27-07-2025

1001CMD303029250022 MD

PHYSICS

1) The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all
currents and a maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor

R, connected in series with the diode for obtaining maximum current

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The truth table for this given circuit is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of Iz ?

(1) 3.3 mA
(2) 5.5 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 7 mA

4) Assertion (A) : In a semiconductor the electrons in the conduction band have lesser energy than
those in the valence band.
Reason (R) : Donor energy Level is just above the valence band in a semiconductor.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is the not correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

5) If the ratio of the concentration of electron to that of holes in a semiconductor is , and the ratio

of current is , then what is the ratio of their drift velocities ?

(1) 1 : 1

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Find output wave form :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure with their wavelengths of transitions.

Then :

(1) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 2λ2

(2) λ3 > λ2, λ1 = 4λ2
(3) λ1 > λ2, λ2 = 2λ3
(4) λ2 > λ1, λ2 = 2λ3

8) When light source is placed at 1 m distant from photo electric cell, then value of stopping
potential is obtained 4 volt. If it is placed at 4 m distant, then value of stopping potential becomes-

(1) 2 volt
(2) 1 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 16 volt
9) A nucleus of originally at rest emits α-particle with speed v. What will be the recoil speed
of the daughter nucleus : -

(1) 4v/206
(2) 4v/214
(3) v/206
(4) v/214

10) What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the α–particle accelerated through a potential difference V?

(1)
Å

(2)
Å

(3)
Å

(4)
Å

11) When a single nuclei of 92U235 is fissioned, then 200 MeV energy is released. Number of fissions
that must occur per second to produce a power of 1 MW are

(1) 1.5 × 1010

(2) 3.1 × 108
(3) 1.5 × 1014
(4) 3.1 × 1016

12)

Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

i. Mass number changes p. β– decay

Atomic number increases

ii. q. γ decay
by one

Atomic number decreases

iii. r. β+ decay
by one

Neither mass number nor

iv. s. α decay
atomic number changes
Now, select the correct option from the codes given below :
(1) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
(2) i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s
(3) i-q, ii-p, iii-r, iv-s
(4) i-s, ii-p, iii-r, iv-q
13) A balloon is going vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. When it is 75 m above
the ground, a stone is gently released from it. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is (g
= 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 6 s

14) A body initially at rest, starts moving along x-axis in such a way so that its acceleration vs
displacement plot is as shown in figure. The maximum velocity of particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) None

15) A particle is projected from tower of height 100 m with speed 50 m/s at angle 37 degree from

vertical as shown in figure. Find time taken by it to reach on ground.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

16) A man walks in rain with a velocity of 5 kmh–1. The rain drops strike at him at an angle of 45°
with the horizontal. Velocity of rain if it is falling vertically downward -

(1) 5 kmh–1
(2) 4 kmh–1
(3) 3 kmh–1
(4) 1 kmh–1

17) A 48 m wide river is flowing with speed 3 m/s. A man can swim with speed 5 m/s in still water.
Find out time to cross the river from shorest path

(1) 16 s
(2) 12 s
(3) 10 s
(4) 6 s

18) Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction
every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h–1 in the direction A to B notices that a bus
goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite direction.
What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on
the road ?

(1) T = 9 min, Speed = 60 km/hr

(2) T = 12 min, Speed = 60 km/hr
(3) T = 9 min, Speed = 40 km/hr
(4) T = 12 min, Speed = 40 km/hr

19) Two identical blocks each of mass m are shown in figure. Force exerted by clamp on the pulley is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) An interstellar spacecraft, far from the influence of any stars or planets, is moving with an
acceleration under the influence of fusion rockets when the rocket engines malfunction and stop.
The spacecraft has a high speed at that time. It will

(1) immediately stop.

(2) begin slowing down, eventually coming to a rest
(3) keep moving at constant speed for a while, but then begin to slow down
(4) keep moving forever at the same speed

21) A 2kg toy car can moves along an x-axis. Graph shown force Fx, acting on the car which begins at
rest at time t = 0. The velocity of the particle at t = 10 s is :

(1) – m/s
(2) – 1.5 m/s
(3) 6.5 m/s
(4) 13 m/s

22) Find the force exerted by the block on the floor of lift as shown in figure.

(1) 100 N
(2) 115 N
(3) 105 N
(4) 135 N

23) Two forces and are acting upon a body of mass 2 kg. Find the force ,
which when acts on the body will make it stable.

5 +7
(1)

–5 – 7
(2)

–5 +7
(3)

5 –7
(4)
24) If the given system is in equilibrium; find T, T1 and T2 respectively.

(1) 50 N, 40 N, 30 N
(2) 30 N, 40 N, 50 N
(3) 50 N, 30 N, 40 N
(4) 25 N, 15 N, 10 N

25) Bullets of mass 50g are fired from a gun of mass 10 kg with velocity of 300 m/s. If 5 bullets are
fired per second then what force a person will have to apply on the gun so that it does not recoil:-

(1) 75 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 225 N
(4) 300 N

26) On a planet acceleration due to gravity is 4 m/s2 and a particle is projected from ground with
speed 50 m/s at an angle 53° from horizontal then find the time of flight and range on this planet.

(1) 8 sec, 240 m

(2) 20 sec, 240 m
(3) 8 sec, 600 m
(4) 20 sec, 600 m

27) A particle is projected from level ground. Its kinetic energy K changes due to gravity so that

.
The ratio of the range to the maximum height attained during its flight is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Assertion (A) : X-rays can deflect in electric field.

Reason (R) : X-ray is matter wave.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) An ac ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes
through the circuit, the ac ammeter reads 6 A. When another alternating current passes through
the circuit, the ac ammeter reads 8A. Then find the reading of this ammeter, if dc and ac flow
through the circuit simultaneously.

(1)
(2) 14 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 15 A

30) The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :-

(1)

(2) V0

(3)

(4)

31) For current I = 12 + 3 sin ωt + 4 cos ωt

Match column I with column II

Column-I Column-II
(A) Peak value of current (P) 16
Instantaneous value of
(B) (Q) 17
current at t = 0
(C) Effective value of current (R) 5

(D) Amplitude of current (S)

(T) 12
(1) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-T, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(4) A-R, B-T, C-T, D-R

32) The variation of the instantaneous current (I) and the instantaneous emf (E) in a circuit is as
shown in figure. Which of the following statements is correct :-

(1)
The voltage lags behind the current by phase.

(2)
The voltage leads the current by phase.
(3) The voltage and current are in phase
(4) The voltage leads the current by π.

33) Assertion (A) :- A thin aluminum disc, spinning freely about a central pivot, is quickly brought
to rest when placed between the poles of a strong U-shaped magnet.
Reason (R) :- A current induced in a disc rotating in a magnetic field produces a torque which tends
to oppose the disc's motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

34) A step-down transformer transforms 220 volt to 11 volt. If the currents in primary and secondary
coils are 5A and 90A respectively, efficiency of transformer is :-

(1) 70%
(2) 40%
(3) 20%
(4) 90%

35) A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field

directed into the paper. AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then which is incorrect :-

(1)
∣VA – VO∣ =

(2)
∣VO – VC∣ = Bωℓ2
2
(3) ∣VA – VC∣ = 4 Bωℓ

(4)
∣VC – VO∣ = Bωℓ2

36) A magnetic field in a certain region given by and a coil of radius 'a' with
resistance R is placed in the x-y plane with its centre at the origin in the magnetic field as shown in
figure. Find the magnitude and the direction of the current at (a, 0, 0) at .

