HAEMATOLGOY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Normal production of red cells requires

A. Amino acid…T

B. Vitamin….T

C. Iron…..T

D. Vitamin B Complex……T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE……T

2. The erythrocytes have a life span of…….?

A. 100 days……F

B. 120 DAYS…T

C. 60 days……..F

D. 8 days……....F

E. 30 days……..F

3. ESR is increased in……?

A. ANAEMIA OF CHRONIC DISEASES……T

B. Sideroblastic anaemia……..F

C. Thalasaemia ……F

D. Iron deficiency…..F

E. Sickle cell diseases….F

4. All these coagulation factors are protein EXCEPT:

A. Factor V……F

B. Factor VII…..F

C. FACTOR VI…..T

D. Factor X……T
E. Factor III…..T

5. Normal EDTA concentration in anti-coagulated blood is:

A. 1-2 mg/ml…..F

B. 2-3 mg/ml…….F

C. 1.5 – 2mg/ml…..T

D. 2.5 – 3mg/ml…..F

E. All of the above……F

6. Whole blood clotting time may be markedly prolonged in

A. Aplastic anaemia……..F

B. FACTOR VII DEFICIENCY……T

C. Pyruria……..F

D. Severe liver disease…..F

E. Factor IX deficiency….F

7. In Iron deficiency, it is usual to estimate

A. Serum iron……..T

B. Serum ferritin…..T

C. Haemoglobin ……T

D. Time – Total iron binding capacity…….T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE……..T

8. Schllling’s test is associated with:

A. Iron deficiency………F

B. Vitamin B12 deficiency…...T

C. Folic acid deficiency……F

D. GGPD deficiency…….F

E. Sickle cell disease………F

9. Laboratory features in SCD include

A. Marked poikilocytosis…..T

B. Howell jolly bodies……T

C. Target cells……T

D. Heinz bodies……T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE…..T

10. Haemogblobin estimation using Drabkins solution is read after

A. 4mins……F

B. 3mins…..F

C. 5 – 10mins….…T

D. All of the above……F

E. None of the above….F

11. Reference range for reticulocyte count in the blood of healthy adult is:

A. 2-3%......F

B. 0-3% …..F

C. 1-4%......F

D. 2-5%........F

E. 0-2%.......T

12. The following may be used for sickling test:

A. 1% sodium metabisulphate…….F

B. 1.5% sodium sulphate…………F

C. 2% SODIUM METABISULPHATE……..T

D. 0.5% sodium bicarbonate…………F

E. 1% sodium chloride……….F

13. The reticulocytes in circulation require the following days to mature:

A. 2 days……F

B. 0 days…...F

C. 12 days….F

D. 6 days…..F

E. 1 DAY……T

14. Erythropoetin is produced by:

A Coagulase reacting factor……F

B. Plasma factor……..F

C. ERYTHYROID HORMONE……T

D. Plasma protein……F

15. Glacial acetic acid for WBC count is used at the following concentration:

A. 2%......T

B. 1%......F

C. 1-2%.....F

D. 3%......F

E. 4%......F

16. Platelets life span is:

A. 7 days……..T

B. 2-5 days……..F
C. 120 days……F

D. 2-4 days……..F

E. 3 hours…….F

17. The 70% alcohol used in the site of blood collection:

A. Increases blood circulation…….F

B. Sterilizes the area…….T

C. Cleanses the area……..T

D. Reduces tissue fluid concentration………F

E. Increases blood flow………..F

18. The speed of micro-haematocrit centrifuge for PCV is:

A. 17,00rpm for 5 minutes….F

B. 14,000g for 5 minutes….F

C. 16,000g for 5 minutes….F

D. 12,000 rpm for 5 minutes….T

E. 120,000g rpm for 5 minutes….F

19. Coagulation factors in aged plasma include:

A. Factor VIII……T

B. Factor X…….T

C. Factor V…...T

D. Factor IX……T

E. Factor VII…..T

20. The following stains can be used as supravital:

A. Crystal violet…..T
B. Methylene blue…T

C. New methylene blue….F

D. Eosin….F

E. Azure….F

21. Buffers used for Leishman staining for cell morphology has

A. PH 6.6……F

B. PH 6.4…….F

C. PH 6.8…….T

D. PH 6.0……..F

E. PH 7.2…….F

22. The best and accurate method of estimating haemogblobin is:

A. Sahli’s method…….F

B. Alkaline haematin method……..F

C. Cymethaemoglobin method……T

D. Copper sulphate method……….F

E. Cyanmethaemoglobin method………F

23. The usual dilution for HB estimation in UCTH is:

A. 1 in 200…….F

B. 1 in 250……..T

C. 1 in 50….…T

D. 4 in 20………F

E. None of the above……..F

24. The Romanowsy stains are:

A. Simple stains……F

B. compound stains……F

C. contain only acidic and basic component…..T

D. contains acidic, neutral and basic component…….F

E. Basic component is reddish……F

25. After centrifugation of a PCV tube, the WBC forms a buffy coat layer:

A. Above the plasma column……..F

B. Above the red cell column……F

C. Below the red cell column……F

D. Between the red cells and plasma layer…….T

E. Below the plasma layer……….F

26. The most suitable PH of buffer for Leishman’s stain is:

A. 8.6………F

B. 6.0……..F

C. 7.0………F

D. 7.2…….F

E. 6.8……..T

27. The wavelength used in haemoglobin estimation:

A. 950nm……..F

B. 400nm………F

C. 500nm……….F

D. 520nm………F

E. 540nm…….T
28. The following anticoagulants are used for haematological tests:

A. EDTA…….T

B. Sodium citrate…….T

C. Heparin…..…T

D. Sodium fluoride……...F

E. Lithium oxalate……..F

29. Which of these stains can be used for reticulolyte count?

A. Giemsa-May grunwald……F

B. Eosin aqueous solution…….F

C. Jenner-Giemsa’s stain……..F

D. Brilliant cresyl blue……T

E. All of the above……….F

30. The reagent use for test of fitness of donors is:

A. NaoH………F

B. NaCl……..F

C. CuSO4.........T

D. (NH4)SO4 ……….F

E. CaCl2 …………F

31. The S.I Unit expression of packed cell volume:

A. g/dl…….F

B. m/l……..F

C. l/m………F

D. L/L……..T

E. %............T
32. The outstanding quality of ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA) as a routine
anticoagulant is:

A. It minimizes haemolysis of red cells…….T

B. It is best for osmotic fragility……T

C. It chelates calcium ions……..T

D. It prevents platelet dumping……..T

E. It has all the above qualities………T

33. The most reliable test in haematology laboratory is:

A. Prothrombin time……..T

B. Haemoglobin estimation….…T

C. Packed cell volume…….T

D. Reticulocyte count……T

E. Total white cell count…….T

34. A chain of Haemoglobin is made of:

A. 146 amino acids…….T

B. 141 amino acids…….T

C. 140 amino acids……F

D. 142 amino acids…….F

E. 144 amino acids…….F

35. Solubility test may be used to differentiate following:

A Hb SS……T

B. Hb AS…….T

C. Hb SD…….F

D. Hb CC………F
E. Hb AA………F

36. The following are techniques for measuring clotting time:

A. Lee-White….T

B. Ivy’s method…F

C. Dukas method…F

D. Ree’s method…F

E. Turk’s method….F

37. Red cell antigens are inherited by:

A. Sex-linked recessive…..F

B. Sex-linked dominant….F

C. Simple Mendellian inheritance…..T

D. Autosomal recessive…….F

E. Autosomal dominant…..F

38. The following coagulation factors are produced in the liver

A. Factor I…….T

B. Factor VIII…….F

C. Factor XII…….T

D. Factor VII……..T

E. von Willebrand’s factor……..F

39. Thrombin time measures:

A. Thrombin formation…T

B. Fibrinogen formation…..T

C. Thrombin-fibrinogen reaction…..T
D. Thrombin monomer……F

E. D-Dimer…….F

40. Prolonged PT and PTT is indicative of

A. Liver disease……F

B. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation..…..T

C. Vitamin K deficiency……F

D. Thrombocytopoenia….T

E. Vascular disorder…….F

41. Normal PCV values for both male and female ranges from………37….to…52%…..

42. The reagent for the estimation of haemoglobin is called…Drabkins solutions.

43. The time required for PCV centrifiguation is…………5minutes…

44. If the haemoglobin value is 15g/dl and the PVC is 45% or 0.45g/dl. What is the value of
MCHC…………33.33g/dl……………………………….

45. Mention 6 materials required for the preparation of blood film:

i…spreader………… ii…glass slide…………iii…cotton wool………..iv…pasteur pipettes……..v…blood

sample…………. vi…lead pencil……………

46. List the materials required for the preparation for the TURKS FLUID:……2% acetic acid and
gentian violet……
47. List the anti-coagulant for commonly used haematology ……Sodium citrate,…EDTA,……
Heparine….

48. ……Methylene blue, sodium carbonate, eosin, methyl-alcohol, sodium phosphate dibasic and
potassium phosphate monobasic… are required for the preparation of leishman’s stain.

49.The fixing period in leishman’s staining method is…………2minutes……………………………

49. Platelets count is performed using…… a hemocytometer with a diluting fluid called formal
citrate fluid or ammonium oxalate(manual method).

50. The unit of expression of reticulocyte count preparation is ……………%………

51. Mention 3 materials used in reticulocyte count preparation i….3% sodium citrate….ii……0.9%
sodium chloride……...iii..…Brilliant cresyl blue.

52. The volume of blood required for ESR estimation is ……………1.6 to 2ml…

53. Mention 5 materials required for bleeding time …i…Disposable lancet blade…ii……Stop-
watch……..iii…Blotting paper…iv……Blood pressure cuff…v…Cotton wool.

54. The normal range value for bleeding time is …0 to 6 minutes…

55. The materials required for prothrombin time test are ……glass tubes,…applicator stick,…stop-
watch,……Reagents such as brain thromboplastin, 0.0025M calcium chloride and plain tube.

56. The volume of anticoagulant for ESR estimation is …0.4ml to 0.5ml of anticoagulant…to
1.6ml of blood to 2ml of blood.

57. The unit of expression of prothrombin time is ……in percentage………

58. The normal PCV value for women ranges from …………37 to 47%(0.37 to 0.47 l/l……

59. Counting of white cells is done using …2% v/v acetic acid tinged with gentian
violet………………and the objective lens is 10X.

60. The westergren tube is used for …ESR… test.

61. The length and diameter of the westergren tube is ……300mm long…. And …2.5mm…in
diameter…………………

62. The unit of expression for ESR is …millimeter………and……% or L/L .. are required for
measurement of PCV

63. Micro-heamatocrit centrifuge and…micro-haematocrit reader………… required for

measurement of PCV.
64. The capillary tube used for PCV is filled …two-third…… full.

65. The speed of centrifugation for PCV is …12000rpm…for 5minutes…..

66. The normal PCV value for men is between …40 to 52%…(0.40 TO 0.52 L/L)

67. Draw and label a made blood film.

68. The common stain used in haematology for staining of blood film is called ……Leishman’s
stain……

69. pH of the buffer used for staining of films in haemotology is …7.2

70. Erythropoiesis is simply the .....?

A. Production of blood cells.............F

B. Production of red cells....................T

C. Production of erythropoietin...........F

D. B and C are correct......F

E. Only B is correct.......T

71.Haemopoiesis is similar to...?

