NNCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

Ch 5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. Monomer of nucleic acids are –(Pg. 95, E)

A) Peptides B) Nucleosides C) Ribonucleosides D) None of these

2. DNA and RNA are types of – (Pg. 95, E)

A) Nucleotides B) Nucleosides C) Nucleic acids D) Nucleamides

3. Length of DNA is usually defined as- (Pg. 96, E)

A) Number of nucleotides present in it
B) Number of pair of nucleotides present in it
C) Number of base pairs present in it
D) All of these

4. Match the length of DNA with the correct organisms – (Pg. 96, M)

5. A nucleotides contains – (Pg. 96, E)

A) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate group
B) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate group
C) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate group
D) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate group

6. Which of these is a purine – (Pg. 96, E)

A) Cytosine
B) Adenine
C) Thiamine
D) More than one is correct

7. Which of these is a pyrimidine – (Pg. 96, E)

A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Guanine D) None of these

8. Which of these is a correct combination for a DNA nucleotides (Pg. 96, E)

A) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
B) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine
C) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
D) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine

9. All the given nucleotides exists, except (Pg. 96, E)

A) Deoxy uridine B) Thymine C) Both A & B D) None of these

10. Nitrogenous base is linked to which carbon of pentose sugar (Pg. 96, E)
A) 1’C B) 2’C C) 3’C D) 5’C
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11. Nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar by which bond – (Pg. 96, E)
A) N – Glycosidic bond B) Phosphoester bond
C) Phosphodiester bond D) Peptide bond

12. Phosphate group is linked to which carbon of pentose sugar (Pg. 96, E)
A) 1’C B) 2’C C) 3’C D) 5’C

13. Identify the free ends of given polynucleotides chain – (Pg. 96, E)

14. Backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due to –(Pg. 97, E)

A) Sugar and N-base
B) Sugar and phosphate
C) Phosphate and N – Base
D) All of these

15. Which is correct about thymine & uracil – (Pg. 97, E)

A) Uracil is 5-methyl thymine
B) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil
C) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine
D) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil

16. DNA is –(Pg. 97, E)

A) Acidic and positively charged
B) Basic and positively charged
C) Acidic and negatively charged
D) Basic and negatively charged

17. Name of DNA as ‘Nuclein’ was given by – (Pg. 97, E)

A) Francis crick B) Erwin Chargaff
C) Friedrich Meischer D) Rosalind Franklin

18. Double Helix for structure of DNA model was proposed by – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Wilkins and Franklin based on their Xray diffraction date
B) Watson and Crick based on their X-ray diffraction date
C) Chargaff based on their X-ray diffraction data
D) None of these

19. The proposition of base pairing between the two stands of polynucleotide chain in
double Helix model of DNA was based on observation of – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Maurice Wilkins B) Rosalind Franklin
C) Erwin Chargaff D) Both A & B

20. The two chains of double Helix DNA have – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Parallel polarity B) Anti-parallel polarity C) No polarity D) Depends on organism
21. The bases in two stands of DNA are paired through (Pg. 97, E)
A) Hydrogen bond B) Peptide bond
C) Glycosidic bond D) Sulfide bond
19
22. Which of the following is true about base pairing in DNA – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with Guanine
B) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with Guanine
C) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with Thymine
D) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with Thymine

23. Which of the following is true about base pairing in DNA –(Pg. 97, E)
A) Guanine forms two H-bond with Cytosine
B) Guanine forms three H-bond with Cytosine
C) Guanine forms two H-bond with Adenine
D) Guanine forms three H-bond with Adenine

24. Uniform distance between two stands of Helix is due to –(Pg. 97, E)
A) Double and triple bond formed between base pairs
B) Sugar – phosphate backbone
C) Purine – pyrimidine base pairing
D) None of these

25. How many of the following statements about Double – helix structure of DNA is
correct –(Pg.97, E)
i) Two chains are coiled in right – handed fashion
ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm
iii) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn
iv) Plane of one base pair stacks over the other
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

26. Pitch of helix in double helix DNA is –(Pg. 98, E)

A) 3.6 nm B) 3.4 nm C) 3.2 nm D) 3.8 nm

27. Central dogma in molecular biology was proposed by ––(Pg. 98, E)

A) Crick B) Watson C) F. Meischar D) Chragaff

28. Identify correct labels ––(Pg. 98, E)

29. If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, calculate number of base pair in E. coli? Given
– distance between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 × 10-9 m. – (Pg. 99, E)
A) 4 × 106 B) 4 × 109 C) 4 × 10-6 D) 4 × 1012

