20-07-2025

1721CMD303029250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and
ferromagnetic material denoted by μd ,μp ,μf respectively then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The given figure represents a material which is

(1) Paramagnetic
(2) Diamagnetic
(3) Ferromagnetic
(4) None of these

3) What is the net force on the square coil :-

(1) 25 × 10–7 N moving towards wire

(2) 25 × 10–7 N moving away from wire
(3) 35 × 10–7 N moving towards wire
(4) 35 × 10–7 N moving away from wire

4) Current i is carried in a wire of length L. If the wire is turned into a circular coil, the maximum
magnitude of torque acting on it, (when placed in a uniform magnetic field B) will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Soft iron is used to make the core of transformer, because of its.

(1) low coercivity and low retentivity

(2) low coercivity and high retentivity
(3) high coercivity and high retentivity
(4) high coercivity and low retentivity

6) Calculate the torque acting upon the following structure carrying current I due to the magnetic
field B. Both the magnetic field and structure are in the plane of the paper as shown-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) 5πR2IB

7) A straight wire carrying current i is turned into a circular loop. If the magnitude of magnetic
moment associated with it is M then length of the wire will be-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The magnetic moment of a magnetic needle is M. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B in four
different orientation named by M1, M2, M3 and M4. If potential energies in these orientation are U1,
U2, U3 and U4 respectively, then :

(1) U4 < U2 < U3 < U1

(2) U2 < U3 < U4 < U1
(3) U3 < U2 < U1 < U4
(4) U1 < U2 < U3 < U4

9) Orientation of two identical small bar magnet of magnetic moment 'M' is as shown in figure. The
magnitude of magnetic field at the point O which lies on equatorial line of one magnet and axial line
of another magnet is (r >> size of magnet)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Choose the correct graph of variation of magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic substance
versus absolute temperature T.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A closed coil consists of 500 turns on a rectangular frame of area 4.0 cm2 and has a resistance of
50 ohms. The coil is kept with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2, the
amount of charge flowing through the coil if it is turned over (rotated through 180o):-

(1) 1.6 × 10–3 C

(2) 16 × 10–3 C
(3) 0.16 × 10–3 C
(4) 160 × 10–3 C

12) A solenoid of 10 henry inductance and 2 ohm resistance, is connected to a 10 volt battery. In
how much time the magnetic energy will increases to one forth of the maximum value :–

(1) 3.5 s
(2) 2.5 s
(3) 5.5 s
(4) 7.5 s

13) Lenz law is based on principle of conservation of

(1) Linear Momentum
(2) Energy
(3) Charge
(4) Mass

14) The induced emf in a coil of 10 H inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in 0.2 s is

(1) 200 V
(2) 250 V
(3) 300 V
(4) 350 V

15) The magnetic flux linked with a circuit of resistance 100Ω increases from 10 to 60 Wb. The
amount of induced charge that flows in the circuit is (in coulomb)

(1) 0.5
(2) 5
(3) 50
(4) 100

16) A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving outward from the magnetic field. Which plate of

capacitor will be negative ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A and B both
(4) None of these

17) A small circular loop of wire of radius a is located at the centre of a much larger circular wire
loop of radius b. The two loops are in the same plane. The outer loop of radius b carries an
alternating current . The emf induced in the smaller inner loop is nearly:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
18) The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the

current i is 5A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s then VA - VB is

(1) 5 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 15 V
(4) -15 V

19) Magnetic field due to circular loop is given by

B=

For x >> R if can be compared to field due to short bar magnet on its axis given by m is
equivalent to

(1) I/R2
(2) IπR2
(3) IR2

(4)

20) A bar magnet of magnetic moment 2JT–1 lies aligned with direction of magnetic field 0.22 T work
done by external torque to align it in dir perpendicular to magnetic field is.

(1) 0.22 J
(2) 0.44 J
(3) 2.2 J
(4) 4.4 J

21) In a coil of resistance 10Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,

is shown in figure as a function of time, total induced charge is :-

(1) 0.2 C
(2) 4 C
(3) 0.4 C
(4) 0.1 C

22) An emf induced in a coil, the linking magnetic flux

(1) Must decrease

(2) Must increase
(3) Must remain constant
(4) Can either increase of decrease

23) A short bar magnet released from a certain height as shown in fig. then select incorrect about

the system

When magnet approches the coil then magnetic force on coil is repulsive and directed
(1)
downward.
(2) Magnetic force can't Predict on coil
(3) Acceleration of magnet is constant and less than 'g'
(4) All are correct

24) An equilateral triangular loop ACD of side l carries a current I in the directions shown in figure.
The loop is kept in a uniform horizontal magnetic field as shown in figure. Net force on the loop is

:-

(1) Zero
(2)
(3) Perpendicular to paper inwards
(4) Perpendicular to paper outwards

25) An electron moves along the line AB which lies in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting
wire as shown in figure. What will be the direction of the current induced if any in the loop?