(1)
along

(2)
along

(3)
along

(4)
along

37) A current v/s time graph of the current passing through a solenoid is shown in figure. For which

time is the back electromotive force is maximum.

(1) 3 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 15 sec
(4) 35 sec

38) A conducting wire xy of mass m and negligible resistance slides smoothly on two parallel
conducting wire as shown in figure. The closed circuit has a resistance R due to AC, AB and CD are

perfect conductors. If uniform magnetic field exist in the region and wire is projected
with speed v0 from x = 0, then the corresponding v – x curve for the subsequent motion will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) An AC source is V = 220 sin (100 πt). The average voltage is calculated in a time interval of 0
to 0.01 sec. will be :

(1) 220 V
(2) 198 V
(3) Zero

(4)

40) A constant current of 5.6 A exist in a resistor. The RMS current is :

(1) 4 A
(2) 5.6 A
(3) 2.8 A
(4) RMS current is not defined for D.C.

41) In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is:-

(1) 0.036
(2) 0.36
(3) 3.6
(4) 36

42) The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The main scale reading before the zero of vernier
scale is 10 and the fourth division of the vernier scale coincides with any main scale division. (one
MSD = 1mm) The measured value should be expressed as :-

(1) 1.04 mm
(2) 10.4 cm
(3) 1.02 cm
(4) 1.04 cm

43) If the number of divisions on the circular scale is 100 and number of full rotations given to screw
is 8 and distance moved by the screw is 4 mm, then what will be least count of the screw gauge?

(1) 0.001 mm
(2) 0.005 mm
(3) 0.010 mm
(4) 0.100 mm

44) Number of significant figures in 0.02340 Nm–1 are:-

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) The equation is describing the rate of change of velocity of a body falling from rest

in a resisting medium. The dimension of will be :-

(where x is position)

(1) [LT]
(2) [LT–1]
(3) [T]
(4) [T–1]

CHEMISTRY

1) The values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41, +1.57, +0.77 and +1.97V respectively. For
which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest ?

(1) Co
(2) Mn
(3) Fe
(4) Cr

2) The standard emf of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25°C. The
equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F = 96,500 C mol–1 ; R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 )

(1) 1.0 × 1030

(2) 1.0 × 105
(3) 1.0 × 1010
(4) 1.0 × 101

3) The limiting molar conductivities for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 Scm2
mol–1 respectively. The for NaBr is :

(1) 302 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 176 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 278 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 128 S cm2 mol–1

4) In a cell that utilises the reaction

Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment, will

(1) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left

(2) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right
(3) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right
(4) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left

5) Consider the following Eo values

Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction

Sn(s) + 2Fe3+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) is

(1) 0.63 V
(2) 1.40
(3) 0.91 V
(4) 1.68 V

6) In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to

(1) remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces

(2) create potential difference between the two electrodes
(3) produce high purity water
(4) generate heat

7) The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of

(1) 0.1 M acetic acid

(2) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(3) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
(4) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid

8) Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000°C to furnish aluminium metal (at. mass = 27 amu ;
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs). The cathode reaction is
0
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminimum metal by this method would require

(1) 5.49 × 107 C of electricity

(2) 1.83 × 107 C of electricity
(3) 5.49 × 104 C of electricity
(4) 5.49 × 1010 C of electricity

9)

Electrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAc NaCl

(S cm2mol–1) 149.9 145.0 426.2 91.0 126.5

Calculate limiting molar conductance of HOAc using appropriate molar conductances of the
electrolytes listed above at inifinite dilution in H2O at 25°C.
(1) 517.2
(2) 552.7
(3) 390.7
(4) 217.5

10) The variation of molar conductivity with concentration of an electrolyte (X) in aqueous solution is

shown in the given figure. The electrolyte X is :

(1) CH3COOH
(2) KNO3
(3) HCl
(4) NaCl

11) The equivalent conductances of two strong electrolytes at infinite dilution in H2O (where ions
move freely through a solution) at 25°C are given below :
= 91.0 S cm2/equiv
= 426.2 S cm2/equiv
What additional information/quantity one needs to calculate of an aqueous solution of acetic acid
?

(1)
The limiting equivalent conductance of
(2) of chloroacetic acid (ClCH2COOH)
(3) of NaCl
(4) of CH3COOK

12) The cell Zn | Zn2+ (1M)|| Cu2+ (1M)|Cu was allowed to be completely discharged
at 298 K. The relative concentration of Zn2+ to Cu2+ is :

(1) 1037.3
(2) 9.65 × 104
(3) antilog (24.08)
(4) 37.3

13)

Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?

(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

14) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

15) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

16) Which is wrong statement about CoCl3.5NH3 :-

(1) It is cationic complex

(2) It is homoleptic complex
(3) Reacts with AgNO3 to give two mole of AgCl
(4) One Cl– satisfy, primary as well as secondary valency

17) Select the correct M-C bond length in following complexes :-

– –2
(1) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] > [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(2) [Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]
– –2
(3) [Ni(CO)4] = [Co(CO)4] = [Fe(CO)4]
 – –2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] < [Co(CO)4] < [Fe(CO)4]

18) A compound whose IUPAC name is not correctly written is :-

Complex Name

(1) Bis(η5-cyclopentadienyl) iron(0)

(2) Cr(C6H6)2 Bis(η6-benzene) chromium(0)

(3) [CoCl2(H2O)4]+ Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (III) ion

(4) [Zn(NCS)4]2– Tetrathiocyanato-N-zincate (II) ion

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which of the following complex compound ion obey the EAN rule :-

(1) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(3) [Fe(CO)5]
2–
(4) [NiCl4]

20) Which of the following species is more reducible :-

(1) [V(CO)5]
–1
(2) [Co(CO)6]
(3) [Fe(CO)5]
(4) [Mo(CO)6]

21) Assertion :– Hydrazine is a neutral ligand. Reason :– It has two 'N' as donar atoms and behave
as chelating ligand.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

22)

Match the column A to B :-

A B

(a) XeF4 (p) sp3

 (b) [PCl6]– (q) sp3d2

(c) I3 + (r) sp

(d) N3 – (s) sp3d

(1) a - p, b - q, c - r, d - s
(2) a - q, b - p, c - r, d - s
(3) a - q, b - q, c - p, d - r
(4) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r

23) Incorrect order of lattice energy is :-

(1) AlF3 > MgF2

(2) Li3N > Li2O
(3) NaCl > LiF
(4) TiC > ScN

24) Select incorrect order :-

(1) (ionic mobility)

(2) (Size)

(3) (Ionic mobility)

(4) (Size)

25) Which of the following is an outer orbital complex :-

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

26) Match the column :

(i) CoCl3.6NH3 (P) Green

(ii) CoCl3.5NH3 (Q) Purple

(iii) CoCl3.4NH3 (R) Yellow

(iv) CoCl3.4NH3 (S) Violet

(1) (i)- P, (ii)-Q, (iii)-R, (iv)-S
(2) (i)- Q, (ii)-R, (iii)-P, (iv)-S
(3) (i)- R, (ii)-Q, (iii)-P, (iv)-S
(4) (i)- R, (ii)-P, (iii)-Q, (iv)-S
27) Which of the following complex represent maximum stability ?