30. Assertion : In E. coli, DNA is scattered throughout the cell

Reason : In E. coli, there is no defined nucleus (Pg. 99, M)
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation for
Assertion
C) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
D) Reason is correct and Assertion is incorrect

31. Histones are – (Pg. 99, E)

A) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes

B) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
C) Positive and basic in eukaryotes
D) Positive and basic in prokaryotes

32. Assertion – Histones are positively charged Reason – Histones are rich in basic
amino acid residues lysine and arginine (Pg. 99, M)
A) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
B) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion
C) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong

33. Histones are organized into –(Pg. 99, E)

A) Hexamer B) Octamer C) Tetramer D) Dimer

34. A typical nucleosome contain _____ bp of DNA has (Pg. 99, E)

A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 800

35. Repeating unit of chromatin –(Pg. 99, E)

A) Are nucleosomes
B) Are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ under electron microscope
C) Are packed to form fibres
D) All of these

36. The figure show –(Pg. 99, E)

A) Beads-on-string
B) A nucleosome
C) Chromatin
D) More than one option is correct
37. Identify the correct label for given figure (Pg. 99, M)

38. Chromosomes are connected chromatin fibres present – (Pg. 99, E)

A) At all times in cell
B) Only during cell division – formed at prophase
C) Only during cell division – formed at metaphase
D) Only during cell division – formed at Interphase

39. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin & hetero chromatin are present. Choose the
correct set of characters for heterochromatin –(Pg. 99, E)
i) Loosely packed ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v B) ii, iv, vi C) i, iii, vi D) ii, iv, v

40. Choose correct set of characters for euchromatin (Pg. 99, E)

i) Loosely packed ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v B) ii, iv, vi C) i, iii, vi D) ii, iv, v

41. Griffith's experiments were conducted in- (Pg. 100, E)

A) 1928 B) 1958 C) 1978 D) 1968

42. The experiment of Griffith was performed in- Pg. 100, E)

A) Diplococcus pneumoniae, bacteria B) Haemophilus influenzas, fungi
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae, fungi D) None of these

43. Match the given columns- Pg. 100, M)

44. Which strain of the microbe used Griffith is virulent- Pg. 100, E)
A) S-strain B) R-strain C) Both D) None
45. Griffith observed that the mice died surprisingly the following combination of
strains was used, which was unusual- Pg. 100, E)
A) S-strain heat killed B) Heat killed S-strain
C) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain D) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain
46. In Griffith experiment (Pg. 100, E)
A) R-strain transformed to S-strain and became virulent
B) R-strain transformed to S-strain and lost virulence
C) S-strain transformed to R-strain and became virulent
D) S-strain transformed to R-strain and lost virulence
47. Griffith claimed that- (Pg. 100, E)
A) Some protein was transferred among bacteria
B) Some DNA was transferred among bacteria
C) Some carbohydrates was transferred among bacteria
D) None of these
48. Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and McCarty, genetic material was thought to be-
(Pg. 100, E)
A) Protein B) DNA C) RNA D) None
49. A very, Macleod & McCarty discovered that- (Pg. 100, E)
A) DNA caused transformation
B) RNA caused transformation
C) Protein caused transformation
D) Lipid caused transformation
50. Which enzyme inhibited the transformation-(Pg. 101, E)
A) Protease B) RNase C) DNase D) All
51. Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from experiments of-
(Pg.101,E)
A) Avery, Macleod & McCarty B) Hershey and Chase
C) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak D) Sutton and Boveri
52. The scientists of Q-11 worked with- (Pg. 101, E)
A) a virus B) a bacteria C) a fungi D) a nematode
53. In the experiment performed for proving DNA as genetic material, the
bacteriophages were grown on medium containing- (Pg. 101, E)
A) radioactive sulfur B) radioactive nitrogen
C) radioactive phosphorous D) More than one option
54. The bacteriophages growing in presence of radioactive phosphorous __(i)__
contained radioactive __(ii)__. (Pg. 101, E)
(i) (ii)
A) P32 DNA
B) P35 Protein
C) P32 Protein
D) P35 DNA
55. Bacteriophages grown on radioactive Sulphur __(i)__ contained radioactive__(ii)__.
(Pg. 101, E)
(i) (ii)
A) S32 DNA
B) S32 Protein
C) S35 DNA
D) P35 Protein
56. The bacteria involved in Hershey & chase experiment of 1952 was- (Pg. 102, E)
A) Bacteriophage B) E. coli C) S. pneumoniae D) C. butyliwm
57. Bacteria infected with virus that showed radioactivity had- (Pg. 102, E)
A) radioactive DNA (S32) B) radioactive DNA (S35)
C) radioactive DNA (P32) D) radioactive DNA (P35)
58. (Pg. 102, E)