A. Production of only white cells.......F

B. Production of only red cells.......F

C. Production of blood cells...........T

D. Production of all major blood components such as platelets, plasma, red cells, white cells etc.......T

E. None of the above..........F

72. In Haematology, CSF stands for...?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid........F

B. Colony stimulating fluid........F

C. Colony stimulating function........F

D. Colony stimulating foramen........F

E. Colony stimulating factor...........T

73. At the end of it's life span, red cells are removed by the RES by a process called?

A. Fibrinolysis........F

B. Haemolysis...........F

C. Phagocytosis.........T

D. Oligocytosis.........F

E. Lymphocytosis...........F

74. Haem synthesis occurs in the ......?

A. Ribosomes.........F

B. Golgi apparatus........F

C. Mitochondria.........T

D. Cell wall...............F

E. DNA..................F

75. Drabkin's solution contains ........?

A. Potassium cyanide.........T

B. Potassium ferricyanide.......T

C. Potassium dihydorgen phosphate......T

D. DIstilled water................T

E. All of the above..............T

76. To calculate MCH, the formula is......?

A. Haemoglobin/PCV........................F

B. Haemoglobin/FBC........................F

C. Haemoglobin/MCHC........................F

D. PCV/RBC...............................F

E. Haemoglobin/RBC.......................T

77. Haemoglobin/PCV defines.............?

A. MCH...............F

B. MCV.................F

C. MCHC................T

D. MCHCC...............F

E. ONLY C IS CORRECT.............T

78. Platelets are difficult to count because .....?

A. They agglutinate, fragment and break down readily and quickly..........T

B. They adhere to glass........................T

C. They are easy to differentiate from debris due to their small size........F

D. They are not evenly distributed throughout blood...............T

E. None of the above.................F

79. An ideal blood film should be.....?

A. Jagged.............F

B. Smooth...............T

C. Able to cover 1/2 to 3/4th of the area of the slide...........T

D. It should be thin.................F

E. Must have a head, tail and legs......................F

80. Leishman stain consists of ..............?

A. Ethylene blue.......................F

B. Sodium carbonate..........T
C. Eosin...............T

D. Methylene blue.........T

E. Only C and D are correct........F

81. Giemsa stain contains ......?

A. Glycerol..............T

B. Methyl alcohol..........T

C. Methylene blue........F

D. Potassium iodide........F

E. None of the above.......F

82. PMN stands for ..........?

A. Polymorphonuclear nucleus.........F

B. Polymorphonuclear normoblast........F

C. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil.........T

D. Polymorphonuclear nucleoside.........F

E. Polymorphonuclear nucleotides..........F

83. Most alterations in leucocyte morphology can be classified into three categories...?

A. Anomalous changes...........T

B. Malignant changes..........T

C. Toxic or reactive changes...........T

D. Congenital changes.............F

E. Acquired changes...........F

84. Morphological changes in erythrocytes can have the following characteristics.....?

A. Colour, size, shape, distribution pattern............T

B. Colour, size, shape, distribution pattern, inclusions...........T

C. Colour, size, shape, distribution pattern, golgi movements............F

D. Colour, size, shape, distribution pattern, wrinkled cells...........F

E. Colour, size, shape, distribution pattern, nucleated red cells..........T

85. Hypochromic cells are examples of ..........?

A. White cells morphological changes...........F

B. Red cell colour changes...............T

C. Red cell morphological changes..........T

D. Red cell size changes..............F

E. Red cell shape changes............F

86. Red cell size variations include......?

A. Poikilocytosis..............T

B. Spherocyte.............T

C. Target cells.........T

D. Burr cells...........T

E. Microcyte..............F

87. Alteration in distribution pattern of red cells include....?

A. Agglutination............T

B. Rouleaux formation.......T

C. Ball formation.........F

D. Red cell breakage.........F

E. Red cell shrinkage.........F

88. Anaemia may be caused by the following factors........?

A. Increased red cell aggluitnation...........F

B. Increased haemolysis........T

C. Diminished haemolysis..........T

D. Blood loss............... T

E. Artefacts in red cells.............F

89. Anaemia due to decreased production of haemoglobin results from....?

A. Calcium deficiency........F

B. Iron deficiency............T

C. Vitamin B12 deficiency...........T

D. Copper deficiency..........F

E. None of the above.........F

90. Haemolytic anaemias due to defective red cell metabolism include......?

A. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Deficiency..........T

B. Glucose-2-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G2PD) Deficiency..........F

C. Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency................T

D. Fructose-3-Phoshtae deficiency............F

E. All of the above.............F

91. SLE in haematology stands for........?

A. Systemic lupus erythrocytes........F

B. Systemic lupus erythematosa...............F

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus...........T

D. Systemic lupus erythrocytosis........F

E. Systemic lupus erythrocytopoenia..........F

92. The test required to investigate haemolytic anaemias due to red cell membrane decfects....?

A. Reticulocyte count........F

B. Differential count........F

C. Point of care test.........F

D. Osmotic fragility test.........F

E. Latex agglutination test........F

93. Haemoglobin F is also known as......?

A. Foetal haemoglobin.............T

B. Functional haemoglobin............F
C. Finney's haemoglobin.......F

D. Fuller's haemoglobin.........F

E. Fetal haemoglobin..........F

94. In haemoglobin electrophoreis, the buffer commonly used is....?

A. Phosphate buffer.........F

B. Sodium hydroxide buffer........F

C. TRIS buffer...............T

D. Calcium hydroxide buffer...........F

E. Acidic buffer.............F

95. The method used to estimate Haemoglobin F is known as......?

A. Alkali dehydration method...........F

B. Alkali decolourising method.........F

C. Alkali denaturising method.............F

D. Alkali denaturation method............T

E. Alkali declining method..............F

96. Direct Coomb's test is also known as.....?

A. Direct antiglobulin test........T

B. Donath antiglobulin test........F

C. Direct antibody test.............F

D. Direct antigen test.........F

E. Desit antiglobulin test.............F

97. Mechanism of haemostasis has .....?

A. One part............F

B. Two parts..............F

C. Maybe two to five parts.........F

D. Three major parts.................T

E. No part at all................F

98. Extravacular, vascular and intravascular effects are ........?

A. Mechanisms of fibrinolysis............F

B. Mechanisms of coagulation..............F

C. Mecahanisms of vacuolation...........F

D. Mechanism of haemostasis..............T

E. All of the above....................F

99. Factor I is also named...?

A. Fibrinogen.............F

B. Tissue thromboplastin...........F

C. Calcium..............F

D. Proconvertin..............F

E. Prothrombin...............F

100. AHF is ......?

A. Antihaemophilic fibrinogen.............F

B. Antihaemophilic fibrinolysis...............F

C. Antihaemophilic factor..................T

D. Antihaemophilic facets...............F

E. Alkaline haematin function.............F

101. HMWK is......?

A. High-molecular-weight Kininogan................F

B. High-molecular-weight Kininogeen............F

C. High-molecular-weight Kininogin...........F

D. High-molecular-weight Kininogene...............F

E. High-molecular-weight Kininogen...............T
102. Pathways for the coagulation process are two; namely...........?

A. Intrinsic and Extrinxic pathway.............F

B. Direct and indirect pathway..........F

C. Complete and incomplete pathway........F

D. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathway..........T

E. First and last pathway..........F

103. Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent is........?

A. Factor XI...............T

B. Synthesized in the liver............T

C. Necessary for tissue generating mechanism............F

D. Used in small fraction for coagulation..........T

E. Stable at room temperature..............T

104. Fibrinolysis...........?

A. Is the process of removing unwanted, insoluble deposits formed as a result of coagulation.........T

B. Is a physiological process..............T

C. Is an invivo process.............T

D. Is independent of coagulation factors..........T

E. Is dependent of activators.................T

105. Blood exists as ....... in vivo and ..... in vitro in the absence of anti-coagulant:

A. Fluidy and solid.........T

B. Liquid and gaseous........F

C. Fluidy and coagulates...........T

D. Solvent and solution........F

E. Fluidy and gaseous........F

106. Inherited disorders of blood coagulation include:

A. Haemophilia A..............T
B. Haemophilia B............T

C. Haemophilia C.................T

D. Haemophilia D................F

E. von Willebrand syndrome...........T

107. Acquired disorders of blood coagulation can be due to:

A. Vitamin B deficiency.............F

B. Heparin therapy.................. T

C. Vitamin K deficiency................ T

D. Vitamin B12 excess..........F

E. Diffuse intravascular coagulatiion.......... F

108. Duke method and Ivy Bleeding Time Test are:

A. Applied in coagulation function.............T

B. Applied in bleeding time....................T

C. Applied in drug induced disorders...........F

D. Applied in Glanzmann's bleeding test........F

E. Applied in None of the above................F

109. Normal blood clots within...........?

A. 5-20minutes..........F

B. 2-5minutes...........F

C. 3-6minutes...........F

D. 4-15minutes..........F

E. 5-10minutes..........T

110. Normal clot retraction is indicative of ........?

A. Normal feeding habit...........F

B. Normal iron levels.............F

C. A good haem synthesis..........F

D. A proper blood sample collection........F

E. A normal platelet function..............T

111. Extrinsic pathway of coagulation can be measured by:

A. Bleeding time................F

B. Donath landsteiner Test...........F

C. Alkali denaturation time..............F

D. Prothrombin consumption index (PCI)..............F

E. Prothrombin time..............T

112. Test for the intrinsic pathway can be achieved by:

A. APTT...............T

B. PTTK................T

C. CCT......................T

D. DCT...............F

E. BT......................F

NOTE: CHECK YOUR TEXT BOOK FOR THE FULL LABELS OF THE ABBREVIATIONS MARKED "T".

113. Blood group antigens are made up of:

A. Glycoproteins...............T

B. Lipoprotiens................T

C. Glycolipids.................T

D. Carbohydrates...............F

E. Carboxylic acid.............F

114. Antibodies which are present in some members of the species, but not all are known as:

A. Autoantibodies...............F

B. Cold antibodies..............F

C. Warm autoantibodies.............F

D. Dominant antibodies............F
E. Alloantibodies...............T

115. Sources of antisera include:

A. Sheep......................T

B. Rabbit.............T

C. Animals.............T

D. Humans................T

E. Mice..................T

116. Extracts from seeds that can be used in blood grouping are:

A. Ulex americanus..............F

B. Common gorse................T

C. Ulex europaeus..............T

D. Horse gram..................T

E. Dolichos bifloris...........T

117. In preparation of red cell suspensions, the following are used:

A. Normal saline..............T

B. Centrifuge ................T

C. Test tube..................T

D. Neubauer chamber...........F

E. Coverglass.................F

118. Reaction of antisera with red cells can occur in:

A. Agglutination.............T

B. Haemolysis................T

C. Fibrinolysis..............F

D. Rouleaux formation.......T

E. All of the above.........F

119. The discovery of the Rh system is based on the work by:

A. Landsteiner.........T

B. Wiener..............F

C. William Tyndale........F

D. Joseph Prince.........F

E. Levine and Stetson..........T

120. Pre-transfusion tests on donor's blood include:

A. Haemoglobin and PCV...........T

B. Parasite screening.........T

C. Test for syphilis............T

D. Test for Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C.........T

E. Test for HIV................T

CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following could be applied as a method of de-proteinization in a procedure?

A. Protein Analysis…..F

B. Electrophoresis….T

C. Chromatography……T

D. Precipitation……T

E. All of the above…..F

2. Normal fasting blood glucose may be within the range:

A. 1 - 2.5 mmol/L…F

B. 7.5 – 10 mmol/l……F

C. 3.3 – 6.6 mmol/l…….T

D. 60 – 100 mmol/l…….F

E. 100 – 200 mmol/l…….F

3. Laboratory findings in nephritic syndrome include:

A. Protein in urine…..T

B. Glucose in urine…..T

C. Low plasma in albumin……F

D. Increase in urine volume above normal……F

E. High plasma urea……T

4. Diabetes mellitus is caused by

A Excessive carbohydrate intake….T

B. p-oxidation of fatty acids….F

C. Insulin insufficiency……F

D. Hyper-insullinism……F

E. Renal failure……..F

5. Rothera’s test is used for the detection of ………………

A. Billirubin….F

B. Ketone bodies…..T

C. Salicylates…..F

D. Urobillnogen……..F

E. Reducing substances……..F

6. Reducing sugars in urine include…

A. Sucrose….T

B. Glucose….T

C. Frutcose…T

D. Lactose…T
E. Glycogen…F

7. High plasma urea is usually an indication of…………….

A. Liver disease……..F

B. Renal disease…….T

C. Excessive protein intake…….F

D. Increased urea synthesis by the liver…….F

E. None of the above………..F

8. The level of chloride in normal CSF is …………..

A. Same as in plasma…..F

B. higher than in plasma…..F

C. lower than in plasma……F

D. 20 – 40mmol/l….T

E. Usually below 90mmol/l……..F

9. Liver function tests include…….except

A. Total bilirubin……F

B. Conjugated bilirubin…….F

C. AST……F

D. ALT…….F

E. DLP……..T

10. Protein electrophoresis is usually performed on

A. Plasma…..T

B. Serum……T

C. Whole blood……T
D. EDTA blood…….T

E. All of the above…….T

11. The following are reagents for ALP assay:

A. Phenol….T

B. 4 aminophenazol….T

C. H2SO4…F

D. NaOH….T

E. Primary standard…T

12. What are the characteristics of deionized water?

A. CATION AND ANION IMPURITIES ARE ABSENT……T

B. It has a neutral PH…..F

C. it has a none neutral PH……F

D. It is free from water-soluble salts…...F

E. It is pyrogen-free and Sterile…….F

13. The normal range of Alkaline phosphatase is

A. 21 – 92 lu/L…….T

B. 22 – 20 mmol/L……F

C. 22 – 92 mmol/L……..F

D. 16 – 40 mg/dl…………..F

E. None of the above………..F

14. In UCTH, urea is assayed using …

A. Berthelot reaction…….T

B. Modified Jones’ method…..F

C. Diacetyl monoxime method……..T

D. All of the above……F

E. None of the above……F

15. The normal range for Cl………. is

A. 75 – 108 mmol/L…….T

B. 132 – 145 mmol/L…….F

C. 96 – 108 mg/dl……..F

D. 120 – 130 mmol/L………F

E. None of the above

16. Buffers used for creatinine assay include….

A. Phosphate buffer……F

B. Borate buffer………F

C. PHOSPHATE BORATE BUFFER……..T

D. NaOH + Bicarbonate buffer……..F

E. All of the above………F

17. Solutions for bilirubin are best preserved in:

A. Plain bottles……F

B. Brown bottles…….F

C. Amber coloured bottles……..F

D. In the water bath………F

E. THE REFRIGERATOR……..T

18. Pipettes are divided into two main groups, viz

A. VOLUMETRIC AND GRADUATED PIPETTES……..T

B. Delivery and blow out pipettes…….F

C. Class A and class B pipettes……F

D. Micro pipettes and macro pipettes………F

E. Glass ware and plastic ware pipettes…….F

19. Factors that can affect measurement of enzyme activity include:

A. Temperature and time…T

B. pH and temperature…T

C. Light rays and enzyme stability…..F

D. Glassware and reagents……F

E. None of the above……F

20. The following are methods of estimating blood glucose and sugar

A. The reduction of cupric to cuprous salts….T

B. The reduction of ferricyanide to ferrocyanide….T

C. Glucose oxidase method…..T

D. Copper reduction method….T

E. All of the above….T

21. Which of the following statements is true of pipettes?

A. They come as both glassware and plastic ware……T

B. Glass pipettes are calibrated at 20oC……..T

C. Those calibrated to deliver but with etched ring at the top should be allowed to drain
out…….T

D. They are better used by mouth pipetting…….T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE………T

22. What is the optimum storage temperature for serum specimen meant for acid phosphatase
assay?

A. 4oC…….F

B. 2–8oC…….F

C. Room temperature…..F

D. 6oC………F

E. 0oC and below………F

23. A disaccharide which test positive with Clinistix and Seliwanoff test after acid hydrolysis is:

A. Maltose….F

B. Lactose….F

C. Sucrose….F

D. Galactose….F

E. Pentose…T

24. What kind of water is suitable for analytical work in the laboratory?

A. Deionized water…T

B. Deproteinized water…….F

C. Distilled water…T

D. Water and conductivity of less than 20uS/cm………F

E. All of the above…F

25. Why must blood specimen meant for bilirubin assay not be left standing on the bench for
too long:

A. So as to prevent lysis…..F

B. To prevent interaction of blood with sunlight…T

C. To prevent photo-destruction of bilirubin…T

D. To prevent diffusion of bilirubin…..T

E. To prevent photo-destruction of red blood cells….T

26. Glucose appears in urine when:

A. TOO MUCH CARBOHYDRATE IS TAKEN IN THE DIET…..T

B. Blood glucose level exceeds 100mmol/m……..F

C. Fat intake is high……..F

D. The rate of gluconeogenesis exceeds that of glycolysis………F

E. Nephrotic syndrome is present………F

27. Ketone bodies include:

A. Acetone…..T

B. B-hydroxy butyric acid..….T

C. Acetoacetic acid……..T

D. Salicylatos…...F

E. All of the above…….F

28. The normal pale yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of:

A. Urobiligogen…F

B. Billirubin…F

C. Bile salts….F

D. Urobillin…..T

E. Urobillinogen and peptide Substance…F

29. Distilled water is void of:

A. Protons and neutrons…….F

B. Electrons and pyrogens…..F

C. Antisplash only……..F

D. Pyrogen only….T
E. Pyrogen and antisplash

30. Clinistix reagent strip (ArmEs) is specific for

A. Galactose only…F

B. Fructose…F

C. Glucose only…T

D. Fructose only…F

E. Galactose and glucose…F

31. The methods used for the analyses of glucose in body fluid are:

A. Hexokinase method…T

B. Glucose oxidase method….T

C. Glucose dehydrogenase method…F

D. Pyruvate method….F

E. O-Toluidine method…T

32. The specific gravity of normal urine is:

A. 1.008 – 1.010…F

B. 1.010 – 1.025…F

C. 1.020 – 1.053…F

D. 0.990 – 2.101…F

E. None of the above….T

33. Which of the following are usually requested for as electrolytes except:

A. SO4+...F

B. HCO3…T

C. NA+....T
D. K+…..T

E. Cl-…..T

34. The reference range of plasma potassium is

A. 1.0 – 3.0 mmol/L……..F

B. 3.2 – 5.0 mmol/L…….T

C. 5.5. – 10.0 mmol/l……..F

D. 80.0 – 95.0 mmol/l……….F

E. 3.5 – 5.0 mmol/l……..F

35. Methods of separation of plasma proteins include;

A. Electrophoretic method…..T

B. Ultra centrifugation…..T

C. Immunological methods….F

D. Diacetyl monoxime method….F

E. Flame photometry….F

36. Functions of plasma proteins include

A. Participation in blood clotting process………T

B. Maintenance of oncotic pressure……..T

C. Transport of substances……F

D. Storage of substance……T

E. Participation in body defence…..T

37. The following agents are reducing in nature:

A. Galactose….T

B. Sucrose…T
C. Salicylic acid….F

D. Uric acid….F

E. Homogentisic acid….T

38. Protein in urine may be detected using the following tests

A. Sulphosalicylic acid test….T

B. Boiling test….F

C. Ciinitest tablet test…..F

D. Albustix strip test…..F

E. Combi-9 reagent strip test….T

39. The following diseases may be contacted by careless use of INFECTED sharp objects:

A. Hepatitis B.....F

B. Hepatitis A.......F

C. AIDS…........T

D. Tuberculosis.......F

E. None of the above….F

40. Blood glucose level may be affected by:

A. Posture of patient….F

B. Circadian rhythm….F

C. Period between last meal and time of sample collection….T

D. Blood sampling site….F

E. Sex of individual…..F

41. Name one normal constituent of urine, which is detected in urinalysis:

A. Protein…F
B. Creatinine….T

C. Urobilinogen….F

D. pH…..T

E. Ascorbic acid….F

42. Albuaux strip is used to detect the presence of the following in urine:

A. Proteins…F

B. Albumin…T

C. Reducing substances…F

D. The reaction of urine….F

E. The concentration of urine…F

43. Bence jones protein in urine is identified by its peculiar characteristic of;

A. Precipitating in boiling water.....….F

B. Solubility in acid medium….....F

C. High mobility in chromatographic mixture….F

D. Reacting with direct reagent.....…..F

E. Coagulation at 40 degree Celsius and re-dissolving above 70 degree celsius…..T

44. Which of the following will not test positive with Benedict’s qualitative reagent?

A. Ascorbic acid….....T

B. Urea in urine…..T

C. Uric acid in urine…T

D. Glucose in urine…..F

E. Fructose in urine…..F
45. A urine specimen tested positive for protein with Albuax and negative with 25% SSA.
Possible reason(s) for this conflict may be:

A. Caused by the temperature of the urine…..F

B. Contamination of urine with Acid materials….T

C. Storage of urine at 0*Celsius….F

D. Due to high Alkaline pH of urine…..F

E. Use of expired strip…..F

46. What is the clinical significance of testing Blood sugar (Glucose) FBS?

A. It is for assessment of glucose levels in blood….T

B. It is for diagnosis and management of Diabetes Melllitus (DM)…T

C. For the diagnosis and management of Diabetes Insipidus (DI)….T

D. For the treatment of chronic ulcer….F

E. None of the above…......F

47. What causes the positive color change in Fouchet’s test for bilirubin in urine?

A. The precipitation of bilirubin by TCA….F

B. The oxidation of Barium chloride….F

C. The oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin by ferric in the presence of TCA…..T

D. The combination of bilirubin with TCA….F

E. None of the above…......F

48. What is the basic difference between plasma and serum?

A. The presence of clothing factors in serum….T

B. The presence of anticoagulant in plasma….T

C. The presence of Fibrin serum….T

D. The presence of calcium ions in plasma….T

E. All of the above….T

49. Gerhardt’s test is used to detect the presence or …… in

A. Acetone only ….F

B. Acetoacetic acid and sallcylates…..T

C. Sallcylates only….F

D. Bence jones protein…..F

E. None of the above….F

50. The quality of laboratory results may be improved by ensuring:

A. Properly designed laboratory of right size and adequate lighting….T

B. Adequate properly trained staff….T

C. Satisfactory standards for methods used….T

D. Control of initial processing steps of specimens….T

E. Proper choice of patients to be sampled…T

51. The following maybe contacted by careless use of sharp objects:

A. Hepatitis B…….F

B. Hepatitis A……..F

C. AIDS………F

D. Tuberculosis…….F

E. None of the above……..F

52. Blood glucose level maybe affected by;

A. Posture of patient…….F

B. Circadian rhythm………F

C. PERIOD BETWEEN LAST MEAL AND TIME OF SAMPLE COLLECTION……..T

D. Blood sampling also……..F

E. Sex of the individual……..F

53. Blood sample meant for glucose estimation is ideally collected into:

A. Heparinized bottles….F

B. Potassium oxalate bottles….F

C. EDTA bottles…F

D. All of the above…F

E. None of the above…T

54. The following containers are suitable for the collection of blood samples for electrolytes (Na+,
K+, Cl- , HCO3) estimation:

A. Plain bottles….F

B. Lithium heparin…T

C. Calcium heparin…F

D. Sodium EDTA…F

E. Boric Acid bottles….F

55. The levels of the following may be lowered by prolonged tourniquet application before blood
collection and continued application during blood collection:

A. Serum albumin levels

B. Plasma cortisol levels

C. Blood urea levels

D. Serum billrubin levels

E. None of the above

56. Protein in urine may be detected using the following tests:

A. SULPHOSALLCYLIC ACID TEST…..T

B. Boiling test….F
C. Clinitest tablet test…F

D. Albustax strip test…T

E. Combl-9 reagent strip test….T

57. Albustax reagent strip may give false positive result when

A. The urine sample is very alkaline…..F

B. The urine sample is highly acidic….F

C. When the sample is refrigerated at 4 Celsius degree…..F

D. Glucose is present together with ketone bodies…..F

E. Bile pigment is present…..F

58. The following reagent are reducing in nature:

A. Galactose…..T

B. Sucrose….T

C. Sallcyclic acid……F

D. Uric acid…….F

E. Homogentisic acid…….T

59. Ketone bodies include except:

A. Acetone….T

B. B-hydroxyl butyric acid….T

C. Acetoacetic acid….T

D. Sallcylates….F

E. All of the above….F

60. The normal pale yellow color of urine is due to

A. Urobillgogen…….F
B. Billrubin………F

C. Bile salts…….F

D. Urobilin…..T

E. Urobillnogen and peptide substance……F

61. Distilled water is void of:

A. Protons and Neutrons…….F

B. Electrons and pyrogens…….F

C. Antisplash only…….F

D. PYROGEN ONLY…….T

E. Pyrogen and antisplash……..F

62. Clinistix reagent strip (Armes) is specific for:

A. Galactose only……..F

B. Fructose……F

C. GLUCOSE ONLY……..T

D. Fructose only………F

E. Galactose and glucose………F

63. The methods used for the analysis of glucose in body fluid are:

A. Hexokinase method…….T

B. Glucose oxidase method…….T

C. Glucose kinase method………F

D. Pyruvate method……….F

E. O-Toluidine method…….T

64. The rate of migration of charged solutes or particles in an electric field is affected by:
A. Net electric charge of the molecule only……T

B. Size and shape of the molecules only…….T

C. Electric field strength only……..T

D. Properties of supporting medium only……….T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

65. Hypersensitivity reactions:

A. Lead to gross tissue damage….T

B. Can be antibody mediated….T

C. Can be cell mediated…..T

D. can be grouped into immediate and delayed types…T

E. do not load to cell ….F

66. Changes in plasma protein in protein energy malnutrition include the following:

A. Decreased total protein……T

B. Increased albumin level…….F

C. Increased globulin levels if infection gets in…..F

D. Decreased level of plasma bicarbonate…….F

E. Amino acid levels are increased……..F

67. The specific gravity of normal urine is:

A. 1.008 – 1.010…….F

B. 1.010 – 1.025……..F

C. 1.020 – 1.053……F

D. 0.990 – 2.101…….F

E. None of the above…..T

68. All of the following are usually requested for as electrolytes except:

A. H+….F

B. CO3-…..T

C. Na+……T

D. K+…….T

E. Cl-…….T

69. The reference range of plasma potassium is:

A. 1.0 - 3.0mmol/L……F

B. 3.2 – 5.0mmol/L…..F

C. 5.5 – 10.mMmol/L….F

D. 00.0 – 05.0mmol/L……F

E. 3.5 – 5.0mmol/L……T

70. Fluoride in fluoride-oxalate bottles for glucose

A. acts as a preservative for glucose…T

B. Is an anticoagulant….T

C. Is both anticoagulant and preservative….T

D. Inhibits EnOlase….T

E. Is an internal standard…F

70. Common laboratory findings in urine of Diabetes Insipidus subjects are

A. Proteinuria…..F

B. GLYCOSURIA……T

C. Decreased osmolarity……F

D. Decreased specific gravity…..F

E. Increased osmolarity…..F
71. Nature of specimens normally analysed in clinical chemistry laboratories include the following
except:

A. Plasma/serum ……F

B.Whole blood…….T

C. Urine……T

D. HVS…...F

72. The role of TCA in protein detection in urine qualitative analysis?

A. Protein precipitant…….T

B. Anionic precipitant……F

C. Reducing substance…….F

D. Cationic precipitant…….T

73. Complication of DM exclude?

A. Nephropathy……….F

B. RETINOPATHY……..T

C. High blood pressure …….F

D. Osteomalacia………F

74. What are the routine electrolyte assayed in clinical chemistry?

A. Lithium…..F

B. Bicarbonate and sodium……T

C. Chloride and potassium………T

D. B and C……….T

75. List the routine test/parameters used to evaluate the kidney function test?
A. Serum urea/creatinine……T

B. Serum electrolytes……..T

C. Serum enzyme………F

D. A and B………….T

76. What is the full meaning of POCT?

A. Point of order test……..F

B. Point of careful training ……F

C.POINT OF CARE TEST……..T

C. None of the above………F

77.What is the application of POCT?

A. For emergency……..T

B. For qualitative test …….T

C. In the absence of equipments ……..F

D. A and B……….T

78. Colorimetry, in simple terms is.....:

A. The measurement of colours...............T

B. The most probably used method for determination of concentration of biochemical

compounds.............T

C. Coloured light passing through coloured solution...........F

D. White light passing through coloured solution...............T

E. Employed in diagnosis of biochemical changes in the human body........T

79. Wavelength is..........?

A. The distance between two wave peaks...............T

B. The distance between two amplitude..................F

C. Measured in millimetre (mm)........................F

D. Measured in nanometre (nm).......................T

E. Only A and D are correct..................T

80. All of these equipment obey Beer-Lambert's law except...:

A. Colorimeter..........F

B. Spectrophotometer..............F

C. Absorptiometer.......................F

D. ISE analyzer..................T

E. Water bath..................T

81. Established systems or procedures that ensure that the test results issued are correct is ......?

A. Quality assurance..............F

B. Quality control..............T

C. Laboratory precautions...........F

D. Standard operating procedures (SOPs)............F

E. Standard precautions..............F

82. All tests controls from both inside and outside the laboratory applied to ensure reliable results
is............?

A. Quality control................F

B. Quality assurance..............T

C. Laboratory precautions...........F

D. Standard operating procedures (SOPs)............F

E. Standard precautions..............F
83. Quality control can be discussed in three parts...........:

A. Pre-analytical.............T

B. Analytical.............T

C. Post-analytical..........T

D. Post-analytical control............F

E. Pre-analytical control.................F

84. Blood sample containers used for biochemical investigation must be.......:

A. Metallic and leak proof...........F

B. Metallic and chemically clean...........F

C. Plastic or metallic...............F

D. Leak proof and chemically clean.................T

E. Only leak proof................F

85. Syringes and needles for collecting blood samples must also be........:

A. Chemically clean.........T

B. Sterile..........T

C. Dry.............T

D. Fitted with a 15cm piston..........F

E. Only A is correct............F

86. Insulin is a hormone produced and secreted by the.....:

A. Beta cells in the islets of Lagerhans...........F

B. Beta cells in the islets of Landgerhans............F

C. Alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans.........F

D. Beta cells in the islets cells of Langerhans........T

E. Only A is correct.............F
87. In contrast to insulin, glucagon is produced and secreted by the..........:

A. Alpha cells in the islets of Lagerhans...........F

B. Beta cells in the islets of Landgerhans............F

C. Alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans.........T

D. Beta cells in the islets cells of Langerhans........F

E. Only A is correct.............F

88. Insulin stimulates...........:

A. The breakdown of stored glycogen............T

B. Breakdown of lipids..............T

C. Breakdown of protein............F

D. Liver gluconeogenesis..............T

E. Absorption of glucose.............F

89. Factors determining blood glucose level include the following except.....:

A. Insulin..........F

B. Glucagon.............F

C. Protein..........T

D. Adrenalin.............F

E. only C is correct.........T

90. In Folin-Wu method,.............:

A. There is reduction sulphate to sulphite............F

B. There is no breakdown of glucose...........F

C. There is reduction of cupric sulphate to cuprous oxide salt...........T

D. Sodium molybdate is one of the reagents.............F

91. Causes of severe hyperglycemia include................:

A. Diabetes mellitus..........T

B. Obesity...............T
C. Acromegaly...........T

D. Prostitis..............F

E. Renal failure............F

92. Screening test for diabetes mellitus includes..............?

A. Urine glucose test.............T

B. Fasting blood sugar...........T

C. Two hour post-prandial blood glucose...........T

D. Glucose tolerance test..............T

93. Renal function includes....:

A. Maintenance of blood pH...........T

B. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance of the body............T

C. Secretion of glucagon hormone.........F

D. Production of erythropoietin......... T

E. Filtration...........T

95. NPN stands for:

A. Non-phosphorus nitrogen..........F

B. Non-phosphate nephron...........F

C. Non-protein nitrogen.........T

D. Non prostate nitrogen..........F

E. None of the above...........F

96. BUN is the short form of:

A. Bone upper nerve.........F

B. Blood urea nitrogen..........T

C. Body urea nitrogen............F

D. Brain upper nerves..........F

E. B is not correct........F

97. Creatinine is a nitrogenous product which is produced from the metabolism of ..........:

A. Kreatine........F

B. Creatin.........F

C. Creatine........T

D. Phospho-Creatine..........F

E. Creatine in skeletal muscles.............T

98. 2000 microlitre is equivalent to ......:

A. 20ml............F

B. 2.0L.............F

C. 0.2L...............F

D. 2ml..............T

E. 2cl..............F

99. Urea clearance is no longer used as a measure of glomerular filtration rate (GFR); WHY?

A. Its obsolete............F

B. It was never precise..........F

C. It was not fully researched..........F

D. It underestimates GFR..........T

E. underrates GFR............F

100. Uric acid is the final breakdown of.........:

A. Urea metabolism...........F
B. Urine protein............F

C. Purine metabolism...........T

D. Pyrimidine metabolism...........F

E. Uric acid synthesis.................F

MICROBIOLOGY MCQ/PARASITOLOGY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1] Different bacteria assume different shapes thus?

