Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST

Chapter 1: Sources - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (6 x 1 = 6 )
1. The famous work of Hiuen Tsang is:
A) Si-yu-ki B) Indica C) Geography D) Gho-ko-ki
2. An example for archaeological source is:
A) Indigenous literature B) Oral sources C) Foreign literature D) Coins
3. The first inscription of the Kannada language is:
A) Aihole inscription B) Halmidi inscription C) Allahabad pillar inscription D) Talagunda
Simhakatanjana inscription
4. The "Uttara Meruru" inscription belongs to the period of:
A) Pandyas B) Cheras C) Cholas D) Satavahanas
5. An example for oral source is:
A) Inscription B) Lavani C) Remains D) Monument
6. The first king to issue an inscription in India was:
A) Ashoka B) Kanishka C) Harshavardhana D) Samudragupta
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (7 x 1 = 7 Marks)
7. What are sources?
8. Which book was written by Chand Bardai?
9. Name the king that patronized Srivijaya.
10.What are the two famous books of Ceylon?
11.What is numismatics?
12.Where is Taj Mahal located?
13.Who wrote the book "Geography"?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (5 x 2 = 10 Marks)
14.What are the types of sources?
15.Classify the archaeological sources.
16.Name the foreign literary sources.
17.Name the inscriptions that contributed to indigenous literary composition.
18.Justify how oral sources contribute to the shaping of Indian history.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 2 = 2 Marks)
19.Explain how literature contributes to the construction of Indian history.

Key Answers - Chapter 1: Sources Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Si-yu-ki
2. D) Coins
3. B) Halmidi Inscription
4. C) Cholas
5. B) Lavani
6. A) Ashoka
Section II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
7. Buildings, inscriptions, coins, literary works, archaeological remains, and oral traditions
that help in constructing the history are called sources.
8. The literary work written by Chand Bardai is Prithvi Raj Raso.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
9. Shrivijaya was patronized by king Amoghavarsha.
10. The two famous works from Ceylon are Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa.
11. The study that provides information about the form, development and evolution of coins
is called numismatics.
12. The Taj Mahal is located in Agra.
13. The author of Geography was Ptolemy.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
14.The types of sources are: 1) Literary sources, 2) Archaeological sources, and 3) Oral
sources.
15.Archaeological Sources are classified as: Inscriptions, Coins, Monuments, and
Excavations.
16.Foreign literary works include: Megasthenes’ Indica, Hiuen Tsang’s Si-Yu-Ki, Fa-Hien’s
Gho-Ko-Ki, Ptolemy’s Geography, Barani’s Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, and Ceylon’s Dipavamsa
and Mahavamsa.
17.Inscriptions helpful for Indigenous Literary Works are: Halmidi Inscription, Allahabad
Pillar Inscription, Hathigumpha Inscription, Uttaramerur Inscription, Aihole Inscription,
and Talagunda Inscription.
18.Oral traditions contribute to Indian history by being the history of human society’s
memories, helping to understand India’s diverse heritage, being useful for understanding
local history, and preserving information orally from generation to generation. Examples
include stories about Kempegowda, Sangolli Rayanna, Kittur Rani Chennamma, and
Sindhura Lakshmana.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
19.Written literature is classified into indigenous and foreign literature and reflects the
history of the respective period, assisting historians in analyzing historical information.
Indigenous literature includes works like Kautilya’s Arthashastra, Hala’s Gathasaptashati,
Banabhatta’s Harsha Charita, Pampa’s Vikramarjuna Vijaya, Buddhist Tripitakas, and
Shrivijaya’s Kavirajamarga. Foreign literature, such as Megasthenes’ Indica and Hiuen
Tsang’s Si-Yu-Ki, provides substantial information, while works like Ptolemy’s Geography
and Ceylon’s Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa illuminate dynasties, kings, their achievements,
and socio-political conditions and wars of the time.

Chapter 2: Bharathavarsha Geographical Features of India and Prehistoric Period - Unit Test
(25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
1. The length of the coastline of India is:
A) 7100 kilometres B) 6800 kilometres C) 6100 kilometres D) 8500 kilometres
2. The river that divides India into two equal parts is:
A) Yamuna River B) Ganga River C) Indus River D) Narmada River
3. The neighbouring country to the south of India is:
A) Sri Lanka B) Pakistan C) Bangladesh D) Bhutan
4. Indian foreign trade in ancient times was carried through:
A) Land route B) Sea route C) Air route D) Rail route
5. India is located in this part of the Asian continent:

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 A) Southern part B) Northern part C) Eastern part D) Western part
6. Traces of ash of the prehistoric period were found at:
A) Hunasagi B) Kurnool C) Harappa D) Lothal
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
7. What is the prehistoric period?
8. How many states and union territories are there in India?
9. Which mountain range has the highest peaks in the world?
10.Name the banks of the river that ancient Vedic civilizations emerged from.
11.Which powerful states rose due to the development of ports?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (5 x 2 = 10 Marks)
12.India is a sub-continent, mention the reason.
13.Which countries shared land borders with India?
14."The prehistoric period" is called as prehistory period, why?
15.How did the ancient industrial settlements emerge?
16.Name the valleys through which invasions mostly occurred in India.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
17.Explain about the Stone Age.

Key Answers - Chapter 2: Bharathavarsha Geographical Features of India and Prehistoric

Period Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) 7100 kilometres
2. D) Narmada River
3. A) Sri Lanka
4. B) Sea route
5. A) Southern part
6. B) Kurnool
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
7. The period before humans invented the art of writing is called the prehistoric period.
8. India has 28 states and 8 union territories, including the capital territory of Delhi.
9. The Himalayan mountain range is the highest mountain range in the world.
10.Ancient Vedic civilizations originated along the banks of the Indus-Ganga rivers.
11.The development of port cities led to the rise of the Pandya, Chera, and Chola dynasties.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.India is called a sub-continent because it encompasses diverse geographical features,
cultures, languages, and religions.
13.India shares its land borders with Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan,
Bangladesh, and Myanmar.
14.The period before the invention of writing is called the prehistoric period. Due to the lack
of evidence about language development and script usage, this period is also referred to
as the pre-historic era.
15.Stone tools were essential for human survival in ancient times, leading them to settle in
areas with suitable stones. Humans crafted tools from stones, and such areas are
considered as industrial sites.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
16.Invasions in India primarily occurred through the Khyber and Bolan passes.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
17.The Stone Age is the period when humans made and used stone weapons. It is divided
into several stages:
• The earliest phase is called the Paleolithic or Old Stone Age, dating back about two million
years.
• It extended until around 12,000 years ago.
• This period is further divided into three stages: Early Paleolithic, Middle Paleolithic, and
Late Paleolithic.

Chapter 3: Ancient Indian Civilizations: Sindhu-Saraswati Civilization and Vedic Period - Unit
Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The Indus Valley Civilization was found in the year of:
A) 1920-1921 B) 1925-1926 C) 1911-1912 D) 1947-1948
2. The person who led the excavation of India’s ancient civilization was:
A) Dayaram Sahani B) R.D. Banerjee C) John Marshall D) Cunningham
3. Fire altars were found at:
A) Kalibangan and Lothal B) Mohenjo-Daro C) Harappa D) None of these
4. The site that has an efficient rainwater harvesting system is:
A) Kalibangan B) Dholavira C) Lothal D) Harappa
5. A large dockyard was found at:
A) Dholavira B) Lothal C) Kalibangan D) Mohenjo-Daro
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (10 x 1 = 10 Marks)
6. Who declared the "Harappan Civilization" for the first time?
7. Mention the period of the Vedic civilization.
8. State the origin of the term 'veda'.
9. Which was the most ancient Veda?
10.In which mandala and sukta of the Rigveda was the caste system mentioned?
11.Name the main occupation during the later Vedic period.
12.How many hymns are there in the Rigveda?
13.Name two major civilizations of the world.
14.How was the Saraswati River called?
15.Where are most of the ruins of the Indus-Saraswati Civilization found?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
16.What was the ancient civilization of India called?
17.Name the Vedas.
18.Describe the town planning of Harappa.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
19.Explain the significance of the Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro.

Key Answers - Chapter 3: Ancient Indian Civilizations: Sindhu-Saraswati Civilization and Vedic Period Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) 1920-1921

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
2. C) John Marshall
3. A) Kalibangan and Lothal
4. B) Dholavira
5. B) Lothal
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. John Marshall was the first person to declare it as “Harappa Civilization”.
7. The Vedic period spans from 1500 BCE to 700 BCE.
8. The word “Veda” means knowledge (vid).
9. The oldest Veda is the Rigveda.
10.The Purusha Sukta in the Rigveda mentions the varna system.
11.The primary occupation during the Later Vedic period was agriculture.
12.The Rigveda contains 1,028 hymns.
13.Major world civilizations include: Egyptian civilization and Mesopotamian civilization.
14.The Saraswati River is called Guptagamini.
15.Traces of the Indus-Saraswati civilization are mostly found in Sindh and Punjab provinces.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
16.The ancient civilization of India was called by several names, including the Indus Valley
Civilization, the Indus-Saraswati Civilization, the Harappa Civilization, or the Mohenjo-
Daro Civilization.
17.The four Vedas are: Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda.
18.Harappa had two or more divisions. The western part was smaller and elevated, known
as the citadel, while the eastern part was larger and lower, referred to as the village. Each
section was surrounded by walls of burnt bricks, ensuring their sturdiness.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
19.The Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro was built with burnt bricks, and care was taken to
prevent water leakage. It featured steps on both sides for access and had rooms around
the bath. Water was supplied to the bath from a well, and there was a system in place to
drain used water. It is believed that this structure was likely used by important individuals
for bathing.

Chapter 4: Prominent Civilizations of the World - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The civilization that was discovered on the banks of the River Nile is:
A) Egyptian Civilization B) Maya Civilization C) Indus Civilization D) Inca Civilization
2. The king who conquered Persia in the 4th century B.C.E. was:
A) Cambyses B) Alexander C) Augustus D) Cleopatra
3. The first writing in Mesopotamia was developed by:
A) Babylonians B) Assyrians C) Sumerians D) Chaldeans
4. The Hanging Gardens of Babylon were constructed by:
A) Amytis B) Nebuchadnezzar C) Sammu-ramat D) None of these
5. Hieroglyphics, the system of writing, belongs to the period of:
A) Mayans B) Egyptian Civilization C) Babylonians D) Indus Civilization
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (8 x 1 = 8 Marks)
6. Name the language of the Romans.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
7. Who called Mesopotamia the "land of two rivers"?
8. What is "mummy"?
9. What is "pyramid"?
10.Which king built the city of Alexandria?
11.Which was the epicentre of the Mesopotamian civilization?
12.Who was the famous king of Babylonia?
13.Which was the first dynasty of Chinese civilization?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (4 x 2 = 8 Marks)
14.How were Egyptian kings called, and what was their significance?
15.Explain what a 'mummy' is and its purpose in ancient Egypt.
16.Huang Ho River is called "China’s Sorrow". Why?
17.What are the characteristics of Hammurabi’s Code?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
18.Mention the historical significance of the Great Wall of China.

Key Answers - Chapter 4: Prominent Civilizations of the World Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Egyptian Civilization
2. B) Alexander
3. C) Sumerians
4. B) Nebuchadnezzar
5. B) Egyptian Civilization
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The language of the Romans was Latin.
7. The Greeks called Mesopotamia the "land of two rivers".
8. A mummy is a body preserved by coating it with chemicals and wrapping it in thin cloth.
9. The tallest tower built over the tombs of Greek kings is called a pyramid.
10.The city of Alexandria was built by King Ptolemy.
11.The central location of Mesopotamian civilization was the Euphrates and Tigris rivers.
12.The famous king of the Babylonians was Nebuchadnezzar.
13.The first dynasty of Chinese civilization was the Shang dynasty.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
14.The kings of Egypt were called Pharaohs. They were considered divine rulers and held
immense political and religious authority, guiding the civilization.
15.A 'mummy' is a body preserved by coating it with chemicals and wrapping it in thin cloth.
Its purpose was to preserve the body for the afterlife, as ancient Egyptians believed in a
continuation of life after death and the need for the body to remain intact for the soul's
journey.
16.The Huang Ho River is called "China’s Sorrow" because it frequently changed its course
during floods, causing immense damage. These floods destroyed houses, agricultural
land, and canals, leading to widespread hardship for settlements.
17.Hammurabi’s Code was based on the principle of “an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth”.
This code ensured that the same harm was inflicted on the perpetrator as he caused to

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 the victim and was formulated to protect Babylonian society, including women and
slaves.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
18.The Great Wall of China holds significant historical importance. Originally, China was
comprised of many small states, which were later unified. To protect this unified state from
northern invasions, independent walls along the borders were connected, forming the
massive Great Wall. Its construction began in the 7th century BCE and continued until the
16th century BCE. Spanning 5,000 kilometres, it stands as one of the wonders of the
world, serving as a testament to ancient engineering and strategic defense.