A) Blending Infection Centrifugation

B) Infection Blending Centrifugation
C) Centrifugation Infection Blending
D) Blending Centrifugation Infection
59. RNA is genetic material in- (Pg. 102, E)
A) TMV B) QB Bacteriophage C) Both A and B D) None of these
60. Properties of genetic material include- (Pg.103, E)
A) Stable B) Mutable C) Replicable D) All of these
61. A - Stability as a property of genetic material was very evident in Griffith's
transforming principle.
R-Heat can kill the bacteria and completely destroy the properties of genetic
material(Pg.103,M)
A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation for R
C) A is true but R is false D) Both A and R are false
62. Which is more structurally and chemically stable? (Pg. 103, E)
A) DNA B) RNA C) Protein D) All
63. RNA viruses show- (Pg. 103, E)
A) Less mutation B) Faster evolution
C) Slower evolution D) More than one option is correct
64. DNA is preferred by nature over RNA for- (Pg. 103, E)
A) Storage of genetic information B) Transmission of genetic information
C) Expression of genetic information D) More than one
65. Choose incorrect statement RNA- (Pg.104, E)
A) was first genetic material B) acts as catalyst too
C) is more stable than DNA D) has protein synthesizing mechanism built around it
66. Scheme for replication of DNA was proposed by-(Pg. 104, E)
A) Watson & Crick B) Meselson & Stahl
C) Taylor D) Hershey & Chase
67. The replication of DNA is-(Pg. 104, E)
A) Conservative B) Non-conservative
C) Semi-conservative D) All of these depending on organism
68. (Pg. 104, E)

figure shows-
A) Conservative DNA replication model
B) Semi-conservative DNA replication model
C) Non-conservative DNA replication model
D) Can't say
69. The DNA replication model experimental proof was first shown in- (Pg. 104, E)
A) Human cells B) E. coli C) Plant cell D) Vicia faba
70. Meselson and stahl performed experiment for proving DNA replication scheme in-
(Pg. 105, E)
A) 1952 B) 1953 C) 1958 D) 1961
71. The bacteria were grown in medium containing-(Pg. 105, E)
A) 15NH4Cl – 15N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
B) 14NH4Cl – 14N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
C) 15NH4Cl – 15N is normal isotope of nitrogen
D) 14NH4Cl – 14N is normal isotope of nitrogen
72. The heavy DNA molecule containing heavy isotope of N is distinguished from
normal DNA by- (Pg. 105, E)
A) UV rays B) Ethidium bromide solution
C) Centrifugation is CsCl density gradient D) PCR technique
73. In Meselson & Stahl experiment, first they- (Pg. 105, E)
A) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N medium followed by normal one
B) grew bacteria on normal isotope of N medium followed by heavy one
C) grew bacteria on radioactive N followed by Keavy one
D) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N followed by radioactive one
74. Identify the correct label (Pg. 105, E)

(i) (ii) (iii)

A) Light Heavy Hybrid
B) Heavy Hybrid Light
C) Light Hybrid Light
D) Heavy Hybrid Heavy

75. In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria after dividing in 20 minutes had a hybrid DNA.
What will be the ratio of Hybrid to Light after 80 minutes? (Pg. 105, E)
A) 2 : 14 B) 14 : 2 C) 16 : 2 D) 2 : 16
76. Similar experiment on Vicia faba was conducted by ____ to detect distribution of
newly synthesized DNA in chromosomes. (Pg. 106, E)
A) Taylor B) Stahl C) Gamow D) Nirenberg
77. Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of- (Pg. 106, E)
A) Radioactive uridine B) Radioactive thymidine
C) Radioactive adenosine D) Radioactive cytidine