(1) No current will be induced

(2) The current will be clockwise
(3) The current will be anticlockwise
(4) The current will change direction as the electron passes by

26) The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by ϕ = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t
= 3 sec is :-
(1) 190 volt
(2) –190 volt
(3) –10 volt
(4) 10 volt

27) Let us consider two solenoids A and B, made from same magnetic material of relative
permeability mr and equal area of cross-section. Length of A is twice that of B and the number of
turns per unit length in A is half that of B. The ratio of self inductance of the two solenoids, LA : LB is
:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 1 : 8

28) A bar magnet with its north (N) and south (S) poles as shown below is initially moving to the left,
along the axis of, and away from a circular conducting loop A current I is induced in the loop, with
"a" the acceleration of the magnet due to this current. As seen from the magnet looking in the

direction of the loop.

(1) I runs clockwise and "a" points to the left

(2) I runs counterclockwise and "a" points to the right
(3) I runs clockwise and "a" points to the right;
(4) I runs counter clockwise and "a" point to the left

29) A coil is placed in a magnetic field as shown below : A current is

induced in the coil because is :

(1) Outward and decreasing with time

(2) Parallel to the plane of coil and decreasing with time
(3) Outward and increasing with time
(4) Parallel to the plane of coil and increasing with time

30) A small bar magnet is moved through a coil at constant speed from one end to the other. Which
of the following series of observations will be seen on the galvanometer G attached across the coil ?
 Three positions shown describe: (a) the magnet's entry (b)
magnet is completely inside and (c) magnet's exit.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The induced emf can be produced in a coil by

A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside the uniform magnetic field
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) C and D only

32) The self inductance of a toroid is :–

(N → Number of turns, r → radius of coil, Rm → Mean radius)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Following figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a
magnetic field which is directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. The direction
of induced current is in anticlockwise _________.

(1) only in the loop (iii)

(2) only in the loop (ii)
(3) only in the loop (i)
(4) in the loops (ii) and (iii)

34) The magnetic intensity in a solenoid is 1000 Am–1 and magnetisation intensity 4950 × 103 Am–1
Then find it's magnetic susceptibility ?

(1) 4950
(2) 4950 × 103
(3) 2475
(4) 4951

35) The unit of magnetic flux is:

(1) Weber
(2) Tesla
(3) Henry
(4) Ampere

36) Consider the configuration (shown below) of a rope that is half hanging over the edge of a
frictionless table. Suppose the rope has a mass per unit length of λ kg/m. How much work is done by
a force that slowly pulls the entire rope up onto the table? Select the correct answer.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

37) A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and maximum heights from the ground 0.75 m and 2 m
respectively, its maximum speed will be:

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

38) Figure shows a particle sliding on a frictionless track which terminates in a straight horizontal
section. If the particle starts slipping from the point A, how far away on the horizontal track from the

terminating point will the particle hit the ground ?

(1) 1 m from the end of the track

(2) 2 m from the end of the track
(3) 3 m from the end of the track
(4) Insufficient information

39) An engine pumps 400 kg of water through height of 10 m in 40 sec. Find the power of the engine
if its efficiency is 80% (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 0.08 kW
(2) 5.25 kW
(3) 1.25 kW
(4) None of these

40) A particle moving along x-axis is being acted upon by one dimensional conservative force F. In
the F-x curve shown, four points J, K, L, Mare marked on the curve. List-II gives different type of
equilibrium for the particle at different positions. List-I gives certain positions on the force position
graph. Match the positions in List-I with the corresponding nature of equilibrium in List-II at these

positions.

List-I List-II

P Point J is position of 1 Neutral equilibrium

Q Point K is position of 2 Unstable equilibrium

 R Point L is position of 3 Stable equilibrium

S Point M is position of 4 No equilibrium

(1) P→4; Q→2; R→3; S→1
(2) P→2; Q→4; R→3; S→3
(3) P→4; Q→2; R→3; S→3
(4) P→2; Q→4; R→3; S→1

41)

A woman pushes a trunk on a rail way station. The graph given below shows the relation between
force applied by her on trunk with displacement and friction acting on trunk with displacement.
Select the correct statement(s) :-

(p) Work done by applied force over 30 m is 2.5 kJ.

