CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco
Cybersecurity Operations Exam
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Prepare yourself for the fast-paced world of cybersecurity
operations with a targeted practice test focused on
implementing Cisco cybersecurity solutions. Crafted for
aspiring security analysts, network professionals, and CCNA
Cyber Ops candidates, this tool brings real-world challenges
into your hands—helping you confidently master the
essentials of modern security operations.
Begin with proactive threat detection using endpoint
analysis. You’ll apply forensic thinking to uncover malware
patterns, investigate system changes, and trace
unauthorized access. Modular scenarios guide you through
evaluating digital artifacts, analyzing host-level events, and
linking behaviors to potential compromises—all while
reinforcing the importance of maintaining system integrity.
Advance your skills in network intrusion analysis. Through
immersive situations, you’ll examine abnormal traffic
patterns, detect suspicious anomalies, and track command-
and-control communication. Whether dissecting a mirrored
network stream or reviewing logs from SIEM tools, you’ll
learn to pinpoint threats, prioritize alerts, and recognize
when escalation is necessary.
Operational awareness is front and center. Explore security
monitoring through efficiently managing dashboards,
interpreting real-time alerts, and correlating events across
domains. Practice assessing incident severity, navigating
escalation paths, and effectively configuring tool thresholds
to ensure both timely detection and minimal noise.
Security policies and procedures are woven through each
case. Scenarios challenge you to adapt response workflows,
align actions with compliance standards, and uphold the
principle of least privilege without compromising access.
You’ll gain experience crafting incident playbooks, enforcing
data governance, and sustaining robust operational
readiness.
Designed for active learning, the format invites you to
assess situations, decide responses, and reflect on
outcomes. This method empowers you to internalize not just
theoretical knowledge but the strategic judgment required in
high-pressure environments.
Ideal for those preparing for certification exams or stepping
into Security Operations Center (SOC) roles, this practice
test helps you build an analytical mindset rooted in
operational confidence. By navigating incident-based
challenges—whether spotting network intrusions,
investigating endpoint anomalies, or enforcing policy—you’ll
be equipped to contribute meaningfully from day one.
FAQs
Who benefits most from this practice test?
Ideal for CCNA Cyber Ops candidates, SOC analysts, IT
security students, and network professionals aiming to
strengthen their operational skills in incident response and
monitoring.
What technical areas are included?
You’ll tackle endpoint forensics, network intrusion analysis,
security monitoring, incident response workflows,
escalations, and policy enforcement under realistic
conditions.
How does the scenario-based format help?
By presenting real-world situations—like intercepting
malicious traffic or analyzing suspicious system events—you
build judgment and retention through applied decision-
making.
Is this useful beyond certification prep?
Absolutely. While aligned with exam skills, it’s equally
valuable for hands-on preparation in SOC roles or for
sharpening response strategies in dynamic environments.
What sets this tool apart from traditional study
materials?
It emphasizes active application—requiring you to interpret
alerts, trace threats, and deploy policies—rather than simple
memorization, fostering deeper operational readiness.
Sample Questions and Answers
1. What is the primary purpose of NetFlow in
a cybersecurity context?
A. To scan open ports on a host
B. To block traffic at the perimeter firewall
C. To collect metadata on network traffic for analysis
D. To provide deep packet inspection
Answer: C
Explanation: NetFlow is used to collect IP traffic information
for monitoring and analysis. It helps in understanding
network usage and detecting anomalies.
2. Which tool would a SOC analyst most
likely use for centralized logging?
A. Wireshark
B. Netcat
C. Syslog
D. Nmap
Answer: C
Explanation: Syslog is a standard protocol used to collect
and centralize log messages from network devices and
servers, making it vital in SOC operations.
3. What is the most effective way to prevent
unauthorized physical access to a server room?
A. Using a complex password policy
B. Installing antivirus software
C. Implementing biometric authentication at entry
D. Encrypting all data
Answer: C
Explanation: Biometric access control ensures that only
authorized personnel can physically enter secure areas,
preventing unauthorized physical access.
4. Which protocol is used to securely
manage network devices over an encrypted
channel?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. SNMPv1
Answer: C
Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts communication
and is used to securely manage network devices, unlike
Telnet or SNMPv1, which are insecure.
5. What is the main purpose of a sandbox in
malware analysis?
A. Encrypt sensitive files
B. Execute and observe file behavior in isolation
C. Hide malicious code
D. Block outbound DNS traffic
Answer: B
Explanation: A sandbox is an isolated environment where
suspicious files or programs can be run to observe their
behavior without risk to the actual system.
6. Which tool is commonly used to capture
and analyze packet-level traffic?
A. SIEM
B. Wireshark
C. Nessus
D. Metasploit
Answer: B
Explanation: Wireshark is a packet sniffer used for deep
packet inspection and network traffic analysis, often used by
cybersecurity analysts.
7. A user’s device is generating unusual DNS
traffic to random domains. What type of attack
is this most likely indicative of?
A. DoS
B. DNS tunneling
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. SYN flood
Answer: B
Explanation: DNS tunneling involves using DNS queries and
responses to exfiltrate data or maintain command-and-
control communication covertly.
8. Which of the following is considered a
Layer 2 attack?
A. IP spoofing
B. MAC flooding
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: B
Explanation: MAC flooding is a Layer 2 attack that
overwhelms the switch’s CAM table with bogus MAC
addresses, causing the switch to act like a hub.
9. What does CVE stand for in cybersecurity?
A. Common Virus Enumeration
B. Critical Vulnerability Exposure
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Event
Answer: C
Explanation: CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and
Exposures, a public database of known security
vulnerabilities.
10. In the cybersecurity kill chain, what is
the second step after reconnaissance?
A. Weaponization
B. Delivery
C. Exploitation
D. Command and Control
Answer: A
Explanation: Weaponization involves creating the malicious
payload (e.g., malware) after gathering information during
reconnaissance.
11. Which security technology aggregates
data from multiple sources for analysis?
A. IPS
B. SIEM
C. DLP
D. NGFW
Answer: B
Explanation: A SIEM (Security Information and Event
Management) system collects and correlates data from
various sources for centralized analysis.
12. What does the CIA triad stand for in
cybersecurity?
A. Cybersecurity, Integrity, Authentication
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C. Control, Identification, Access
D. Confidentiality, Inspection, Availability
Answer: B
Explanation: The CIA triad consists of Confidentiality,
Integrity, and Availability — the three core principles of
information security.
13. Which of the following is an example of
endpoint detection and response (EDR)?
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
C. Snort
D. Zeek
Answer: B
Explanation: Cisco AMP for Endpoints is an example of an
EDR solution that detects, investigates, and responds to
advanced threats on endpoint devices.
14. What type of attack involves
intercepting communication between two
parties without their knowledge?
A. DDoS
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Phishing
D. Brute force
Answer: B
Explanation: In a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack, the
attacker secretly relays or alters the communication
between two parties.
15. Which of the following is most useful for
detecting lateral movement in a network?
A. Firewall logs
B. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)
C. Public key infrastructure
D. Password manager
Answer: B
Explanation: HIDS monitors host-level activity, including
unauthorized access or privilege escalation, making it
effective for detecting lateral movement.
16. What is the purpose of a demilitarized
zone (DMZ) in network architecture?
A. To encrypt data traffic
B. To provide a buffer zone between internal and external
networks
C. To isolate malware
D. To store backup data
Answer: B
Explanation: A DMZ is a subnet that acts as a buffer
between a private network and the internet, hosting publicly
accessible services.
17. What kind of threat is described by
“zero-day”?
A. An old vulnerability that’s re-exploited
B. A vulnerability with a known patch
C. A previously unknown vulnerability exploited before a
patch is available
D. A user clicking a phishing email
Answer: C
Explanation: A zero-day is an unknown security
vulnerability that is exploited before the vendor has released
a fix.
18. What is the purpose of a digital
certificate in cybersecurity?
A. To detect malware
B. To encrypt logs
C. To verify identity and secure communications
D. To block access to malicious websites
Answer: C
Explanation: Digital certificates use public key
infrastructure to verify identities and enable encrypted
communication over insecure networks.
19. What does the term “threat intelligence”
refer to?
A. Firewalls and intrusion detection
B. Anti-virus databases
C. Contextual information on threat actors and tactics
D. Network segmentation maps
Answer: C
Explanation: Threat intelligence provides data and context
about threat actors, their behavior, and the indicators of
compromise.
20. What is the most important first step in
incident response?
A. Eradication
B. Containment
C. Identification
D. Recovery
Answer: C
Explanation: Identification is the first step in incident
response to determine whether a security event qualifies as
an actual incident.
21. Which type of malware is designed to
replicate itself without user intervention?
A. Worm
B. Trojan
C. Rootkit
D. Spyware
Answer: A
Explanation: Worms are self-replicating programs that
spread across networks without needing to attach to a host
file.
22. What is the function of an IPS (Intrusion
Prevention System)?
A. To log network traffic
B. To block known malicious traffic in real time
C. To isolate endpoints
D. To scan endpoints for vulnerabilities
Answer: B
Explanation: IPS systems monitor traffic for suspicious
behavior and block malicious packets in real time.
23. Which header field in a TCP packet is
most useful for tracking a connection state?
A. Source IP
B. Sequence Number
C. Time-to-Live
D. Header Checksum
Answer: B
Explanation: The TCP sequence number is used to track
the state and order of packets in a TCP session, useful for
analyzing connection behavior.
24. A honeypot is best used for which
purpose?
A. Encrypting user credentials
B. Scanning networks
C. Luring attackers to monitor behavior
D. Blocking unauthorized emails
Answer: C
Explanation: Honeypots are decoy systems designed to
lure attackers so their behavior can be observed and
analyzed.
25. What is exfiltration in the context of
cybersecurity?
A. Breaking into a network
B. Moving laterally within a network
C. Extracting sensitive data from the network
D. Installing malware on a server
Answer: C
Explanation: Exfiltration refers to the unauthorized transfer
of data from a computer or network.
26. What type of file is commonly used in
phishing attacks?
A. .exe
B. .dll
C. .doc or .pdf
D. .tmp
Answer: C
Explanation: Malicious macros or scripts are often
embedded in Word or PDF documents used in phishing
emails.
27. What does an attacker aim to achieve
with privilege escalation?
A. Reduce user access
B. Gain unauthorized elevated access
C. Disrupt hardware
D. Delete DNS records
Answer: B
Explanation: Privilege escalation involves gaining higher
access rights than intended, such as moving from a user
account to admin.
28. Which framework helps organizations
respond to and recover from cybersecurity
incidents?
A. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
B. TCP/IP Model
C. OSI Model
D. ITIL
Answer: A
Explanation: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework provides
guidelines for identifying, protecting, detecting, responding
to, and recovering from cyber threats.
29. What is a common indication of a botnet
infection?
A. Frequent password reset requests
B. High CPU usage during idle periods
C. Missing application updates
D. Disabled screensaver
Answer: B
Explanation: Botnets often use the host’s resources in the
background, leading to unusual system activity like high CPU
usage.
30. What is the most appropriate action
when a phishing attempt is discovered in the
organization?
A. Notify legal counsel
B. Delete the email
C. Report and quarantine the email for analysis
D. Reboot the email server
Answer: C
Explanation: Reporting and quarantining allows SOC
analysts to study the phishing attempt, create signatures,
and warn others.
