10/08/2025 Code - A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300

MM : 720 ITS-10 Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Work Energy and Power
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
CHEMISTRY:
Organic Chemistry : Some Basic Principles and Techniques
Hydrocarbons
BOTANY:
Cell Cycle and Cell Division
ZOOLOGY:
Chemical Coordination and Integration
Locomotion and Movement
Excretory Products and their Elimination

PHYSICS

1. 3. Momentum of a particle is increased by 60%. The

→
x
ni percentage increase in its kinetic energy is
If two vectors are given as ˆ ˆ ˆ
a = i – j + 2k and
→
b
ˆ
= î + 2 ĵ + k , the unit vector perpendicular to both
eo (1) 120%
→
a and
→
b is P h (2) 156%
^ ^ ^ (3) 140%
(1) −5 i + j +3k

(4) 30%
√35

^ ^ ^

(2)
5 i + j −3k
4. A : Power developed in uniform circular motion is always
√35
zero.
^ ^ ^
R : Kinetic energy in uniform circular motion is variable.
(3)
3 i − j −3k

√19 Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
^ ^ ^

(4)
−3 i − j +3k

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

√19
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
2. A bullet of mass 0.04 kg travelling horizontally at 100 m/s
hits a stationary block of wood of mass 8 kg, passes (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
through it and emerges horizontally with a speed of 40 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
m/s. If the block is free to move on a smooth horizontal
plane. Find the speed with which it is moving after the
bullet has passed through it
(1) 40 cm/s
(2) 10 cm/s
(3) 20 cm/s
(4) 30 cm/s

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5. A circular ring is formed using two uniform semi-circular 9. The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is
rings of mass 3m and m having same radii as shown. The given by, U (x) =
a
−
b
, where a and b are positive
centre of mass of the system is
12 6
x x

constant and x is the distance between the atoms. The

atoms are at equilibrium, when x is equal to
−−
(1) 3 2a
√
b

−−
(2) 6
2a
√
b

−
−
a
(3) 6
√
b

−−
a
(4) 6
√
2b

(1)
6r
(− , 0)
π

10. A machine is delivering constant power to drive a body

(2) (−
4r
, 0)
along a straight line. What is the relation between the
distance travelled by the body against velocity?
π

(1)
2r
(3) (−
π
, 0) S
2
∝ v
3

(2) S ∝ v
3

(4)
r
(− , 0)
π

(3) S ∝ v
2

6. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating

about its axis with an angular speed ω. Two particles (4) S
2
∝ v

having mass m each are now gently attached at

diametrically opposite points. The angular speed of the 11. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 4M and radii R and
ring will become 2R respectively, are released in free space with initial
separation between their centres equal to 13R. If they
(1)
ωM

M +m attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the

distance covered by the centre of heavier body before
(2) ωM

M +2m
collision is
(1) 8R
x
ni (2) 2R
ω(M +2m)
(3) M +2m

eo
(4) ω(M +2m)

M
P h (3)
52

5
R

7. A hollow sphere rolling down an inclined plane of vertical (4) 13

R
5
height m from rest without slipping. The speed of
25

sphere at the bottom of inclined plane is 12. A metal bar 100 cm long and 6 kg in mass supported on
two knife-edges placed 15 cm from each end. A 4 kg load
(1) 10 m/s is suspended at 40 cm from one end. The reaction on the
−− knife-edge close to the 4 kg load is (Assume the bar to be
(2) √30 m/s
of uniform cross section and homogeneous)
(3) 5 m/s (1) 55.7 N
–
(4) √6 m/s (2) 37.3 N
8. A solid sphere is rolling down an inclined plane of (3) 40 N
inclination 30° and of height 20 m without slipping. The
acceleration of centre of mass of the sphere is (4) 70 N

(1) g 13. The force (F) acting on the body moving in a straight line
depend on its position x as F = 5x3 (where F is in newton
(2) 5g

and x is in meter). The work required to move the body

2

from x = 2 m to 3 m is
(3)
5g

14 (1) 30.5 J

(4) 5g
(2) 81.25 J
3

(3) 61.25 J
(4) 162.5 J

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14. A ball is dropped from height 30 m. If the coefficient of 18. The moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder of mass
restitution between the ball and the ground is 0.5, then M, radius R and length L about an axis passing its centre
the total distance travelled by the ball before coming to and perpendicular to its length is
rest is 2 2

(1) MR
+
ML

(1) 30 m 4 3

(2) 20 m
2

(2)
2
MR ML
+
2 12

(3) 50 m 2

(3)
2
MR ML
+
(4) 60 m 4 12

15. A bomb travelling in a parabolic path under the effect of (4) MR

2
+
ML

12

gravity explodes in mid air. The centre of mass of

fragments will 19. Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each-
other under a mutual force of attraction at the instant
(1) Move vertically upwards then vertically downwards when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v. The
(2) Move vertically downwards speed of centre of mass of the system at that moment will
be
(3) Move on irregular path
(1) Zero
Move in the same parabolic path as the unexploded
(4) (2) v
bomb would have travelled