Chapter 5: Sanatana Dharma - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The teachings of Buddha were famous primarily because of:
A) The four noble truth B) Prakrit language C) Simple dress code D) The Eight Fold Path
2. Which of these are considered the foundations of Sanatana Dharma?
A) Traditions B) Puranas C) Vedas D) Philosophies
3. Hinduism is called Sanatana Dharma because:
A) It includes Vedic practices B) It is based on Puranas and philosophies C) It has a historical
background D) It has been practiced since ancient times
4. The concept of 'unity in diversity' in India is best reflected by which aspect discussed in
Sanatana Dharma?
A) Strict adherence to a single set of customs B) Appreciation of diverse cultures and
languages C) Exclusive focus on ancient traditions D) Promotion of a uniform lifestyle
5. What does the term 'Smriti' refer to in the context of Sanatana Dharma?
A) Ancient hymns B) Post-Vedic compositions and Upanishads C) Philosophical debates D)
Oral traditions
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. If you visited Shravanabelagola and saw Jain monks dressed in white, to which sect of
Jainism do they belong?
7. Name the four Vedas that are considered fundamental to Sanatana Dharma.
8. Mention one value that can be inculcated by adopting the teachings of Mahaveera and
Buddha, according to the source.
9. Which major global issue, as stated in the source, can Buddha's teachings help resolve?
10.What is the primary wish expressed in the peace mantra of Sanatana Dharma?
11.How was the family system generally structured in the Vedic society, according to the text?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Explain how the Eightfold Path, as taught by Buddha, can help individuals lead a joyful life.
13.State two unique features of Sanatana Dharma as presented in the source.
14.How does the peace mantra in Sanatana Dharma reflect an inclusive and compassionate
ethos?
IV: Answer the following questions in five or six sentences. (2 x 4 = 8 Marks)
15.Discuss the key differences between Vedic society and modern society as outlined in the
provided text.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
16.According to the source, how can the principles of Jainism and Buddhism, such as non-
violence and compassion, help in addressing contemporary global issues like war and
economic crises?

Key Answers - Chapter 5: Sanatana Dharma Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. D) The Eight Fold Path
2. D) Philosophies
3. D) It has been practiced since ancient times
4. B) Appreciation of diverse cultures and languages
5. B) Post-Vedic compositions and Upanishads
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The monks belong to the Shwetambara sect of Jainism.
7. The four Vedas are Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda, and Atharvaveda.
8. One value is non-violence or self-discipline or empathy or harmony or peace or spiritual
growth.
9. Buddha's teachings can help resolve war, economic crises, terrorism, and violence.
10.The primary wish is for happiness, peace, and tranquility for all living beings.
11.The family system in Vedic society was generally a joint family system.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Gautama Buddha taught that the Eightfold Path can help overcome suffering. It provides
guidance on how to manage stress in life through positive thoughts and decisions,
enabling individuals to lead a better life.
13.Two unique features of Sanatana Dharma are: it encourages everyone to be happy and
free from disease and negative thoughts. It also wishes that everyone witnesses
auspiciousness and that no one experiences sorrow.
14.The peace mantra in Sanatana Dharma reflects an inclusive and compassionate ethos
because it wishes happiness for all and prays for freedom from diseases and negative
thoughts for everyone. It desires that no one experiences sorrow and extends wishes of
eternal happiness, peace, and tranquility to all living beings, promoting universal well-
being and harmony.
IV: Answer the following questions in five or six sentences.
15.The source outlines several differences between Vedic society and modern society. Vedic
society was primarily based on a joint family system, whereas modern society has largely
shifted to a nuclear family system. The varna system was prevalent in Vedic society, which
evolved into the more rigid caste system in modern times. While Sanskrit was the primary
language in the Vedic period, modern society uses a variety of languages. Furthermore,
Vedic society relied on animal husbandry and agriculture, but modern society
incorporates agriculture, industry, and commerce as main occupations.
16.According to the source, the Buddhist and Jain principles, such as non-violence and
compassion, can help resolve contemporary global issues like war, economic crises,
terrorism, and violence. These teachings promote peace and harmony, thereby reducing
conflicts and encouraging an equitable distribution of resources to address economic
inequality. By fostering empathy and understanding, they help build a peaceful global

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 society, and their emphasis on simplicity and contentment can mitigate economic greed
and crises.

Chapter 6: Jainism and Buddhism - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The teachings of Buddha were famous primarily because of:
A) The four noble truth B) Prakrit language C) Simple dress code D) The Eight Fold Path
2. Jain monks who wear white clothes belong to which sect of Jainism?
A) Digambara B) Shwetambara C) Sthanakvasi D) Terapanthi
3. Which of the following values is promoted by the teachings of Mahaveera and Buddha?
A) Material wealth B) Non-violence C) Social hierarchy D) Retribution
4. The Eightfold Path primarily aims to help individuals overcome:
A) Poverty B) Suffering C) Ignorance of history D) Lack of social status
5. Which country is listed as practicing Buddhism in the provided text?
A) Russia B) Australia C) Japan D) America
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. If you visited Shravanabelagola and saw Jain monks dressed in white, to which sect of
Jainism do they belong?
7. Mention one value that can be inculcated by adopting the teachings of Mahaveera and
Buddha.
8. Which major global issue, as stated in the source, can Buddha's teachings help resolve?
9. What is the primary aim of Buddha's Eightfold Path?
10.Name one country where Buddhism is practiced, as mentioned in the source.
11.According to the teachings of Buddha and Mahaveera, what can be managed through
positive thoughts and decisions?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (4 x 2 = 8 Marks)
12.Explain how the Eightfold Path, as taught by Buddha, can help individuals lead a joyful life.
13.According to the source, how can the principles of non-violence and compassion from
Jainism and Buddhism contribute to resolving global issues?
14.List any two countries, as per the source, where Buddhism is practiced.
15.What kind of life is promoted by the teachings of Mahaveera and Buddha through
concepts like simple living and self-reflection?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 6 = 6 Marks)
16.Elaborate on the various values that can be inculcated by adopting the teachings of
Mahaveera and Buddha.

Key Answers - Chapter 6: Jainism and Buddhism Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. D) The Eight Fold Path
2. B) Shwetambara
3. B) Non-violence
4. B) Suffering
5. C) Japan
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
6. The monks belong to the Shwetambara sect of Jainism.
7. One value is non-violence (or self-discipline, empathy, harmony, peace, spiritual growth).
8. Buddha's teachings can help resolve war, economic crises, terrorism, and violence.
9. The primary aim of Buddha's Eightfold Path is to help overcome suffering and manage
stress in life.
10.One country where Buddhism is practiced, as mentioned in the source, is Sri Lanka (or
Myanmar, China, Bhutan, Tibet, Japan, Cambodia).
11.According to the teachings, stress in life can be managed through positive thoughts and
decisions.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Gautama Buddha taught that the Eightfold Path can help individuals overcome suffering.
It provides guidance on how to manage stress in life through positive thoughts and
decisions, enabling individuals to lead a better and joyful life.
13.The principles of non-violence and compassion from Jainism and Buddhism can contribute
to resolving global issues by promoting peace and harmony, thereby reducing conflicts.
They also encourage equitable distribution of resources to address economic inequality.
14.Two countries where Buddhism is practiced, as listed in the source, are Sri Lanka and
Japan (or Myanmar, China, Bhutan, Tibet, Cambodia).
15.The teachings of Mahaveera and Buddha promote a disciplined life guided by non-
violence, simple living, self-reflection, and adherence to ethical rules. This includes
fostering values such as integrity, self-discipline, empathy, harmony, peace, and spiritual
growth.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
16.The teachings of Mahaveera and Buddha offer a pathway to inculcate various essential
values. They demonstrate that suffering can be overcome, and stress in life can be
effectively managed through positive thinking and decisions, leading to a better and more
joyful existence. Their principles emphasize non-violence, simple living, self-reflection,
and strict adherence to ethical rules, guiding individuals towards a disciplined life.
Fundamentally, these teachings promote integrity, self-discipline, empathy, harmony,
peace, and spiritual growth, which are crucial for both individual well-being and societal
peace.

Chapter 7: Meaning and Importance of Political Science - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The father of political science is:
A) Herodotus B) Aristotle C) Plato D) Socrates
2. The book "Republic" was written by:
A) Socrates B) Aristotle C) Plato D) Herodotus
3. The book authored by Kautilya is:
A) Arthashastra B) Political Science C) Sociology D) Mathematics
4. The term "politics" originates from which word?
A) Politeia B) Polis C) Polite D) Polity
5. Who gave political science the status of an independent study?
A) Romans B) Indians C) Greeks D) Egyptians

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Why is Aristotle called the "Father of Political Science"?
7. What is the primary definition of political science?
8. Mention the origin of the word "politics".
9. Name the author of the book "Politics".
10.Which book discusses the origin, development, and functions of the state?
11.Name one political thinker mentioned in the context of Greek contributions to political
science.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What are the key topics discussed in Aristotle's book "Politics"?
13.State two important aspects that the study of political science helps us understand.
14.List any two subjects studied within the scope of political science.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the contributions of the Greeks to the field of political science.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Justify why the knowledge of political science is essential for everyone.

Key Answers - Chapter 7: Meaning and Importance of Political Science Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Aristotle
2. C) Plato
3. A) Arthashastra
4. B) Polis
5. C) Greeks
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. Aristotle systemized the study of political science.
7. Political science studies the state and human political activities.
8. The origin of the word "politics" is polis.
9. The book "Politics" was written by Aristotle.
10.The book "Politics" discusses the origin, development, and functions of the state.
11.Socrates (or Plato or Aristotle).
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Aristotle's book "Politics" discusses the origin, development, and functions of the state.
13.The study of political science helps us understand the origin and development of the
state. It also provides information about the structure and functions of state and central
governments.
14.Political science studies the political life of human beings and examines the structure of
the state. Other valid points include: it explores the relationship between the state and
government, analyzes the origin and characteristics of the state, studies political
institutions and the administration of the state, or covers citizens’ rights and
responsibilities.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The Greeks made significant contributions to political science. Philosophers like Socrates,
Plato, and Aristotle were prominent political thinkers. Plato's work "Republic" contains

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 references to political science. Aristotle authored the book "Politics", which discusses the
state's origin, development, and functions. Because he systemized its study, Aristotle is
honoured as the "Father of Political Science". The Greeks were instrumental in giving
political science the status of an independent science.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The knowledge of political science is essential for everyone because it helps in
understanding the origin and development of the state. It educates individuals about
fundamental concepts such as sovereignty, liberty, law, and equality. Furthermore, it
provides insights into good governance, war, and peace and informs about the
functioning of central and state governments. This knowledge fosters political awareness
necessary for establishing a modern welfare state, develops qualities of citizenship and
leadership, and enhances the understanding of international relations.

Chapter 8: Citizen and Citizenship - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The Citizenship Act was enacted in this year:
A) 1950 B) 1956 C) 1955 D) 1947
2. People temporarily residing in another country are called:
A) Foreigners B) Natives C) Permanent citizens D) Criminals
3. The constitutional article that was related to fundamental duties is:
A) 76 B B) 53 B C) 51 A D) 73
4. If a person acquires citizenship by illegal means, the method by which they lose it is:
A) Renunciation B) Deprivation C) Registration D) Termination
5. Which country is given as the best example of granting dual citizenship in the source?
A) India B) America C) Pakistan D) Canada
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Which type of citizenship does India grant to its citizens?
7. Mention one method of obtaining Indian citizenship.
8. Mention one method of losing Indian citizenship.
9. Which country grants citizenship through property acquisition?
10.What is one essential requirement to be called a citizen?
11.State one benefit that citizens receive from the nation.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.List any two methods of obtaining citizenship.
13.What are the two types of citizenship?
14.Explain what a citizen is, based on the definition provided in the source.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the concept of 'naturalized citizenship' as a method of acquiring Indian citizenship.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Describe the key differences between a citizen and a foreigner.

