 675)

450 students had a 3.0 GPA.

(Total with this GPA and higher = 675 + 450 = 1,125)

475 students had a 2.7 GPA.

(Total with this GPA and higher = 1,125 + 475 = 1,600)

The 1,500th and 1,501st students fall between the 1,125th and 1,600th
students. Thus, the 1,500th and 1,501st highest grade point averages
are both 2.7.

The correct answer is D.

3. In 2010,

350 students had a 4.0 GPA.

525 students had a 3.7 GPA.

625 students had a 3.3 GPA.

500 students had a 3.0 GPA.

Thus, there were 350 + 525 + 625 + 500 = 2000 students who earned
at least a 3.0 GPA in the year 2010, out of a total of 3000 students.
This is of the students, or about 67% of the students.

The correct answer is C.

4. In 1980,

150 students had a 4.0 GPA.

 225 students had a 3.7 GPA.

300 students had a 3.3 GPA.

450 students had a 3.0 GPA.

In 1980, 150 + 225 + 300 + 450 = 1,125 students had a GPA of 3.0 or
higher.

Thus, 3,000 – 1,125 = 1,875 students earned a GPA less than 3.0. As
a percent of the class, this was = 62.5%

The correct answer is D.

5. Note that there are 5 vertical grid lines for every 10 players, so each
vertical grid line accounts for 2 players. On the Athletics team, there are
between 36 and 38 men (so it must be 37) represented by the light gray
bar. On the Athletics team, there are between 60 and 62 women (so it
must be 61) represented by the dark gray bar. In fractional form, the
required ratio =

The correct answer is A.

6. Note that there are 5 vertical grid lines for every 10 players, so each
vertical grid line accounts for 2 players.
Male athletes are represented by the light gray bars for each sport. Sum
the male athletes on each of the separate teams.

Males on Volleyball team: 0

Males on Athletics team: 37

Males on Tennis team: 9

Males on Football team: 10

Males on Cricket team: 17

Males on Basketball team: 14

There are 0 + 37 + 9 + 10 + 17 + 14 = 87 male players in all of the

teams combined, but there are only a total of 76 male players. Thus,
 there must be 87 – 76 = 11 male players who are counted twice by
being on both the Athletics and Cricket teams.

The correct answer is A.

7. A sport in which male players outnumber female players will have

a shorter dark gray bar than a light gray bar. This is only the case
for Football, where there are 10 male players and 7 female
players.

The correct answer is D.

8. There are 9 female tennis players and 14 male basketball players.

Thus, the required ratio = 9 : 14 The correct answer is B.

9. The population of B in 2005 = 5000 × = approximately 6150

The population of B in 2006 = 6150 ×

= approximately 6750

The population below poverty line = 52% of 6750

= approximately 3500
The correct answer is C.

10. The population of Town D in 2005 = 9000 × = 10200

The population of Town D in 2007

= 10200 × = 11220

The population of Town G in 2007

= 9000 × = 8550

Therefore, the required total

= 11220 + 8550 = 19770

 The correct answer is B.

11. The population of Town F below the poverty line =

The correct answer is C.

12. The population of Town C below the poverty line = 2000 × =

760

The population of Town E below the poverty line

Therefore, the required ratio

The correct answer is B.

Alternatively,

We do not need to know the population of any town to solve this

question.
Required ratio = (8 × 38) : (18 × 46) = 76 : 207. General
Solution for Questions 13–16:

Here we are given the percentage of students who like science in fig
1 and total number of students surveyed in fig 2. Using the two figures,
we can compute the number of students who like science for all 5
countries for 1998 and 2008 as below.

Number of students who like science:

13. From the table we made earlier, we know that the total number of
students who like science was 9,250 in 1998 and 6,750 in 2008

Percentage decrease between 1998 and 2008

Now given that number of students who were surveyed and were loving
science in 2010 was 8,450

So percentage increase from 2008 to 2010 is

The correct answer is E.

14. Total number of students surveyed in 1998 = 21,000

Number of students who liked science = 9,250

Number of students who did not like science

 = 21,000–9,250 = 11,750

Number of students surveyed who liked science in 2000 = 11,750 +

10% of 11,750

= 11 ,750 + 1,175 = 12,925

Now, we consider these 12,925 students make a universal set where

A = set of students who like Physics, Ac

= complement of set A that is those students who don’t like Physics

B = set of students who like Chemistry, Bc

= complement of set B that is those students who don’t like

Chemistry

C = set of students who like Biology, Cc

= complement of set C that is those students who don’t like Biology n(A
B C) = n(A∩Bc∩Cc) + n(B∩Cc∩Ac) + n(C) + n(A∩B∩CC)

12,925 = 2,000 + 4,346 + 5,579 + n(A∩B∩Cc) n(A∩B∩Cc) =

1,000

So, number of students who like both Physics and Chemistry but not
Biology is 1,000.