16. A light particle moving with a speed 10 m/s collides (3) 1.5v
elastically with a very heavy body moving with a speed 5 (4) 3v
m/s as shown in the figure. The speed of the particle after
collision will be 20. A boy of mass 30 kg is standing at one end on a
stationary boat over a lake. The boat has a mass 70 kg
and length 10 m. Now the boy walked to the other end of
the boat. Relative to the ground

(1) Boy has moved by a distance

40
m
7

(2) Boy has moved by a distance 30

m
(1) 5 m/s
7

(2) 10 m/s i x(3) Boat has moved by a distance 7 m

n (4) Boat has moved by a distance 3 m
(3) 15 m/s
h eo21. A ball of mass m is thrown with initial speed u at an angle
(4) Zero P θ with horizontal from a smooth horizontal surface. If the
17. Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg is shown in coefficient of restitution is e, then vertical component of
the figure. The net work done by all the forces on the velocity after 1st collision is
particle between time t = 2 s and t = 10 s is
(1) usinθ
(2) eucosθ

(3) e2usinθ

(4) eusinθ

(1) 3200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 1600 J
(4) 3600 J

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22. −
−−
gR 25. If all the collisions are perfectly elastic, the speed of block
A particle is given a horizontal velocity √
4
at the C after all the collisions is (If all the surface are
topmost point of a fixed smooth sphere of radius R, as frictionless)
shown in figure.

(1) 5 m/s
The angle θ with the upward vertical, which radius vector (2) 16
m/s
of particle makes, when particle loses the contact with the 3

sphere is given by m/s

(3) 13

(1) θ = cos
−1
(
3
)
5
(4) 9

7
m/s

(2) θ = cos
−1
(
4

5
) 26. A : In elastic collision, coefficient of restitution is one.
R : In elastic collision, magnitude of velocity of separation
before and after collision is unequal.
(3) θ = cos
−1
(
3

4
)

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is

(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) θ = sin
−1
(
3

4
)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is

(2)
23. A : Work done by static friction may be negative, positive not the correct explanation of the assertion
or zero. (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
R : The coefficient of static friction in general is larger than
coefficient of kinetic friction. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

(1) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 27. ∣→ →∣ → → ∣→ →∣

If ∣A × B ∣ =
1
A . B , then the value of ∣A − B ∣ is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is ∣ ∣ √3 ∣ ∣
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) (A
2
+B
2
− AB)
1
/2
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is n ix
(4) o (2) 1
/2

he
2 2 AB

the correct explanation of the assertion (A +B −

√3
)

24. A block ‘A’ of mass 1 kg is projected towards block ‘B’ of P (3) 2 2 – /2

1

same mass. Block B is connected to a spring of force (A +B − AB√3)

constant 100 N/m as shown in the figure. The maximum

(4) – 1

compression in the spring will be (A

2
+B
2
+ AB√3)
/2

28. Which among the following remains conserved in all

types of collisions?
(1) Kinetic energy of system
(2) Potential energy of system
(1) 1 m
(3) Linear momentum of system
(2) 2 m
1
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(3) √2
m

29. A fan is rotating with a speed of 360 rev/minute. It comes

(4) –
√2 m to rest in 6 s, on switching off the switch. The number of
revolutions made by it before coming to rest is
(1) 9
(2) 27
(3) 18
(4) 36

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30. Four particles, each of mass ‘m’ are situated at the 34. From a water fall, water is pouring down at the rate of 100
vertices of a square ABCD of side ‘a’ as shown in the litre per second on the blades of the turbine. If the height
figure. The moment of inertia of the system about line BD of the fall be 25 m, the power delivered to the turbine is
will be
(1) 50 kW
(2) 25 kW
(3) 100 kW
(4) 105 kW

35. If net external force acting on the system is zero then

Velocity of the individual particle of the system will
(1) ma2 (1)
remain constant
2

(2) ma
Velocity of the center of mass of the system will remain
2 (2)
constant
(3)
2
ma

Velocity of the center of mass of the system will be

(3)
4

zero
(4) 2ma2
Velocity of the individual particle of the system will be
(4)
31. A : If polar ice melts, days may become longer zero
R : Increased moments of inertia will decrease angular
velocity according to conservation of angular momentum, 36. The velocity of a body of mass m revolving in a vertical
thereby increasing period of rotation. circle of radius R at the lowest point 2√− −−−
2gR . The

minimum tension in the string will be

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion (1) mg
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (2) Zero
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 3mg
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) 2mg
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
37. The linear density of a rod of length 2 m varies as λ = (2 +
32. Torque acting on rod about the axis, as shown, is 3x) kg/m, where x is distance from end A. The distance of
i x
center of mass from the end B will be
o n
h e
P (1) 1.2 m
(2) 0.8 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 1.6 m
(1) 5 N m
38. →