3–
(1) [Co(CN)6]
3+
(2) [Co(H2O)6]
4–
(3) [Co(CN)6]
3–
(4) [Co(F)6]

28) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Compound) List-II (of Central atom)

(A) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (1) sp3

(B) [PtCl4]2– (2) sp3d2

(C) [Ni(CO)4] (3) dsp2

(D) [Co(ox)3]3– (4) d2sp3

A B C D

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 4 1 3 2

(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) What will be the correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region for the
complexes :-
[Co(NH3)6]+3, [Co(CN)6]–3, [Co(H2O)6]+3

–3 +3 +3
(1) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6]
+3 +3 –3
(2) [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(CN)6]
+3 +3 –3
(3) [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(NH3)6] > [Co(CN)6]
–3 +3 +3
(4) [Co(CN)6] > [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(H2O)6]

30) An octahedral complex having d4 configuration is a low spin complex then crystal field
stabilization energy (CFSE) of the complex will be-

(1) –0.6 Δ0
(2) –1.6 Δ0 + P
(3) –1.2 Δ0
(4) –2.4 Δ0

31) In which of the following complex have splitting energy (Δ) < pairing energy (P) :-

4–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
+2
(2) [Fe(NH3)6]
+2
(3) [Fe(en)3]
4–
(4) [Fe(NO2)6]

32) Which of following organometallic compound is σ & π bonded :-

5
(1) [Fe(η – C5H5)2]
(2) K[PtCl3(η – C2H4)]
2

+2
(3) [Co(CO)5NH3]
(4) Fe(CH3)3

33) What is "E" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Select correct statement(s)

(a) Primary amine react with Hinsberg reagent and product is not soluble in base.
(b) During nitration of aniline only ortho and para nitro products are form
(c) Aniline doesnot undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(d) Methyl amine in water react with Ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.

(1) a,b,c,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) c,d
(4) b,c,d

35) Select correct statement(s)

(a) Sucrose is invert sugar.
(b) Deficiency of vitamin B6 cause cheilosis disease.
(c) Nucleotides are joined together by phosphoric acid linkage between 5' and 3' carbon atoms of the
pentose sugar.
(d) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of free-
CHO group

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

36) Product is

(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Saccharic acid
(3) Fructose
(4) Sucrose

37) In Duma's method for estimation of nitrogen 0.3g of an organic compound gave 50 ml of
nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. Calculate the percentage
composition of nitrogen in the compound. (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

(1) 17.17%
(2) 19.19%
(3) 14.14%
(4) 15.28%

38) Select correct statement(s)

(a) The best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compound is
chromatography
(b) In Lassaigne test for nitrogen in organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is obtained due to
formation of Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(c) Steam distillation is applied to separate substances which are steam volatile and immiscible with
water

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) b, d

39)

Select the correct statement among the following :

(1) Equilibrium constant changes with addition of catalyst

(2) Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction.
(3) The ratio of mixture at equilibrium does not changed by catalyst
(4) Catalyst are active only in solution.

40) Based on the following reaction which one oxide is more stable :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

41) With increase in temperature, equilibrium constant of reaction :-

(1) Always increases

(2) Always decreases
(3) May increase or decrease depending upon whether np > nr or np < nr
(4) May increase or decrease depending upon whether reaction is endothermic or exothermic

42) The reaction CO + Cl2 ⇌ COCl2 was carried out at a specific temperature in a 500 ml capacity
flask. At equilibrium the flask was found to contain 0.3 mole of COCl2, 0.1 mole of CO and 0.1 mole
of Cl2. The value of Kc is equal to :-

(1) 30
(2) 5
(3) 15
(4) 3

43) Consider the following reversible reactions (at 298 K):-

(a) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
(b) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(c) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
(d) X(g) + Y(g) 4Z(g)

Lowest and highest value of will be shown by the equilibrium

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) a, b
(4) b, c

44) The equilibrium constant for the reaction :

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction

NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) is :

(1) 0.02
(2) 50
(3) 4 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–2

45) for the reaction,

A(g) + 2B2(g) AB4(g) is:-

(1) RT
(2) (RT)2

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Many important food plants like tomato, banana, etc have been produced on
industrial scale using micropropagation.
Statement-II : Plants produced by micropropagation are genetically identical to the original plant
from which they were grown.
Select the correct option.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct.

(2) Only Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

2) RNAi takes place in all ____ organisms as a method of cellular defence.

(1) Prokaryotic
(2) Eukaryotic
(3) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic
(4) Unicellular
3)

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?

(1) Restriction enzyme → Molecular Scissors

(2) DNA ligase → Enzyme-that cut DNA, creating the sticky end
(3) Taq DNA polymerase → Used in a polymerase chain reaction
(4) Reverse transcriptase → Production of cDNA from mRNA

4)

Go to the following column and select the correct option:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Bt Cotton (i) Gene therapy

(b) Adenosine Deaminase deficiency (ii) Alpha-lactalbumin

(c) Rosie (iii) Insulin

(d) Recombinant therapeutics (iv) Insect Resistance plant

(1) (a - iv),(b - i),(c - ii),(d - iii)
(2) (a - iii),(b - ii),(c - i),(d - iv)
(3) (a - ii),(b - iii),(c - iv),(d - i)
(4) (a - i),(b - ii),(c - iii),(d - iv)

5) Assertion : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.

Reason : PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

6) Select incorrect statement, regarding the human insulin formed in human body :

(1) Mature insulin molecule consists of three polypeptide chains-A, B and C.

(2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which contains extra stretch of C peptide.
(3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin molecule.
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked by disulphide bridges.

7) From which of the following techniques early detection is not possible :

(a) Serum analysis
(b) PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Urine analysis
(e) Recombinant DNA technology

(1) b, c and e
(2) a and d
(3) a, d and e
(4) b and c

8) Some of the steps involved in production of humulin are given below. Choose the correct
sequence.
(i) Synthesis of insulin gene artificially
(ii) Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors
(iii) Purification of humulin
(iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid of E. coli
(v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli
(vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from E. Coli

(1) ii, i, iv, iii, v, vi

(2) i, iv, v, ii, vi, iii
(3) i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv
(4) iii, v, ii, i, vi, iv

9)

Which of the following is/are true ?

(I) At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use in the world
over.
(II) Biopiracy is the unauthorised use of bioresources and traditional knowledge related to
bioresources for commercial benefits

(III) Biopatent is exploitation of bioresources of other nations without proper authorisation

(1) II only
(2) I only
(3) I & II
(4) I, II & III

10) The Indian Government has set up organisation which will make decisions regarding the validity
of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services :

(1) GEAC
(2) GEAO
(3) GMO
(4) GMRI

11) Who developed a method of removing plasmids from the cell and then reinserting them in other
cells?