Key Answers - Chapter 8: Citizen and Citizenship Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) 1955

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
2. A) Foreigners
3. C) 51 A
4. D) Termination
5. B) America
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. India provides single citizenship to its citizens.
7. One method of obtaining Indian citizenship is Citizenship by birth. (Accept any of the five
methods mentioned).
8. One method of losing Indian citizenship is Renunciation. (Accept any of the three methods
mentioned).
9. Mexico has a policy of granting citizenship through property acquisition.
10.An essential requirement to be called a citizen is to be an individual who holds
membership in a country. (Also accept: remains loyal to it, enjoys civil and political rights,
or fulfills the fundamental duties assigned by the state).
11.Citizens receive security and protection from the nation. (Also accept: enjoy civil and
political rights provided by the state).
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Two methods of obtaining citizenship are Citizenship by birth and Citizenship by descent
(blood relation). (Any two of the five listed in the source).
13.The two types of citizenship are single citizenship and dual citizenship.
14.A citizen is an individual who holds membership in a country and remains loyal to it.
They enjoy civil and political rights and fulfill the fundamental duties assigned by the
state.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.Naturalized citizenship is a process where foreigners can apply to the President of India
to obtain Indian citizenship. In such cases, applicants must have resided in India for at
least five years. Additionally, they need to fulfill the conditions prescribed by the
government for the application to be considered. This method allows individuals who
have established a significant connection to India, despite not being born there or having
Indian descent, to acquire citizenship.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The key differences between a citizen and a foreigner are distinct and fundamental. A
citizen is a permanent resident of a country, whereas a foreigner is considered a
temporary resident. Crucially, citizens possess political rights, which are generally not
extended to foreigners. Furthermore, a citizen owes unwavering loyalty to their own
country, while a foreigner is loyal to their nation of origin. A significant distinction is that
foreigners can be deported for illegal activities, but citizens cannot be ordered to leave
their own country. In essence, citizens enjoy the full range of rights and responsibilities,
while foreigners have limited rights based on their temporary status.

Chapter 9: Man and Society - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The father of sociology is:
A) Herbert Spencer B) August Comte C) Max Weber D) Aristotle

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
2. The Indian university that first introduced Sociology was:
A) Mumbai University B) Hampi University C) Karnataka University D) Mysore University
3. The place where formal education is received is:
A) School B) Neighbourhood C) Home D) Family
4. Karl Marx is a philosopher from this country:
A) Italy B) Japan C) India D) Germany
5. What kind of animal is a human, according to the source?
A) Solitary B) Social C) Wild D) Domestic
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. State the origin of the word "sociology".
7. Define sociology according to August Comte.
8. Why is human society called a "web of social relationships"?
9. How do humans express their emotions?
10.What is the most important argument in Karl Marx’s scientific socialism?
11.How does Aristotle describe human beings regarding society?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What is socialization?
13.Explain why language is essential for humans.
14.List any two differences between animals and humans.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the importance of studying sociology.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Explain why the social environment is essential for human development, citing an
example.

Key Answers - Chapter 9: Man and Society Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) August Comte
2. A) Mumbai University
3. A) School
4. D) Germany
5. B) Social
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The term sociology originates from the Latin word socius and the Greek word logos.
7. According to August Comte, sociology is the science that studies the matters related to
social order and progress.
8. Human society is called a "web of social relationships" because society is essential for
human development, and social relationships are necessary for human existence.
9. Humans express their emotions through language.
10.Karl Marx asserted that society is characterised by economic inequality.
11.Aristotle described humans as social beings.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Socialization is a process through which individuals learn language, reading, play, thought
processes, and body language through society.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
13.Language is essential for humans because it is needed to express opinions and share
emotions effectively. While some emotions can be conveyed through physical gestures,
verbal language is crucial for understanding all types of emotions.
14.Two differences between animals and humans are: Humans have the ability to think,
while animals do not. Also, humans have knowledge of spoken languages, whereas
animals cannot speak.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The importance of studying sociology is multifaceted. Firstly, it contributes to personality
development by helping individuals understand their roles and interactions within society.
Secondly, it provides solutions to social problems, allowing for the identification and
addressing of societal challenges. Thirdly, it imparts knowledge about modern
developments, keeping individuals informed about societal changes. Lastly, it aids in the
progress of backward and weaker sections and supports the mental and physical well-
being of humans, fostering a more equitable and healthy society.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The social environment is essential for human development because, without it,
individuals may not develop typical human behaviours and skills. This concept is
powerfully illustrated by the example of Kamala. In 1920, Kamala was found living in the
forests of Midnapur for nine years with animals, behaving like them – eating raw meat and
walking on all fours. However, after being brought into human society, she gradually
learned to eat food, speak, and behave like other children. This transformation
demonstrates that without a social environment, humans might behave like animals,
highlighting that human development, including the acquisition of language and social
norms, is deeply dependent on interaction within a social context.

Chapter 10: Man and Culture - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The word "culture" originates from this language:
A) Latin B) Greek C) Roman D) Hebrew
2. A culture with diverse customs, attire, and language is called as:
A) Folk tradition B) Custom C) Diverse culture D) Socialization
3. Activities that we engage repeatedly in daily life are:
A) Superstitions B) Folk traditions C) Customs D) Culture
4. The feature of culture that justifies language being inherited from ancestors is:
A) Culture varies from society to society. B) Culture constantly changes. C) Culture is
transferred from one generation to another. D) Culture is not different.
5. What is explicitly stated as a component of culture in its definition?
A) Innate genetic codes B) Instinctive behaviors C) Skills learned as a member of human
society D) Biological predispositions
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What is culture?
7. What is cultural diversity?
8. Name any two folk traditions.
9. Give an example of cultural diversity in your surroundings.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
10.How do people learn language from elders, according to the source?
11.What is one specific action mentioned in the source that shows respect for other cultures?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.List out the values that you learn as a member of society.
13.Justify how culture is transferred from one generation to another, as explained in the
source.
14.According to the source, how can one respect the customs and traditions of other cultures
like their own?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Justify the concept of unity in diversity in India based on the information provided in the
source.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Explain the concept of culture by detailing its definition and the process through which it
is learned and passed on, as described in the source.

Key Answers - Chapter 10: Man and Culture Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Latin
2. C) Diverse culture
3. C) Customs
4. C) Culture is transferred from one generation to another.
5. C) Skills learned as a member of human society
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. Culture is a complex system comprising knowledge, art, ethics, law, customs, and skills
learned as a member of human society.
7. Cultural diversity is a culture that includes diverse customs, traditions, attire, beliefs,
values, and languages.
8. Two folk traditions are eating and sleeping. (Accept any two reasonable examples of daily
activities repeatedly engaged in)
9. An example of cultural diversity in your surroundings is using different languages, wearing
varied attire, and celebrating various festivals. (Accept any one)
10.People learn language from elders by imitating them.
11.One way to show respect for other cultures is by appreciating their positive aspects. (Also
accept: adopting good customs, participating in others’ cultural practices, encouraging
others’ cultural practices, inviting others to one’s own, highlighting similarities in
traditions)
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12. As a member of society, values learned include mutual cooperation, responding to
those in distress, co-existence, respect for elders, truth, peace, and honesty.
13. Culture is transferred from one generation to another because people learn language
from elders. They imitate the celebration of festivals and adopt elders’ behavior, customs,
attire, and values, thereby passing on cultural elements.
14. One can respect the customs and traditions of other cultures by appreciating their
positive aspects and adopting good customs. It also involves participating in others’ cultural

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
practices, encouraging them, inviting others to one’s own, and highlighting similarities in
traditions.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The concept of unity in diversity in India is justified by the fact that it is a land of various
religions, languages, regions, ethnicities, cultures, traditions, and races, yet there is
unity. Despite diverse geographical environments, unity prevails, showcasing a unique
social fabric where distinct identities coexist harmoniously within a single nation. This
inherent unity amidst a multitude of differences is a defining characteristic of India's
cultural landscape.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.Culture is defined as a complex system comprising knowledge, art, ethics, law, customs,
and skills learned as a member of human society. It encompasses the entire way of life
passed down through generations. This learning process is fundamental to its
transmission; for instance, people learn language from elders. They also imitate the
celebration of festivals and adopt elders’ behaviour, customs, attire, and values. This
continuous process ensures that cultural elements are not just preserved but are actively
transferred from one generation to another, forming a continuous chain of shared
understanding and practices that shape human societies.

Chapter 11: Earth – Our Living Planet - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The position of Earth in terms of size in Solar System is:
A) Largest planet B) Fifth largest planet C) Fourth largest planet D) Sixth largest planet
2. The largest ocean is:
A) Pacific Ocean B) Atlantic Ocean C) Indian Ocean D) Arctic Ocean
3. The percentage of water in the Southern Hemisphere is:
A) 81% B) 19% C) 50% D) 71%
4. The distance between one latitude to another on the surface of Earth is:
A) 111 km B) 110.4 km C) 100 km D) 112 km
5. The prime meridian passes through Greenwich is:
A) 0° longitude B) 180° longitude C) 110° longitude D) 82° longitude
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. How many times larger is Earth's diameter compared to the Sun?
7. What percentage of Earth's surface is covered by water?
8. How many continents are found on Earth?
9. Which is the smallest ocean on Earth?
10.Why is the Southern Hemisphere called the water-dominated hemisphere?
11.How long does Earth take to complete one rotation on its axis?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What are the different names of the Earth?
13.What are latitudes and longitudes?
14.Why is Earth called a unique planet?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.How are the location, direction, and distance of a place determined on Earth?

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Justify how latitudes and longitudes play a significant role in determining the climate of a
region.

Key Answers - Chapter 11: Earth – Our Living Planet Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Fifth largest planet
2. A) Pacific Ocean
3. A) 81%
4. B) 110.4 km
5. A) 0° longitude
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The Earth’s diameter is 107 times smaller than that of the Sun.
7. Water covers 70.78% of the Earth’s surface.
8. The Earth’s landmass is divided into seven continents.
9. The Arctic Ocean is the smallest ocean on Earth.
10.The Southern Hemisphere is called the water-dominated hemisphere because 81% of it is
covered by water.
11.The Earth takes 24 hours to complete one rotation on its axis.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Names for Earth include the living planet, water-covered planet, unique planet, and blue
planet.
13.Latitudes are imaginary lines drawn east-west on the globe. Longitudes are imaginary
lines that intersect the equator and connect the North and South Poles.
14.The Earth is the only planet in the solar system with life, providing a habitat for plants,
animals, and humans. Its favorable distance from the Sun supports life, making it a unique
planet.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The Earth is spherical, making it difficult to measure location, direction, and distance. To
overcome this, imaginary lines—latitudes (east-west) and longitudes (north-south)—are
drawn to measure specific locations, directions, and distances. These geographical
coordinates help in the precise identification of places.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.Latitudes and longitudes play a significant role in determining the climate of a region. The
regions between 23° 30' North and South latitudes receive maximum solar heat and are
considered the Torrid Zone, where the climate is hot. Areas between 23° 30' and 66° 30'
in both hemispheres receive moderate heat and are called the Temperate Zone. Regions
from 66° 30' to 90° North and South are considered the Frigid Zone due to low solar heat.
Thus, the positioning relative to these imaginary lines, particularly latitudes, directly
dictates the amount of solar radiation received, thereby influencing the climate of a
region.

Chapter 12: Lithosphere - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
1. The landforms formed by the denudation of the wind are:
A) Mushroom rocks, rock pedestals, sand dunes, loess plains B) V-shaped valleys,
waterfalls, flood plains, meanders C) U-shaped valleys, mountain peaks, rock terraces,
hanging valleys D) Stalactites, sinkholes, underground caves, descending caves
2. Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) is located in the state of:
A) Karnataka B) Andhra Pradesh C) Goa D) Maharashtra
3. The sedimentary rock formed due to chemical weathering is:
A) Graphite B) Garnet C) Gypsum D) Limestone
4. The famous volcano of Italy is:
A) Mount Krakatoa B) Mount Pelee C) Mount Vesuvius D) Mount Fuji
5. The earthquake monitoring center in Karnataka is located at:
A) Hyderabad B) Dehradun C) Pune D) Gauribidanur
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What is lithosphere?
7. How old is the Earth?
8. Name the zone where the crust meets the mantle.
9. What is magma?
10.What is a volcanic crater?
11.Which scale is used to measure the intensity of an earthquake?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Name the different layers of the Earth's interior.
13.What are the types of rock?
14.What is an active volcano? Give an example.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.What is chemical weathering? Name four types.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Justify how human activities play a major role in causing natural disasters.

Key Answers - Chapter 12: Lithosphere Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Mushroom rocks, rock pedestals, sand dunes, loess plains
2. A) Karnataka
3. C) Gypsum
4. C) Mount Vesuvius
5. D) Gauribidanur
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The outermost solid layer of the Earth is called the lithosphere.
7. The Earth is 4.6 billion years old.
8. The zone where the crust and mantle meet is called the Moho zone.
9. Molten or semi-molten rock material inside the Earth is called magma.
10.The cone-shaped mouth of a volcano is called a volcanic crater.
11.The intensity of an earthquake is measured using the Richter scale.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The different layers of the Earth’s interior are the crust, mantle, and core.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
13.Rocks are classified into three types: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks.
14.Volcanoes that erupt repeatedly are called active volcanoes. An example is Mauna Loa
in the Hawaiian Islands.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.Chemical disintegration is the process where rainwater combines with atmospheric gases
to break down rocks. The four types are oxidation, hydration, solution, and carbonation.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.Human activities play a major role in causing natural disasters through various actions.
Population growth leads to increased pressure on natural resources. Industrialization
and urbanization degrade the environment, and deforestation, excessive rainfall, and
drought disrupt ecosystems. Furthermore, mining alters the Earth's surface, and
environmental pollution, including land, water, and air pollution, exacerbates natural
disasters. These collective human activities increase the frequency of natural calamities.

Chapter 13: Atmosphere - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The highest temperature recorded region of India is:
A) Ambika Nagar, Karnataka B) Ganganagar, Rajasthan C) Kargil, Kashmir D) Nayakanahatti
2. The instrument that was used to measure air pressure is:
A) Barometer B) Richter scale C) Ammeter D) Voltmeter
3. The winds blowing at 40° latitude are called as:
A) Roaring Forties B) Furious Fifties C) Screaming Sixties D) Howling Seventies
4. The cyclonic winds in India are known as:
A) Cyclone B) Hurricane C) Laila D) Typhoon
5. The instrument used to determine the direction of wind is:
A) Anemometer B) Wind vane C) Barometer D) Richter scale
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What is the thickness of the atmosphere?
7. What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?
8. What is Insolation?
9. What are isobars?
10.What is humidity?
11.Which zone receives the direct rays of the Sun?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What factors influence weather conditions?
13.What is atmospheric pressure?
14.List out the types of winds.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.What are clouds? Name their types.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Write about the structure of the atmosphere.

Key Answers - Chapter 13: Atmosphere Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
1. B) Ganganagar, Rajasthan
2. A) Barometer
3. A) Roaring Forties
4. A) Cyclone
5. B) Wind vane
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The thickness of the atmosphere is approximately 1,000 kilometers.
7. The proportion of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere is 78.08%.
8. The heat received by the Earth from the Sun is called solar heat, also known as Insolation.
9. Lines that connect places with the same pressure are called isobars.
10.The moisture content in the atmosphere is called humidity.
11.The Torrid Zone receives the direct rays of the Sun.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Weather conditions include temperature, pressure, winds, humidity, rainfall, and clouds.
13.Air has weight and exerts pressure on the Earth’s surface. This is called atmospheric
pressure.
14.The types of winds are: Planetary winds, Periodic winds, Local winds, and Cyclonic and
anticyclone winds.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.When the temperature of the atmosphere decreases, water vapor condenses into tiny
water droplets, forming clouds. Clouds are classified into three main types based on their
characteristics: Stratus clouds, Cumulus clouds, and Cirrus clouds, along with
Cumulonimbus clouds.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The atmosphere is a mixture of various gases, dust particles, and water vapor. It is
divided into five layers based on its characteristics:
• The Troposphere, the lowest layer, experiences all weather changes, with decreasing
temperature and pressure as altitude increases.
• The Stratosphere, the second layer, contains ozone, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet
rays, protecting life on Earth.
• The Mesosphere, the third layer, has extremely low temperatures.
• The Ionosphere (Thermosphere) has high temperatures, and air molecules ionize, hence
the name.
• The Exosphere, the outermost layer, has very low pressure.

Chapter 14: Meaning and Importance of Economics - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The quality of goods or services that satisfies human desires is called as:
A) Desire B) Utility C) Satisfaction D) Reward
2. Physical and intellectual work conducted for monetary benefit is:
A) Social activity B) Cultural activity C) Economic activity D) Political activity
3. The book authored by Kautilya is:
A) Republic B) Arthashastra C) Politics D) Panchatantra
4. The word "Economics" is derived from this country:

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 A) Greek B) Roman C) American D) Indian
5. The creation of goods and services is referred to as:
A) Consumption B) Distribution C) Production D) Exchange
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Who is considered as the father of economics?
7. Which subject studies about wealth?
8. What is the base for all economic activities?
9. Explain the origin of the term "economics".
10.What does the government impose on the goods and services it provides?
11.What are productive activities?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What is 'utility'?
13.Mention the four classifications of economic activities.
14.Why is economics considered the science of wealth?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain economic activities.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.List out the reasons for the necessary study of economics.

Key Answers - Chapter 14: Meaning and Importance of Economics Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Utility
2. C) Economic activity
3. B) Arthashastra
4. A) Greek
5. C) Production
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. Adam Smith is considered as the father of economics.
7. The subject that studies about wealth is Economics.
8. The base for all economic activities is human desire.
9. The term "economics" comes from the Greek words oikos and nomos.
10.The government imposes taxes on the goods and services it provides.
11.Activities undertaken to produce goods and services are called productive activities.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Utility is the quality of goods or services that satisfies human desires.
13.Economic activities are classified into four groups: Productive Activities, Consumption
Activities, Exchange Activities, and Distribution Activities.
14.Economics is considered the science of wealth because it primarily studies matters related
to wealth. It analyzes how wealth is created, distributed, and consumed to satisfy human
desires.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.Humans engage in various economic activities to fulfill their desires by earning money.
These activities are classified into four groups:

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 • Productive Activities: Involve producing goods and services (e.g., agriculture, industry,
fishing).
• Consumption Activities: Involve using goods and services to satisfy human desires.
• Exchange Activities: Involve the collection, transportation, buying, and selling of goods.
• Distribution Activities: Involve determining the value of factors of production.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The study of economics is necessary for several reasons:
• It helps understand and address issues like poverty and unemployment.
• It identifies causes for economic inequality and suggests solutions.
• It provides solutions for meeting unlimited desires with limited resources.
• It guides decisions on what, how, and by whom goods should be produced.
• It helps to find the causes for price fluctuations and find solutions.
• It emphasizes the need for resource conservation and efficient use.
• It also aids in understanding national income and per capita income, which are indicators
of a nation's progress.

Chapter 15: Meaning and Importance of Business Studies - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. Cottage industries are commonly found in:
A) Towns B) Cities C) Villages D) Big city
2. Purchasing of goods from other countries for one's own use is:
A) Import B) Export C) Re-export D) Trade
3. These traders buy goods in large quantities and sell them in small quantities to consumers:
A) Wholesalers B) Retailers C) Manufacturers D) Distributors
4. Primary sector: Agriculture :: Tertiary sector……………………….
A) Dairy farming B) Industry C) Mining D) Transport
5. Selling of goods by one nation to another country is called as:
A) Re-export B) Export C) Import D) Retail trade
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Who are hawkers?
7. What is internal trade?
8. Give an example of a country engaged in re-export trade.
9. Give an example of a cottage industry.
10.What is the main objective of trade?
11.Which symbol is used to indicate the quality of agricultural products?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.What is trade? Mention its types.
13.What is foreign trade? Name its components.
14.What are industrial enterprises?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.List out the advantages of wholesale trade.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Justify why retailers are considered the final link in the distribution of goods.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
Key Answers - Chapter 15: Meaning and Importance of Business Studies Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Villages
2. A) Import
3. B) Retailers
4. D) Transport
5. B) Export
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. Hawkers are traders who carry goods on their heads and sell them door-to-door.
7. Internal trade refers to business conducted within a country.
8. An example of a country engaged in re-export trade is Singapore.
9. An example of a cottage industry is pottery making.
10.The main objective of trade is to earn profit.
11.The Agmark symbol is used to indicate the quality of agricultural products.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Trade is defined as the buying of goods and selling them to customers. It is primarily
classified into two types: Domestic trade and International trade.
13.Foreign trade refers to trade between two or more countries. Its three main components
are Import, Export, and Re-export.
14.Industrial enterprises are businesses involved in the production of goods, typically
through manufacturing or processing raw materials [Inference from content, as the
source lists 'manufacturing industries' and 'mining industries' as types]. These are broadly
classified into Primary Industries (e.g., genetic industries, mining industries) and
Secondary Industries (e.g., manufacturing industries, construction industries).
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The advantages of wholesale trade include:
• Wholesalers assist retail traders by providing goods in required quantities.
• They often provide credit facilities to retailers, helping them manage their working
capital.
• They advertise on behalf of retailers, promoting products to the broader market.
• Wholesalers also provide market information to both producers and retailers, which helps
in decision-making.
• They typically keep low-profit margins, focusing on sales volume.
• Furthermore, they help to store manufactured goods, acting as a crucial link in the supply
chain between producers and retailers.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.Retailers are considered the final link in the distribution of goods for several compelling
reasons:
• They are the direct point of contact with the consumers, bridging the gap between
wholesalers/producers and the end-users.
• Retailers buy goods from wholesalers and then supply them in smaller, manageable
quantities directly to consumers, catering to individual preferences and needs.
• They bear the immediate losses in business, as they are responsible for unsold stock or
damaged goods.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
• Retailers often provide credit facilities to customers, which can be a significant
convenience for buyers.
• They also play a crucial role in informing customers about alternative products and new
arrivals, and actively supply goods according to customers’ preferences.
• Their close proximity to consumers allows them to provide valuable information about
new products and gather feedback, which can then be relayed back up the supply chain.
• Ultimately, their function is to ensure that goods reach the final consumer efficiently and
in the quantities desired, making them the indispensable last step in the distribution
process.

Chapter 16: Mauryas and Kushanas - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The founder of the Mauryan Empire was:
A) Ashoka B) Bindusara C) Chandragupta Maurya D) Chanakya
2. The war that inspired Ashoka to accept Buddhism was:
A) Paurava War B) Kalinga War C) Ujjain War D) Patna War
3. The Gandhara style is related to:
A) Musical literature B) Dance C) Buddhist sculpture D) Jain inscriptions
4. The religion adopted by Chandragupta Maurya at the end of his life is:
A) Buddhism B) Vaishnavism C) Jainism D) Shaivism
5. He was a prominent emperor of the Kushan Empire:
A) Kanishka B) Harshavardhana C) Ashoka D) Chandragupta
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What are other names for Chanakya?
7. Which language was mainly used in Ashoka’s rock edicts?
8. Who was sent by Ashoka to Sri Lanka for spreading Buddhism?
9. Which Kushana emperor initiated the Shaka Era?
10.What was the capital of the Kushanas?
11.Which book was authored by Kautilya?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.List out the main literary and archaeological sources that explain the history of the
Mauryas.
13.Name any two prominent cities during Ashoka’s reign.
14.What was the significance of the Fourth Buddhist Council held under Kanishka?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the art and architectural contributions of the Mauryan Empire.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Historians have described Ashoka as a great ruler. Justify this statement.

Key Answers - Chapter 16: Mauryas and Kushanas Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Chandragupta Maurya
2. B) Kalinga War
3. C) Buddhist sculpture

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
4. C) Jainism
5. A) Kanishka
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. Other names of Chanakya are Vishnugupta and Kautilya.
7. The language mainly used in Ashoka’s rock edicts was Prakrit.
8. Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka for spreading
Buddhism.
9. Kanishka initiated the Shaka Era.
10.The capital of the Kushanas was Purushapura.
11.The book authored by Kautilya is Arthashastra.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The main sources explaining Mauryan history include Megasthenes’ Indica, Kautilya’s
Arthashastra, Vishakhadatta’s Mudrarakshasa, and Ashoka’s rock edicts, pillars, and
stupas.
13.Two prominent cities during Ashoka’s reign were Pataliputra and Taxila (or Ujjain, Kalinga,
Suvarnagiri).
14.The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under Kanishka's leadership, which was
significant for the flourishing and propagation of Buddhism, particularly the Mahayana
branch. Kanishka also sent missions to Central Asia and China to spread Buddhism
following this council.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The Mauryan Empire made significant contributions to art and architecture. Emperor
Ashoka played a pivotal role in this, and is even titled the “Father of Inscriptions”.
Prominent examples include Ashoka’s pillars, which often feature intricate carvings and
edicts. The empire also contributed to the construction of stupas, religious structures
important in Buddhist tradition. These artistic and architectural endeavors reflect the
Mauryan emphasis on religious patronage and spreading moral principles.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.Historians have indeed described Ashoka as a great ruler due to his multifaceted
contributions and administrative prowess. He was a protector of human values,
promoting compassion, peace, and non-violence across his vast empire. Ashoka was a
dedicated patron of Buddhism, actively working for its propagation by sending his son and
daughter to Sri Lanka, among other missions. His reign saw the unification of a vast
country like India under a single rule. Furthermore, he placed immense importance on
art, architecture, and inscriptions, leaving behind a legacy that earned him the title of
“Father of Inscriptions”. His rule was characterized by a value-based approach, making
him beloved by his people and a distinguished figure in history.

Chapter 17: The Guptas and Vardhanas - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The Gupta emperor who performed the Ashwamedha Yagna was:
A) Chandragupta I B) Chandragupta II C) Samudragupta D) Kumaragupta
2. The Gupta emperor that earned the title ‘Vikramaditya’ was:
A) Srigupta B) Chandragupta II C) Chandragupta I D) Kumaragupta

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
3. The author of the astronomical text ‘Pancha Siddhantika’ is:
A) Varahamihira B) Aryabhata C) Vagbhata D) Kapila
4. The scientist regarded as the father of Indian medicine is:
A) Bhaskara B) Sushruta C) Dhanvantari D) Charaka
5. Rajashri served as the vice-chancellor in this famous university:
A) Nalanda B) Varanasi C) Ujjain D) Prayag
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Which Chinese traveller visited India during the Gupta period?
7. What is the most famous play written by Kalidasa?
8. Name one famous poet in the court of Harshavardhana.
9. Who founded the Nalanda University?
10.What was the primary source of income for the Vardhana period?
11.Which material was the pillar at Mehrauli of Delhi made of?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Name the prominent poets during the period of Chandragupta II.
13.List out the major books written by Kalidasa.
14.What were the sources of revenue during the Vardhana period?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Justify why the Gupta period was considered a golden age of literature and science.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Explain the reasons for the decline of the Gupta Empire.

Key Answers - Chapter 17: The Guptas and Vardhanas Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Samudragupta
2. B) Chandragupta II
3. A) Varahamihira
4. C) Dhanvantari
5. A) Nalanda
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The Chinese traveller who visited India during the Gupta period was Faxian (Fa-Hien).
7. The most famous play written by Kalidasa is Abhijnana Shakuntala.
8. One famous poet at Harshavardhana’s court was Pushyabhuti (or Bana).
9. Narasimha Gupta founded the Nalanda University.
10.The primary source of income for the Vardhanas was land revenue.
11.The pillar at Mehrauli of Delhi was made of Iron.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The prominent poets during the period of Chandragupta II include Kalidasa, Shudraka,
and Vishakhadatta.
13.The notable works of Kalidasa include Meghaduta, Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava,
Ritusamhara, and Abhijnana Shakuntala.
14.The main sources of income for the Vardhanas were land revenue, professional taxes, and
sales taxes.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
15.The Gupta period was considered a golden age of literature and science due to several
significant contributions. The Guptas patronised numerous poets, with Samudragupta
himself being a poet. Chandragupta II particularly encouraged literature, and under his
patronage, Kalidasa wrote several influential works, including Abhijnana Shakuntala.
Other important literary contributions from this era include Mrichchhakatika of Shudraka
and Mudrarakshasa of Vishakhadatta. Additionally, Dharmashastras and Puranas were
composed during this period. In the field of science, renowned scholars like Varahamihira,
Bhaskara, Aryabhata, Charaka, and Sushruta made significant advancements, with
Charaka authoring the Charaka Samhita and Sushruta writing the Sushruta Samhita. These
comprehensive contributions across both literary and scientific domains justify its
reputation as a golden age.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The decline of the Gupta Empire was influenced by a combination of internal weaknesses
and external pressures. Firstly, the empire faced continuous invasions by the Huns, which
significantly drained its resources and military strength, ultimately contributing to its
downfall. Secondly, a lack of a strong, well-equipped army meant the empire was unable
to effectively defend against these persistent invasions. Internally, there was
administrative misuse of power, which weakened the imperial control and efficiency.
Furthermore, priests received large donations, leading to their economic exemptions and
potentially reducing state revenue. This period also saw farmers, residents, and skilled
workers becoming subordinate to powerful landowners, indicating a shift in power
dynamics and a weakening of the central authority's direct control over its populace. All
these factors collectively contributed to the eventual fragmentation and decline of the
once-mighty Gupta Empire.

Chapter 18: South Indian Dynasties - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The first independent Satavahana king was:
A) Simukha B) Mahapadma C) Mayuravarma D)Narasimhavarma
2. The language of the ‘Gatha Saptashati’ written by Hala is:
A) Sanskrit B) Oriya C) Kannada D) Prakrit
3. The lake developed by the Kadamba king Mayuravarma is:
A) Chandravalli Lake B) Mandya Lake C) Kaduru Lake D)Lakkavalli Lake
4. The language used in the Talagunda inscription of the Kadamba period is:
A) Tamil B) Telugu C) Sanskrit D) Kannada
5. The Gommateshwara statue at Shravanabelagola was established by:
A) Bana Bhatta B) Chavundaraya C) Shivakumara D)Madhava
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Which North Indian dynasty were the Satavahanas vassals of?
7. Who was the famous king of the Satavahana dynasty?
8. What is the tenure of Mahamastakabhisheka of the Gommateshwara statue at
Shravanabelagola?
9. What was the other name for the Ganga kingdom?
10.Why did the Satavahana dynasty decline?

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
11.What were the administrative languages during the Kadamba period?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Name four literary works from the Ganga period.
13.List the dynasties that ruled in South India as mentioned in the sources.
14.Name the major trade centers during the Satavahana period.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the contributions of the Kadambas to the culture of Karnataka and India.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Describe the significant contributions of the Satavahanas and Gangas to the cultural and
administrative landscape of South India.

Key Answers - Chapter 18: South Indian Dynasties Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Simukha
2. D)Prakrit
3. A) Chandravalli Lake
4. C) Sanskrit
5. B) Chavundaraya
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The Satavahanas were vassals of the Mauryas.
7. The famous king of the Satavahana dynasty was Gautamiputra Satakarni.
8. The Mahamastakabhisheka of the Gommateshwara statue at Shravanabelagola occurs
every twelve years.
9. Another name for the Ganga kingdom was Gangavadi.
10.The Satavahana empire declined due to continuous invasions.
11.The administrative languages during the Kadamba period were Sanskrit and Prakrit.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.Four notable texts from the Ganga period are Dattaka Sutra, Shabdavatara, Vaddakatha,
and Gajashtaka.
13.The dynasties that ruled South India include the Satavahanas, Kadambas, Gangas,
Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and Pallavas.
14.Major trade centers during the Satavahana period were Nashik, Kalyan, Broach, and
Bhatkala.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The Kadambas made distinctive contributions to Indian culture. They established an
efficient administrative system and promoted religious harmony. They also significantly
contributed to the fields of literature, art, and architecture. The ancient Halmidi
inscription in Kannada dates to this period. Furthermore, they maintained an excellent
education system, with agraharas serving as educational centers. Their governance saw
governors, priests, ministers, and military commanders playing key roles, and the kingdom
was divided into provinces managed by provincial officers.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The Satavahanas and Gangas made significant contributions to the cultural and
administrative landscape of South India. The Satavahanas, with their capital at

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 Shrikakulam, saw the flourishing of literature, exemplified by Hala's 'Gatha Saptashati'
written in Prakrit. They primarily followed the Vedic religion. Their period also saw
important trade centres like Nashik and Kalyan, indicating economic prosperity. However,
their empire eventually declined due to continuous invasions.
The Gangas, also known as Gangavadi, were known for their literary output, with notable
works such as Dattaka Sutra, Shabdavatara, Vaddakatha, and Gajashtaka. Their most iconic
contribution to art and architecture is the Gommateshwara statue at Shravanabelagola,
established by Chavundaraya. Ganga society placed high importance on values like
truthfulness, loyalty, bravery, and patience, which enabled effective governance. Despite
various communities, society was interdependent, and the patriarchal joint family system
was prevalent. These aspects highlight their lasting impact on the region's cultural and
administrative heritage.

Chapter 19: The Chalukyas of Badami and the Pallavas of Kanchi - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The title 'Dakshinapatheshwara' was earned by which Chalukya king?
A) Vishnuvardhana B) Raja Jayasimha C) Pulakeshi II D) Harshavardhana
2. The author of the Sanskrit play ‘Kaumudi Mahotsava’ is:
A) Kappe Aryabhata B) Vijjika C) Ravikirti D) Shiva Bhattacarya
3. Which city is known as the 'cradle of temples' in the Chalukyan period?
A) Aihole B) Pattadakal C) Badami D) Hampi
4. Which city is declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in the Chalukyan context?
A) Badami B) Mahakoota C) Pattadakal D) Aihole
5. Who was the first king of the Pallava dynasty?
A) Mahendra Varma B) Shivaskandavarma C) Mayura Varma D) Narasimha Varma
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What was one of the titles earned by Pulakeshi II?
7. Name one famous Pallava king of Kanchi.
8. Which dynasty gave the name Karnataka?
9. Which foreign traveller visited Kanchi during the Pallava period?
10.What famous sculptural work at Mahabalipuram belongs to the Pallava period?
11.In which language was the 'Kaumudi Mahotsava' play written?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Justify the statement: 'Chalukyas were lovers of literature.'
13.List the major Pallava kings who ruled Kanchi.
14.Briefly describe the significance of Aihole and Pattadakal in Chalukyan architecture.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Describe the significant achievements of Pulakeshi II, highlighting why he was considered
a great king.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Explain the contributions of the Kanchi Pallavas to art, architecture, and education.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
Key Answers - Chapter 19: The Chalukyas of Badami and the Pallavas of Kanchi Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Pulakeshi II
2. B) Vijjika
3. A) Aihole
4. C) Pattadakal
5. B) Shivaskandavarma
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. One title earned by Pulakeshi II was Dakshinapatheshwara.
7. One famous Pallava king of Kanchi was Mahendravarma. (Other correct answers include
Shivaskanda Varma, Narasimhavarma I, Aparajita).
8. The Chalukyas dynasty gave the name Karnataka.
9. The foreign traveller who visited Kanchi during the Pallava period was Hiuen Tsang.
10.The famous sculptural work at Mahabalipuram during the Pallava period is Arjuna’s
Penance.
11.The 'Kaumudi Mahotsava' play was written in Sanskrit.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The Chalukyas were indeed lovers of literature as they encouraged both Kannada and
Sanskrit literature. The Tripadi style of poetry developed during this period, and many
inscriptions were written in Kannada, such as the one by Kappe Arabhatta. Notable
Sanskrit scholars like Kavishale, Vijjika, and Akalanka contributed works like
Kaumudimahotsava and Hara Parvatiya.
13.The major Pallava kings who ruled Kanchi were Shivaskanda Varma, Mahendravarma,
Narasimhavarma I, and Aparajita.
14.Aihole is known as the 'cradle of temples' because it was a site where the Chalukyas
experimented with various styles of temple architecture. Pattadakal, designated a World
Heritage Site by UNESCO, represents a culmination of Chalukyan architectural styles,
showcasing a harmonious blend of both North Indian (Nagara) and South Indian
(Dravidian) temple designs.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.Pulakeshi II was considered a great king due to his significant achievements and
administrative prowess. He was the most powerful emperor of the Badami Chalukyas,
greatly expanding his empire. He notably defeated the Pallava king Mahendravarma. His
most famous victory was over Harshavardhana of the Vardhana dynasty, which earned
him titles like 'Dakshinapatheshwara' and 'Lord of the Region Surrounded by Three Seas'.
Pulakeshi II also had a well-organised administration, dividing his kingdom into provinces
and appointing his brothers as governors. He was known as a just and compassionate
ruler, admired by his people. The visit of the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang to the Chalukya
capital further attests to his prominence.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The Kanchi Pallavas made significant contributions to art, architecture, and education.
In architecture, they promoted the construction of numerous palaces and stone temples.
They are renowned for their exquisite sculptures carved from single rocks, often depicting
stories from the Mahabharata and Bhagavata. The 'Arjuna’s Penance' sculpture at

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 Mahabalipuram is considered a masterpiece of this period. The Vaikuntha Perumal
temple and the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram are prime examples of their
architectural excellence. While the provided source does not extensively detail their direct
contributions to education, the learning outcome indicates an appreciation for their
educational contributions, implying a flourishing environment for learning. This cultural
patronage by the Pallava kings fostered a rich societal environment, blending effective
administration with impressive artistic and religious developments.