The correct answer is B.

15. Difference between students who like science in 1998 and 2008 =
9 ,250 – 6,750 = 2,500

Sample size of survey conducted in country F in 2010 is 2,500 The

correct answer is A.

16. The total number of students surveyed in the five countries in 1998 who
liked science:
 Country A: 3,600; Country B: 800; Country C: 2,250; Country D: 2 ,400;
Country E : 200

The total number of students surveyed in the five countries in 2008 who
liked science:

Country A: 2,400; Country B: 1,500; Country C: 300; Country D: 800;

Country E: 1,750 % decrease for:

Country A = 33.33%; Country B = 87.5%; Country C = 86.67 %; Country

D = 66.67%; Country E = 77.5%

Only Country A recorded a percentage change of less than 50 %.

Hence, only Country A was surveyed for a second time in 2008. For
the same population surveyed, correct number of Country A students
who liked science in 2008 = 2400 – 900 = 1500.

Percentage error = = 60%

The correct answer is B.

General Solution for Questions 17–19:

Number of employees in 2013

= 2000 – 250 + 350 = 2100

Number of employees in 2014

= 2100 -– 450 + 300 = 1950

Number of employees in 2015

= 1950 – 300 + 400 = 2050

Number of employees in 2016

= 2050 – 250 + 500 = 2300

Number of employees in 2017

= 2300 – 400 + 350 = 2250

17. Number of employees in 2012 = 2000 Change in number of employees
in 2013

= 350 – 250 = 100

So, the required percentage change

= = 5%

The correct answer is D.

18. Looking at the above calculation, it is clear that the number of

employees in ABC Pvt. Ltd. was the maximum in the year 2016.

The correct answer is C.

19. Looking at the above calculation, it is clear that none of the given two
years has the number of employees in ABC Pvt. Ltd. the same.

The correct answer is E.

20. Total volume of sales in the year 2011 = 405 × 150 = 60750

Total volume of sales in the year 2015

= 370 × 265 = 98050

Hence, the required percentage

The correct answer is D.

21. Average of the volume of cars sold

Average of the sales per unit volume

 Therefore, the required difference

= 320.71 – 280.71 40

The correct answer is A.

22. This happens only in the duration 2011 – 2012, 2014 – 15 and 2015 –
2016. In rest of the duration the trend in both are same.

The correct answer is C.

23. If the points A,O and B are joined together then,

Total tax levied by government = 50%

School + Libraries = 50%

46.6 % + Libraries= 50%

Libraries = 50 – 46.6 = 3.4%

The correct answer is C.

24. Tax levied on School, Libraries and Counties = 75%

Tax levied on Other units, Townships and Cities and Towns = 25%

Tax levied on Other units

= Tax levied on Other units, Townships and Cities and Towns – Tax
levied on Townships and Cities and Towns
 = 4150000 – 3652000 = 498000 dollars The
correct answer is A.

25. Tax levied on School and Libraries = 50%

Therefore, Tax levied on Counties

Tax levied on Counties

The correct answer is D.

26. Tax levied on Cities and Towns

= 6 × Tax levied on other units

Tax levied on other units = 498000 dollars

Tax levied on Cities and Towns

= 6 × 498000 = 2988000 dollars

Tax levied on Cities and Towns = 4.5 ×

Tax levied on Township Tax levied on

Township = Percentage

of tax levied on Township relative to total

tax levied

The correct answer is B.

27. Number of persons whose age is between 50–59

= 15% of 2000 = 300

Number of persons whose ideal body mass index age between 50 – 59

= 50% of 300 = 150

Number of persons whose age is between 60–69

= 10% of 2000 = 200

Number of persons whose ideal body mass index age between 60 – 69

= 10% of 200 = 20

People who were 50 years and above had an ideal body mass index

= 150 + 20 = 170

The correct answer is B.

28. Number of people whose age is between 20–29

= 25% of 2000 = 500

Number of people who did not have an ideal body mass index age is
between 20–29

= 20% of 500 = 100

Number of people whose age is between 30–39

= 30% of 2000 = 600

Number of people who did not have an ideal body mass index age is
between 30–39
= 60% of 600 = 360

Number of people below 40 years did not have an ideal body mass
index

= 360 + 100 = 460

The correct answer is A.

29. Number of people from age group of 20–29 who took the survey were
obese = 0

Number of people from age group of 30–39 who took the survey were
obese

= 10% of 30% of 2000

Number of people from age group of 40–49 who took the survey were
obese

Number of people from age group of 50–59 who took the survey were
obese

Number of people from age group of 60–69 who took the survey were
obese

Total number of people who took the survey were obese

= 60 + 120 + 60 + 80 = 320

Percentage of people who took the survey were obese

The correct answer is B.