(1) Herbert Boyer

(2) Stanley Cohen
(3) Cohen & Boyer
(4) Kary Mullis
12) Statement - I : Asexual reproduction preserves the genetic information.
Statement - II : Genetic engineering allows to isolate and introduce only one or a set of
desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Only statement - I is correct.
(4) Only statement - II is correct.

13) Match the following enzymes with their functions :

Break cell wall of

(a) Ethidium bromide (i)
fungus

(b) Exonuclease (ii) DNA precipitate

(c) Chitinase (iii) Staining DNA

Removes nucleotides
(d) Chilled ethanol (iv)
from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

14) Match the column :-

Procedure through which a piece of DNA

(A) Elution (i)
is introduced in a host

(B) Cloning (ii) Technique to separate DNA fragment

(C) Gel electrophoresis (iii) Making multiple identical copies of DNA

To cut out and separate DNA from

(D) Transformation (iv)
agarose gel
(1) A - i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A - ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A - iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A - iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

15) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of [Link] cloning vector pBR322.
(1) A-Eco Rl, B-Bam-Hl, C -Ori, D-ampR
(2) A-ampR, B-Ori, C-Bam Hl, D-Eco Rl
(3) A-Ori, B-Bam Hl, C-Eco Rl, D-ampR
(4) A-Bam Hl, B-Eco Rl, C-ampR, D-Ori

16) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence. What is the correct
sequence for r-DNA technology ?
a → Down stream processing.
b → Cutting of DNA at specific location.
c → Culturing the host cells at large scale.
d → Isolation of the genetic material.
e → Insertion of r-DNA into the host cell.

(1) b → d → e → a → c
(2) d → b → e → c → a
(3) d → e → b → a → c
(4) e → d → a → c → b

17) A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of set of DNA fragments :-

which of the following statement is correct regarding this ?

(1) Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment

(2) Only lane 4 shows digested DNA fragment
(3) Lane 1 to lane 3 show digested DNA
(4) Only lane 4 shows undigested DNA fragments

18) After the biosynthetic phase, the product is separated and purified by the process called as :-
(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis
(2) PCR
(3) Downstream processing
(4) Insertional inactivation

19)

Sparged stirred tank bioreactor is advantageous over the simply stirred tank bioreactor as ______

(1) It requires less Maintenance.

(2) Sparged tank has blades which move fast.
(3) Air bubbles enhance the oxygen transfer area.
(4) Vitamins and minerals are more used up in sparged stirred bioreactor.

20) How many alcoholic drinks of following are formed by distillation :-

(A) Wine (B) Beer (C) Whisky
(D) Brandy (E) Rum

(1) Only one

(2) Only three
(3) Only four
(4) All five

21) Statement-I : Conventional farming practices often uses chemical methods to kill only harmful
life.
Statement-II : Organic farmer work to create a system where the insect pests are completely
eradicated.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

22) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

Ladybird Nitrogen
A. (i)
beetle fixation

B. Mycorrhiza (ii) Bio gas

C. Methanogens (iii) Aphids

D. Rhizobium (iv) Glomus

A B C D

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

 (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Identify the blank spaces A, B, C and D in the following table and select the correct answer.

Type of Commercial
Scientific name
microbe product
Bacterium A Streptokinase
B Aspergillus niger Citric acid
Trichoderma
Fungus C
polysporum
Bacterium D Butyric acid
A-Streptococcus, B-Fungus,
(1)
C-Cyclosporin-A, D-Clostridium butylicum
A-Clostridium butylicum, B-Streptococcus,
(2)
C-Fungus, D-Cyclosporin-A
A-Streptococcus, B-Yeast,
(3)
C-Cyclosporin-A, D-Lactobacillus
A-Streptococcus, B-Cyclosporin-A,
(4)
C-Statins, D-Clostridium butylicum

24) Biogas is a mixture of gases produces by the microbial activity in which predominant gas is:-

(1) CO2
(2) CO
(3) Methane
(4) H2

25) Which statement is not associated with fungi?

(1) Cell wall is composed of chitin and polysaccharides

(2) May show symbiotic association with algae
(3) They are multicellular eukaryotic autotrophic organsims
(4) They causes smut, late blight & rust diseases

26) In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes the intervening period between plasmogamy and karyogamy
is known as :-

(1) Diplophase
(2) Dikaryophase
(3) Interphase
(4) Resting phase

27) A group of college student orderd a pizza with pineapple, onion and Mushroom. Mushroom
belong to which kingdom ?

(1) Agaricus
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Fungi
(4) Basidiomycetes

28) Agar a commercial product used to grow microbes and in ice-creams and jellies, are obtained
from

(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria

(2) Chlorella and Volvox
(3) Ectocarpus and Dictyota
(4) Polysiphonia and Fucus

29) Choose the incorrect statement about phycomycetes:-

(1) Members are found in aquatic habitats also

(2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
(3) A zygospore is formed by reduction division
(4) They show all type of syngamy

30) Which of the following is not related with ascomycetes ?

(1) They asexually reproduce by conidia

(2) Sexual spores are called ascospores which are produced exogenously on ascus.
(3) Neurospora is used in genetic work.
(4) Morels and truffles are edible.

31) In which of the following, the genus name, its character and its class are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correctly matched ?

Genus
Character Class
Name

Sexual stage
(1) Alternaria Deuteromycetes
is absent

Produce citric
(2) Aspergillus Ascomycetes
acid

Aseptate
(3) Mucor Phycomycetes
mycelium

septate
(4) Albugo and coenocytic Ascomycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32)

Match the column I, II & III. Find out the correct option which show correct match :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Chlorophyll Mannitol,
A Chlorophyta i a
a,d Laminarin
Chlorophyll
B Rhodophyta ii b Starch
a,c
Chlorophyll Floridean
C Phaeophyta iii c
a, b Starch
(1) A-iii-a, B-ii-b, C-i-c
(2) A-iii-b, B-i-c, C-ii-a
(3) A-ii-c, B-iii-b, C-i-a
(4) A-i-b, B-ii-a, C-iii-c

33) Study the given algae and answer the following questions :- (a) Name of
algae ?
(b) Type of sexual reproduction ?
(c) Name of class ?
(d) Stored food ?

(1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyceae : Starch

(2) Fucus : Oogamous : Chlorophyceae : Laminarin & mannitol
(3) Fucus : Oogamous : Phaeophyceae : Laminarin & mannitol
(4) Porphyra : Oogamous : Rhodophyceae : Glycogen

34) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as assertion and the other is labelled as reason.
Assertion : Sexual reproduction in red algae is oogamous and accompanied by complex post
fertilisation development.
Reason : Red algae reproduce sexually by non motile gametes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

35) Select the correct pair :-

(1) Lichens – Grow in Polluted areas.