78. The main enzyme of replication is-(Pg.106, E)

A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
79. Choose correct statement with regard with efficiency of DNA polymerase. (Pg.
106, E)
A) 4.6 × 106 bp of E. coli replicate within 46 minutes
B) The average rate of polymerization of DNA polymerase has to be approximately
2000 bp/minute
C) The polymerization accuracy is very high and very fast
D) All of these
80. What is function of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate-(Pg. 106, E)
A) It act as substrate
B) Provide energy for polymerization
C) A and B both
D) It is product formed after polymerization
81. Assertion : The two strands of DNA cannot be separated in their length.
Reason : Separation required very high energy. (Pg. 106, E)
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of
assertion
C) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
D) Assertion & Reason are false
82. Polymerization by DNA polymerase is in- (Pg. 106, E)
A) 3' → 5' direction only
B) 5' → 3' direction only
C) A and B both
D) Random
83. The template of replication fork with polarity 5' → 3' is ____ while 3' → 5' is ____.
(Pg. 106, E)
A) continuous, continuous
B) continuous, discontinuous
C) discontinuous, continuous
D) discontinuous, discontinuous
84. DNA ligase act on-(Pg. 106, E)
A) 5' → 3' template strand
B) 3' → 5' template strand
C) Both A and B
D) Ligate RNA with vector of 3' → 5' polarity
85. The replication is eukaryotes take place in- (Pg. 106, E)
A) M-phase B) G1 phase C) S-phase D) G2 phase
86. Polyploidy resulted by-(Pg. 106, E)
A) A failure in cell division after DNA replication
B) A failure in DNA replication after cell division
C) A failure in cell division before DNA replication
D) A and C both
87. Correct label of A, B, C, D is- (Pg. 107, E)

(i) A = Template parental strand

(ii) B = Newly synthesized strand
(iii) D = Continuous strand
(iv) C = Discontinuous strand
A) i, ii only B) iii, iv only C) i, ii, iii, iv D) None of these
88. Transcription is-(Pg. 107, E)
A) The process of copying genetic information from both strand of DNA into RNA
B) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA
C) The process of copying genetic information from RNA into DNA
D) A and B both
89. In transcription, adenosine bind with (Pg.107, E)
A) Thymine B) Uracil C) Cytosine D) A and B both
90. Why both the strand of DNA are not copied during transcription-(Pg. 107, E)
A) If both strands act a template, they would code for RNA molecules with same
sequence
B) RNA formed by transcription of both strand, when code for protein, the sequence of
amino acid in protein are same
C) The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to
each other
D) All of these
91. Translation of RNA would be prevented if- (Pg. 107, E)
A) RNA is single strand
B) RNA is double-stranded
C) RNA is produced by both strand of DNA
D) B and C both
92. Transcription unit primarily consist of-(Pg. 107, E)
A) 1 region B) 2 regions C) 3 regions D) None of these
93. Transcription primarily required-(Pg. 107, E)
A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) RNA dependents DNA polymerase
94. Template strand of transcription unit is/are-(Pg. 108, E)
A) 5' → 3' strand of DNA
B) 3' → 5' strand of DNA
C) Site of catalysis of enzyme required for transcription
D) B and C both
95. What is coding strand of given template strand 3' – AGCATGCA – 5' (Pg. 108, E)
A) 5' – TACGTACGT – 3
'B) 5' – UACGUACGU – 3'
C) 3' – UACGUACGU – 5'
D) 3' – TACGTACGT – 5'
96. Label A, B, C, D, E of given diagram. (Pg. 108, E)
97. Promoter is located-(Pg. 108, E)
(i) 3' end
(ii) 5' end
(iii) upstream of structural gene
(iv) downstream of structural gene
A) i, iii B) ii, iii C) i, iv D) ii, iv
98. Terminator is located at (Pg. 108, E)
(i) 3' end
(ii) 5' end
(iii) upstream of structural gene
(iv) downstream of structural gene
A) i, iii B) ii, iii C) i, iv D) ii, iv
99. A gene is defined as- (Pg. 108, E)
A) Functional unit of inheritance
B) Non-functional region of DNA that haven't any information
C) A and B both
D) None of these
100. Cistron is- (Pg. 109, E)
A) Segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
B) Segment of RNA coding for a polypeptide
C) Segment of DNA that are non-coding sequence
D) Segment of RNA have not any coding sequence
101. Choose the correct statement. (Pg. 109, E)
A) Monocistronic eukaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
B) Polycistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.

C) Monocistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.