30. Total number of overweight people in the age group of 20–29 = 0

Total number of overweight people in the age group of 30–39

 Total number of overweight people in the age group of 40–49

Total number of overweight people in the age group of 50–59

= 30% of 15% of 2000 = 90

Total number of overweight people in the age group of 60–69

Total number of overweight people

= 0 + 240 + 80 + 90 + 100 = 510

Required percentage

The correct answer is B.

6 Data Sufficiency
1. From statement (1), we have
ab = 8

The possible scenarios satisfying the above equation are as follows:

1×8= 8

2×4= 8

4 ×2= 8

8 ×1= 8
 This information alone is not sufficient to calculate the values of a, b and
c.

From statement (2), we have bc

=9

The possible scenarios satisfying the above equation are as follows:

1 ×9= 9

3 ×3= 9

9 ×1= 9

This information alone is not sufficient to calculate the values of a, b and

c.

However, if we combine the information from both the statements, we

get a = 8, b = 1 and c = 9.

The correct answer is C.

2. From statement (1), we have

This information alone is not sufficient to calculate the value of Q.

From statement (2), we have

This information is contradictory to the information given in (1). Also, (2)

alone is not sufficient to calculate the value of Q.

Thus, the information from (1) and (2), when combined together is not
sufficient to calculate the value of Q.

The correct answer is E.

3. Since we don’t have the total number of people given to us, or the ratio
of men to women, we cannot arrive at the answer even by combining
both the statements.
 The correct answer is E.

4. If of the students are boys, this means that of the students are girls.

So the required probability is . Statement 1 is sufficient.

Statement 2 does not help since we don’t know the total number of
students in the class.

The correct answer is A.

5. We need to know the Total Distance covered in order to calculate the

Average Speed.

Since neither of the statements alone or together tells us anything

about the total distance travelled, the correct answer should be Option
E.

The correct answer is E.

6. Statement 1: Since a + 2 is even, a is an even integer, and therefore a

+ 1 would be an odd integer; Statement I is Sufficient

Statement 2: Since a – 1is an odd integer, a is an even integer.

Therefore a + 1 would be an odd integer; Statement II is Sufficient.
The correct answer is D.

7. From statement 1, Let Udit’s earning last month be x

Then = 1200

By solving the above equation, we will get Udit’s earnings for the last
month; Sufficient. (Remember, you do not need to try to solve this
equation, it will only waste your time).

Statement 2 just tells us the relation between Udit’s savings and his
rent, which does not tell us anything about his overall earnings. So,
the statement 2 is Insufficient.

The correct answer is A.

8. From Statement 1, the original amount of water in the pool is irrelevant,
since we only have to figure out the rate of increase. So, Statement 1 is
Not Sufficient

From Statement 2, water is being pumped in at 50 litres per minute

and pumped out at = 5 litres per minute. Thus, the net rate of
addition = 50 – 5 = 45 litres per minute. So Statement 2 ALONE is
sufficient.

The correct answer is B.

9. Using statement 1 alone, we can say that the price of coffee = x+5,
where x is the price of tea.

Using statement 2 alone, we know that the price of coffee = 3 x–5,

where x is the price of tea.

Combining both the statements, we have

The correct answer is C.

10. You don’t need to actually calculate the 7th and 22nd roots of y; doing
so will only waste your time. However, the important thing to note is that
you will get a unique value for y from either of the two given statements.
What that value is does not matter to you. Thus, the answer is D.

The correct answer is D.

11. You know that in a triangle, the largest angle lies opposite to the longest
side. So all we need to figure out is which of the three sides is the
longest.

From Statement 1, AC is the longest side, so it is Sufficient.

From Statement 2, we still don’t have a value for y. So it is NOT

Sufficient.

The correct answer is A.

12. You can’t do anything with either of the two statements because the total
number of students is not given to you, neither is the ratio of Indian to
non-Indian students given.

The correct answer is E.

13. Statement 1 is not sufficient since it does not provide us with the
Common difference.

Statement 2 is Sufficient because it provides us with the common

difference (18) and also with one specific term.

The correct answer is B.

14. The two statements simply give the cost price of the two types of tea.
However, from the cost price we cannot get any idea of the selling price.
Thus, both the statements together are Not Sufficient to answer the
question asked.

The correct answer is E.

15. Using statement 1 alone — as coordinates of all the vertices are given,
so each side and both diagonals can be obtained and using them, area
of quadrilateral can be obtained (by considering it as 2 triangles and for
each triangle 2 sides are adjacent sides of quadrilateral and 3rd side for
both is the same diagonal). Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Using statement 2 alone — the given information is inadequate to find

the area of the quadrilateral The correct answer is A.

16. Let the number be xy.

Then, the number can be represented as 10x + y and the number

formed by reversing the digits can be represented by 10y + x.