A] Coccus as in staphylococcus …T

B] Bacillus as in Escherichia coli…T

C] Vibrio as in vibrio cholera….T

D] Coccobacillus as in Yersinia…T

E] All of the above…..T

2. Concerning the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria:

A] It a unit membrane……..F

B] It is semi-permeable and regulates the entry and exit of toxic material…T

C] It is a site for respiratory enzymes…….F

D] It is a site where nucleic acid synthesis originates…….F

E] It serves as a bag for cytoplasmic contents………..F

3. These reagent are used for catalase test

A] Catalase enzymes for serum……..F

B] Catalase enzymes for plasma……….F

C] Tetramothylparaphonylonodiaminedihydrochloride……..F

D] Iodine…….F

E] Hydrogen peroxide…..T
4. The diagnostic characteristics of staphylococcus aereus include:

A] Gram positive cocci in clusters..…T

B] Gram negative cocci in chains……F

C] Catalase positive reactions…….T

D] Congulase positive reaction……..T

E] Golden yellow colonies on plated media……..T

5. To prevent laboratory infections, laboratory staff may immunized with the following vaccines:

A] Hepatitis A vaccines…T

B] BCG(Bacille Calmete Guerin)…T

C] TAB Vaccine….T

D] Hepatitis b vaccines…T

E] Polymyelitis and measles vaccines…T

6. In Ziehl-Nelson staining:

A] The primary stain is strong carbolfuchsin……T

B] Iodine is used as mordant…..F

C] Heat application should be intermittent…..F

D] Differentiation is done by acid alcohol…T

E] Positive organisms stain bright red against a bluish or greenish background…..T