D) A and B both
102. Exons are- (Pg. 109, E)
A) Coding sequence
B) Non-coding sequence
C) Expressed sequence
D) A and C both
103. Intron- (Pg. 109, E)
A) appear is mature or processed RNA
B) do not appear in mature or processed RNA
C) appear is prokaryotes
D) B and C both
104. Which of following play role is protein synthesis of prokaryote? (Pg. 109, E)
A) r-RNA B) t-RNA
C) m-RNA D) All of these
105. The function of some RNA are given below choose the incorrect one. (Pg. 109,
E)
A) mRNA provide template strand
B) mRNA provide non-template strand
C) tRNA bring amino acid
D) rRNA play structural & catalytic role
106. How many polymerase required is bacteria for transcription of all type of RNA?
(Pg. 109, E)
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Five
107. Choose incorrect step about transcription. (Pg. 109, E)
A) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiate transcription.
B) Nucleotide triphosphate act as substrate and polymerization in a template.
C) A short stretch of RNA remains bound to enzyme.
D) Last step is termination.
108. Initiation factor and termination factor are- (Pg. 110, E)
A) Sigma and Rho factor respectively.
B) Rho and Sigma factor respectively.
C) Rho and Rho factor respectively.
D) Sigma and Sigma factor respectively.
109. Translation & transcription in eukaryote occur in (Pg. 110, E)
A) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively
B) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively
C) Cytosol
D) Nucleus
110. Which of following can be coupled in bacteria? (Pg. 110, E)
A) Replication & transcription
B) Transcription & translation
C) Replication & translation
D) None of these
111. Transcription of 18 s rRNA is done by ____in eukaryote. (Pg. 111, E)
A) RNA pol. I B) RNA pol. II C) RNA pol. III D) All of these
112. Choose incorrect statement. (Pg. 111, E)
A) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA transcribes by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
B) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
C) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
D) None of these

113. Splicing is required to- (Pg. 111, E)

A) remove intron in eukaryote
B) remove exon in eukaryote
C) remove exon in prokaryote
D) remove intron in prokaryote
114. Capping is- (Pg. 111, E)
A) Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5' end
B) addition of adenylate residue at 3' end
C) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 3' end
D) addition of adenylate residue at 5' end
115. The fully processed hnRNA is- (Pg. 111, E)
A) tRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) None of these
116. George Gamow argued- (Pg. 111, E)
A) There are only 5 bases and if they have code for 20 amino acid the code should
constitute a combination of bases
B) There are only 4 bases and if they have code for 20 amino acid the code should
constitute a combination of bases
C) Genetic code is triplet
D) B and C
117. Which of following have maximum codon in genetic code-(Pg. 112, E)
A) Leu B) Met C) Cal D) Phe
118. Which of following is/are showing dual function-(Pg. 112, E)
A) UUU B) AUG C) UGA D) GUA
119. Least number of codon is for- (Pg. 112, E)
A) Met B) Phe C) Gls D) Gly
120. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of-(Pg. 113, E)
A) point mutation
B) frameshift mutation
C) deletion mutation
D) addition mutation
121. In sickle cell anaemia, there are changes in gene for- (Pg. 113, E)
A) alpha globin chain
B) beta globin chain
C) gamma globin chain
D) delta globin chain
122. In sickle cell anaemia, resultant effect of mutation is change of amino acid
residue-(Pg. 113, E)
A) Valine to alanine
B) Valine to glutamic acid
C) Alanine to valine

123. The following is an example of- BIG RED CAP ⇒ BIG REM DCA P (Pg. 113, E)
D) Glutamic acid to valine

A) Deletion mutation
B) Point mutation
C) Addition mutation

124. RAM HAS CAP ⇒ RAM HAS BIG CAP (Pg. 113, E)
D) More than one option

The given example shows-

A) Addition mutation

B) Deletion mutation
C) Substitution mutation
D) More than one option
125. tRNA has- (Pg. 114, E)
A) Codon loop B) Anticodon loop C) Both D) Neither
126. The presence of adapter molecule to read the code on DNA and bind to amino
acids was postulated by- (Pg. 114, E)
A) James Watson B) Francis Crick C) Friedrich Meisher D) Both A and B
127. tRNA was also called- (Pg. 114, E)
A) s RNA (soluble RNA) B) s RNA (single RNA)
C) s RNA (smart RNA) D) s RNA (simple RNA)
128. The amino acid acceptor end of tRNA is-(Pg. 114, E)
A) 5' B) 3' C) Can be any of these D) Free end
129. For initiation translation, (Pg. 114, E)
A) Only tRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
B) Specific rRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
C) Any rRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
D) Specific tRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
130. For stop codon- (Pg. 114, E)
A) There are specific tRNAs with amino acids.
B) There are specific tRNAs which do not bind to any amino acids.
C) There are no tRNA.
D) There are tRNAs which may or may not bind to amino acids.
131. The given figure shows- (Pg. 114, E)