Chapter 20: The Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta and the Chalukyas of Kalyana - Unit Test (25
Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. Which Rashtrakuta king constructed the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora?
A) Krishna I B) Govinda III C) Amoghavarsha D) Krishna II
2. Who was known as the 'Adikavi' of Kannada literature?
A) Pampa B) Ponna C) Shri Vijay D) Ranna
3. Which Rashtrakuta king was associated with Shrivijaya, the composer of Kavirajamarga?
A) Dhruva B) Amoghavarsha C) Krishna I D) Karka II
4. Who authored the Sanskrit encyclopedic text ‘Manasollasa’?
A) Vijnaneshwara B) Jagadekamalla C) Someshwara III D) Basavanna
5. The Sanskrit legal treatise ‘Mitakshara’ was composed by whom?
A) Pampa B) Shri Vijay C) Vijnaneshwara D) Ranna
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. What was the first Kannada text?
7. What title did the Kannada poet Ponna earn?
8. What was the alternate name for Ranna’s Gadayuddha?
9. Which new city did King Someshwara I establish as his capital?
10.Name one prominent Vachana poet who flourished during the Kalyana Chalukya period.
11.What was the role of the 'Mahasandhi Vigrahi' in the Rashtrakuta Empire?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Describe the educational system during the Rashtrakuta period.
13.Explain the significance of the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
14.How did the Kalyana Chalukyas contribute to art and architecture?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Explain the administrative system of the Rashtrakutas.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Discuss the contributions of the Kalyana Chalukyas in the field of literature.

Key Answers - Chapter 20: The Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta and the Chalukyas of Kalyana
Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Krishna I
2. A) Pampa
3. B) Amoghavarsha
4. C) Someshwara III

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
5. C) Vijnaneshwara
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The first Kannada text was Kavirajamarga.
7. The Kannada poet Ponna earned the title Ubhaya Kavi Chakravarti.
8. Another name for Ranna’s Gadayuddha was Sahasa Bhima Vijaya.
9. King Someshwara I established the new city of Kalyana as his capital.
10.One prominent Vachana poet who flourished during the Kalyana Chalukya period was
Basavanna (or Akka Mahadevi, Allama Prabhu, or Machayya).
11.The 'Mahasandhi Vigrahi' in the Rashtrakuta Empire was responsible for foreign affairs.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The educational system during the Rashtrakuta period thrived with agraharas and
monasteries serving as major educational centres. Subjects such as Sanskrit, Vedas,
astrology, logic, and Puranas were taught. Salotagi in Indi taluk, Bijapur district, was a
prominent educational hub.
13.The Kailasanatha temple at Ellora is considered a significant contribution to Indian art. It
is a monolithic rock-cut temple, built by Krishna I, and stands as a marvellous example of
architecture carved from a 100-foot-high rock. It also includes the famous Dashavatara
cave temple.
14.The Kalyana Chalukyas contributed significantly to art and architecture by constructing
numerous temples. Notable examples include the Kashivishveshwara temple in Lakkundi,
the Mahadeva temple in Itagi, and the Mallikarjuna and Trikuteshwara temples in
Gadag. They also patronised music and dance, with artists appointed for performances,
and topics like music, dance, and jewellery detailed in texts like Manasollasa and Sangita
Chudamani.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
15.The Rashtrakutas followed a hereditary monarchy in their administrative system. The
king was assisted by a council of ministers, and officials like the Mahasandhi Vigrahi
handled foreign trade. The empire was geographically organised into administrative units
such as mandalas, vishayas, nadus, and villages. Village heads were known as Gramapati
or Prabhugavunda, and nadu officials were called Nadagavunda. The primary source of
revenue for the empire came from land taxes, professional taxes, and duties on foreign
trade.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
16.The Kalyana Chalukyas made extensive contributions to literature, fostering the
development of both Kannada and Sanskrit. Jain scholars played a crucial role in enriching
Kannada literature, producing significant works such as Gadayuddha, Panchatantra,
Vikramankadevacharite, Dharmamruta, and the legal text Mitakshara. Beyond Jain
literature, king Someshwara III authored the comprehensive Sanskrit encyclopaedia
Manasollasa, which covered a wide range of subjects, including arts and sciences. Another
notable literary contribution was Sangita Chudamani by Jagadekamalla. Furthermore,
this period witnessed a remarkable flourishing of Vachana literature, with prominent
poets and social reformers like Basavanna, Akka Mahadevi, Allama Prabhu, and
Machayya contributing to this unique form of devotional and philosophical poetry. This
demonstrates the diverse and rich literary environment promoted by the Kalyana
Chalukyas.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
Chapter 21: The Cholas and Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The capital city of the Chola Empire was:
A) Kanchi B) Thanjavur C) Madurai D) Pondicherry
2. Which Chola king is known as the architect of the Chola Empire?
A) Karikala Chola B) Vijayalaya C) Rajaraja Chola I D) Rajendra Chola I
3. The original name of Hoysala Emperor Vishnuvardhana was:
A) Ereyanga B) Nrupakama C) Ballala D) Bittideva
4. The Kannada poet who composed the 'Harishchandra Kavya' was:
A) Harihara B) Raghavanka C) Kalhana D) Pampa
5. The Hoysaleshwara Temple in Halebidu was built by:
A) Ketu Malla B) Somadanda Nayaka C) Chavundaraya D) Sundarapandya
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
6. Which Chola king built the city of 'Gangaikonda Cholapuram'?
7. Which Kannada poet earned the title 'Kavi Chakravarti'?
8. Which sect was founded by Ramanujacharya?
9. Which temple was built in Thanjavur by Rajaraja Chola I?
10.What was the ancient name of the village 'Angadi' in Mudigere Taluk?
11.Who was considered the architect of the Chola Empire?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
12.Describe the features of the Chola village administration.
13.How did the Hoysalas encourage literature?
14.Explain one significant contribution of Rajaraja Chola I towards the Chola Empire.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.Discuss the administrative features of the Chola period.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Elaborate on the notable achievements and contributions of Hoysala King
Vishnuvardhana.

Key Answers - Chapter 21: The Cholas and Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Thanjavur
2. C) Rajaraja Chola I
3. D)Bittideva
4. B) Raghavanka
5. A) Ketu Malla
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The Chola king who built the city of 'Gangaikonda Cholapuram' was Rajendra Chola I.
7. The Kannada poet who earned the title 'Kavi Chakravarti' was Ranna.
8. The sect founded by Ramanujacharya was Vishishtadvaita.
9. The temple built in Thanjavur by Rajaraja Chola I was Brihadeshwara Temple.
10.The ancient name of the village 'Angadi' in Mudigere Taluk was Sosevuru.
11.Rajaraja Chola I was considered the architect of the Chola Empire.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
12.The Chola village administration was highly autonomous. Village assemblies, known as
Gramasabhas, were the primary governing bodies, also called Tara Kuram or Perunguri.
Members, known as Perumakkal, were elected, with eligibility limited to Sanskrit scholars
and wealthy individuals.
13.The Hoysalas significantly encouraged literature, leading to the flourishing of Kannada
literature with works such as Jagannatha Vijaya, Yashodhara Charite, Girija Kalyana, and
Shabdamanidarpana. Sanskrit works like Shribhashya and Shriguna Ratnakosha were
also composed during their reign.
14.One significant contribution of Rajaraja Chola I was his role as the architect of the Chola
empire, where he strengthened its foundation and expanded its territories. He also built
a naval force and conquered Sri Lanka.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
15.The Chola administrative system was characterised by a highly developed village
autonomy. The core of this system was the Gramasabhas, which were village assemblies
functioning as primary governing bodies. These assemblies were also referred to as Tara
Kuram or Perunguri. The members, called Perumakkal, were chosen through elections,
and eligibility was often restricted to Sanskrit scholars and wealthy individuals, indicating
a meritocratic or elite-driven local governance. This system allowed local issues to be
managed efficiently by the villagers themselves.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
16.Hoysala King Vishnuvardhana was an exceptional ruler who made notable achievements
and contributions. His original name was Bittideva. He successfully conquered Gangavadi
and earned the distinguished title of Talakadugonda. To commemorate these significant
victories, he commissioned the construction of two important temples: the
Keertinarayana Temple in Talakad and the magnificent Chennakeshava Temple in Belur.
Although his efforts to further expand the empire were challenged by the Chalukya king
Vikramaditya VI, he remained a powerful figure. Vishnuvardhana also provided refuge and
patronage to Ramanujacharya, a prominent philosopher who spread the Vishishtadvaita
sect across Karnataka after being unable to propagate it in the Chola kingdom.
Additionally, his general, Ketu Malla, was responsible for building the famous
Hoysaleshwara and Shantaleshwara temples in Halebidu, further enriching the
architectural heritage of the Hoysalas.

Chapter 22: Democracy - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
1. The Right to Information Act was enacted in the year:
A) 2006 B) 2008 C) 2005 D) 1973
2. The minimum age required to vote in India is:
A) 21 years B) 16 years C) 14 years D) 18 years
3. The constitutional amendment that reduced the voting age to 18 years is the:
A) 71st Amendment B) 62nd Amendment C) 61st Amendment D) 23rd Amendment
4. Among the following, the country that practices direct democracy is:
A) India B) Switzerland C) England D) Australia

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
5. According to Abraham Lincoln, democracy is a government:
A) Of the rich, by the rich, for the rich B) Of the people, by the people, and for the people
C) Of the few, by the few, for the few D) Of the elite, by the elite, for the elite
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
6. From which words is the term "democracy" derived?
7. What are elections held every five years called?
8. Who defined democracy as a way of life?
9. Name the two main types of democracy.
10.What is one fundamental characteristic of democracy regarding law?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.Explain the concept of Direct Democracy.
12.List any two features of democracy.
13.How does democracy provide opportunities for personal development?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.Discuss the factors that contribute to the success of democracy.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.Elaborate on why democracy is considered superior to other forms of government.

Key Answers - Chapter 22: Democracy Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) 2005
2. D)18 years
3. C) 61st Amendment
4. B) Switzerland
5. B) Of the people, by the people, and for the people
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
6. The term "democracy" is derived from the words Demos and cratia.
7. Elections held every five years are called general elections.
8. Herman Finer defined democracy as a way of life.
9. The two main types of democracy are Direct Democracy and Indirect Democracy.
10.All citizens are equal before the law in a democracy.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.In Direct Democracy, people directly form their government through elections and create
rules and laws for their progress. This system allows for direct participation in governance.
12.Two features of democracy are:
o It is the government of the people.
o People elect their representatives who then create laws on their behalf.
13.Democracy provides opportunities for personal development by granting rights and
freedoms to citizens and fostering an environment where individuals can grow and
express themselves.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.The success of democracy relies on several factors. It thrives when there is a literate
electorate and an independent judiciary that protects citizens' rights. The presence of
strong opposition parties ensures checks and balances on the ruling party, preventing the

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 misuse of power. Additionally, economic equality and the active participation of mass
media in educating and informing the public are crucial for a healthy democracy.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.Democracy is considered superior to other forms of government due to its fundamental
principles and benefits. It grants rights and freedoms to citizens and protects them
through an independent judiciary. Based on the principle of equality, it ensures that all
citizens are equal before the law. Democracy allows people to elect competent leaders
and fosters decision-making through public opinion and discussion, unlike autocratic
systems. It also provides opportunities for personal development and encourages
nationalism, patriotism, and unity in diversity among citizens, promoting a collective
sense of purpose and belonging.