7. The percentage condition of blood agar may be:

A] 4%.....F

B] 7%.......F

C] 9%.......F

D] 6%.......F
E] 10%......T

8. These reagent are used for catalase test:

A] Plasma…..F

B] Serum….F

C] Hydrogen peroxide……..T

D] Iodine…….F

E] Tetramethyl-p-phanylenediamine hydrochloride………F

9. These media may be used for stool cultures for enteric pathogens:

A] Maconkey agar….F

B] Deoxycholateager(DCA)….T

C] Salmonella-shigella agar (SSA)….T

D] Chocolate agar…..F

10. A facultative anaerobe can grow:

A] Only in the absence of free oxygen….F

B] Only in the presence of free oxygen…F

C] In the presence or absence of free oxygen…T

D] Only in the presence of light….F

E] In none of the above conditions….F

11. The shapes may be observed in bacterial organisms:

A] Coccus……T

B] Bacillus….T

C] Vibrio…T

D] Spirilum…T
E] None of the above…F

12. Regarding the cytoplasmic membranes in bacteria:

A] It regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell….T

B] It is the site of regulatory enzymes…F

C] It is an organ of motility…F

D] It is none of the above….F

13. In glycosis, the energy gained in ATP moles is

A] 5 moles of ATP…F

B] 4 moles of ATP….T

C] 2 moles of ATP…..F

D] 1 moles of ATP….F

E] 10 moles of ATP…F

14. The yield of bacterial mass can be determined by:

A] Table content…F

B] Total cell count….T

C] Density measurement….F

D] Cell protein measurement…F

E] Motility…F

15. During the log phase of bacterial growth cycle:

A] The rate of multiplicity is exponential…..T

B] There is no increase in viable bacterial number…F

C] There is a steady decline in population….F

D] Organisms initiate the synthesis of required enzymes….F

E] There is no growth….F

16. In nature, antibiotics are produced by:

A] Bacteria…T

B] Viruses….T

C] Actinomycetes….F

D] Fungi…T

E] Protozoa….T

17. Transfer of genetic material mediated by a bacterium is called:

A] Transformation…F

B] Conjugation….F

C] Transduction….T

D] Transcription….F

E] Mutation…..F

18. Mechanisms of action of antibiotics include

A] Interference with cell wall synthesis….T

B] Disruption of cell membrane structure….T

C] Inhibition of protein synthesis….T

D] Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis….T

E] Inhibition of cell agglutination….F

19. Erythromycin belongs to …..group of antibiotics:

A] Macrolide……T

B] Nacrolide……….F

C] Abromacrolide………F
D] Nomocrolide………..F

E] None of the above……………….F

20. Wires for preparing bacteriological wire loops may be:

A] Nickel……..F

B] Zinc…….F

C] Copper…….F

D] Nichrome….T

E] Platinum….T

21. Antimicrobials may kill bacteria by:

A] Disruption of cell membrane structure and function………..T

B] Inhibition of protein synthesis…….T

C] Inhibition of nucleic acid……T

D] Interference with cell wall synthesis……..T

E] Inhibition of moility……...F

22. These chemicals may be used as disinfectants except:

A] Lysol……..F

B] Savlon……..F

C] Izal………F

D] Acetone……F

E] Xylene……..T

23. A plasmid:

A] Is an extra-chromosomal genetic material……..T

B] Can integrate with bacterial DNA………T

C] Can mediate conjugation in bacteria……T

D] Can mediate toxin production in bacteria……F

E] Can mediate drug resistance in bacteria…….T

24. At autoclaving temperature and pressure of 121oC at 15-16 gauge pressure, the holding
time is usually:

A] 1 hour……..F

B] 2mins………F

C] ½ hour……….F

D] 30 secs…….F

25. KIA is:

A) Kingston india agar……F

B) It is used for motility test…………F

C) It can also be used as a biochemical medium…….T

D) Is a composite medium…….T

26. Non lactose fermenters :

A. Appear blue on CLED……..F

B. Appear yellow on DCA…….T

C. Appear red on macConkey………..F

D. None of the above is correct ………..F

E. Only B is correct………….T

27. On the stool bench, iodine solution is used:

A. For the demonstration of protozoan cysts………….T

B. To immobilize larva form to facilitate their identification……..T

C. To kill larva forms and render them ineffective…….F

D. All of the above……………..F

E. Only A and B are correct……………..T

28. Stool specimens are best collected in:

A. Screw-capped containers….T

B. Wide-mouthed containers…..T

C. Leak- proof containers …..T

E. All of the above…..T

29. In sterilization there is complete exclusion of:

A. Commensals only…….F

B. Pathogens only……..F

C. All organisms…..T

D. Viruses only……F

E. Parasites only…….F

30. Giemsa staining technique:

A. Is more suitable for thick films………….T

B. Is more suitable for thin films……..F

C. Is appropriate for the thick and thin films…….F

D. Does not require the use of a buffer solution……..T

E. All of the above…………..F

31. Physiological saline:

A. Is more concentrated than normal saline……F

B. Has a salt concentration of 8.5g/l…….T

C. Is also referred to as brine solution…….F

D. Is the same thing as normal saline…….T

E. Lyses red blood cells more than water……F

32. Stains used in parasitology include:

A. Giemsa…….T

B. Field…….T

C. Mayer’s acid haemalum…….T

D. Wright’s……..T

E. All of the above……..T

33. A plasmid:

A] Is an extra-chromosomal genetic material…….T

B] Can integrate with bacterial DNA………T

C] Can mediate conjugation in bacteria……..T

D] Can mediate toxin production in bacteria……T

E] Can mediate drug resistance in bacteria………T

34. At autoclaving temperature and pressure of 121oC at 15-16 gauge pressure: the holding
time is usually:

A] 1 hour…………F

B] 2 mins…………….F

C] ½ hour……………..F

D] 30 secs ……………..F

E] 15mins……………………T

35. KIA is:

A) Kligler iron agar…………..T

B) It is used for motility test………………F

C) It can also be used as a biochemical medium…………..T

D) Is a composite medium………………T

36. Non lactose fermenters:

A. Appear blue on CLED…………..F

B. Appear yellow on DCA ……………T

C. Appear red on macConkey………F

D. None of the above is correct……………F

E. Only B is correct ……………T

37. Oxidase test has the following characteristics......:

A. Reagent contains tetramethyl paraphenylene diamine dihydrochloride...........T

B. Reagent contains tetramethyl phosphophenylene diamine dihydrochloride...........F

C. It can be used to identify Pseudomonas, Neisseria, Vibrio etc..........T

D. It be used to identify S. aureus and E. coli..........F

E. It is observed for a deep blue red colour...............F

38. MR is short for:

A. Mister.........F

B. Methycillin resistant..............F

C. Medical register.............F

D. Microbiology register..........F

E. Methyl red test...........T

39. Urease test is used to confirm.....:

A. E. coli................ F

B. Salmonella...........F

C. Shigella............ F

D. Pseudomonas...............F

E. Proteus....................T

40. Aerobic Gram positive cocci include:

A. Microcoaceae.............T

B. Streptococcaceae..............T

C. Staphylococcus...................F

D. S. aureus...............F

E. S. epidermidis..............F

41. Toxins produced by S. aureus include....:

A. Exfoliatin..............T

B. Coagulase...............T

C. Beta-lactamase............T

D. Exotoxin...............T

E. Leucocidin.............T

42. S. aureus causes the following except........:

A. Colitis.............T

B. Gas gangrene..........T

C. Conjuctivitis...........F

D. Food poisoning..........F

E. Septicaemia.............F
43. How long would you leave blood culture in the incubator before discarding them?

A. 31 days………………..F

B. 23 days…………….F

C. 14 days……………..T

D. 21 days……………..F

E. 10 DAYS…………..F

44. One of these is not an essential component of culture medium:

A. Peptone………………….F

B. Meat extract…………………F

C. AUTOCLAVE………………….T

D. Water……………….T

E. None of the above……………….F

45. The first subculture of blood cultures are done after;

A. 6 DAYS…………….T

B. 48 days………………F

C. 7 days………………F

D. 24 days………………F

E. 21 days………………..F

46. Which is the best way of sterilizing culture medium?

A. Hot air oven……………F

B. Wire-loop……………….F

C. Steaming……………F

D. AUTOCLAVING………………..T

E. Freezing………………T
47. Which of these media are used as secondary media on stool bench?

A. Blood agar………………..F

B. CLED……………..F

C. MacConkey……………..F

D. Nutrient Agar………………F

E. SELENITE F………………T

48. Kovac’s reagent is used for

A. Motility test………………F

B. Lactose fermentation…………….F

C. Urease test………….F

D. Indole test…………….T

E. Oxidase test……………….F

49. KIA is used on the stool bench for:

A. Motility test………….F

B. Gas detection………..T

C. H2S detection……………T

D. Acid detection…………..F

E. None of the above………….T

50. CSF is said to be xanthrochromic when it:

A. Yellowish in colour………….T

B. Cloudy……………..F

C. Clear…………..F

D. Colourless…………..F

E. None of the above……….F

51. Medium for growing acid fast bacilli from sputum include:

A. DCA………….F

B. CLED………………..T

C. Chocolate Agar……………T

D. Blood agar…………….T

E. A and B only…………….F

52. The staining technique used for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum
sample is:

A. ZIEHL-NELSON……..T

B. Gram’s………….F

C. Leishman………..F

D. Giemsa……………..F

E. None of the above…………F

53. The following are selective media:

A. Salmonella-Shigella agar…………T

B. Tellurite agar………..T

C. Thiosulphare bile salt sucrose agar….T

D. Blood agar……..F

E. Chocolate agar….F

54. Media for culturing sputum for bacteria:

A. Blood agar…………T

B. Brain-heart infusion broth……………F

C. MacConkey agar………………T
D. CLED……………….T

E. None of the above……………..F

55. Genetic material may be transferred by:

A. Transformation……T

B. Conjugation……………..T

C. transcription………….T

D. Conduction………..F

E. Transduction…………….T

56. Differential media include…?

A. MacConkey agar….T

B. Deoxycholate agar…F

C. Chocolate agar…F

D. Blood agar…T

E. CLED…..T

57. Bacteria multiplication is by

A. Conjugation…………F

B. Mitosis…………….F

C. BINARY FISSION………..T

D. Meiosis………….F

E. Schizogony………………F

58. Concerning glycolysis….….?

A. Glucose is broken down to pyruvate in a series of enzymatic reactions….T

B. Two molecules of ATP are expended….T

C. Four molecules of ATP are expended….F

D. Two molecules of ATP are gained….F

E. Four molecules of ATP are gained….T

59. Concerning Gram stain:

A. The primary stain is crystal violet…..T

B. The stain should be heated gently….F

C. Acid alcohol is used for decolorization…..F

D. Iodine acts as a mordant……T

E. Safranin or NEUTRAL RED may be used as a counter stain….T

60. Different methods may be used to sterilize different materials except:

A. Hot air oven for glass wares….T

B. Autoclave for media….T

C. Filtration for serum….T

D. Autoclave for surgical equipment….T

E. Deep freezer for left-over food….F

61. KIA is:

A. KLIGLER IRON AGAR………F

B. It is used for motility test………F

C. It can also be used as a biochemical medium……………..T

D. It is a composite medium……………..T

E. A, B and C are correct……..T

62. The shapes may be observed in bacterial ogranisms

A. Coccus………………..T
B. Bacillus……………….T

C. Vibrio……………T

D. Spirilium……………

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE……………….T

63. The volume of blood in a 10% 300ml blood agar is:

A. 40ml..............F.

B. 70ml………….F

C. 90ml………….F

D. 60ml………….F

E. 30ml……………T

64. These reagents are used in catalase test:

A. Plasma…………..F

B. Serum………….F

C. HYDROGEN PEROXIDE……………T

D. Iodine………….F

E. Tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride……………..F

65. To prevent laboratory infections, laboratory staff may be immunized with the following
vaccines:

A. Hepatitis A vaccines…T

B. BCG (baccille calmette guerine)…….F

C. Tab vaccine….F

D. Hepatitis B vaccines………T

E. Poliomyelitis and measles Vaccines……F

66. Different bacteria assume different shapes thus:

A. Coccus as in staphylococcus…….T

B. Bacillus as in Escherichia coli………T

C. Vibrio as in vibrio cholera …….T

D. Coccobacillus as in Yersinia…………T

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE……………T

67. Helminthology is essentially…..?

A. The study of worms…T

B. The study of parasite worms…T

C. The study of free-living worm….T

D. The study of nematodes….T

E. Only C is correct….F

68. A careful microscopy of infected blood with Trypanosomiasis may reveal no important
parasites but:

A. Naegleria fowleri………F

B. Microfilariae…….F

C. Trypanosoma species…….T

D. All of the above…….F

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE……..F

69. Swimming in a river, it is possible to contact:

A. Schistosomiasis……..F

B. Guniea worm……….F

C. Paragonimiasis……….F

D. River blindness………….T

E. Onchocerchiasis…………..T
70. A systematic approach for the detection of blood microfilaria include;

A. Sample collection…..T

B. Wet preparation….T

C. Centrifugation and making of smears…..F

D. Staining and examination….T

E. All of the above…..F

71. Concerning periodicity of microfilariae:

A. Loa loa is diurnal…..T

B. Wucherreria bancrofti is nocturnal …..T

C. Onchocerca volvulus is non-periodic….T

D. All of the above……...T

E. None of the above……….F

72. A bacterial organism that grows optimally on 45-35 Celsius degree is:

A. A psychrophille……….F

B. A halopille……F

C. A thermophille……..F

D. A mesophille…..T

E. None of the above……F

73. Entamoeba histolytica:

A. Is an intestinal protozoan………..T

B. Is a blood parasite………….F

C. Is a Trypanosome…………F

D. None of the above………….F

E. Only A is correct……………T

74. In urine microscopy:

A. Visual observation (macroscopy) is important….T

B. 100X objective lens is used with immersion oil applied….F

C. Centrifugation of specimen is important…..T

D. All of the above….F

E. None of the above….F

75. TCBS is a selective medium for

A. Salmonella spp…..F

B. E. Coli…….F

C. Vibrio cholera……T

D. Shigella spp……F

E. All of the above………F

76. Some of the stool pathogens are:

A. Lactose fermenters….T

b. H2S producer…...T

C. Urease positive….F

D. None lactose fermenters..…F

E. All of the above are correct….F

77. Human blood is not the best for use in preparation of blood agar because:

A. It contains bactericidal substances…….T

B. It is expensive………..F

C. It does not contain growth factors……..F

D. All of the above………F

E. A AND D ARE CORRECT……..F

78. An enrichment medium for the isolation of Salmonella species in stool sample is known as:

A. Blood agar…..F

B. DCA……..T

C. Selenite…… F

D. TCBS…….F

E. None of the above……F

79. These infections may be transmitted by arthropods

A. Typhus fever……..T

B. Leishmaniasis……F

C. Chagas disease…..T

D. PLAQUE………T

E. Trypanosomiasis…….T

80. Regarding Onchocerciasis:

A. IT IS KNOWN AS RIVER BLINDNESS AND AFFECTS ONLY PEOPLE IN RIVERINE AREAS………T

B. The vector is black fly……..T

C. Mode of infection is swimming in contaminated rivers…..T

D. It may cause blindness and elephantiasis of scrotum……….T

E. Nodules arid leopard skin may be observed in infected…….T

81. Stool specimens must be examined as soon as they are submitted to the laboratory:

A. In order not to miss the motile parasites……..F

B. Otherwise eggs of hookworms may hatch into larval form……T

C. otherwise watery stool specimens may dry out…….F

D. All of the above…….F

E. None of the above….F

82. On the stool bench, iodine solution is used:

A. For the demonstration of protozoan cysts………T

B. To immobilize forms to facilitate their identification…..T

C. To kill larval forms and render them ineffective…….F

D. All of the above………..F

E. ONLY B AND A IS CORRECT…………T

83. Concerning ameobiasis:

A. The agent is a protozoan……T

B. Demonstration of trophozoiton is easy with loose stool..…T

C. Blood stained mucoid, diarrhea, stool is common…..T

D. The liver may be affected, resulting in liver abcess….T

E. Cysts are numerous in chronic stage and contain four nuclei…T

84. Inappropriate use of antimicrobial substances may result in:

A. Bacterial resistance….T

B. Auto toxicity…..T

C. Pseudomembranous colitis….T

D. Overgrowth of other organisms e.g. Candida spp……T

E. All of the above…..T

85. Unlike chemotherapeutic agents which selectively attack the micro-organism, disinfectant are
more:
A. Soft. ……..F

B. Mild…………F

C. Toxic ….T

D. Stable………..F

86. When sample arrives at the laboratory for bacteria isolation, it is spread on a special?

A. Tissue. ….…F

B. Embryonated egg …….F

C. All of the above …….F

D. None of the above……T

87. Christian Gram is reputed for....:

A. Invention of French-Gram stain.........F

B. Invention of Gram stain........T

C. Preaching as a Laboratory Christian..........F

D. Working hard as a Christian..........F

E. Only C is correct...........F

88. Smears for Gram stain must be:

A. Allowed to air-dry before heat-fixing............T

B. Supervised by Christian Gram before staining with Gram stain......F

C. Heat-fixed before staining.........T

D. Well made..........T

E. Discarded..........F

89. All stained smears must be examined with....:

A. 10X objective lens........F

B. 100X objective lens.........T

C. 40X objective..........F

D. A light microscope...........T

E. An electron microscope ONLY.........F

90. Acetone is a powerful decolourizer than alcohol....?

A. NO..............F

B. MAYBE.............F

C. SOMETIMES............F

D. YES.....................T

E. ALWAYS.....................T

91. Gram positive bacteria possess......:

A. A thin peptidoglycan layer.........F

B. A thick peptidoglycan layer.......T

C. Teichoic acid in their cell wall........T

D. Lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall.........F

E. Nothing in their cell wall.............F

92. Heating is applied while staining with Ziehl-Nieelsen method in order to....:

A. Break the slides..............F

B. Allow the heat to penetrate the cell wall of the acid-fast bacteria...........T

C. Dissolve the lipid content of the acid-fast bacteria................T

D. Dry up the smear and the stain on the slide............F

E. Only C is correct...............F

93. Methods of sterilization can be divided into two namely:

A. Spiritual and chemical..............F

B. Physical and Mechanical............F

C. Physical and chemical..........T

D. Chemical and Periodical...............F

E. Periodical and Physical

94. The autoclave operates at..........:

A. A higher temperature and pressure at a longer time.........F

B. A longer time, shorter pressure gauge and a higher temperature......F

C. A higher temperature of 112C, pressure of 15psi and a holding time of 15minutes...........T

D. A higher temperature and pressure, and a shorter holding time............T

E. A lower pressure, higher temperature and a longer time...............F

95. Use of dry heat is an example of...............:

A. Periodical method of sterilization................F

B. Physical method of sterilization.......................T

C. Chemical method of sterilization.................F

D. Numerical method of sterilization................F

E. Mechanical method of sterilization................F

96. Chemical sterilization involves the use of:

A. Soap and scouring powder............F

B. Normal saline...............F

C. Disinfectants and antiseptics.............T

D. Alcohol and chlorxylenols................T

E. Salts of heavy metals and halogens............T

97. Factors affecting bacterial growth include.....:

A. Nutrient concentration............T

B. Temperature..................T

C. Hydrogen ion concentration............T

D. Gaseous requirements................T

E. Heat..............F

98. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is...........?