(q) Work done by friction force over first 20 m displacement is – 1.2 kJ.
(r) Net work done over 30 m is 1.3 kJ.
(1) only p
(2) only p and q
(3) only p and r
(4) all p, q and r

42) In the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, current in a coil can be induced by varying

(1) Magnetic field

(2) Area of coil
(3) Angle between magnetic field and coil
(4) All of the above

43) Assertion : When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is zero
Reason : Work done does not depend on angle between force and displacement

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, butreason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

44) When the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 300%, the momentum of the body is
increased by ?
(1) 20%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 200%

45) An engine pump is used to pump a liquid of density ρ continuously through a pipe of cross-
sectional area A. If the speed of flow of the liquid in the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic
energy is being imparted to the liquid is......

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Aρv

CHEMISTRY

1) Aqueous solution of 'A' react with dil. H2SO4 does not give any gas and also does not give any gas
or vapour with Conc. H2SO4 then the solid salt contain :

(1) Nitrite
(2) Bromide
(3) Sulphate
(4) Sulphide

2) Which of the following gives blood red colour with KSCN?

(1) Cu2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Al3+
(4) Zn2+

3) Chromyl chloride test is performed for the confirmation of the presence of the following in a
mixture.

(1) Sulphate
(2) Carbonate
(3) Chloride
(4) Nitrate

4) Pb(CH3COO)2 gives ...................colour with H2S :

(1) Black
(2) White
(3) Red
(4) orange

5) Why is it necessary to test for acid radical first with dil. H2SO4 & then with conc. H2SO4 ?

(1) Anions reacts weakly with conc. H2SO4

(2) Anions reacts strongly with dil. H2SO4
(3) If conc. H2SO4 is used first, anion of both types will react
(4) None of these

6) A ion gives red precipitate on addition of DMG. The ion is :

(1) Cu+2
(2) Fe+2
(3) Ni+2
(4) Co+2

7) Match the List-I with List-II

Column-I Column-II
(Cation) (Group reagent)

A Pb+2, Cu+2 i H2S + HCl

B Al+3, Fe+3 ii (NH4)2CO3 + NH4OH

C Co+2, Ni+2 iii NH4OH + NH4Cl

D Ba+2, Ca+2 iv H2S + NH4OH

Correct match is.
(1) A–iv; B–ii; C–iii; D–i
(2) A–i; B–iii; C–iv; D–ii
(3) A–iii; B–i; C–iv; D–ii
(4) A–i; B–iii; C–ii; D–iv

8)
(A) is.

(1) Fe+2
(2) Zn+2
(3) Fe+3
(4) Ni+2

9) Match the column :

 Column-I Column-II

(a) Violet color gas (p) SO2

(b) Rotten egg smell (q) NO2

(c) Brown color (r) I2

(d) Suffocating smell (s) H2S

(t) Br2
(1) a-r; b-s; c-q,t; d-p
(2) a-p; b-q; c-r,s; d-p
(3) a-s; b-r; c-p,t; d-p
(4) a-p; b-q; c-r; d-p,s

10) Which of the following is related to Nessler's reagent?

(1) PtCl4 + KCl →

(2) AgCl + NH3 →
(3) AgBr + Na2S2O3 →
(4) HgI2 + KI →

11) The property of halogens, that indicated incorrect is :

(1) F > Cℓ > Br > I..........ionisation energy

(2) F > Cℓ > Br > I...........electron affinity
(3) F > Cℓ > Br > I.........electronegativity
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cℓ2 > F2 .......Boiling point

12) The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is :

(1) HF > HCℓ > HBr > HI............acidic strength

(2) HI > HBr > HCℓ > HF..........reducing strength
(3) HI > HBr > HCℓ > HF............bond length
(4) HF > HCℓ > HBr > HI..........thermal stability

13) Noble gases are least reactive their inertness to chemical reactivity is attributed to the following
reason (s) :-
(i) Completely filled outermost shell
(ii) High I.E.
(iii) High positive Δ Heg

(1) a only
(2) a, b
(3) a,b,c
(4) b,c
14) Assertion : Xe on reaction with PtF6 can gives Xe+PtF6–.
Reason : Ist I.E. of O2 is less than Xe.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) Match the column A with B :-

A B

(i) Cryogenic agent (a) Ar

(ii) Fluoroscent bulb (b) Ne

(iii) electric bulb (c) XeF2

(iv) Fluorinatign agent (d) He

(1) (i) - (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (c)
(2) (i) - (a); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
(4) (i) - (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b)

16)

SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct are
respectively :-

(1) square planar, trigonal bipyramidal

(2) T-shaped, octahedral
(3) square pyramidal, octahedral
(4) square planar, octahedral

17) Among the fluorides below, the one which does not exist is :

(1) XeF4
(2) HeF4
(3) SF4
(4) CF4

18) Xenon tetrafluoride, XeF4 is:

(1) tetrahedral and acts as a fluoride donor with SbF5

(2) square planar and acts as a fluoride donor with PF5
(3) square planar and acts as fluoride donor with NaF
(4) see-saw shape and acts as a fluoride donor with AsF5
19) Which one of the following combines with Fe(II) ions to form a brown complex ?