(2) 10 N m When a force F

ˆ ˆ
= (6 i − 2 j ) N displaces a particle by
– →
(3) 5√3N m
S
ˆ ˆ
= (2 i + 3 j ) m, then average power is 0.4 W. The time
(4) –
10√3N m
of action of force is
33. → (1) 10 s
A force F = (10 + 10y)ˆj acts on a particle moving in y
direction, where F is in N and y in metre. The work done (2) 20 s
by this force to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 2 m is (3) 30 s
(1) 10 J (4) 15 s
(2) 20 J
39. A body of mass 2 kg, is acted upon by a force which
(3) 30 J causes a displacement s given by the relation
where t is in second and s is in metre. Work done
1 3

(4) 40 J s =
3
t ,

by the force in first two second is

(1) 12 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 32 J

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40. A uniform T shaped object made of two thin rods of same 43. A : If momentum of system is zero then its kinetic energy
material, with dimensions as shown in the figure, lies on a must be zero.
smooth horizontal table. A force F is applied to point P on R : Kinetic energy is vector quantity and momentum is
the object such that it moves only translationally. The scalar.
distance of point P from point C is
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

44. A bat used in sports of cricket is cut at the location of its

centre of mass as shown in the figure.
(1) I

(2) I

(3)
I

(4) I

41. The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder about an axis

2

is . The value of radius of gyration of the cylinder

5M R

about this axis will be (M and R are mass and radius of

cylinder)
−
− (1) The masses of both the pieces will be same
(1) √
5

2
R

(2) Mass of part II would be larger

5
(2) √2
R (3) Mass of part I would be larger

3
(4) Mass of part I would be thrice the mass of part II
(3) √2
R

i x
45. A : Centre of mass of an object may lie outside the body.
o n R : Torque is equal to rate of change of angular
e
R
(4) √2

P h momentum.
42. The instantaneous power of a body rotating with angular Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
velocity 30 rad/s, when an external torque of 10 N m is the correct explanation of the assertion
applied on it in the direction of angular velocity, is
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(1) 3000 W not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) 300 W (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) 1500 W (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) 150 W

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CHEMISTRY

46. A : Benzylamine is more basic than aniline. 51. Order of stability of carbocations is
R : pKa of Benzylamine is less than that of aniline. I.

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is

(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
II.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
47. Number of cyclic ethers excluding stereoisomers for
molecular formula C4H8O is III.
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6 IV.

48. Total number of sp hybridised atoms present in the given

compound is
CH2 = CH – C ≡ C — CN

(1) 2
V.
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6
i x
49. Group having highest –I effect in the following is o n
h e (1) V < IV < I < III < II
(1) –NO2 P (2) V < I < II < IV < III
(2) –CN
(3) I < IV < V < II < III
(3) –OH
(4) II < I < V < IV < III
(4) –F
52. In qualitative estimation of P, following reaction takes
50. The most stable free radical among the following is place.
H3PO4 + (NH4)2MoO4 + HNO3 →
(1)
The products formed are
(1) (NH4)2SO4 + other products
(2)
(2) NH4Cl + other products
(3) (3) (NH4)3PO4 + other products

(4) (NH4)3PO4. 12MoO3 + other products

(4)
53. A : Glycerol is purified by distillation under reduced
pressure.
R : Distillation under reduced pressure is used to purify
low boiling liquids, which decompose when get
condensed.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

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54. In Carius method, 0.18 gram of an organic compound 58. Which of the following carbocation has least tendency for
gave 0.11 gram of AgBr. The percentage of Br in the ring expansion?
compound is
(1) 34%
(2) 39%
(1)
(3) 26%
(4) 30%

55. Which of the following is a non-benzenoid compound?

(1) Benzene
(2) Tropone (2)
(3) Naphthalene
(4) meta-nitroaniline
56. In which of the given compounds, all inductive effect,
electromeric effect, resonance effect and
hyperconjugation is present? (3)

(1) CH3–CH2–CHO

(2) CH3–CO–CH2–CH = CH2

(4)
(3)

59. A : In electrophilic addition reaction of alkene,

electromeric effect take place.
(4) R : Electromeric effect is a temporary effect.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
57. Aniline is separated by which technique from aniline –
n ix Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
water mixture?
eo (2) not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Sublimation P h (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) Steam distillation (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) Crystallisation
60. Which among the given molecules exhibit tautomerism?
(4) Chromatography

(1) I only
(2) I and III only
(3) III only
(4) I, II and III
61. 0.20 g of an organic substance was heated in Carius tube
and the sulphuric acid formed was precipitated as BaSO4
with BaCl2. The weight of the dry BaSO4 was 0.466 g.
The percentage of sulphur in the given compound is
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

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62. A : Free radicals are paramagnetic in nature. 67. Total number of ethers possible with formula C4H10O are
R : Free radicals possess unpaired electron and are
formed by homolytic fission. (1) 2

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (2) 3
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion (3) 5
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (4) 7
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
68. A : In the Lassaigne's test for nitrogen in an organic
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements R : Ferriferrocyanide is Prussian blue in colour.