A) Secondary structure of tRNA – Cloverleaf

B) Primary structure of tRNA – clover-leaf
C) Secondary structure of tRNA –inverted-L
D) Primary structure of tRNA – inverted-L
132. Translation refers to process of- (Pg. 114,E)
A) Making RNA from DNA
B) Making DNA from RNA
C) Polymerization of nucleotide to form a DNA
D) Polymerization of amino acid to form a polypeptide
133. The order and sequence of amino acid during translation are defined by-
(Pg.114,E)
A) The sequences of bases in r-RNA
B) The sequences of bases in t-RNA
C) The sequences of bases in m-RNA
D) All of these
134. Which of following bond is formed during translation? (Pg. 115, E)

A) Glycosidic bond

B) Phosphodiester bond
C) Peptide bond
D) All of these
135. First phase of translation does not involve-(Pg. 115, E)
A) Charging of RNA
B) Amino acids are activated in presence of ATP
C) Activated amino acid are linked to their cognate tRNA
D) None of these
136. Initiation or first phase of translation is-(Pg. 115, E)
A) Amino acylation of tRNA
B) Amino acylation of mRNA
C) Both A and B
D) Deamino acylation of mRNA
137. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing protein is- (Pg. 115, E)
A) Ribosome B) Lysosome C) Peroxisome D) None of these
138. In inactive state, protein factory of cell exist in (Pg. 115, E)
A) Two state B) 4 state in prokaryote
C) 6 state in eukaryote D) B and C both
139. Which of following is sign as beginning of translation? (Pg. 115, E)
A) When the large subunit of protein factory of cell encounters an mRNA.
B) When the small subunit of protein factory of cell encounters an mRNA.
C) When the small subunit of protein factory of cell encounter a tRNA.
D) When the large subunit of protein factory of cell encounters a tRNA.

140. The bond formation (peptide) between charged tRNA is accomplished due to-
(Pg.115, E)
A) Presence of ATP and catalyst
B) Two such charged tRNA are brought close by two site in large subunit of ribosome
C) Two charged tRNA are brought close by two site in small subunit of ribosome &
presence of ATP along with catalyst
D) A and B both

141. The ribosome act as catalyst during bond formation (peptide) as in- (Pg. 115, E)
A) 28 s rRNA in bacteria B) 23 s rRNA in bacteria
C) 23 s rRNA in eukaryote D) 28 s tRNA in bacteria
142. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 115, E)
A) A translational unit in mRNA is sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon and
stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
B) A translational unit is sequence of DNA that is flanked by start codon & codes for
polypeptide.
C) A transcriptional unit in tRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon
and stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
D) A transcriptional unit in rRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon
(AUG) and stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
143. UTR is/are-(Pg. 115, E)
(i) Untranslated region of mRNA
(ii) It present at both 5' end (start codon) and 3' end (before stop codon)
(iii) They are required for efficient translation process
(iv) It present at both 3' end (before start codon) and 3' end (after stop codon)
A) i, ii, iii are correct B) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
C) i, iii, iv are correct D) i, iii are correct
144. Initiator tRNA binds with (Pg. 115, E)

A) AUG codon of mRNA

B) at initiation of protein synthesis
C) ATG codon of dsDNA
D) A and B both
145. Choose the correct about elongation of translation- (Pg. 115, E)
A) Complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
appropriate codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA
anticodon
B) The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA in (3' → 5').
C) Complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
appropriate anticodon in mRNA by forming complementary base pair with tRNA
codon.
D) A and B both
146. Termination of translation complex is done when- (Pg. 115, E)
A) Release factor binds with stop codon (AUG)
B) Release factor binds with UGA like codon
C) Complete translation of DNA including UTR occurs in eukaryotes
D) B and C both
147. Gene regulation is eukaryote exerted at- (Pg. 115, E)
A) Formation of primary transcript
B) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
C) A and B both

148. 𝛽-glactosidase is used to catalyze the hydrosis of (Pg. 116, E)

D) Regulation of splicing of tRNA

A) Lactose into galactose and glucose

B) Lactose into fructose & glucose
C) Lactose into fructose & fructose
D) None of these
149. [Link] do not have lactose around them to utilized for energy source, they would-

A) No longer require the synthesis of enzyme 𝛼-galactosidase

(Pg.116, E)