A. A Microaerophilic bacterium.................F

B. A Carboxyphilic bacterium.............F

C. A Capnophilic bacterium...........F

D. An Obligatory aerobe...............T

E. A Gram negative bacterium............T

99. Obligatory aerobes are also known as...........?

A. Restricted aerobes...........F

B. Microaerophillic bacteria.............F

C. Facultative aerobes...............F

D. Strict aerobes.....................T

E. Carboxyphilic aerobes..........F

100. ONPG stands for........:

A. O-Nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside...................T

B. Ortho Nitro-phenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside...................F

C. Ortho-Nitrophosphorus-beta-D-galactose...................F

D. O-Nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactase...................F

E. Ortho-Nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactosepyranoside...................F
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN HISTOPATHOLOGY/CYTOLOGY

1. Eosin is an:

A. Aniline dye…..T

B. A cytoplasmic dye…..F

C. A natural dye….F

D. Synthetic dye….F

E. Basic dye…..F

2. Types of haematoxylin stains include:

A. Alum haematoxylin……….T

B. Iron haematoxylin………….T

C. Lead haematoxylin…………….T

D. Sodium haematoxylin………….F

E. Potash haematoxylin……………T

3. Haematoxylin is:

A. Derived from the heartwood of a plant….T

B. Derived from ovaries of insect ….T

C. Natural dye…..T

D. A normal dye …..F

E. All of the above….F

4. Bone decalcification is carried out:

A. BEFORE FIXATION…………..T
B. Along with fixation…………F

C. After fixation……………F

D. Along with dehydration……………F

E. Along with staining…………….F

5. The chemical which cannot be used as antemedia for tissue processing include:

A. Xylene………..T

B. Paraplast……...F

C. Chloroform…………T

D. Ethanol……….T

E. Ether……….T

6. If water soluble wax is used as an impregnation medium, processing schedule should not include:

A. Alcohol ………….T

B. Xylene……….T

C. Chloroform…………T

D. Ether…………T

E. Acetone………….T

7. The slowest decalcifying agent at its concentration is:

A. EDTA ….T

B. Nitric acid….F

C. Acetic acid ….F

D. Formic acid….F

E. phosphoric acid…F

8. In Van Gieson’s technique, the dye responsible for staining collagen fibre specifically is:
A. Haematoxylin…..F

B. Picric acid….F

C. Basic fuchsin….F

D. Acid fuchsin….T

E. Ferric chloride ….F

9. The most common mordants used for haematoxylin are:

A. Alum haematoxylin……….T

B. Iron haematoxylin………….T

C. Lead haematoxylin…………….T

D. Sodium haematoxylin………….F

E. Potash haematoxylin……………T

10. Collagen fibres can be demonstrated by:

A. H and E technique…F

B. AFB technique….F

C. Van gieson’s technique ….T

d. Bron and brown technique…F

E. Brown and hopp’s technique….F

11. The following technique could be employed to demonstrate pigments:

A. Stein’s iodine……….T

B. Von kossa’s method……………….T

C. Iodine and thiosulphate solution………………..F

D. Washing the tissue very well in water before putting into alcohol…….F

E. Only C and D are correct…………F

12. Formalin is obtained by

A. Heating methanol over steel catalyst……………F

B. Heating methanol and oxygen over silver catalyst……….F

C. Dissolving formaldehyde gas in water…………….F

D. Dissolving 40 part of formaldehyde gas in 100 part of water ……..T

E. All of the above

13. The melting point of hard parafin wax includes:

A. 52C…………F

B. 55C….T

C. 50C………….F

D. 60C……………..F

E. 58C……………F

14. Molten substance mainly used for the preparation of tissue for lipids includes:

A. Gelatin………………..T

B. Glycerol……………F

C. Sudan Black stain…………..F

D. Schultz’s method …………..F

E. Giemsa stain…………F

15. The following fluids cannot be used for heating or completion of decalcification:

A. Carnoy’s fluid………F

B. Bouin’s fluid…………F

C. Schaudinn’s fluid………..F

D. Formalin…………F

E. Picric acid…………T
16. The prerequisites for proper tissue fixation include:

A. Use of dead tissue….F

B. Good penetration rate of fixative….T

C. Use of fresh tissue….T

D. Use of primary fixative….T

E. Correct choice of fixative….T

15. An example of a decalcifying fluid is:

A. Picric acid……………..T

B. Formolsaline……………….F

C. Formaldehyde………………….F

D. Bouins’ fluid………………F

E. All of the above…………….F

16. The following are methods of knife sharpening:

A. Honing….T

B. Feeling….F

C. Microtomy…F

D. Stropping…T

E. all of the above….F

17. For iron demonstration:

A. Perl’s technique is used…T

B. Turnbull blue reaction is used….T

C. Periodic acid Schiff’s is used…..F

D. Verhoff’s elastic fibre stain is used….F

E. Flourescense technique is used….F

18. Artifacts pigment encountered in stain tissue include:

A. Formalin – Haematin pigment……………T

B. Chrome pigment…………..T

C. Mercuric pigment……………..T

D. Tattoo pigment………………..F

E. Silicon pigment………….F

19. Mountant are classified into:

A. Hydrophilic and hydrophobic group….F

B. Neutral and acidic moutant….F

C. Synthentic and natural mountant…T

D. All of the above…F

E. None of the above…F

20. The following technique is used for demonstration of collagen fibre:

A. Weigert’s Iron-Haematoxylin group…..T

B. H & E….F

C. Pearl’s….F

D. Benzidine method…………F

E. None of the above……..F

21. In H and E technique:

A. The nuclei stains red……F

B. The cytoplasm stains green….F

C. Eosin stains the cytoplasm….T

D. All of the above….F

E. The nuclei stains blue…..T

22. Examples of section adhesives are:

A. Albumin/Glycerin mixture with starch……….F

B. Plasma D/ Gellatine powder………….F

C. Xylene…………..F

D. Canada Balsam……….T

E. Serum……….F

23. These microscope objective are used in oil immersion objectives

A. 40X…………..F

B. 10X…………..F

C. 4X………..F

D. 100X…..T

E. None of the above………………..F

24. These equipment are used for floating out section:

A. Hot plate………………F

B. hot water bath…..T

C. Hot air oven…………….F

D. Mountain needle………………F

E. Bunsen burner……………….F

25. The following statements are true of epithelial tissues

A. They have free surface……….F

B. They have blood vessels…………F

C. They are held together by complex structures ………….F

D. They are held together by functional complex………F

E. they have no basement membrane….…..F

26. Removal of mercuric pigments from tissue involves the use of:

A. Alcoholic iodine……………………T

B. Sodium thlosulphate……………..T

C. Pottasium Iodide………F

D. Ammonium solution………….F

E. Saturated alcoholic acid……………F

27. The following counter stains can be used in H&E technique:

A. 1% Eosin Azure…………..F

B. 1% Erythrosin……………F

C. 1% Eosin…..T

D. 5% Eosin………..F

E. 1% methylene blue………….F

28. The following ante-media are used in histology technique:

A. Xylene…………..T

B. Ethanol……F

C. Cedar wood oil……T

D. Carbon disulphide……F

E. Chloroform………T

29. Verhoeff’s technique is used in the demonstration of:

A. Collagen fibres……………..F

B. Reticular fibre…………….F
C. Elastic fibres……T

D. Ground substance………….F

E. Smooth muscles…………….F

30. The following compound fixatives contain mercuric chloride:

A. Schaudin’s fluid………….F

B. zenker’s fluid….T

C.helly’s fluid…..T

D. Carnoy’s fluid…………….F

E. Bouin’s fluid…………….F

31. The following are examples are artificial pigments encountered in tissues:

A. Malarial pigment………………..F

B. Schistosomal pigment…………….F

C. Formaldehyde…..T

D.Mercuric pigment…….T

E. Lipo-fuchsion pigment………………F

31. The following fixative are referred to as compound fixatives:

A. 10%formol saline….T

B. Formol alcohol…………F

C. Formol acid…………..F

D. Formadehyde………….F

E. Acetic acid…………..F

32. In the fixation of brain tissue, the following concentration of formalin is used.

A. 40% formalin………..F
B. 30%Formalin………….F

C. 20% Formalin…………..F

D. 10% neutral Formalin……T

E.4% Formaldehyde…………….F

33. The difference between manual and automatic tissue processing technique includes;

A. Manual processing take shorter time……………..F

B. Manual processing makes used of processing machine………F

C. In AUTOMATIC processing, smaller thickness of tissue is used….T

D. Automatic procession requires personal supervision…………F

E. In automatic processing, the tissues could be processed within 5 hours………….F

34. The following chemicals are examples of decalcifying fluids:

A. Formic acid…..T

B. Bouin’s fluid…………….F

C. Carnoy’s fluid……….F

D. Dilute HCl…..T

E. Nitric acid……T

35. Example of ante media include:

A. Alcohol…………….F

B. Chloroform….T

C. Xylene…..T

D. Benzene…..T

E. Hydrochloric acid…………..F

36. Fixatives which coagulate tissue proteins include:

A. Ethanol………………F

B. Formaldehyde………….F

C. Mecuric chloride……T

D. Osmium tetraoxide…………….F

E. Acetic acid…..T

37. The function of sodium sulphate in Zenker’s fluid is:

A. Protein fixation………………F

B. Lipid fixation……………F

C. Glycogen fixation……………..F

D. Prevention of fungal growth…………F

E. Maintenance of osmotic balance……T

38. The following are constitutents of differentiators used in H/E technique:

A. HCl, water, alcohol…..T

B. HCl, formalin, alcohol……………..F

C. H2SO4, chloroform, picric acid………………..F

D. EDTA, Fecl3 and Xylene……………..F

E. None of the above……………….F

39. An instrument used for sharpening of microtome knife is known as

A. Belgian black vein…………T

B. Hand…………..F

C. Arkansas…..T

D. Belgian yellow stone…..T

E. Glass plate……T
40. The following are types of microtome knife:

A. Wedge-shape…………..T

B. Plane-concave……………T

C. Tool edge…………T

D. Strope…..F

E. Biconcave…………..T

41. Various types of microtomes for histology include:

A. Rotary microtome……………..T

B. Sliding microtome……………..T

C. Freezing microtome……………..T

D. Circulating microtome……F

E. Cryostat………………..T

42. Abrasives employed in the sharpening of microtome knives are:

A. FERRIC OXIDE powder……………F

B. Coarse iron powder……………….F

C. Soapy water…….T

D. Aluminium powder (Aloxite)…………….F

E. All of the above………….F

43. Paraffin wax could be removed from tissue section by the treatment with the following:

A. Ethanol……F

B. Cedar wool oil……T

C. Benzene…….T

D. Carbondisulphide……………F

E. 1% acid alcohol……………..F
44. The underlisted agents are section adhesives employed in histopathology laboratory:

A. Mayer’s egg albumin/Glycerol.…..T

B. Starch……..T

C. Agar……………F

D. Getalin…………F

E. Plasma…………..F

45. Specimens meant for exfoliative cytology include:

A. Urine…….T

B. Blood……T

C. Cervical smear…………F

D. Buccal scrapping…………..F

E. Conjunctival scrapping………….F

46. To ensure accountability and proper medication the under listed information must be
provided:

A. Payment receipt number…..T

B. Patient’s hospital/LAB number….T

C. Patient’s family history…..T

D. Previous diagnosis (if available)…..T

E. Age of the patient……T

47. The ideal ratio of fixative volume to tissue

A. 10:1…..T

B. 5:1…….F

C. 1:10…..F

D. 4:5……F
E. 1:5…….F

48. The term de-alcoholization in histopathology means

A. Removal of water from tissue fixed in alcohol…….F

B. The same thing as clearing……T

C. Removal of alcohol using ante media…..T

D. Removal of alcohol using paraffin wax………F

E. Only C and D are correct…………F

49. Three of the methods used in the automatic tissues processing machine are:

A. Infiltration…………. T

B. Impregnation………….F

C. Embedding…………T

D. Clearing………..T

E. Sectioning………….F

50. Picric acid can be used as:

A. Anionic and cation…………..F

B. A dehydrating agent……….F

C. A clearing and impregnating agent………..F

D. Fixative, decalcifier, differentiator and decolourizer………...T

51. Hot plate is best used at:

A. 25-40C Above melting point of wax………….F

B. 25-40C Below melting point of wax…………….F

C. 5-10C below melting point of wax………….F

D. 5-10C Above the melting point of wax……....T

52. Barr body is seen as:

A. Rectangular object in a cell…………F

B. Cell block in the neutrophil……………F

C. Steel –like object in the basophil……………..F

D. A dot in the membrane of the interphase nuclei of epithelial cells…T

53. Sputa can be regarded as:

A. An instrument in histopathology laboratory………F

B. Equipment………….F

C. A gauze………….F

D. Cytological specimen……T

54. STROPPING IS?

A. Manual sharpening of the microtome knife………F

B. Moving the edge of the forcep…………..F

C. Done using Belgian stone………….F

D. The manual process of clearing and smoothing the edge of a microtome knife….T

55. One of these is a constituent of Ehrlich’s haematoxylin:

A. Eosin………….F

B. Azure 50……………F

C. Sodium carbonate……………F

D. Glacial acetic acid…..…..T

56. Fixation........:
A. Is the preservation after death of the shape, structure and chemical components of tissues and
cells.