63. The intermediate formed in the electrophilic addition of Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
HBr to propene is a the correct explanation of the assertion

(1) Carbocation Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Carbanion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Carbene
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Free radical
69. Systematic (IUPAC) name of NH2 – CHO is
64. For the following reactions:
(1) Amino methanal
(2) Methanamide
(3) Formyl amine
(4) Amino formaldehyde
70. Most effective hyperconjugation effect is observed in

(1)
x
Which of the following statements is correct?
o ni
(a) and (c) are addition reactions and (b) is h e
(1)
elimination reaction P
(a) is addition (b) is elimination and (c) is substitution
(2)
reaction (2)
(3) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions
(4) (a) is addition, (b) and (c) are elimination reactions

65. Among the following, choose a neutral nucleophile

(1) –OH

(2) CN–
(3)
(3) BF3

(4) H2O

66. A : – NHCOCH3 is a deactivating group when present at

benzene ring for electrophilic substitution.
R : – NHCOCH3 reduces the electron density at o and p
positions and increases at meta position.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (4)
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

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71. Which of the following species does not behave as a 78. ∙ +

nucleophile? A : Both CH3 and CH3 are isostructural.

are sp3 hybrid with pyramidal shape.

∙ +

(1) C2H4 R: CH3 and CH3

(2) NH3 Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) B2H6 Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Cl–
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
72. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present
in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 1 g of a sample (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
is neutralized by 15 mL of 1M H2SO4. The percentage of
79. Relationship between following two compounds is
nitrogen in the given soil sample is
(1) 18%
(2) 29%
(3) 42%
(1) Position isomers
(4) 56%
(2) Chain isomers
73. What will be the IUPAC name of alkene `A' which on
ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentan-3-one? (3) Identical

(1) 3-Ethylpent-3-ene (4) Metamers

(2) 3-Ethylpent-2-ene 80. Violet colour compound formed during detection of

sulphur in Lassaigne's test is
(3) 3-Ethylpent-1-ene
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]
(4) 3-Methylhex-2-ene
(2) Na2 [Fe(CN)5NOS]
74. Appearance of blood red colour in Lassaigne’s test
shows the presence of (3) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(1) Only nitrogen
(4) Na4 [Fe(CN)6]
(2) Only sulphur
n
81.
ixIn thiophene, the positions at which electron density will
(3) Both nitrogen and sulphur eo be maximum are
(4) Halogen Ph
75. Most stable carbanion is
(1) HC ≡ C
Θ

(1) 2, 3
(2) Θ

CH3 − CH2 (2) 3, 4

(3) 2, 5
(3) Θ

CH2 = CH − CH2
(4) 2, 4
(4) Θ
CH3
82. C – N bond length in following compounds will follow the
76. During Lassaigne's test for halogens, sodium extract is order
boiled with HNO3 as (i) CH3CH2 – NH2
(ii) CH2 = CH – NH2
(1) Silver halides are soluble in HNO3
Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3 (if
(2)
present) (iii)
(3) HNO3 forms a complex with organic compound (1) (i) > (iii) > (ii)

(4) HNO3 dissolves organic compound (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) (iii) > (ii) < (i)
77. How many alcohols of the formula C5H12O are possible?
(consider only structural isomers) (4) (ii) > (i) > (iii)

(1) 7 83. Stability of trimethyl carbocation can be best explained by

(2) 8 (1) Mesomeric effect
(3) 5 (2) Inductive effect
(4) 6 (3) Hyperconjugation effect
(4) Both (2) and (3)
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84. 88. Maximum number of isomers produced by

monochlorination of n-hexane (excluding stereoisomers)
is
(1) 3
The correct IUPAC name of compound is
(2) 4
(1) Cyclohex-5-ene-1,3-diol
(3) 5
(2) Cyclohex-4-ene-1,3-diol
(4) 6
(3) Cyclohex-2-ene-1,5-diol
(4) Cyclohex-3-ene-1,5-diol 89. Which of the following organic compound is purified by
vacuum distillation?
85. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen, 0.1 g of an (1) Glycerol
organic compound gave 30 mL of nitrogen collected at
300 K temperature and 715 mm Hg pressure. The (2) Chloroform
percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm Hg) (3) Aniline

(1) 19.7% (4) All of these

(2) 49.1% 90. Most stable carbocation is

(3) 28.2%
(4) 31.4%
86. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for the estimation of (1)
nitrogen in
(1) Pyridine
(2) Nitro compounds
(3) Azo compounds
(4) All of these
(2)
87. In which of the following compounds, C-Br bond
ionization will give most stable carbonium ion? i x
(1) (CH3)3C – Br o n
h e
P
(2)
(3)
(3)

(4)

(4)

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ITS-10

BOTANY

91. 95. If a diploid plant cell carries 16 chromosomes. What will

be the number of tetrads during its pachytene stage?
(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 4
96. Anaphase I of meiosis is different from anaphase of
mitosis, as it shows
The event which is associated with the stage represented (1) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
in the above diagram is
Separation of homologous chromosomes towards the
(2)
(1) Condensation of chromatin into chromosome opposite poles
(2) Formation of ER and Golgi apparatus Separation of sister chromatids towards the opposite
(3)
poles
(3) Alignment of chromosome at the equator
Attachment of spindle fibres from opposite poles to the
(4) Splitting of centromere and separation of chromatids. (4)
kinetochores of sister chromatids
92. Match the given columns and choose the correct option.
97. A cell in quiescent stage is
Column I Column II
(1) Non-proliferating
Formation of recombination (2) Metabolically inactive
a. Zygotene (i)
nodule
(3) Actively dividing
Pairing of homologous
b. Diakinesis (ii) (4) A meristematic cell in plants
chromosomes
c. Pachytene (iii) Desynapsis
n ix
98. Chromosomes appear like a 'ball of wool' in

d. Diplotene (iv) Terminalisation of chiasmata

eo (1) Prophase
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) P h (2) Telophase
(3) Anaphase
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Metaphase
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
99. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
and Reason (R).
93. Bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads in Assertion (A): Crossing over results into the variations
and genetic recombinations.
(1) Leptotene Reason (R): Crossing over occurs between the non-
sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(2) Zygotene
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(3) Diplotene option
(4) Pachytene Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
94. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct
sequence: Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
(a) Formation of X-shaped structures. explanation
(b) Sister chromatids remain associated at their
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
centromeres.
(c) Formation of dyad of cells. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(d) Chromosomes start pairing together.
[Link] interphase
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(1) Actual division of cell occurs
(2) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(2) Chromosome number reduces to half
(3) (a), (d), (b), (c)
(3) DNA content becomes double
(4) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(4) Condensation of chromatin occurs

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ITS-10

[Link] the meiotic II products have 10 pg of DNA, what would [Link] is a gap phase between meiosis-I and
be the content of DNA in its somatic cell at G2 phase? meiosis-II in which

(1) 10 (1) DNA replication occurs

(2) 20 Chromosomes are elongated and form chromatin

(2)
fibres
(3) 40
(3) Centrioles pair replicate in animal cell
(4) 80
(4) RNA and proteins are never synthesised
102.G1 phase of cell cycle does not synthesise
[Link] chromosomes separate from each other
(1) Nucleotides during
(2) Adenosine triphosphates (1) Metaphase I
(3) Tubulin proteins (2) Metaphase II
(4) Amino acids (3) Anaphase I

[Link] stage is characterised by (4) Prophase I

(a) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
[Link] the incorrect match from the following w.r.t.
(b) Terminalisation of chiasmata.
different phases of cells.
(c) Complete disappearance of nucleolus.
(d) Appearance of chiasmata. (1) S phase – Duplication of centriole
(e) Disintegration of nuclear envelope.
Choose the correct option. (2) G0 phase – Cell can never return to the cell cycle
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (3) G2 phase – DNA synthesis stops
(2) (c), (d) & (e) G1 phase – Interval between mitosis and DNA
(4)
(3) (a) & (d) synthesis phase

(4) All except (a) [Link] all of the given phases, amount of DNA in a cell is
double but the chromosome number is same, except
[Link] the incorrect one from the following
(1) Post mitotic gap phase
(1) Interphase is also called as resting phase

(2)
M phase constitutes more than 95% duration of the
n ix(2) Synthesis phase
cell cycle
eo (3) Pre mitotic gap phase
(3) Most of the organelles duplication occurs in G1 phase P h (4) Prophase

(4) DNA replication takes place in synthesis phase 111. Read the following statements and state True (T) or False
(F).
105.A student observed 14 chromosomes in every cells of a A. Decision of a cell to divide occurs in G1 phase.
diploid plant. If this plant forms haploid gametes, then B. G1 to S transition is carried out by maturation
during zygotene stage of meiosis I, how many bivalents
promoting factor formed by cdc 2 kinase.
will be seen by that student?
C. Maximum cytoplasmic growth occurs in G2 phase.
(1) 7 D. Cyclins are proteins that activate protein kinases to
regulate prokaryotic cell cycle.
(2) 14
A B C D
(3) 21
(1) T T T F
(4) 28 (2) T F T' T
[Link] of the following are the important events of telophase, (3) F T F T
except (4) T F T F
(1) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (1) (1)
Nuclear envelope assembles around the (2) (2)
(2)
chromosome clusters
(3) (3)
(3) Chromosomes cluster at the opposite spindle poles
(4) (4)
Chromosomes get decondensed and maintain their
(4)
identity

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ITS-10

112.A : The golgi apparatus helps in the formation of plasma [Link] the following figure. Select the correct option
membrane during cytokinesis. stating which one is True (T) and which one is False (F)
R : Mitochondrion is the site of both aerobic and w.r.t. labels A – F.
anaerobic respiration.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
113.A stage of meiosis is shown in the diagram. Identify the
stage and its appropriate characteristic?

A. It is the extension of cell wall and is protective in

nature.
B. They are connected to each other by linkers made up
of nexin protein.
C. Interdoublet-bridge connects two peripheral
microtubule doublets.
D. Central doublet fibrils are connected by interdoublet
bridge.
Anaphase of mitosis – Chromatids move towards the E. It connects central sheath to each peripheral triplet of
(1)
opposite pole
microtubules.
Anaphase I of meiosis – Chromosomes start moving F. It encloses a pair of tubules in the centre that are
(2) connected to each other by a bridge.
away
A B C D E F
Metaphase of mitosis – All the chromosomes lie at the
(3) (1) T F T T T T
equator
(2) F T T F F T
Metaphase I of meiosis – The bivalent chromosomes
(4) (3) T F F T F F
align on the equatorial plate.
i x(4) F T F F F T
[Link] many generations are required to produce 64 cells
from a meristematic cell through mitotic division? o n
h e (1) (1)
(1) 63 P (2) (2)
(2) 6 (3) (3)
(3) 7 (4) (4)
(4) 32 [Link] is characterized by the all of the following
[Link] does not occur in except

(1) Cells of lateral meristem (1) Condensation of chromosomes is initiated

(2) Morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied
(2) A fertilised egg
(3) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
(3) Bacterial cell
(4) Cells of cambium Chromosomes can be observed clearly under the
(4)
microscope

[Link] of prophase I is recognized by

Exchange of genetic material between two
(1)
homologous chromosomes
(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Splitting of centromere
(4) Disappearance of nuclear membrane

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ITS-10

[Link] the amount of DNA and number of chromosomes in an [Link] exchange of segments between non-sister
egg cell are 10 pg and 8 respectively, then, what was the chromatids of homologous chromosomes is termed as
amount of DNA and number of chromosomes
respectively in its megaspore mother cell at prophase I? (1) Translocation
(2) Crossing over
(1) 40 pg and 16
(3) Linkage
(2) 20 pg and 32
(3) 40 pg and 32 (4) Transformation

(4) 20 pg and 16 [Link] cells of adult animals like nerve cells

120.A cell of onion root tip has 16 chromosomes and 80 pg (1) Are metabolically inactive
DNA in G1 phase. Choose the correct option regarding (2) Show continuous proliferation
the amount of DNA and chromosomes in S and G2
(3) Enter the quiescent stage
phase.
(4) Replicate its DNA during M-phase
S phase G2 phase
[Link] most active stage of cell cycle includes all of the
(1) 32 80 pg DNA
following phases, except
Chromosomes
(2) 16 8 (1) M-phase
Chromosomes Chromosomes (2) S-phase
(3) 80 pg DNA 80 pg DNA (3) G1-phase
(4) 160 pg DNA 16
Chromosomes (4) G2-phase

(1) (1) 127.A bacterium divides amitotically in 20 minutes. A

suspension culture of these bacteria containing 103
(2) (2)
cells/ml is grown for 160 minutes. Find out cell
(3) (3) concentration per ml in 160 minutes.
(4) (4) (1) 8 × 103
[Link]-autonomous double membrane bound cell (2) 10768
x
ni
organelles duplicate during

(1) G1 phase o (3) 256 × 103

(2) S phase Phe (4) 160 × 103

(3) G2 phase [Link] many meiotic divisions are required to produce 160
angiospermic seeds?
(4) M phase
(1) 40
[Link] a cell, all the cell organelles became double but the
condensation of chromatin has stalled. In this cell, which (2) 160
check point is activated?
(3) 80
(1) S/G2 (4) 200
(2) G2/M [Link] many bivalents are possible when a diploid cell with
18 chromosomes is undergoing meiosis?
(3) Both G1­/S and S/G2
(1) 18
(4) G1/S
(2) 9
[Link] a cell (2n = 4) undergoes mitosis, how many daughter
chromosomes will be observed once the sister (3) 6
chromatids separate to move towards opposite poles? (4) 36
(1) Four [Link] of the given is not observed during cell division in
(2) Two a meristematic cell?

(3) Eight (1) Spindle fibres

(4) Six (2) Decodensation of chromosomes

(3) Bivalent
(4) Cell plate

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ITS-10

131.A meiocyte had 15 bivalents at prophase I. How many [Link] phenomenon absent in an animal cell during
chromosomes and chromatids respectively will be there interkinesis phase is
in each daughter cell after completion of meiosis?
(1) RNA synthesis
(1) 15, 30
(2) Replication of DNA
(2) 15, 15
(3) Protein synthesis
(3) 30, 15
(4) Centriole duplication
(4) 30, 30
[Link] which of the following stages, chromosomes appear
[Link] is/are true about diakinesis of prophase-I? like a ball of wool?
a. It represents transition to metaphase-I
b It is final stage of prophase-I (1) Metaphase
c. Chiasmata formation occurs (2) Anaphase
d. Nucleolus reappear
(3) Prophase
(1) Only b
(4) Telophase
(2) Only a and b
[Link] are mitogens, except
(3) Only b and c
(1) Gibberellin
(4) All a, b, c and d
(2) Insulin
(3) Auxin
(4) Colchicine

i x
o n
h e
P

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ITS-10

ZOOLOGY

136.A posterior pituitary hormone which prevents wide swings [Link] ___ percent of the body weight of a healthy human
in water balance helping to avoid dehydration or water adult is contributed by muscles.
overload is Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(1) Vasopressin (1) 40-50
(2) Oxytocin (2) 30-40
(3) Aldosterone (3) 60-70
(4) Creatinine (4) 50-90
[Link] are not present in [Link] the event responsible for micturition in man.
(1) Planaria (1) Contraction of external urethral sphincter
(2) Amphioxus (2) Relaxation of involuntary sphincter
(3) Prawn (3) Contraction of internal urethral sphincter
(4) Rotifers (4) Contraction of penile sphincters