From statement 1:

D = |(10x + y) – (10y + x)| = 36

 |9(x – y)| = 36
|x – y| = 4 x
– y = ±4

Hence, the question cannot be answered using statement 1 alone.

From statement 2:

x + y = 12

Hence, the question cannot be answered using statement 2 alone.

Combining statements 1 and 2:

Clearly, the number could be 48 or 84 and hence, a unique number

cannot be determined by combining the statements 1 and 2.

So, both the statements are not sufficient.

The correct answer is E.

17. From Statement 1:

Using the first statement one can deduce that A > D > F such that F is
taller than at least one person, either B or E.
Hence, the question cannot be answered using statement 1 alone.

From Statement 2:

Using the second statement one can deduce that B > E.

Hence, the question cannot be answered using statement 2 alone.

Combining statements 1 and 2:

Combining both the statements we can deduce that F is greater than

both B and E and, hence, E is the smallest.

So, the question can be answered using both the statements.

The correct answer is C.

18. Divisibility rule of 9 says that a number is divisible by 9 if sum of digits is
divisible by 9. So, as per statement 1, the number abc is a multiple of 9
and so sum of digits is also divisible by 9.

So, a + b + c is divisible by 9.

Hence, statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2 is not sufficient since choosing a = 0 = b and c =

9 makes it valid and (a + b + c) is 9 but choosing a = 4 = b
and c = 2 also makes it valid with (a + b + c) equal to 10,
which is not divisible by 9.
The correct answer is A.

19. Each statement independently gives the answer.

gives + 3 and not –3. By convention we always take a positive

root only.

The second statement gives the value of X as 0.

The correct answer is C.

20. Statement 1 is true for parallelogram, rectangle as well as a rhombus.

So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

From statement 2, sum of AB + CD is equal to sum of AD + BC.

Since AB = CD and AD = BC (in a parallelogram), we can say that AB

= BC = CD = DA, and so the parallelogram is a rhombus.

Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to determine the nature of ABCD.

The correct answer is B.

21. Using statement 1 a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca or a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc –

ca = 0 or [(a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2] = 0 a=b=c

Therefore, we cannot say that a = b = c = 1

Hence, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

 Using statement 2

From equation a2 + b2 = 2c2, we cannot say that a, b and c are definitely

equal to 1. They could be equal to 2, 3, 4 and so on.

Hence statement 2 alone is also not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining both the statements also we cannot find the definite answer.

The correct answer is E.

22. Using statement 1

Let the total capacity of the tank be V cm3.

Fraction of the total volume of the tank filled in 2 hours when both the
pipes are opened together
=

So, volume of water in the tank =

Since, the value of ‘V’ is not known, hence statement 1 alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.

Using statement 2

Obviously, this statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining both the statement together, we get:

Volume of water in the tank =

The correct answer is C.

23. Using statement 1

Nothing can be said about the schedule of Chemistry.

Using statement 2

Nothing can be said about the schedule of Chemistry.

Combining both the statement together, we get:

 Hence, by using both the statements together, we can see that
Chemistry was scheduled on Thursday.

The correct answer is C.

24. From statement 1:

Even numbers are those whose one common factor is 2. So, the square
of an even numbers have a common factor 4.
Hence, A and B are not co-primes (co-prime number are those whose
HCF is 1).

From statement 2:

HCF of two prime numbers is always 1. So, A and B are co-prime

numbers.

Hence, each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

The correct answer is D.

25. From statement 1:

x=

Statement 1 is sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement 2: x64 = 8128

or x = ±64 Statement 2 is
not sufficient.

The correct answer is A.

26. From Statement 1:

3, 5 and 7 are the only set of 3 successive prime numbers which are in
AP.
 Therefore, statement 1 is sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement 2:

If the first prime number is 5 then the other two successive prime
numbers are 7 and 11.

Therefore, Statement 2 is also sufficient to answer the question.

The correct answer is D.

27. Let the kashyap’s salary be .

From statement 1:
Price of 50 kg of rice=

So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

Reduced price of 50 kg of rice

According to the question,

Hence, both statements are necessary to answer the question.

The correct answer is C.

28. From Statement 1:

It is only possible when 0 < z < 1

 Statement 1 is sufficient to answer the question. From Statement 2: z 2
<z

It is only possible when 0 < z < 1

Statement 2 is sufficient to answer the question. Hence, each statement

alone is sufficient to answer the question.

The correct answer is D.

29. Statement 1 does not say anything about the Rs. 5 coin.

Therefore, statement 1 is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement 2:
Total outcome = 23

Favourable outcome = 8

Probability =

Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

The correct answer is B.

30. From Statement 1:

The given expression becomes:

, whose unique value cannot be calculated.

So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.

From statement 2:

y = 2x

Putting in the given expression, we get: