CLAT PG 2026 – Mini Mock Test (30 Marks)
Time: 25 minutes | 1 mark each | -0.25 for wrong answers
1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with “Abolition of Untouchability”? a) Article 14 b)
Article 15(2) c) Article 17 d) Article 21
2. The doctrine of “Basic Structure” was first propounded in: a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) c) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975) d) Minerva
Mills v. Union of India (1980)
3. Which of the following is NOT a ground for restriction on the Freedom of Speech under Article
19(2)? a) Public Order b) Contempt of Court c) Sedition d) Tax Evasion
4. The recent Shiv Sena split verdict (2023) was related to: a) Anti-defection law under the Tenth
Schedule b) Disqualification of Members under Article 102 c) Power of Governor under Article 356
d) President’s Rule in Maharashtra
5. In Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court declared: a) Right to Education as
Fundamental Right b) Right to Privacy as Fundamental Right c) Right to Internet as Fundamental
Right d) Right to Die with dignity as Fundamental Right
6. Who propounded the “Pure Theory of Law”? a) H.L.A. Hart b) Hans Kelsen c) John Austin d)
Salmond
7. The concept of “Rule of Recognition” is associated with: a) Hans Kelsen b) H.L.A. Hart c) Ronald
Dworkin d) Roscoe Pound
8. Which theory holds that “Law is the command of the sovereign”? a) Historical School b)
Positivism c) Realism d) Sociological School
9. “Ubi jus ibi remedium” means: a) Where there is a will, there is a way b) Where there is a wrong,
there is a remedy c) Where there is a remedy, there is a wrong d) Law is supreme
10. Which jurist is associated with the concept of “Living Law”? a) Eugen Ehrlich b) Bentham c)
Savigny d) Kelsen
11. Section 300 IPC defines: a) Culpable homicide b) Murder c) Attempt to murder d) Death penalty
12. The defence of “unsoundness of mind” is provided under: a) Section 80 IPC b) Section 84 IPC
c) Section 86 IPC d) Section 90 IPC
13. The maxim “Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means: a) The act itself is punishable b) An
act does not make one guilty unless the mind is also guilty c) Ignorance of law is no excuse d)
Prevention is better than cure
14. The punishment for attempt to commit suicide is provided under: a) Section 306 IPC b) Section
309 IPC c) Section 304 IPC d) Section 302 IPC
15. Which case decriminalised Section 377 IPC (consensual same-sex relations)? a) Naz
Foundation v. NCT of Delhi b) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation c) Navtej Singh Johar v.
Union of India d) Shakti Vahini v. Union of India
16. An agreement without consideration is void, unless it is: a) In writing b) Registered c) Made out
of natural love and affection between parties in near relation d) Approved by court
17. Which Section of the Indian Contract Act defines “Contract”? a) Section 2(a) b) Section 2(b) c)
Section 2(h) d) Section 10
18. Which is NOT a valid contract? a) Contract with minor b) Contract with sound mind person c)
Contract for lawful consideration d) Contract made in free consent
19. Quasi-contracts are provided under Sections: a) 68–72 b) 10–15 c) 37–40 d) 124–129
20. “Offer” under Indian Contract Act is defined in: a) Section 2(a) b) Section 2(b) c) Section 2(d) d)
Section 2(h)
21. The Sedition provision (Section 124A IPC) was recently put under suspension by: a) Parliament
b) Supreme Court order c) Law Commission recommendation d) President of India
22. The Vishaka Guidelines are related to: a) Child Labour b) Prevention of Sexual Harassment at
Workplace c) Environmental Protection d) Protection of Whistleblowers
23. Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy? a) Right to form associations b)
Promotion of international peace and security c) Protection of life and personal liberty d) Equality
before law
24. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with division of powers between Union and States? a)
Sixth Schedule b) Seventh Schedule c) Ninth Schedule d) Eleventh Schedule
25. The Indra Sawhney case (1992) is primarily related to: a) Judicial review b) Mandal Commission
& OBC reservations c) Basic Structure Doctrine d) Emergency powers
26. Assertion (A): Article 368 gives Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. Reason (R):
This power is unlimited and cannot be questioned by courts. a) Both A and R are true, R is the
correct explanation b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation c) A is true, R is false
d) A is false, R is true
27. Assertion (A): A minor’s contract is void ab initio. Reason (R): A minor is incompetent to
contract under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act. a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
explanation b) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation c) A is true, R is false d) A is
false, R is true
28. Assertion (A): Mens rea is essential for all criminal offences. Reason (R): Law always punishes
only morally blameworthy acts. a) Both A and R are true, R is correct explanation b) Both A and R
are true, R is not correct explanation c) A is true, R is false d) A is false, R is true
29. Assertion (A): The Constitution provides for separation of powers. Reason (R): Legislature,
Executive, and Judiciary are strictly separated in India. a) Both A and R are true, R is correct
explanation b) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation c) A is true, R is false d) A is
false, R is true
30. Assertion (A): Quasi-contracts are based on the principle of unjust enrichment. Reason (R): No
person should be allowed to enrich himself at the expense of another. a) Both A and R are true, R is
correct explanation b) Both A and R are true, R is not correct explanation c) A is true, R is false d) A
is false, R is true