B. Prevents autolysis and putrefaction................T

C. Should not add or remove from the tissue constituents........T

D. Should be stab;e..........T

E. Should be cheap and easy to prepare...........T

57. Simple fixatives include the following except:

A. Bouin's fluid............T

B. Zenker's fluid............T

C. Helly's fluid...........T

D. Formaldehyde............F

E. Mercuric chloride............F

58. 10% Formal saline is an example of:

A. Simple fixative............F

B. Compound fixative.............T

C. Micro anatomical fixative.............T

D. Cytological fixative....................F

E. Nuclear fixative................F

59. Flemming's fluid is a...:

A. Simple fixative............F

B. Compound fixative.............T

C. Micro anatomical fixative.............F

D. Cytological fixative....................T

E. Nuclear fixative................F
60. Heidenhain's "Susa" fixative consists of...........:

A. Sodium chloride.................T

B. Mercuric chloride.............T

C. Acetic acid.................T

D. 40% formaldehyde............T

E. Picric acid................F

61. Carnoy's fluid has the following characteristics......:

A. Is a nuclear fixative...........T

B. Contains chloroform.............T

C. Contains absolute alcohol..........T

D. Is widely used to fix chromosomes.........T

E. Lipids are preserved by the fixative.........F

62. Cytological fixatives include the following............:

A. Alcohol-ether................T

B. 95% alcohol................T

C. Schaudinn's fluid.............T

D. Gendre's solution...............F

E. Acetone..................F

63. Decalcifying solutions and agents include...........:

A. Aqueous formic acid..............T

B. Perenyi's fluid...........T

C. Zenker's fluid.............F

D. Helly's fluid..............F

E. Aqueous nitric acid........T

64. The stages of tissue processing are........:

A. Dehydration, Infiltration, Clearing and Embedding.....................F

B. Dehydration, Clearing, Infiltration and Clearing.................F

C. Dehydration, Clearing, Embedding, Infiltration and Embedding................F

D. Dehydration, Clearing, Infiltration and Embedding............T

E. None of the above...................F

65. CLEARING is also known as.........................:

A. Filtration..............F

B. Dehydration....................F

C. De-alcoholisatoion........... T

D. Cleaning..................F

E. All of the above..............F

66. Dehydration can be done with............:

A. Acetone...............T

B. Alcohol................T

C. Benzene......................F

D. Xylene.............F

E. Chloroform.................F

67. Clearing agents include:

A. Xylene.....................T

B. Toluene..............T

C. Chloroform..........T

D. Acetone............F

E. Alcohol.........F
68. The process of casting the tissues in paraffin wax and allowing them

to set to facilitate cutting of sections is known as:

A. Filtration..............F

B. Embedding.............T

C. Impregnation...........F

D. Waxing.......F

E. Paraffinising..........F

69. Forms of microtomes include.....:

A. Sharp-edge cutting microtome.........F

B. Sliding microtome..........T

C. Base sledge microtome..........T

D. Rotary microtome.........T

E. Oxford rocking microtome...............F

70. Microtome knives are classified based on their blade profiles such as.....:

A. Planoconcave.............T

B. Plantarconvex..........F

C. Planoconvex.............F

D. Tool edge...........T

E. Biconcave...............T

71. Terms used in microtomy include the folllwoing:

A. Sharpening............F

B. Tilt of the microtome knife...........T

C. Compression...........T

D. Rate of cutting.............T
E. Ambient temperature...........T

72. Physical factors which influence staining reactions include:

A. Osmosis and capillarity...........T

B. Absorption..............T

C. Selective adsorption..............T

D. Acidic components...........F

E. Evaporation.............F

71. Dyes can be classified in several ways such as.........:

A. Natural...........T

B. Synthetic..........T

C. According to their reactions...........T

D. Tissue affinities...........T

E. Colour............F

72. Staining properties of dyes include the following except:

A. Regressive staining...........F

B. Moderate staining...........T

C. Repulsive staining...............T

D. Indirect staining............F

E. Vital staining.............F

73. The following are histological stains except:

A. Acid fuschin..............F

B. Congo red...............F

C. Balsam blue..............T
D. Panus Green...............T

E. Haematoxylin.............F

74. Staining equipments and materials include.....:

A. Staining dishes..........T

B. Staining racks..........T

C. Staining loop...........F

D. Staining glass...........F

E. Staining packs..............F

75. The first method of staining involves.............:

A. Removal of xylene.............F

B. Removal of paraffin wax..........T

C. Hydration with water............F

D. Removal of artifact..............F

E. Gradual hydration with lower grade alcohol..............F

76. Haematoxylin is an example of a .........:

A. Synthetic dye...........F

B. Natural dye..................T

C. Histological stain...........T

D. Romanowsky stain..............F

E. Heidenhain susa's stain..............F

77. Permanent mounting media are either.........:

A. Artificial resins...........F

B. Natural resins.............T

C. Synthetic resins............T
D. Man-made resins..............F

E. Animal resins............F

78. DPX is short for........:

A. Damar phosphate xylene.........F

B. Diurnalpthalate xylene..........F

C. Dumar phenyl xylate...........F

D. Dipthalate xylulose..........F

E. Dipthalate xylene..............T

79. Canada balsam is.......:

A. A synthetic resin...............T

B. Natural resin...............T

C. Human resin............F

D. Animal resin...............F

E. A gum damar...........F

80. Synthetic resins include.......:

A. Clarite...............T

B. DPX of Kirkpatrick and Lendrum.............T

C. Clear mount ..................T

D. Horleco Synthetic Resin.............T

E. Maleriol..................T

81. Ehrlich's haematoxyin consists of.......:

A. Glycerol............T

B. Distilled water.............T
C. Ethyl alcohol 95%...............T

D. Iron alum....................F

E. Mercuric oxide....................F

82. The most commonly used alum haematoxylins are.....:

A. Mayer's ...............T

B. Cole's.................T

C. Pale's.................F

D. Harris'................T

E. Maya's.................F

83. Eosins are.............:

A. Alkali of xanthene or pthalein dyes.............F

B. Acid of xanthene or pthalein dyes...............T

C. Derived from Eosinophilaus menduculoza tree.....F

D. Most commonly employed as a contrast stain......T

E. Used as routine counterstain in histopathology..T

84. In staining carbohydrates, ...... method is used:

A. H&E staining method............F

B. Periodic acid schiff method....T

C. Gram stain.....................F

D. Schmorl's Thionin method.......F

E. Uranyl Nitrate.................F

85. Silver impregnation method is used for:

A. Elastic fibres.........F
B. Collagen fibres........F

C. Reticulin fibres.......T

D. Glycogen...............F

E. Mucin..................F

86. Weighert's iron haematoxylin and van-Gieson stain is for..........:

A. Elastic fibres.........F

B. Collagen fibres........T

C. Reticulin fibres.......F

D. Glycogen...............F

E. Mucin..................F

87. Elastic fibres can be demonstrated with...:

A. Gomori's aldehyde-fuschin method............T

B. Verhoeff's elastic fibre stain..............T

C. Orcein and methylene blue method............T

D. Resorcin-Fuchsin stain......................T

E. Weighert's haematoxylin.....................F

88. Pigments are classified into three namely:

A. Artifacts.............T

B. Endogenous pigments...T

C. Exogenous pigments....T

D. Mercuric pigments.....F

E. Formalin pigments.....F

89. Haemoglobin is an example of.........?

A. Artifacts.............F

B. Endogenous pigments...T

C. Exogenous pigments....F

D. Mercuric pigments.....F

E. Formalin pigments.....F

90. Artifacts include the following:

A. Formalin pigment......T

B. Mercuric pigments.....T

C. Chrome deposits.......T

D. Stain precipitates....T

E. Haemoglobin...........F

91. Exogenous pigments include the following except.....:

A. Phosphorus............T

B. Carbon................F

C. Calcium...............F

D. Copper................F

E. Magnesium.............T

92. Abestos is a typical......:

A. Artifacts.............F

B. Endogenous pigments...F

C. Exogenous pigments....T

D. Mercuric pigments.....F

E. Formalin pigments.....F
93. In Histopathology, bacteria can be demonstrated with:

A. Ziehl Neelsen's method...............F

B. Gram-Weighert method for bacteria....T

C. Gram-Haematoxylin/Eosin method.......F

D. No suitable method...................F

E. Personal methods.....................F

94. Sudan Black B method can be used to demonstrate.........?

A. Glycogen............F

B. Proteins............F

C. Lipids..............T

D. Glycoproteins.......F

E. All of the above....F

95. Schultz's method can be used to demonstrate......:

A. Glycogen............F

B. Proteins............F

C. Lipids..............F

D. Cholesterols........T

E. All of the above....F

96. Azo dye coupling method can be used to demonstrate an enzyme; which one....?

A. ALP.........T

B. ACP.........T

C. ALT.........F

D. LD..........F

E. Esterases...F
97. Indoxyl method can also be used for...:

A. ALP.........T

B. ACP.........F

C. ALT.........F

D. LD..........F

E. Esterases...F

98. Cytology is subdivided into.......:

A. Beautiful needle aspiration cytology (BNAC).....F

B. Non-gynaecological cytology.....................T

C. Gynaecological cytology.........................T

D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)..........T

E. Cervical cytology...............................F

99. Cervical, vaginal smears are specimen forms grouped under......:

A. Beautiful needle aspiration cytology (BNAC).....F

B. Non-gynaecological cytology.....................F

C. Gynaecological cytology.........................T

D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)..........F

E. Cervical cytology...............................F

100. Endocervical smears are taken for the assessment of:

A. Dysplasia and malignancy....T

B. Dysplasia only..............F

C. Vaginal contamination.......F

D. Ovarian cysts...............F

E. Cervical degeneration.......F