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

20) Which of the following have predominantly ionic nature.

(1) NF3
(2) PF3
(3) AsF3
(4) BiF3

21) For the hydrides of nitrogen family going down the group :-

(1) stability decreases

(2) reducing activity increases
(3) bond angle HMH decreases
(4) all the above variations followed

22) Which of the following is not correct property for given hydrides ?

(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 – Bond angle
(2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 – Basic strength
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 – Reducing power
(4) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3 – Boiling point

23) Oxygen show only –ve oxidation state as –2 except in case of :-

(1) OH2
(2) OF2
(3) OCl2
(4) CO2

24) Which of the following reactions is a disproportionation reaction?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

25) Which one of the following in not a Chalcogen ?

(1) S
(2) Se
(3) O
(4) Na

26) Which of the following compounds is the strongest reducing agent ?

(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) H2Se
(4) H2Te

27) Oxygen and sulphur both are the members of the same group in periodic table but H2O is liquid
while H2S is gas because

(1) Molecular weight of water is more

(2) Electronegativity of sulphur is more
(3) H2S is weak acid
(4) Water molecules are having weak hydrogen bonds between them

28) Which of the following hydrides is most acidic?

(1) H2Te
(2) H2Se
(3) H2O
(4) H2S

29) Maximum pπ–pπ back bonding exists in :-

(1) BCl3
(2) BI3
(3) BBr3
(4) BF3

30) In B2H6 :

(1) There is a direct boron-boron bond

(2) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges
(3) The structure is similar to C2H6
(4) All the atoms are in one plane

31) Select the correct order of stability :-

(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] < K3[FeF6]

(2) BiI3 > BiI5
(3) SnCl2 > SnCl4
 3+ 3–
(4) [Co(H2O)6] > [Co(OX)3]

32) A(g) + 2B(g) 2C(g) + D(g)

At 250°C, KC = 4. If reaction is started with 4 mol A, 2 mol B, 3 mol C and 1.5 mol D in a 1L
container. What would happen ?

(1) Forward reaction

(2) Backward reaction
(3) System is at equilibrium
(4) Cannot be predicted

33)

For the following equilibrium

Si(s) + 2Cl2(g) SiCl4(g), correct relation is :
Where x is degree of dissociation of Cl2 and P is total pressure.

x∝
(1)

(2)
x∝
(3) x ∝ P

(4)
x∝

34) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 if in equilibrium mixture by volume, N2 is 40%, H2 is 30% and rest is NH3 and
total pressure is 5 atm then find out KP :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) For the reaction 2HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g) ; the degree of dissociation(α) of HI(g) is related to
equilibrium constant KP by the expression :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

36) Two moles of gas A2 are mixed with two moles of gas B2 in a flask of volume 1 lit. If at
equilibrium 0.5 moles of A2 are obtained. Then find out Kp for reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g)

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 36

37) For a reaction, the value of Kp increases with increase in temperature. The ΔH for the reactions
would be :

(1) positive
(2) negative
(3) zero
(4) cannot be predicted

38) If the value of equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium,
the system will contain :

(1) mostly products

(2) similar amounts of reactants and products
(3) all reactants
(4) mostly reactants

39) The molecular weight of PCl5 is 208.32 but when heated to 230°C, it is reduced to 124. The
extent of dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature will be :

(1) 6.8%
(2) 68%
(3) 46%
(4) 64%

40) At 200°C, PCl5 dissociates as follows :

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g). It was found that the equilibrium vapours are 62 times as heavy as
hydrogen. The percentage dissociation of PCl5 at 200°C is :

(1) 34.1%
(2) 70.3%
(3) 40.5%
(4) 68.1%

41) A(g) B(g) + C(g) + D(g)

If vapour density of equilibrium mixture is 50 when A undergoes 10% dissociation, then find molar
mass of A. :-

(1) 60
(2) 110
(3) 120
(4) 166.67

42) For which of the following reactions Kp < Kc :-

(1) N2O3(g) NO2(g) + NO(g)

(2) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(4) 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)

43) The equilibrium constant for the reaction :

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature T is 4 × 10–4. The value of Kc for the reaction

NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g) is :

(1) 0.02
(2) 50
(3) 4 × 10–4
(4) 2.5 × 10–2

44) Which of the following factors influences KC :-

(1) Temperature
(2) Concentration
(3) Catalyst
(4) Pressure

45)

The equilibrium constant of the reaction

is 4 × 10–3 atm–1/2
The equilibrium constant of the reaction

would be :
(1) 250 atm
(2) 4 × 103 atm
(3) 0.25 × 104 atm
(4) 6.25 × 104 atm
 BIOLOGY

1) Protein encoded by a gene cryII Ab control :-

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton boll worm
(3) Beetles
(4) Mosquitoes

2)

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel ?