(2) Prions – Abnormally folded protein
(3) Virus – Cause Potato spindle tuber disease
(4) Viroids – Consist of protein and nucleic acid

36) Arrange the following events of life cycle of bryophytes in correct sequence :-
I. Germination of spore
II. Gametes formation
III. Formation of Gametophyte
IV. Fertilization
V. Embryo formation

(1) I,III,IV,V,II
(2) II,IV,I,V,III
(3) III,II,IV,V,I
(4) V,I,II,III,IV

37) How many statements are correct regarding gymnosperms ?

(i) All gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(ii) In Cycas male cones and female cones are borne on different trees.
(iii) Male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.
(iv) Female gametophyte bears two or more archegonia.
(v) The megaspore mother cell divides mitotically to form four megaspores.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

38) Which of the following is lacking in gymnosperms ?

(1) Ovary
(2) Embryo
(3) Seeds
(4) Endosperm

39) Which statement is correct for homosporus pteridophyta?

(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte is parasitic

(2) Gametophyte is semi parasite and sporophyte is autotrophic
(3) Gametophyte and sporophyte are usually parasitic
(4) Sporophyte is autotrophic
40) Which one of the following is not found in fern gametophyte?

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Rhizoids
(3) Sex organs
(4) Vascular tissue

41) Gemmae are :-

(1) Asexual reproductive structure of club moss

(2) Sexual reproductive structure of liverwort
(3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
(4) Asexual reproductive structure

42) Assertion : Frontal, parietal and occipital bones are joined by suture. (fibrous joint)
Reason : Bones of skull are joined by cartilagenous joint

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Read the statements given below carefully w.r.t vertebral column in human beings and select the
correct option.

(1) Neural canal passes through the spinal cord.

Number of cervical vertebrae is 7 in all the members of class Mammalia including human
(2)
beings.
(3) The vertebral column is the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back.
(4) The vertebral column is a series of 26 vertebrae placed dorso-laterally.

44) The 11th and 12th pair of ribs are

(1) Connected dorsally to the sternum and ventrally to the vertebral column
(2) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(3) Connected dorsally to the vertebral column and are not connected ventrally to the sternum
(4) Connected dorsally to the sternum and are not connected ventrally to the vertebral column

45)

Knee joint does not involves :

(1) Femur
(2) Patella
(3) Tibia
(4) Fibula
46) At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis, is a cavity called 'A' to which the 'B'
articulates.
Select the correct option for 'A' and 'B'.

A B

(1) Acetabulum Humerus

(2) Glenoid Femur

(3) Acetabulum Femur

(4) Glenoid Humerus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Match the column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

A Ball and socket joint i between atlas & axis

B Hinge joint ii between the carpals

between carpal &

C Pivot joint iii
metacarpal of thumb

between humerus &

D Gliding joint iv
pectoral girdle

E Saddle joint v between femur & tibia

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-v
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iii
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-v, D-iv, E-iii

48)

Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to :-

(1) Chondroitin salts

(2) Osteoblasts
(3) Chondroclasts
(4) Osteoclasts

49) Which of the following is not a character of Cruciferae family?

(1) Tetramerous flower

(2) Parietal placentation
(3) Variation in length of stamen filament
(4) Staminode

50) Cohesion and adhesion of stamens both are observed in:

(1) Chinarose
(2) Pea
(3) Lily
(4) Mustard

51) Which of the following is correct floral diagram of mustard?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

52) Floral features can be represented in summerized from in form of :-

(1) Floral formula

(2) Floral diagram
(3) Floral formula and floral diagram both
(4) Inflorescence

53) Floral feature which can be represent by floral formula but not by floral diagram is:

(1) Cohesion of stamens

(2) Placentation
(3) Position of ovary
(4) Aestivation

54) Write the floral formula of an actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous flower with five united
sepals, five free petals, five free stamens and two united carpels with superior ovary and axile
placentation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55) Which of the following is not related to sunflower?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

56) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is commonly observed in :

(1) Maize leaves

(2) Sunflower stem
(3) Maize Stem
(4) Maize root

57) Monocot root can be differentiated from monocot stem in having:

(1) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(2) Casparian strips in endodermal cells
(3) Large number of radial vascular bundles
(4) 2 and 3 both

58) Assertion: Sieve tube elements are enucleated at maturity.

Reason: Nucleus of companion cell regulate the function of sieve tube elements.

(1) A and R both are true and R explain A

(2) A and R both are false
(3) A and R both are true and R does not explain A
(4) A is true but R is false

59) Statement A: Intercalary and intra fascicular cambium is primary meristem

Statement B: Intercalary and apical meristems are present in plant from early stage of plant
development and contribute in primary plant body formation.

(1) Only statement A is true

(2) Only statement B is true
(3) Statement A and B both are true
(4) Statement A and B both are false

60) How many of the following have marginal placentation in ovary?

Pea, beans, sunflower, primrose, mustard, Argemone, lemon, chinarose, potato, marigold

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

61) Drupe fruit in mango and coconut is formed by:

(1) Monocarpellary gynoecium with inferior ovary

(2) Monocarpellary gynoecium with superior ovary
(3) Polycarpellary gynoecium with inferior ovary
(4) Polycarpellary gynoecium with superior ovary

62) Which of the following is not involved in secondary growth in dicot stem?

(1) Intra fascicular cambium

(2) Inter fascicular cambium
(3) Phellogen
(4) Intercalary meristem

63) A dicot stem can be differentiated from monocot stem in having:

(1) Large number of closed vascular bundle
(2) Ring arrangement of vascular bundle
(3) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(4) 2 and 3 both

64) Read the following statements regarding internal structure of flowering plants and select the
correct option from options given below:
a. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.
b. In the monocotyledons, the vascular bundles have no cambium present in them. Hence, since they
do not form secondary tissues, they are referred to as closed.
c. The cells of root epidermis protrude in the form of multicellular root hairs.
d. The innermost layer of the cortex in stem is called the endodermis. The cells of the endodermis in
stem have deposition of suberin which form Casparian strips.

(1) a and b are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, b and c are correct
(4) a, b, c and d are correct

65) Assertion: Plant anatomy or internal structure of plants can be used to differentiate monocot
stem from dicot stem and monocot root from dicot root.
Reason: Monocotyledonous root and stem and dicotyledonous root and stem show marked variation
in their internal structures. They may differ in type, number and location of vascular bundles.

(1) A and R both are true and R explain A

(2) A and R both are false
(3) A and R both are true and R does not explain A
(4) A is true but R is false

66) The ground tissue system in dicot stem is differentiated in:

(1) Cortex, pericycle and pith

(2) Cortex, pericycle and vascular bundles
(3) Cortex and pith only
(4) Cortex and stele

67)

Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from options given below

Column I Column II

More than six radial

A P Monocot root
vascular bundle

B Buliform cells Q Monocot leaf

C Reticulate venation R Dicot leaf

D Inconspicuous pith S Dicot root

(1) A: S; B: Q; C: R; D: P
(2) A: P; B: Q; C: R; D: S
(3) A: S; B: R; C: Q; D: P
(4) A: P; B: R; C: Q; D: S

68) Ovules are present at the centre of unilocular ovary in ...A... placentation and it is present in
…B... and ...C... What are A, B and C ?

(1) A: Axile; B: Tomato; C: Onion

(2) A: Free central; B: Primrose; C: Dianthus
(3) A: Free central; B: Tomato; C: Onion
(4) A: Marginal; B: Pea; C: Bean

69) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the statement which is not true regarding the

given diagram:

(1) Vexillary aestivation of sepals

(2) Polypetalous corolla
(3) Zygomorphic flower
(4) Five fused sepals

70) Which of the following is true regarding trichome?

(1) They are multicellular usually

(2) They are usually present in monocot stem
(3) They are present in dicot root
(4) They are always soft and hair like

71) All the layers present in between epidermis to pericycle in dicot stem is known as:

(1) Endodermis
(2) Stele
(3) Cortex
(4) Pith

72) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from options given below

Column I Column II

A Monocarpellary gynoecium P Rose

B Polyadelphous stamen Q Lemon

C Parietal placentation R Argemone

 D Apocarpous gynoecium S Soyabean
(1) A: S; B: Q; C: R; D: P
(2) A: P; B: Q; C: R; D: S
(3) A: S; B: R; C: Q; D: P
(4) A: P; B: R; C: Q; D: S

73) A vertebrate which doesn’t possess jaws :

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Salamandra
(4) Scoliodon

74) Identify A, B, C in given diagram :- T.S. of Diploblastic animal

A – Ectoderm, B – Mesoderm,
(1)
C–Endoderm
A – Ectoderm, B–Mesoglea,
(2)
C–Endoderm
A – Mesoderm, B–Ectoderm,
(3)
C–Endoderm
A – Ectoderm, B–Endoderm,
(4)
C–Mesoglea

75) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) No any conversion of polyp into medusa

76) Assertion : Mollusc have calcareous shell.

Reason : In mollusc vesceral hump secrets an external calcareous shell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

77) Match the column.

 Column-I Column-II

(i) Sycon (a) Cnidoblasts

(ii) Obelia (b) Bioluminescence

(iii) Pleurobranchia (c) Regeneration

(iv) Planaria (d) Water canal system

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

78) Here some informations are given about Arthropoda :-

– Bilateral symmetry
– Incomplete digestive system
– Organ system level of organisation
– Coelomate
– Open type circulatory system
– Triploblastic
– Unsegmented
How many informations are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

79) Which one is correct for above diagram?:

(i) Primitive multicellular animal
(ii) Skeleton made up of spongin fiber
(iii) Separate male & female
(iv) Fertilization is external (v) Removal of waste by osculum

(1) (ii), (iii), (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (v)

80) Select the incorrect statements :-

(A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic, pseudo coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical organisms
(B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external.
(C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are separate.
(D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms.
(E) In sponges fertilization is internal and development is indirect.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and C
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) C and D

81)

Select correct statements :-

(A) Flatworms are radial symmetrical
(B) Fertilization in flat worm & Annelida is both external and internal
(C) Mollusca are usually dioecious
(D) Development in echinodermates is indirect
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only A
(4) C and D

82) Find out incorrect statement :-

(1) Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as Protochordates

(2) Urochordata are exclusively marine
(3) In Urochordata and Cephalochordata notochord is persistent throughout the life in tail only
(4) Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum are Urochordates

83) Select the correct matching of animal with its symmetry and type of body cavity :

Animal Symmetry Body cavity

(1) Jellyfish Radial Pseudocoelom

(2) Sycon Bilateral Pseudocoelom

(3) Tapeworm Radial Acoelom

(4) Earthworm Bilateral Coelom

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) In a pond water quantity/level is continuously decreasing. Temperature level is also high.
Regarding to this situation which type of reproduction will performed by spongilla :-

(1) Fragmentation & sexual reproduction both

(2) only sexual reproduction
(3) exogenous budding
(4) Gemmule formation

85) Choose the number of examples having close circulatory system ?

[Sepia, Octopus, Ascaris, Taenia, Cockroach, Nereis, Earthworm]

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

86) First phylum to have complete digestive tract can be represented by : -

(1) Hydra
(2) Taenia
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Pheretima

87) Read following statements carefully w.r.t. members of phylum Aschelminthes and choose the
option with only correct statements.
a. Included segmented worms
b. All members are bisexual
c. Alimentary canal is complete with a well developed muscular pharynx.
d. Development may be direct or indirect.

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

88) Carefully observe and understand the given figure. Identify the animal w.r.t. the diagram

(1) a- Earthworm
(2) b-Blood fluke
(3) c- Ascaris
(4) a- Fasciola

89) In which one of the following animal has notochord extends from head to tail region. Which
persistent throughout their life ?
(1) Lancelet
(2) Ascidia
(3) Salpa
(4) Doliolum

90) Some statement are given below :

(i) Members of this phylum are known as comb jellies.
(ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb. plates.
(iii) Shows biluminescence property.
How many statements are correct about cterophores.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 4 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 2 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 1 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) The current through circuit

voltage drop across resistance = 1.5 – 0.5 = 1 V

2)
Y = A·B +
Y = (A + )·B
Y = 1·B
Y=B

3)

Vz = 3V
Let potential at B = 0V
Potential at E(VE) = 10V
VC = VA = 3V
From KCL at node A
Iz + I1 = I …(1)

Therefore by equation (1)

4) In a semiconductor, the electrons in the conduction band have greater energy than those in
the valence band and donor energy level lies just below to conduction band.

5) i = neAVd
∴

6)

1. Explain question:
Analyze the circuit to determine the output waveform after a sinusoidal input passes through a
diode-resistor network.
2. Concept:
A diode conducts only during forward bias.
3. Solution:
The input is a ±10V sinusoidal wave form. The diode is oriented to allow positive half cycles to
pass (forward biased) and block negative half cycles (reverse biased).
Let’s break it down:
During the positive half cycle, the diode is forward biased → current flows → voltage appears
across the resistor.
• During the negative half cycle, the diode is reverse biased → no current → output is 0V.
This creates a half-wave rectified output with Peak of the positive half = [Link] this output
voltage is divided into two equal parts because both the resistance are of equal value. So the
output across the 2kΩ resistor, which is in parallel with the load is having peak value of 5V and
its waveform is as

4. Final Answer: 3

7) Energy =

(a)

(b)

(c)
λ2 > λ1, λ2 = 2λ3

8) Stopping potential does not depend upon distance from light source.

9)
Using conservation of linear momentum
10)
On putting

⇒λ= Å

11) P = 1MW = 106W

E = 106W × 1 sec. = 106 J

no. of fission =
no. of fission = 3.1 × 1016

12) Basic decay process in radioactivity

13) Taking O as origin. O to B : displacement = – 75 m

t=5s
t = – 3 s, not possible

14)

v2 = 1
v = 1 m/s

15) 100 = –40 t + × 10 × t2

t2 – 8t – 20 = 0
t = 10 sec

16)

tan θ = 1 =
so υy = 5 km/s–1

17) Ans. (2)

sinθ =

t=
t = 12 s

18)

T = 9 min. speed = 40 km/h.

Hint : υT/(υ – 20) = 18; υT / (υ + 20) = 6

19) Explanation:
To find the force on the clamp.
Concept:
Free body diagram of clamp & given blocks
Formula:
Fnet = ma

a=
Visual diagram:

(i) (ii) (iii)

Calculation:

a= =
from F.B.D. (i)
mg – T = ma
⇒ mg – T =

T=
from F.B.D. (ii)

Fnet at clamp = 2Tcos

=2× =

20) No net force space acceleration = 0 So, v = constant

21) = p f – pi = = Area under the curve.

Pi = 0
Net area = 16 – 2 – 1 = 13 N-s

Vf = = 6.5 m/s

22) N – (5 + 2) g = (5 + 2)a
N = 7 (10 + 5) = 105

23) For stable condition,

F1 + F2 + F3 = 0
(3 – 4 ) + (2 – 3 ) + F3 = 0 (given)
F3 = – 5 + 7

24) Lami's theorem

25) Question Explanation:

The problem involves a gun firing bullets, and it asks for the force needed to prevent the gun
from recoiling. To stop recoil, the person must apply a force equal and opposite to the
momentum imparted to the bullets.
Concept Based:
This problem is based on Newton's Third Law of Motion and the conservation of momentum.
The momentum imparted to the bullets must be balanced by an equal and opposite momentum
on the gun. The rate of change of momentum gives the required force.
Formula Used:
To find the force, we use the formula:

Where is the change in momentum and is the time.

Since the bullets are fired at a rate of 5 bullets per second:
 A. Mass of one bullet = 50 g = 0.05 kg
B. Velocity of the bullet= 300 m/s
C. Rate of firing = 5 bullets/sec

Calculation:

A. The momentum imparted to one bullet is:

A. The total momentum imparted per second (since 5 bullets are fired per second):

Total momentum per second = 5 x 15 = 75 kg

To prevent the gun from recoiling, the person needs to apply a force equal to the rate of change of
momentum:
F = 75N
Thus, the force the person must apply is 75 N.
Hence,
Option (1) is correct

26) = = 20 sec

R=

=
= 600 m

27)

= =

28) X-ray is not a matter wave it is electromagnetic wave so it can not deflected by electric and
magnetic field

29)

Net current :
Now find

30)
Here V1 = V0 and V2 = 0

31) I = 12 + 3 sin ωt + 4 cos ωt

I = 12 + 5 sin (ωt + ϕ)
Peak value = 17
Instantaneous value (t = 0)
= 12 + 3 × 0 + 4 × 1 = 16

Effective current =
Amplitude = 5

32)

Voltage leads current by angle

33) When a conducting disc rotates in a magnetic field, eddy currents are induced in the disc
due to faraday's law of EMI. This eddy current results in a retarding torque which slows down
and eventually stops the disc.

34)

35)

0
|VA – V | =

0
|V – VC| =
 |VA – VC| =
= 4Bωℓ2

36) ϕ = B.A. cos θ

ε = +B0(πa2)ω sin ωt

At
ε = – B0 πa2ω

⇒ |I| =

37) ε = – L (Slope of I – t curve)

38) ⇒ a = – kv

39) ω = 100 π = ⇒
0 to 0.01 sec will be half cycle.

Average value for half cycle =

= 198 V

40) Use =

41)

n2 =
 42) Measured value = 10 mm + 4(0.1 mm)
= 10.4 mm
= 1.04 cm

43)

Pitch =

L.C. =

44) Starting zero's are NOT significant but trailing zero's are significant.

45) and

[A] = [T–2] [B] = [T–1]

CHEMISTRY

46)

The given values are :

Cr : –0.41 V
Mn : +1.57 V
Fe : +0.77 V
Co : +1.97 V
The most negative value among these is –0.41 V for Cr. This indicates that Cr2+ is most easily
oxidized to Cr3+

47)

Given :

n = 1 (one electron change)

T = 25°C = 298 K
Using the simplified equation :

K = 1010
48)

we can write

49)

Adding H2SO4 to the cathode compartment will increase the concentration of H+ (aq).
According to Le Chatelier's principle, an increase in reactant concentration (H+) will shift the
equilibrium to the right, favoring the forward reaction (production of Zn2+ and H2).
The Nernst equation for this reaction is :

If [H+] increases, the term decreases, making the log term more negative (or less
positive). This will increase Ecell.

50)

The given reaction is

Sn(s) + 2Fe3+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq)
In this reaction :
Sn is oxidized to Sn2+. The standard reduction potential for Sn2+/Sn is
Therefore
This is the anode
Fe3+ is reduced to The standard reduction potential for Fe3+/ is .
This is the cathode

51)

In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to

Concept : A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy from a fuel
(like hydrogen) and an oxidant (like oxygen) into electricity through a redox reaction.
Sol. In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen react to produce water, and this
reaction generates an electric current. The primary purpose is to generate electrical energy by
creating a potential difference between the electrodes through controlled redox reactions.

52)
Strong acid will have higher α, more ions so highest electrical conductivity.

53)

Mass of Al to be prepared = 5.12 kg = 5120 g

Atomic mass of Al = 27 amu
1 Faraday = 96500 C
Cathode reaction :
0
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
From the reaction, 3 moles of electrons are required to deposit 1 mole of Al (27 g).
Quantity of electricity (Q) required to deposit 27 g of Al = 3 × 96500 C
Now, calculate the charge required for 5120 g of Al

Q=
Q = 189.629 mol Al × 3 × 96500 C
Q = 568.887 × 96500 C
Q = 54897695.5 C
Q 5.49 × 107 C

54)

From the table :

55)

Theory based

56)

Theory based

57)
n=2
At equilibrium (Ecell = 0)
so, K = 1037.225

The relative concentration at equilibrium is K

Therefore,

58) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

59) Monodentate ligands do not show chelation.

60)

(1) Glycinato

(2) Ethylenediamine

(3) Aqua H2O monodentate.

(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

61) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify the incorrect statement
among the four given options regarding the coordination complex CoCl3​⋅5NH3​.
Concept : Werner's Coordination Theory.
Solution :

The complex is [Co(NH3​)5​Cl]Cl2​, a cationic and heteroleptic complex. It reacts with AgNO3​ to
yield two moles of AgCl. The Cl− inside satisfies both primary and secondary valencies.

Thus, "It is homoleptic complex" is the wrong statement.

62)

Theory Based
63)

Theory Based

64)

Theory Based

65) Compound [V(CO)5] increase their stability by the acceptance or electron to achieve their
effective atomic number 36 by reduction.

66)

Theory Based

67)

Theory Based

68)

Theory Based

69)

Theory Based

70)

71)

Theory Based

72)

Theory Based

73)

Theory Based
74)
CN– > NH3 > H2O (Δ0)
Therefore CN– < NH3 < H2O (λabsorbed)

75)

Theory Based

76)

Theory Based

77)

Theory Based

78)

79)

(a) R–NH2
(b) Meta nitro aniline is also form.
(c) Aniline is Base.