B) Synthesized enzyme 𝛽-galactosidase

C) Die due to lack of carbon source and energy source
D) None of these
150. In prokaryote, predominant site for control of gene expression is-(Pg. 116, E)
A) Control of rate of transcriptional initiation
B) Control of rate of translational
C) Control of rate of transcriptional elongation
D) B and C both
151. Given below are statement. Choose the incorrect statement. (Pg. 116, M)
A) The development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms are result of
coordinated regulation of expression of several sets of genes.
B) Regulatory proteins act positively in activator.
C) In a transcriptional unit the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in
turn regulated by interaction with accessory protein.
D) None of these
152. Operator- (Pg. 116, E)
A) Region adjacent to sequence by which repressor mRNA formed
B) Bind with repressor protein
C) Bind with inducer
D) A and B both

153. Each operon has-(Pg. 116, E)

A) Same operator and same repressor
B) Same operator but specific repressor
C) Specific operator but same repressor
D) Specific operator and specific repressor
154. Lac operon was studied first by-(Pg. 116,E)
A) Francois Jacob
B) Jacque Monod
C) Geneticist and Biochemist
D) None of these
155. Lac operon is/are-(Pg. 116, E)
A) Monocistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter & regulators
genes.
B) Polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter & regulatory
genes.
C) Consist of one regulatory gene, monocistronic structural gene having five gene
along with promotor & operator.
D) A and C both
156. Regulatory gene of lac-operon is- (Pg. 116,E)
A) p-gene B) i-gene C) o-gene D) z-gene
157. i in i-gene stand for-(Pg. 116, E)
A) inducer B) inhibitor C) A and B both D) Inactive repressor
158. Match Column-I & Column-II. (Pg. 116, E)
Column-I(Gene) Column-II(Product)

(ii) 𝛽-gal
(a) Z-gene (i) Repressor mRNA
(b) a-gene
(c) Y-gene (iii) Permease
(d) i-gene (iv) Transacetylase
abcd
A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
D) ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
159. The monomeric product of lactose is chiefly hydrolyzed by-(Pg. 116, E)
A) i-gene B) z-gene C) a-gene D) y-gene.
160. Lac in lac-operon is for(Pg. 116, E)
A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide C) Polysaccharide D) Insect
161. In absence of preferred carbon source, if lactose is provided in growth medium of
bacteria, the lactose is transported into cell through by action of product formed by-
(Pg. 117, E)
A) i-gene B) z-gene C) a-gene D) y-gene
162. Allolactose is-(Pg. 117, E)
A) Inducer of lac-operon
B) Inductive repressor
C) Form of lactose that bind with product of repressor mRNA and inhibit transcription
of structural gene
D) All of these

163. Lac operon is-(Pg. 117, E)

A) Negative regulation operon
B) Positive regulation operon
C) A and B both

D) None of these

164. Inducer of lac-operon is-(Pg. 117, E)

A) Glucose B) Galactose C) Lactose D) Fructose
165. (Pg. 117, M)

166. HGP was launched in- (Pg. 118, E)

A) 1980 B) 1970 C) 1990 D) 2000

167. HGP was called a- (Pg. 118, E)

A) Minor project B) Hexagonal project C) Mega project D) None of these

168. Human genome has approx. ______ bp.(Pg. 118, E)

A) 3 × 109 B) 3 × 106 C) 6 × 109 D) 6 × 106

169. If cost of sequencing required is US $ 3 per bp, then total cost of sequencing
human genome as per 8-3 will be: (Pg. 118, E)
A) US $ 18 billion B) US $ 9 billion C) US $ 18 million D) US $ 9 million

170. There were approx. ____ genes in human DNA, as per the goals of HGP (Pg. 118,
E)
A) 20,000 – 25,000 B) 40,000 – 45,000 C) 10,000 – 15,000 D) 50,000 – 60,000

171. HGP was a ____ year project (Pg. 118, E)

A) 15 B) 12 C) 13 D) 14

172. HGP was coordination by- (Pg. 118, E)

A) US department of engineering & national institute of health
B) US department of engineering and national institute of biotechnology
C) US department of energy and national institute of biotechnology
D) US department energy and National Institute of Health

173. The ____ of U.K was a major partner of HGP (Pg. 118, E)
A) Wellcome trust B) Health trust C) Social trust D) Welcome trust
174. Project was completed in- (Pg. 118, E)
A) 2005 B) 2004 C) 2003 D) 2002
175. Additional contributes to HGP was- (Pg.118, E)
A) Japan B) China C) Germany D) All of these
176. Caenorhabditis elegans is a- (Pg. 119, E)
A) Fungi B) Nematode C) Bacteria D) Virus