[Link] relaxed state in a muscle fibre associated with 144.A single, U-shaped bone present at the base of the
skeleton, the central part of thick filaments, not buccal cavity is
overlapped by thin filaments is called
(1) Hyoid
(1) A band
(2) Mandible
(2) Sarcomere
(3) Sphenoid
(3) ‘H’ zone
(4) Occipital
(4) Anisotropic zone
[Link] (A): Parathyroid hormone is a hypercalcemic
139.A : Isotonic contraction is an increase in the tension in the hormone.
muscle without a change in the length of muscle fibre.
i x
Reason (R): Hypoparathyroidism results into tetany.
R : Pushing a fixed object is an example of isotonic
contraction. o n In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

h e (1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion
P correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
[Link] the odd one w.r.t. Actin filaments i.e. thin
[Link] are particularly found in myofilaments.
(1) Glomerular capillaries (1) Found in both A and I-band of sarcomere.
(2) Neck region of nephron Consists of three proteins: actin, tropomyosin and
(2)
troponin.
(3) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
(3) Do not slide during muscle contraction.
(4) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
(4) Cross bridges are absent hence have smooth surface.
[Link] and glycosuria are the indicative of which
disease? [Link] muscle contraction, the energy released by
hydrolysis of ATP is utilised for
(1) Diabetes insipidus
(1) Unmasking of active sites for myosin
(2) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Binding of calcium with troponin-C
(3) Glomerulonephritis
(3) Formation of cross bridge between actin and myosin
(4) Cystitis
(4) Breaking of cross bridge between actin and myosin

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ITS-10

[Link] the incorrect statement 154.A genetic disorder in which progressive degeneration of
skeletal muscle occurs is
If stretch receptors in wall of urinary bladder are
(1)
removed, then filling of bladder does not occur (1) Gout
Dialysis involves selective diffusion of nitrogenous (2) Osteoporosis
(2)
wastes from blood to dialysate
(3) Muscular dystrophy
Immunosuppressants such as prednisolone and
(4) Myasthenia gravis
(3) cyclosporin are administered to prevent kidney
transplant rejection [Link] the incorrect match w.r.t. disorders of the excretory
Tubular secretion in PCT and DCT helps to maintain system.
(4)
ionic and acid base balance of body fluids (1) Uremia – Accumulation of uric acid in blood
[Link] the correct statement w.r.t human kidney. (2) Renal calculi – Crystallised salts of calcium oxalate
It is a retroperitoneal organ present in abdominal (3) Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of glomeruli
(1)
cavity
(4) Glycosuria – Glucose in urine
Right kidney is placed slightly higher in position than
(2) 156.A single, quick isolated contraction of a muscle fibre to a
left kidney
single stimulus of threshold value is called
It regulates the pH of blood by secretion of H+ and
(3) (1) Tetany
HCO3– from the filtrate
(2) Muscle twitch
Malpighian bodies of nephrons are always found in
(4) (3) Muscle fatigue
renal medulla
(4) Rigor mortis
[Link] out the correct option w.r.t. cervical vertebrae
A. The seventh cervical vertebra is ring like, lacks [Link] volume of blood filtered by kidneys per minute which
centrum and neural canal. constitutes roughly 20% of the blood pumped out by each
B. In all mammals, number of cervical vertebrae are ventricle of the heart in a minute is
seven.
C. In case of humans, first, second and seventh cervical (1) 625 – 650 mL
vertebrae are atypical. (2) 1100 – 1200 mL
D. In humans, the atlas rotates on the odontoid peg of the
axis.
i x(3) 1500 – 2000 mL
n (4) 500 – 650 mL
(1) A, C & D
(2) A, B & D h [Link] following statements A and B and choose the
P correct answer
(3) B, C & D Statement A : All voluntary muscles are striated but all
(4) C & D only striated muscles are not voluntary.
Statement B : All smooth muscles are involuntary but all
[Link] a person is suffering from water deficiency, maximum involuntary muscles are not smooth.
water reabsorption from filtrate occurs in
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Distal convoluted tubule
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Collecting duct
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule
[Link], is an age-related disease of skeletal
[Link] counter current mechanism to concentrate urine, NaCl system for which all the statements are incorrect except
is returned to interstitium by the one
(1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (1) It is characterised by deposition of uric acid in joints
(2) Descending limb of loop of Henle It is an autoimmune disorder characterised by
(2) degeneration of acetylcholine receptors over muscle
(3) Ascending portion of vasa recta
fibres, associated with bones
(4) Descending portion of vasa recta
It is characterised by micro architectural damage of
(3)
[Link] the resting state, a complex protein masks the active bones possibly due to deficiency of estrogen hormone
binding sites for myosin on actin filament. This protein is It is characterised by inflammation of synovial
(4)
(1) Myosin membrane in synovial joints