(1) Bio-metallurgical techniques

(2) Bio-insecticidal plants
(3) Bio-mineralization processes
(4) Bio-accumulation

3) Which of the following statements is not true, if a DNA is inserted in plasmid within the coding
sequence of an enzyme β-galactosidase?

(1) It lead to insertional activation of enzyme producing gene

Bacteria having plasmid with insert gives colourless colonies in presence of chromogenic
(2)
substrate
Bacteria having plasmid without insert gives blue coloured colonies in presence of chromogenic
(3)
substrate.
(4) The ability of enzyme synthesis is lost in the plasmid having insert

4) The given diagram represents simple stressed tank reactor. Which of the following represent the
correct labelling.

A B C D
 Acid/base for pH Flat bladed
(1) Motor Foam Breaker
control impeller

Acid/ Base
Flat bladed
(2) Motor for pH Foam Breaker
impeller
control

Acid / base for pH Flat bladed

(3) Motor Foam Breaker
control impeller

Steam for
(4) Motor Culture broth Foam Breaker
Sterilisation

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Section of cilia / flagella shows :-

Peripheral Central
Radial Central
Microtubules microtubules
spoke Sheath
(Doublet) (singlet)

(1) 9+0 2 8 1

(2) 9+2 9+0 9 1

(3) 9 2 9 1

(4) 3 6 9 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

(1) Enzyme replacement therapy

(2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
(4) Bone marrow transplantation

7) Assertion : The genes cryI Ac and cryII Ab control the cotten bollworms
Reason : Bt-toxins genes are Insect group specific.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
8) RNAi initiated by

(1) ss RNA
(2) ss DNA
(3) ds RNA
(4) ds DNA

9) Endomembrane system includes:-

A-Endoplasmic reticulum
B-Golgi apparatus
C-Lysosome
D-Vacuole
Functions:
(i) Protein synthesis and secretion.
(ii) Contains excretory product and other materials not useful for cells.
(iii) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
(iv) Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid.
Match the function (i-iv) with components of endomembrane system and choose the correct option.

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

10) Assertion : Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction.

Reason : Other constrictions may also occur on some chromosomes

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) A good cloning vector should have all except :

(1) Origin of replication to start replication

(2) Many recognition sites for single restriction enzyme
(3) High copy number
(4) Selectable marker

12) Statement I : Nuclear pore are formed by the fusion of its two membranes.
Statement II : Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement I is incorrect
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
13) Below diagram explains which of the following steps :-

(1) Maturation of insulin into proinsulin

(2) Maturation of proinsulin into insulin
(3) PCR
(4) Tissue culture

14) Transgenic plants are the ones

(1) Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
(2) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium
(3) Grown in artificial medium after hybridisation in the field
(4) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium

15) There are _____ documented Basmati varieties in India.

(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 29
(4) 35

16) Assertion : Most of the industrialised nations are rich financially but poor in biodiversity &
traditional knowledge.
Reason : In contrast the developing & the underdeveloped world is rich in biodiversity &
traditional knowledge related to bio resources.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) GEAC Refers to:

(1) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee.

(2) Make Decisions regarding the expiry of GM research.
(3) Usage of Live organism for production of Medicine.
(4) Process of Generating Product.

18) Bio patent Refer to

(1) American company got patent right on Golden Rice
A patent is a Right granted by a government to an inventor to prevent others from commercial
(2)
use of invention
(3) An Improvement in Earlier invention
(4) A concept or design.

19) Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable because -

(1) Economy of developing countries may suffer.

(2) These products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products.
(3) This method is costly.
(4) There is danger of coming viruses and toxins with introduced crop.

20) 'Rosie' a transgenic cow is known to produce a type of milk, which has all the following
characteristics except :-

(1) Protein content of 2.4 g / litre

(2) Has human α-lactalbumin protein
(3) Can be used for treatment of cystic fibrosis
(4) More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies

21)

Find the correct match

Column-A Column-B

(a) Gene therapy (i) Insulin

(b) Eli Lilly (ii) PCR

(c) Molecular diagnosis (iii) ADA deficiency

(iv) Cystic fibrosis

(v) α-lactalbumin
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(4) a-v, b-iii, c-i

22) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

(A) Bt cotton (i) Vitamin-A enriched

(B) RNA i (ii) Oil eating bug

(C) Golden Rice (iii) Insect resistant plant

 (D) Pseudomonas putida (iv) Nematode resistant plant
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

23) Nucleic acid can be fragmented by the enzyme?