Chapter 23: Local Self-Government - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. In the history of the Panchayat Raj system, which constitutional amendments are
considered a milestone?
A) 63rd and 64th Amendments B) 73rd and 74th Amendments C) 93rd and 94th
Amendments D) 83rd and 84th Amendments
2. In elections of local government, which classes are facilitated with special reservation?
A) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes B) Backward Classes C) Women D) All of the
above
3. The number of Bruhat Mahanagara Palike and Mahanagara Palike present in Karnataka
are:
A) 1 and 11 B) 1 and 10 C) 2 and 10 D) 2 and 11
4. The functions of the Mahanagara Palike are managed by:
A) Mayor B) Commissioner of Mahanagara Palike C) Governor D) The Chief Minister
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. When did the Karnataka Panchayat Raj Act come into force?
6. Who presides over the Gram Sabha meetings?
7. What is the tenure of a Gram Panchayat?
8. Mention the term of meetings of Taluk Panchayat?
9. State the tenure of the President and Vice-President of Zilla Panchayat?
10.Who appoints the CEO of a Zilla Panchayat?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.Write about the objectives of local self-government.
12.Mention sources of income of local self-government.
13.Which are the main types of urban local bodies?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.What are additional functions performed by the Taluk Panchayats?
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.Make a list of major functions of urban local bodies.

Key Answers - Chapter 23: Local Self-Government Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
1. B) 73rd and 74th Amendments
2. D)All of the above
3. B) 1 and 10
4. B) Commissioner of Mahanagara Palike
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. The Karnataka Panchayat Raj Act came into force in 1993.
6. The Gram Sabha is chaired by the Gram Panchayat President.
7. The administrative term of a Gram Panchayat is five years.
8. The term of Taluk Panchayat is five years.
9. The tenure of the District Panchayat President and Vice-President is thirty months.
10.The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Zilla Panchayat is appointed by the state
government.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.The objectives of local self-government include resolving local issues by involving local
people and providing administrative knowledge to the common public.
12.The sources of income for Panchayats include revenue from taxes on water, health,
education, and library facilities, as well as rent and lease from panchayat properties.
13.The main types of urban local bodies are the Municipal Corporation, Town Panchayat,
Municipality, City Corporation, and Cantonment Area.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.Additional functions performed by the Taluk Panchayats include compiling annual plan
proposals of Gram Panchayats and submitting them to the District Panchayat. They are
also responsible for implementing welfare programs as directed by the state government
or the District Panchayat. This ensures a coordinated approach to development and
welfare at the local level.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.The major functions of urban local bodies involve several key areas. They are responsible
for preparing and approving budgets, and managing the overall administration of the
city or town. Urban local bodies also play a crucial role in formulating effective urban
plans and are tasked with registering births and deaths. Additionally, they promote
cultural programs and provide essential services such as sewage systems and solid waste
disposal facilities in cities.

Chapter 24: Sociology in Daily Life - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. The daily interaction between two or more individuals through language and symbols is
called:
A) Social association B) Role awareness C) Socialisation D) Cultural diversity
2. The awareness of performing one's assigned role is known as:
A) Social interaction B) Cultural practice C) Role consciousness D) Social harmony
3. What is primarily necessary for conducting a conversation?
A) Symbols B) Language C) Gestures D) Shared history
4. The interactions we have with many people in daily life are referred to as:
A) Socialisation B) Cultural customs C) Social interactions D) Economic activities

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
5. What is social interaction?
6. What is role awareness?
7. What is necessary for conducting a conversation?
8. What is social association?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
9. Briefly explain what role consciousness means, as it pertains to an individual's actions.
10.Why is language considered essential for humans?
11.How does the source define social association?
IV: Answer the following questions in five or six sentences. (2 x 4 = 8 Marks)
12.State the importance of language in communication.
13.Explain role awareness with an example.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 3 = 3 Marks)
14.Discuss how social interactions, enabled by language and role awareness, contribute to an
individual's daily life and overall understanding of their surroundings.

Key Answers - Chapter 24: Sociology in Daily Life Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. A) Social association
2. C) Role consciousness
3. B) Language
4. C) Social interactions
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. The interactions we have with many people in daily life are called social interactions.
6. The awareness of performing one’s assigned role is called role consciousness.
7. Language is necessary for conducting a conversation.
8. The daily interaction of two or more individuals through language and symbols is called
social interaction.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
9. Role consciousness refers to an individual's awareness of performing their assigned role.
It implies that a person understands and acts according to the expectations of their
position or function within a social context.
10.Language is considered essential for humans because it is needed to express opinions and
helps to express and share emotions effectively. While some emotions can be expressed
through physical gestures, language is crucial for conveying all types of emotions and for
comprehension.
11.According to the sources, social association is defined as the daily interaction of two or
more individuals through language and symbols. This highlights that regular
communication, both verbal and non-verbal, forms the basis of connections between
people in society.
IV: Answer the following questions in five or six sentences.
12.Language is essential for communication. It is vital for people to express their opinions
and helps them to share and convey their emotions effectively. Furthermore, language is
crucial for a child's educational development and aids in understanding the surrounding

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 world. It is an integral part of human comprehension, allowing individuals to process and
make sense of information.
13.Role consciousness means an individual performs their assigned role within a social
setting. For example, in a hospital, a doctor's role consciousness means they examine
patients and prescribe necessary medicines and treatments. Similarly, nurses administer
medicines and provide care to patients accordingly, while in a school, teachers educate
and students learn and face examinations. Each person's awareness of their specific
function contributes to the smooth operation of the environment.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
14.Social interactions, which involve daily engagement with many people, are fundamental
to an individual's life. These interactions are significantly enabled by language, which is
essential for communication, expressing opinions, and sharing emotions. Without
language, it would be impossible to convey complex feelings or for a child's educational
development, hindering their understanding of the world around them. Furthermore, role
awareness, or role consciousness, allows individuals to understand and perform their
assigned roles effectively within society, whether in a family, school, or workplace. This
understanding and enactment of roles, facilitated by clear communication, ensures that
individuals contribute to the collective functioning and progress of their daily
environment, making social life coherent and productive.

Chapter 25: Kinds of Societies - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. A key characteristic of a hunter society is that people:
A) Primarily depend on farming. B) Rearing animals for livelihood. C) Constantly move
from one place to another. D) Rely on science and technology.
2. Which of the following is the primary basis for the classification of societies?
A) Religious beliefs B) Geographic location C) Primary occupations and activities of people
D) Political systems
3. The main tool used for ploughing in an agricultural society is the:
A) Hoe B) Shovel C) Plough D) Tractor
4. A society that primarily depends on science and technology for its livelihood is known as
a
A) Agricultural society B) Pastoral society C) Industrial society D) Hunting society
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. What tool is used for plough in an agricultural society?
6. Mention a characteristic of a hunter society.
7. What is a pastoral society?
8. Which society depends on agriculture for its livelihood?
9. What was the basis for the classification of society?
10.Which society is depended on science and technology?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.Briefly explain the concept of a hunting and food-gathering society.
12.How does a pastoral society differ from an agricultural society in terms of their primary
livelihood?

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
13.Why is it important to classify different types of societies?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.What are the different types of societies?
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.List out the characteristics of an agricultural society.

Key Answers - Chapter 25: Kinds of Societies Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Constantly move from one place to another.
2. C) Primary occupations and activities of people
3. C) Plough
4. C) Industrial society
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. The tool used for ploughing in an agricultural society is the plough.
6. A characteristic of a hunter society is that people constantly move from one place to
another.
7. A pastoral society is a society that rears animals for livelihood.
8. An agricultural society depends on agriculture for its livelihood.
9. Societies are classified based on the primary occupations and activities of people.
10.An industrial society is depended on science and technology.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.A hunting and food-gathering society is characterised by people who constantly move
from one place to another. Their primary means of sustenance involves hunting animals
and gathering food directly from nature, leading to a nomadic lifestyle without permanent
settlements.
12.A pastoral society primarily relies on rearing animals for livelihood. In contrast, an
agricultural society depends on farming for its survival. While pastoral societies are often
semi-nomadic due to grazing needs, agricultural societies typically settle in one place to
cultivate crops.
13.It is important to classify different types of societies to understand their evolution and
development in comparison with modern society. This classification helps in analysing
how human lifestyles, primary occupations, and social structures have changed over time,
offering insights into societal progress and challenges.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.The sources classify societies based on the primary occupations and activities of people.
The different types of societies identified are: Hunting and food-gathering society, where
people constantly move for sustenance; Pastoral society, which relies on rearing animals;
Agricultural society, dependent on farming for livelihood; and Industrial society, which is
based on science and technology. Each type represents a distinct stage in human societal
development and livelihood strategies.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.An agricultural society exhibits several distinct characteristics. Firstly, its livelihood is
fundamentally dependent on farming. People in these societies derive their primary
subsistence directly from agricultural products. As a result of their farming activities, they

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 tend to settle in one place rather than being nomadic. Alongside farming, members of an
agricultural society often engage in other activities. Furthermore, they generally possess
various skills related to agriculture, which are crucial for their way of life.

Chapter 26: Hydrosphere - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. A semi-circular sea surrounded by land is also known as a:
A) Bay B) Gulf C) Isthmus D) Strait
2. Which of the following lakes in India has the highest salinity?
A) Sambhar Lake B) Dal Lake C) Dead Sea D) Red Sea
3. The average salinity of ocean water is approximately:
A) 50 parts per 1000 B) 45 parts per 1000 C) 35 parts per 1000 D) 60 parts per 1000
4. An example of an isthmus, as mentioned in the sources, is:
A) Gulf of Mannar B) Suez Canal C) Bay of Bengal D) Bering Strait
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. Why is Earth called the "Blue Planet"?
6. Give an example of a strait.
7. Which is the deepest ocean trench?
8. What is the time interval between two high tides?
9. How deep do sun rays penetrate into water?
10.Where is the salinity of the ocean highly concentrated?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.What are the four main parts of the ocean floor topography?
12.What are ocean currents? Name their types.
13.List the major currents of the Indian Ocean.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.List the significance of the continental shelf.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.What precautionary measures should be taken for the conservation of oceans?

Key Answers - Chapter 26: Hydrosphere Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Gulf
2. A) Sambhar Lake
3. C) 35 parts per 1000
4. B) Suez Canal
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. Earth is called the blue planet because 70.78% of its surface is covered by water.
6. An example of a strait is the Bering Strait.
7. The deepest ocean trench is Challenger Deep.
8. The time interval between two high tides is 12 hours and 26 minutes.
9. Sunlight penetrates water up to a depth of 200 meters.
10.Salinity is higher in tropical oceans.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
11.The four main parts of the ocean floor topography are: Continental shelf, Continental
slope, Deep-sea plain, and Ocean trenches.
12.Ocean currents are the continuous flow of surface water in a specific direction. Their
types include warm currents and cold currents.
13.The major currents of the Indian Ocean include Mozambique, Madagascar, Agulhas, and
West Australian currents.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.The continental shelf, which is the shallow coastal region of the sea, holds significant
importance. It supports fishing and aids navigation. Furthermore, it supports aquatic life
and agriculture. It also facilitates crude oil production.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.Ocean conservation is critical today as oceans are vital for humans and countless species
are becoming polluted. Preventive measures should include transporting crude oil via
pipelines instead of ships to minimise spills. We must stop dumping nuclear waste into
oceans and prevent industrial chemical pollutants from reaching the sea. Additionally, it
is important to control waste disposal at ports and coastal towns and protect coastal
sand beaches from degradation. Efforts should also be made to create clean, attractive
tourist destinations and raise awareness among locals and tourists about ocean
conservation.