(2) Meromyosin
(3) Troponin
(4) HMM

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ITS-10

[Link] medullary interstitial fluid has a very high osmolarity [Link] the option which correctly represents the
which is maintained by sequence of steps involved in cross bridge formation
during muscle contraction.
Movement of urea from collecting duct into medullary a. Removal of ADP and Pi from head of myosin
(1)
interstitium
b. Breaking of cross bridge
Movement of NaCl from descending limb of Henle’s c. Formation of cross bridge
(2)
loop into medullary interstitium d. Sliding/rotation of head
e. New ATP binds
+ –
(3) Movement of K and Cl from PCT and DCT into peri- f. Hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and Pi
tubular capillaries
(1) f → c → d → a → e → b
(4) Uric acid and H+ present in interstitium
(2) e → c → d → a → b → f
[Link] column A with column B and select the correct (3) c → d → e → f → b → a
option.
(4) a → b → f → c → d → e
Column A Column B
167.A : Rigor mortis, a state of extreme muscle rigidity.
a. Uremia (i) Crystallised oxalate salts R : It is due to complete depletion ATP and
b. Renal calculi (ii) Vasodilator phosphocreatine.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
c. ANF (iii) Counter current mechanism (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
d. Vasa recta (iv) Accumulation of urea in blood Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
[Link] humans, a comparison of the volume of the glomerular
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) filtrate formed per day with that of the urine released per
162.A : Nearly, all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80% of day suggest that approximately X % of the filtrate is
electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by PCT. reabsorbed by the renal tubules. ¯Here
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
'X' is
R : PCT is lined by simple columnar brush bordered
(1) 99
epithelium. x
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is o ni (2) 39
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
h e (3) 19
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is P (4) 59
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
[Link] of the following is not a synovial joint?
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) Hinge joint
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) Pivot joint
[Link] the option that is not considered a part of renal
tubule? (3) Ball & socket joint

(1) Bowman's capsule (4) Fibrous joint

(2) Glomerulus [Link] that block angiotensin II production are widely

used to treat
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Hypotension
(4) Distal convoluted tubule
(2) Bradycardia
[Link] the mismatch w.r.t. number of bones in a human
(3) Hypertension
(1) Cranial bones - 8
(4) Cardiac arrest
(2) Facial bones - 14
[Link] urea levels will increase if there is insufficient
(3) Bones in axial skeleton - 80 filtration in
(4) Ear ossicles - 3 (1) Loop of Henle
[Link] part of JG nephrons which dips into the renal (2) Distal tubule
medulla is
(3) Bowman’s capsule
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) Collecting duct
(2) Glomerulus
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

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ITS-10

[Link] is an enzymatic hormone released by juxta- [Link] of the following option gives the correct
glomerular apparatus in response to categorisation according to the type of nitrogenous waste
they excrete out?
(1) Low osmolarity of blood
Uricotelic Ammonotelic Ureotelic
(2) Low blood pressure
(1) Marine fishes Land snails Insects
(3) High glomerular blood flow
(4) High blood volume Aquatic
(2) Reptiles Birds
amphibians
[Link] the incorrect statement w.r.t. sarcomere
(3) Frog Cockroach Pheretima
A-band is made up of both thick and thin filaments at
(1) Aquatic Many terrestrial
rest (4) Land snails
insects amphibians
(2) Muscle contraction causes shortening of sarcomere
Length of H-zone increases during contraction of (1) (1)
(3)
muscle (2) (2)
Overall length of thick and thin filaments remains (3) (3)
(4)
unchanged during contraction of muscle
(4) (4)
[Link] not associated with appendicular skeleton of man
is [Link] average amount of CO2 removed by lungs in an
adult human under normal physiological conditions is
(1) Fibula approximately
(2) Patella (1) 200 ml/sec
(3) Sternum (2) 200 ml/min
(4) Femur (3) 200 ml/hr
175.A : Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder in which a (4) 200 ml/day
protein dystrophin is not formed.
R : Dystrophin is a large rod like protein that connect thin [Link] the following, only limited movement is permitted
filaments to sarcolemma. by cartilaginous joint present at / between
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (1) Adjacent lumbar vertebrae
x
ni (2) Junction of carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is eo
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
P h (3) Atlanto-occipital joint
(4) Femur and acetabulum
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements [Link] the following values, calculate the net filtration
pressure and select the correct option
[Link] of ova through the female reproductive tract is GHP = 60 mm Hg, BCOP = 30 mm Hg,
facilitated by the CHP = 20 mm Hg
(1) Flagellar movement (1) 70 mm Hg
(2) Pseudopodial movement (2) 50 mm Hg
(3) Ciliary movement (3) 10 mm Hg
(4) Protoplasmic streaming (4) 110 mm Hg

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