177. Caenorhabditis elegans is-(Pg. 119, E)

A) Free living , non-pathogenic

B) Parasitic , pathogenic
C) Free living , pathogenic
D) Parasitic , non-pathogenic

178. Methods / approaches of HGP include-(Pg. 119, E)

A) Excess sequence tags B) Expressed sequence tags C) Exercise sequence
tagsD)Exerted sequence tags

179. Sequence annotations refer to- (Pg. 119,E)

A) Identifying all genes expressed as RNA and then sequencing then
B) Sequencing the whole set of genome and then assigning different regions with
functions
C) Identifying and sequencing the genome simultaneously
D) More than one option is correct

180. For sequencing, the DNA is- (Pg. 119, E)

A) Partially extracted from cell
B) Totally isolated from cell
C) Not needed to isolated from cell
D) None of these

181. The DNA for sequencing is converted to fragments of small size. The fragments
are made- (Pg. 119, E)
A) On a pre – decided basis B) On a pre – defined basis C) Randomly D) Depending
upon organism

182. The step in DNA sequencing after fragmentation of DNA is- (Pg. 119, E)
A) Cloning in host using vectors
B) Cloning in vectors using host
C) Amplification of DNA fragments
D) More than one option

183. Commonly used hosts for DNA cloning include- (Pg. 119, E)
A) Bacteria B) BAC C) YAC D) Both A and C

184. BAC stands for-(Pg. 119, E)

A) Bacterial artificial colour
B) Binominal artificial characterization
C) Bacterial artificial chromosome
D) Bacterial articular chromosome

185. Fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequence that worked on
principle of a method developed by- (Pg.119, E)
A) Erwin Chargaff B) Marshal Nirenberg C) Frederick Sanger D) George Gamow
186. Method for determination of amines acid sequence in protein was developed by-
(Pg.119, E)
A) Erwin Chargaff B) Marshal Nirenberg C) Frederick Sanger D) George Gamow

187. The last of the 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced was- (Pg. 120, E)
A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome X C) Chromosome 22 D) Chromosome Y

188. According to HGP, human genome contains-

A) ~ 3000 million bp B) ~ 6000 million bp C) ~ 9000 million bp D) ~ 1000 million bp

189. Dystrophin was found to be-

A) Largest known human gene with 2.4 million bases

B) Smallest known human gene with 2.4 million bases
C) Largest known human gene with 4.8 million bases
D) Smallest known human gene with 4.8 million bases

190. Which chromosome was found to have most genes- (Pg. 120, E)
A) Chr 22 B) Chr 1 C) Chr 5 D) Chr Y

191. Which chromosome was found to have fewest genes-(Pg. 120, E)

A) Chr X B) Chr Y C) Chr 1 D) Chr 5

192. The DNA sequence in which small stretch of DNA is repeated many times is
called-(Pg. 121, E)
A) SNP B) Repetitive DNA C) Polymorphic DNA D) More than one option

193. Satellite DNA classified into different categories like micro - satellite , mini -
satellite , etc based on- (Pg. 121, E)
A) Length of segment B) Number of repetitive C) Base composition D) All of these

194. Polymorphism arises due to-(Pg. 121, E)

A) Mutation – inheritable B) Stability of genetic material C) Mutation - non-heritable D)
All of these

195. DNA polymorphism is observed more in- (Pg. 122, E)

A) non-coding DNA sequence as its mutation affects reproduction
B) coding DNA sequence as its mutation affects reproduction
C) non-coding DNA sequence as it mutation may not affect reproduction ability
D) Coding DNA sequence as its mutation may not affect reproduction ability

196. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by-(Pg. 122, E)

A) James Watson B) Jansley C) Alec Jeffreys D) Maheshwari

197. VNTR stands for-(Pg. 122, E)

A) Various number of Tendon Repeats
B) Variable Number of Tendon Repeats
C) Various Number of Tandem Repeats
D) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats

198. VNTR belongs to- Pg. 122, E)

A) Micro-satellite B) Macro-satellite C) Mini-satellite D) All of these
199. Pg. 123, E)
In the given figure if ‘C’ is the DNA collected from crime site and ‘A’ & ‘B’ are samples
from suspects, than who is the criminal?
A) B B) A C) Both A and B D) None of these