80)

NCERT (XII) Chapter – Biomolecule Pg. # 287, 296, 298, 285

81)
 Reaction of glucose

82)

Moles of N2 =
= 0.00184

= 17.17%

83)

NCERT XI
Chapter → Organic chemistry
some basic principles and techniques
(a) Exercise-8.39
(b) pg. → 285
(c) Pg. → 281

84)

Question Explanation : Which of the following is correct.

Concept : at equilibrium catalyst does not affect equilibrium, it incease speed of both forward
reaction and backward reaction with game speed.
Final Answer : (3)

85)

1. Question Explanation
We are given two reactions involving the decomposition of two oxides, MO and MO2. We need
to determine which oxide is more stable based on their equilibrium constants.
2. Given Data

A. Reaction 1: 2MO(g) ⇌ M2(g) + O2(g); K1 = 1 x 10–10

B. Reaction 2: 2MO2(g) ⇌ M2(g) + 2O2(g); K2 = 4 x 106

3. Concept

A. Equilibrium Constant (K): A higher value of K indicates that the reaction favors the
formation of products at equilibrium. In this case, a higher K suggests that the oxide is less
stable and more likely to decompose.

4. Mathematical Calculation
Not applicable for this qualitative analysis.
5. Final Answer
Based on the given equilibrium constants, MO is more stable then MO2.

A. Reaction 1 has a significantly higher K value (1 x 10–10) compared to Reaction 2 (4 x 106). This
indicates that MO decomposes to M2 and O2 much more readily than MO2.
 Therefore, MO2 is more stable.

86)

The effect of temperature on the equilibrium constant depends on whether the reaction is
endothermic or exothermic:
- For an endothermic reaction (ΔH > 0): An increase in temperature favors the forward
reaction (product formation), so the equilibrium constant (K) increases.
- For an exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0): An increase in temperature favors the reverse reaction
(reactant formation), so the equilibrium constant (K) decreases.

87) Given:
• Volume of flask = 500 mL = 0.5 L
• At equilibrium:
[COCl2] = 0.3 mol
[CO] = 0.1 mol
[Cl2] = 0.1 mol
Concept :
Equilibrium constant (Kc) by volume & Concentration

Explanation :

We need to convert moles to concentration using:

so:
[COCl2] = 0.3/0.5 = 0.6 M
[CO] = 0.1 / 0.5 = 0.2 M
[Cl2] = 0.1/0.5 = 0.2 M

Answer
3. 15
The value of Kc is 15.

88)

Use Kp = Kc(RT)Δng

89)

Explanation:
Calculation of equilibrium constant for given reaction.
Given Data

A. N2(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), Kc = 4 × 10–4

Concept:

A. Reversing a reaction inverts the equilibrium constant.

B. Multiplying a reaction by a factor raises the equilibrium constant to that power.

Calculation:

A. Reverse the first reaction:

A. 2NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g), Kc' = 1 / Kc = 1 / (4 × 10–4) = 2500
B. Multiply the reversed reaction by 1/2:
A. NO(g) ⇌ 1/2 N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g), Kc2 = (Kc')1/2 = (2500)1/2 = 50

Answer option 2, (50).

90) Asking About :- value.

Concept :- Relation B/w Kp & Kc
Formula :- I Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
Soln / Explanation :- Given Data

Δng = 1– (1 + 2) = – 2
Kp = Kc (RT)–2

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 175 (E), 195 (H)

92) NCERT XII Pg # 180

93)

NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 165, 173

94)

NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 179, 182, 184

95) NCERT XII Pg # 212

96)
NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 182

97) NCERT Page # 212

98)

NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 181, 182

99) NCERT XIIth Pg.# 185

100)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 213

101) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 192

102) NCERT Pg. No. # 164 [E]

NCERT Pg. No. # 180 [H]

103)

NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 168, 171

104) NCERT Pg.# 164, 168, 169

105) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171, 172, 173, 174

107)

NCERT Pg#168(E), 184(H)

108) NCERT-XII, Page # 204 (11.3.6)

109)

NCERT XIIth Pg. No. 174

110) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 152

111) NCERT-XII Pg. # 156,157

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 156,157,158

113)

NCERT Pg # 153

114)

NCERT Pg # 156

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 16

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 17

117)

All mushrooms, including edible ones like Agaricus, belong to the Kingdom Fungi.

The correct answer is : OPTION (3) Fungi

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 26

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 17

120) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 18

121)

NCERT-XI Pg # 17,18

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 27

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 25, 26, 27

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 28

125) NCERT XIth Pg. # 20, 21

126)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 29

127) NCERT-XI, Pg # 32, 33

128) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 33

129)

NCERT XI Pg # 30, 31

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 32

131)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 29

132)

NCERT XI Pg. No. 227

133) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. Page 225

134) NCERT page- 225

135)

Module No. # 06

136) NCERT page- 226

 137)

The correct answer is Option 2.

Column-A Column-B
A. Ball and socket joint iv. between humerus & pectoral girdle
B. Hinge joint v. between femur & tibia
C. Pivot joint i. between atlas & axis
D. Gliding joint ii. between the carpals
E. Saddle joint iii. between carpal & metacarpal of thumb

138)

NCERT XI Pg # 224

139) NCERT XI, Pg # 65,66,67

140) NCERT XI, Pg # 64

141) NCERT XI, Pg # 67

142) NCERT XI, Pg # 70

143) NCERT XI, Pg # 67

144) NCERT XI, Pg # 70

145) NCERT XI, Pg # 65, 74,75, 76

146) NCERT XI, Pg # 75

147) NCERT XI, Pg # 74

148) OLD NCERT XI, Pg # 88

149) OLD NCERT XI, Pg # 85

150) NCERT XI, Pg # 65

Pea and Beans

151) NCERT XI, Pg # 65

152) NCERT XI, Pg # 95 and 96 OLD NCERT

153) NCERT XI, Pg # 75

154) NCERT XI, Pg # 72. 73, 74

155) NCERT XI, Pg # 77 SUMMARY

156) NCERT XI, Pg # 77 SUMMARY

157) NCERT XI, Pg # 74, 77

158) NCERT XI, Pg # 65

159) NCERT XI, Pg # 80

160) NCERT XI, Pg # 72

161) NCERT XI, Pg # 75

162) NCERT XI, Pg # 65

163) Pg. No. 56 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

164)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 47

165)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

166)

NCERT XI Pg # 44

167)

(i) Sycon - c
(ii) Obelia - a
(iii) Pleurobrachia - b
(iv) Fasciola - e
(v) Planaria - d

168)

NCERT XI Pg # 44

169)

NCERT XI Pg # 40

170) NCERT Pg. # 40,41,42

171)

NCERT Pg. # 43,45

172) NCERT–XI Page No. # 46

173)

NCERT XI Pg # 40, 41, 42, 43

174)

In porifera asexual reproduction by gemmule formation occurs in adverse condition.

175)

Sepia, Octopus, Neries and earthworm have closed circulatory system.

176)

NCERT XI Pg # 43

177)

NCERT XI Pg # 43

178)

NCERT XI Pg # 38, 39

179) NCERT Pg. # 46

180) NCERT, Pg. # 51