Chapter 27: Biosphere - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. The ozone layer is found in the:
A) Mesosphere B) Stratosphere C) Troposphere D) Ionosphere
2. Protection of the ozone layer is everyone’s responsibility primarily because:
A) It can prevent acid rain. B) It can maintain atmospheric balance. C) It can prevent the
greenhouse effect. D) It can prevent the destruction of living beings.
3. Rainwater containing sulfuric acid, carbon monoxide, and other acids is called:
A) Smog B) Acid rain C) Greenhouse gas D) Ozone depletion
4. The science that describes the relationship between organisms and their physical,
chemical, and biological environments is called:
A) Biology B) Geography C) Ecology D) Geology
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. What is environmental pollution?
6. What is the significance of the ozone layer?
7. What is biodiversity?
8. According to W.H.O, how is air pollution defined?
9. Which regions in Europe are affected by acid rain?
10.What are some human-made sources of noise pollution?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.What is ecological balance?
12.List the different types of environmental pollution.
13.Explain the concept of the greenhouse effect.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
14.What are the adverse effects of water pollution?
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.Suggest measures to prevent water pollution.

Key Answers - Chapter 27: Biosphere Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Stratosphere
2. D)It can prevent the destruction of living beings.
3. B) Acid rain
4. C) Ecology
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. Undesirable changes in the surrounding environment are called environmental pollution.
6. The ozone layer protects from ultraviolet rays.
7. The variety of plant and animal species in a region is called biodiversity.
8. According to W.H.O, air pollution occurs when substances from human activities mix with
the air, harming human health and property.
9. Poland, Czech Republic, and southeastern Germany in Europe are affected by acid rain.
10.Some human-made sources of noise pollution include industrial noise, mining noise,
aircraft noise, and explosive noise.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.Ecological balance refers to the harmonious and balanced relationship between the
natural environment and various species. It is a naturally occurring phenomenon within
ecosystems.
12.The different types of environmental pollution are air pollution, water pollution, soil
pollution, and noise pollution.
13.The greenhouse effect occurs when carbon dioxide and other harmful gases trap heat
emitted from the Earth, leading to an increase in atmospheric temperature. This process
warms the planet's surface.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.Water pollution has several adverse effects. Firstly, it leads to water becoming
contaminated, making it unsafe for consumption and other uses. This contamination can
cause the spread of various diseases such as cholera, tuberculosis, and jaundice.
Furthermore, it results in the death of aquatic life and harms agriculture due to polluted
water sources. Ultimately, water pollution leads to environmental imbalance and reduces
oxygen levels in the water.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.Preventing water pollution is crucial for environmental and human health. Measures to
prevent water pollution include avoiding the dumping of industrial chemical pollutants
into water bodies. It is important to control the disposal of waste from coastal towns and
ports. We should prevent the leakage of crude oil from ships and instead opt for
transporting crude oil through pipelines. Additionally, washing clothes and bathing in
open water sources like rivers and lakes should be avoided. Farmers should be
encouraged to use less chemical fertilisers and pesticides, which often run off into water

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 sources. Finally, there is a need to raise public awareness about the dangers of water
pollution and the importance of its prevention.

Chapter 28: Basic Concepts of Economics - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. The quality of goods or services that satisfies human desires is called as:
A) Desire B) Utility C) Satisfaction D) Reward
2. Physical and intellectual work conducted for monetary benefit is:
A) Social activity B) Cultural activity C) Economic activity D) Political activity
3. The book authored by Kautilya is:
A) Republic B) Arthashastra C) Politics D) Panchatantra
4. The word "Economics" is derived from these country:
A) Greek B) Roman C) American D) Indian
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. Who is considered as the father of economics?
6. Which subject studies about wealth?
7. What is the base for all economic activities?
8. Explain the origin of the term "economics".
9. What is demand?
10.What is per capita income?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.What are productive activities?
12.What is consumption?
13.What is supply?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.Explain economic activities.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15."Demand is a symbol of a nation’s progress.” Justify the statement.

Key Answers - Chapter 28: Basic Concepts of Economics Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Utility
2. C) Economic activity
3. B) Arthashastra
4. A) Greek
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. The father of economics is Adam Smith.
6. The subject that studies about wealth is Economics.
7. The base for all economic activities is human desire.
8. The term economics comes from the Greek words oikos and nomos.
9. The purchasing power for goods and services is called demand.
10.Per capita income is obtained by dividing the total income of the nation by its population.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
11.Productive activities are those undertaken to produce goods and services. Examples
include agriculture, industry, and fishing.
12.Consumption is the use of goods and services for human satisfaction.
13.Supply refers to the quantity of goods and services available for sale at a known price in
the market.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.Humans engage in various economic activities to fulfill their desires by earning money.
These activities are classified into four groups:
• Productive Activities: These involve producing goods and services, such as agriculture,
industry, and fishing.
• Consumption Activities: This refers to using goods and services to satisfy human desires.
• Exchange Activities: These include activities like collection, transportation, and the buying
and selling of goods.
• Distribution Activities: This involves determining the value of factors of production.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.Demand significantly affects the production sector. When demand increases, it directly
leads to higher production, increased employment, and greater income within a nation.
This, in turn, improves people's standard of living and contributes to an increase in
national income and the overall progress of the country. Conversely, if demand
decreases, it results in reduced production, lower income, and fewer employment
opportunities, thereby lowering living standards and hindering national progress.
Therefore, demand is aptly considered a symbol of national progress, as it drives
economic growth and prosperity.

Chapter 29: Emergence of Different Business Organizations - Unit Test (25 Marks)
I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. A business run by a single owner is called as:
A) Partnership firm B) Sole proprietorship C) Hindu undivided family business D) Dormant
partnership
2. The Indian Partnership Act, which provisions the registration of partnership firms, was
enacted in the year:
A) 1947 B) 1956 C) 1932 D)1986
3. The minimum age required to become a partner in a partnership business is:
A) 21 years B) 15 years C) 14 years D) 18 years
4. Registered firms can file a lawsuit against a third party for debt recovery exceeding:
A) ₹1000/- B) ₹500/- C) ₹50/- D) ₹100/-
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. What is the maximum number of partners allowed in a financial partnership firm?
6. Who oversees the management of a Hindu undivided family business?
7. Name a small-scale business organization that exists only in India.
8. State one advantage of a sole proprietorship business.
9. How can a partnership firm be dissolved simply?
10.Can new partnership firms include minor partners?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
11.List the different types of business organizations.
12.Explain any two advantages of a partnership firm.
13.What are the benefits of registering a firm?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.List out the disadvantages of a sole proprietorship.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.Describe a partnership business, including its types of partners.

Key Answers - Chapter 29: Emergence of Different Business Organizations Unit Test
I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. B) Sole proprietorship
2. C) 1932
3. D)18 years
4. D)₹100/-
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. A financial partnership firm can include a maximum of 20 partners.
6. The management of a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) business is overseen by the Karta.
7. The Hindu Undivided Family business is a small-scale business organization unique to
India.
8. One advantage of a sole proprietorship business is that no legal formalities are required
to start these firms.
9. Partnership firms can be dissolved simply within 14 days notice and with the consent of
other partners.
10.Yes, new firms can include minor partners.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.The different types of business organizations are private sector organizations, public
sector organizations, joint sector organizations, and government-owned organizations.
12.Two advantages of a partnership firm include easy formation as it requires minimal legal
formalities, and higher capital can be raised compared to a sole proprietorship due to
contributions from multiple partners. Other advantages are greater expertise, reliability,
shared losses, business confidentiality, and simple dissolution.
13.The benefits of registering a firm include the ability to file a lawsuit for recovering debts
over ₹100 from a third party and the ability to file a lawsuit for debt recovery from other
partners. Other benefits include filing a lawsuit against unregistered firms or partners, and
filing a lawsuit for firm dissolution or account settlement.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.The disadvantages of a sole proprietorship include limited capital available for business
expansion, and limited managerial skills as one person manages everything. There is also
difficulty in making sound decisions due to the sole owner's perspective. Furthermore,
the owner has sole responsibility for all losses, and the business faces closure upon the
owner's death or bankruptcy.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.A partnership business is a form of enterprise that is run by more than one person, where
individuals collaborate to conduct business activities. The sources identify several types

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
 of partners within such a business. Active partners are those who actively participate in
the management and operations of the firm. Silent partners invest capital but do not
engage in the day-to-day management. Nominal partners lend their name to the firm but
do not contribute capital or participate in management. Lastly, minor partners are
individuals under the age of 18 who can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership,
although they generally do not have the full liabilities of an adult partner. This structure
allows for shared responsibility, expertise, and capital, making it a common form of
business organization.

Chapter 30: Large-Scale Business Organizations - Unit Test (25 Marks)

I: Multiple Choice Questions (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1. The first cooperative society of Karnataka was established in:
A) Bengaluru city B) Dharwad C) Kanaginahal of Gadag district D) Shivamogga
2. The act that regulates joint-stock companies in India is:
A) Indian Companies Act, 1956 B) Indian Companies Act, 1976 C) Indian Companies Act,
1947 D) Indian Companies Act, 1957
3. The main objective of a cooperative society is:
A) All for one B) One for a few C) One for all and all for one D) All for the society's leader
4. Multinational companies first emerged in this country:
A) India B) America C) Canada D) England
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence. (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
5. Where was the first stock market established in India?
6. Who are the co-owners of joint-sector organisations?
7. State the main objective of a cooperative society.
8. Which act governs the formation of cooperative societies in India?
9. Mention one benefit to farmers from agricultural cooperative societies.
10.What is a key characteristic of cooperative society membership?
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences. (3 x 2 = 6 Marks)
11.List the general characteristics of cooperative societies.
12.Categorise the types of cooperative societies.
13.How are cooperative societies beneficial to their members?
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences. (1 x 4 = 4 Marks)
14.Explain the advantages of multinational companies to their home country.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences. (1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
15.Describe the characteristics, types, and advantages of cooperative societies.

Key Answers - Chapter 30: Large-Scale Business Organizations Unit Test

I: Multiple Choice Questions
1. C) Kanaginahal of Gadag district
2. A) Indian Companies Act, 1956
3. C) One for all and all for one
4. B) America
II: Answer the following questions in one word or sentence.
5. The first stock market in India was established in Mumbai.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST
6. Joint-sector organisations are co-owned by the government and the public.
7. The main objective of a cooperative society is one for all, and all for one.
8. The formation of cooperative societies in India is governed by the Cooperative Societies
Act.
9. Members get loans at low interest rates, freeing them from moneylenders. (Another valid
answer: Farmers get fair prices for their crops without middlemen.)
10.Cooperative societies are open to all without discrimination and have no limit on
membership.
III: Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.
11.General characteristics of cooperative societies include being voluntary organisations that
are open to all without discrimination and have no limit on membership. They also follow
a democratic model of governance, where each member has one vote regardless of
capital invested, and are subject to government oversight.
12.The types of cooperative societies are: credit cooperatives, marketing cooperatives,
producers’ cooperatives, consumers’ cooperatives, farmers’ cooperatives, housing
cooperatives, and miscellaneous cooperatives.
13.Cooperative societies are beneficial as they are easy to form and require minimal capital.
They ensure equal rights and responsibilities for members, provide limited liability, and
one vote per member, which promotes savings habits.
IV: Answer the following question in five or six sentences.
14.Multinational companies offer several advantages to their home country. They gain access
to raw materials at lower costs from host countries and can acquire technology and skills
from them. These companies can export raw and finished goods to host countries for
higher profits. Additionally, they generate income from dividends, capital, and
administrative agreements in host countries, and create more job opportunities in their
home country.
V: Answer the following question in seven or eight sentences.
15.Cooperative societies are a distinct form of business organisation. Their characteristics
include being voluntary organisations open to all without discrimination, with no limit on
membership. They operate on a democratic model of governance, granting each member
one vote irrespective of their capital contribution. They are also subject to government
oversight. The types of cooperative societies encompass various sectors, such as credit
cooperatives, marketing cooperatives, producers’ cooperatives, consumers’
cooperatives, farmers’ cooperatives, housing cooperatives, and miscellaneous
cooperatives. Regarding their advantages, cooperative societies are easy to form and
require minimal capital to establish. They ensure equal rights and responsibilities for all
members, limit liability, and encourage savings habits among members. For instance,
farmers' agricultural cooperative societies provide loans at low interest rates, freeing
them from moneylenders, and help them get fair prices for their crops by eliminating
middlemen.

Supreeth S Gowda GPT (Social Science) GHPS Bookanakere, K R Pete TQ, Mandya DIST