(1) Ligase
(2) Protease
(3) Nuclease
(4) Polymerase

24) Restriction endonucleases are :-

(1) Not synthesized by bacteria

(2) Present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA
(3) Used for invitro Protein synthesis
(4) Used in genetic engineering

25) Which of the following DNA sequences can be a recognition site of a restriction endonuclease
enzyme ?

AAGG
(1)
TTCC
AATTCCGG
(2)
TTAAGGCC
CTCGAG
(3)
GAGCTC
GGTTGG
(4)
CCAACC

26) The ribosomes of the chloroplast are -

(1) Larger than cytoplasmic ribosomes

(2) Smaller than cytoplasmic ribosomes
(3) equal to cytoplasmic ribosomes
(4) Larger than mitochondrial ribosomes

27) Identify the Restriction enzyme used to cut the site X, Y respectively -

(1) PvuI, PstI

(2) PVUII, PstI
(3) SalI, ECORI
(4) BamHI, SalI

28) BamH I site in present at :-

(1) ampR gene

(2) tetR gene
(3) Ori
(4) rop

29) In order to insert alien DNA at the site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 the restriction
endonuclease used can be

(1) Pvu I
(2) Cla I
(3) Sal I
(4) Pst I

30) Which of the following is not applicable to Agrobacterium tumifaciens?

(1) Pathogen of several dicot plants

(2) Has ability to transform mutant species
(3) Delivers gene of our interest
(4) Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants without any exception

31) The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :-

(1) Recognition site

(2) Selectable marker
(3) Ori site
(4) Palindromic sequence

32) The following figure shows :-

(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Biolistics
(4) Downstream processing

33) The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of

(1) Ligases
(2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Probes
(4) Selectable markers

34) A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of set of DNA fragments :-

which of following statement is correct regarding this ?

(1) Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment

(2) Only lane 4 shows digested DNA fragment
(3) Lane 1 to lane 3 show digested DNA
(4) Only lane 4 shows undigested DNA fragments

35) Gel electrophoresis is used for

(1) Construction of rDNA

(2) Isolation of DNA
(3) Cutting of DNA
(4) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size or length

36) What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?

(1) The smaller the DNA fragment size, the - farther it moves
(2) Positively charged DNA fragments move to farther end
(3) Negatively charged DNA fragments do not move
(4) The larger the DNA fragment size, the farther it moves

37) Since DNA has ................. charge, it moves towards the ................. electrode of the
electrophoretic chamber :

(1) Positive
(2) Positive, negative
(3) Negative, positive
(4) Natural, neutral

38) Bacterial colonies that have a foreign DNA fragment inserted in to the plasmid will appear white
because-

(1) X-gal can be cleaved by β-galactosidase

(2) Lac-Z gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA
(3) Lac-Z gene is active
(4) X-gal can be cleaved by permease

39) Statement I: Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments based on size.
Statement II: DNA fragments are positively charged and move towards the cathode.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true; Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.

40)

Recognise the figure and select the correct matching:-

(1) a–EcoRI, b–Sticky ends, c–Recombinant DNA

(2) a–EcoRI, b–Sticky ends, c–Nonrecombinant DNA
(3) a–EcoRV, b–Sticky ends, c–Recombinant DNA
(4) a–Hind II, b–Sticky ends, c–Recombinant DNA

41) Enzyme used in PCR is :-

(1) Taq polymerase

(2) Gyrase
(3) Transcriptase
(4) Hexokinase

42) The source of Taq-polymerase used in PCR is a :-

(1) thermophilic fungus

(2) mesophilic fungus
(3) thermophilic bacteria
(4) halophilic bacteria

43) The figure shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option
giving correct identification together with what it represents :-

(1) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands
(2) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
(3) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
(4) B-Annealing with three sets of primers

44) Find out the incorrect statement with respect to PCR.

(1) Polymerase chain reaction was developed by Kary Mullis

(2) The DNA polymerase used in PCR is thermostable
(3) The denaturation of DNA is carried out at 94°C
(4) The primers used in PCR are oligonucleotides and primer annealing occurs at 90°C

45) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

(1) N2
(2) 2n
(3) 2n + 1
(4) 2N2

46) Reasons of infertility are

(1) physical or congenital diseases

(2) drugs, immunological
(3) psychological
(4) all of these

47) What is the similarity between genital warts and genital herpes :
a. Both are curable disease
b. Both are RTI
c. Both are STIs
d. Both are non curable disease

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) Only c
(4) b, c

48) Read the following statements (A), (B) and (C).

(A) Estrogen alone or in combination with progestogens can be used by females as contraceptives.
(B) lUDs within 72 hours of coitus have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptives
as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape.
(C) Oral contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for a period of 28 days starting preferably within
the first 5 days of menstrual cycle.
Choose the correct option from the following.

(1) Statements (A) and (B) are correct but (C) is incorrect
(2) Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect but statement (C) is correct
(3) Statements (A) and (C) are incorrect but (B) is correct
(4) Statements (A) and (C) are correct but (B) is incorrect

49) Veneral diseases can spread through :

(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only

50) Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction.
(B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India.
(C) "Saheli" – a new oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New
Delhi).
(D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of foetus.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (D) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

51) Read the given statements :-

Statement-I Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test based on study of chromosomal
pattern from cells extracted from amniotic fluid.
Statement -II There is a statutory ban on this technique w.r.t. sex determination in India.
Choose the correct option :-

(1) Only statement I is true

(2) Only statement II is true
(3) Both statement I and II are wrong.
(4) Both statement I and II are true.

52) Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option regarding IUD.
(i) IUD increases phagocytosis of sperm is ___A___
(ii) IUD which make the uterus unsuitable for implantation is ___B___
(iii) IUD which makes the cervix hostile to the sperms is ___C___
(iv) IUD which suppresses motility of sperm ___D___.

(1) Lippes loop, Cu-T, LNG-20, Combination of Estrogen and progesterone

(2) Lippes loop, Cu-T, LNG-20, Multiload-375
(3) Lippes loop, LNG-20, Progestasert, Cu-T
(4) Cu-T, Lippes loop, Multiload-375, LNG-20

53) Genetic drift takes place in

(1) Small population

Large population
(2)

(3) Oceanic population

(4) Never occurs

54) Which of the following are analogous organs?

(1) Heart of Vertebrates

(2) Wings of insect and bird
(3) Forelegs of horse and arms of man
(4) Flippers of whale and forelimbs of man

55) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres, transfer into

(A) ZIFT I.
the uterus

(B) IUT II. Transfer of an ovum into the fallopian tube

(C) ICSI III. The zygote transfer into the fallopian tube

(D) GIFT IV. A sperm is directly inject into the cytoplasm of ovum
(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(2) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

56) Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to high level of
(1) FSH & LH hormone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone

57) Statement-I : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called infertility.
Statement-II : Medical termination of pregnancy is not legalised in our country.
Choose the correct option from the given statements :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

58) Read the following four statements (A - D):

(A) Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option.
(B) Intense lactation could help as a natural method of contraception.
(C) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(D) Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country.
How many statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

59) Possible ill effects of contraceptives could be ?

(A) Nausea
(B) Break through bleeding
(C) Abdominal pain
(D) Reproductive tract cancer
(E) Irregular menstrual bleeding
Choose the correct answer from given options :-

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) A, B, C, E only
(4) B, E only

60) How many of the following disease are not completely curable?
Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, hepatitis B, genital warts, AIDS, trichomoniasis, chlamydiasis

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
61) On accompanying graph, the shift from curve A to B could be caused by :-

(a) Increase in pH (b) Lower Temp

(c) Increased altitude (d) Low CO2

(1) a only
(2) a and d only
(3) a, b, d
(4) All

62) Which of the following statements are true/false ?

(a) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily because of its higher solubility.
(b) Approximately 8.9% of CO2 is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(c) The carbondioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes
into red blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3.
(d) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is basic.
(e) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.

(1) a,c, and e are true and 'b' and 'd' are false
(2) a, c and e are false and 'b' and 'd' are true
(3) a, b and d are true and 'c' and 'e' are false
(4) a, b and d are false and 'c' and 'e' are true

63) Which of the following is correct option about vital capacity (VC)?

(1) Inspiratory capacity + Expiratory Reserve volume

(2) Expiratory capacity + Inspiratory Reserve volume
(3) Total Lung capacity – Residual volume
(4) All of the above

64) Utilisation of O2 by the cells to produce energy is known as :-

(1) Breathing
(2) Ventilation
(3) Respiration
(4) 1 & 2 both

65)

The factor which does not affect the rate of alveolar diffusion is-
(1) Thickness of the membrane
(2) Concentration gradient
(3) Reactivity of the gases
(4) Solubility of gases

66) Identify incorrect statement :

(1) Diffusion membrane has three major layers

(2) Thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter.
(3) Partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air is less than that of alveolar air.
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in pulmonary artery is more as compared to that of
(4)
pulmonary vein.

67) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Expiratory reserve volume (i) TLC – VC

(b) Expiratory capacity (ii) VC – IC

(c) Residual volume (iii) IC – TV

(d) Inspiratory reserve volume (iv) TV + ERV

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

68) Match the disorders given in column I with symptoms under column II. Choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers–

Column I Column II

(a) Asthma (i) Occupational respiratory disorder

(b) Bronchitis (ii) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchiole

(c) Silicosis (iii) Damaged alveoliar wall

(d) Emphysema (iv) Inflammation of bronchi

(v) Cough with blood strained sputum

(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i
(2) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

69) Read carefully and arrange the given steps of expiration in the human body.
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm
(II) Reduction of the pulmonary volume
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(IV) Increase in intra pulmonary pressure
Choose the correct option.

(1) I-II-III-IV
(2) I-II-IV-III
(3) IV-III-II-I
(4) IV-II-III-I

70) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases

(2) Exchange of gases occur at tissue level and alveolar surface.
Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called partial pressure and is
(3)
represented as pO2 for oxygen and pCO2 for carbon dioxide.
(4) All of the above

71)

Which of the given factor favours the dissociation of CO2 from carbamino haemoglobin ?

(1) High pCO2, low pO2 - In tissue

(2) Low pCO2, high pO2 - In alveoli
(3) Low pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli
(4) High pO2, high pCO2 - In alveoli

72) Refer the given figure and answer the question Which of the
following statement is incorrect regarding the above figure ?

When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a
(1)
sigmoid curve is obtained
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of oxygen
+
(3) Effect of change in pO2, pCO2, temperature and H concentration can be studied from the graph
The curve of the graph is called oxygen association curve (OAC) and is useful in studying O2
(4)
loading and unloading.

73) The respiratory process is regulated by respiratory rhythm centre present in medulla of the
brain, which is ?
 +
(1) Stimulated by lower O2 and H concentration in aortic arch
+
(2) Inhibited by higher O2 and H concentration
+
(3) Stimulated by higher CO2 and higher H concentration.
+
(4) Stimulated by lower O2 and H concentration in carotid artery.

74) Read the following statements:- (A) It is a chronic disorder

(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking.
(C) Alveolar walls are damaged
(D) Respiratory surface is decreased.
(E) It is due to inflammation of bronchi & bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are incorrect about "emphysema" disorder ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All

75) How many of the following statements are correct?

(A) Vital capacity = TV + ERV + IRV
(B) The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs.
(C) Change in volume of pulmonary cavity will be seen in thoracic cavity.
(D) Respiratory organ in spider is book lung.
Choose from the given options :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

76) Select the incorrect statements :-

(A) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution is natural selection.
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
(C) The geological history of earth is not related with the biological history of earth.
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life span.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and D

77) Following are the two statements regarding fossils :

(a) Fossils are the impression or remains of the hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
(b) Fossils are found only in rocks.
Which of the following option is correct regarding the above two statements ?

(1) Statement (a) is incorrect and statement (b) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is incorrect and statement (a) is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

78) Development of resistance towards antibiotics in bacteria is an example of :

(1) Neolamarckism
(2) Natural selection
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Convergent evolution

79) Consider the four statements (a-d) about the phenomenon of industrial melanism in England and
select the option which includes incorrect statements only :
(a) Before industrialization white winged moths were more than dark winged moths
(b) After industrialization dark winged moths were more than white winged moths
(c) Predators can’t spot a moth against a contrasting background
(d) Dark winged moths survived due to thick growth of white coloured lichen on trees
Options:

(1) Statements (a) and (b)

(2) Statements (a) and (c)
(3) Statements (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (c) and (d)

80) What is the main key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution :-

(A) Natural selection (B) Branching descent
(C) Mutation (D) Genetic variation

(1) A,C,D
(2) A, B
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) B, D

81) During evolution sea weeds existed probably before how many years :-

(1) 320 million years

(2) 200 million years
(3) 100 million years
(4) 350 million years

82) This graph indicate which type of natural selection :

(1) Directional
(2) Stabilising
(3) Disruptive
(4) None

83) What is main difference between the mutation of Hugo de Vries and variation of Darwin?

According to Hugo de Vries mutations are random and directionless while Darwinian variations
(1)
are small and directional.
According to Hugo de Vries mutations are random and directional while Darwinian variations
(2)
are small and directional.
According to Hugo de Vries mutations are small and directional while according to Darwin
(3)
variations are random.
According to Hugo de Vries mutations are large and directional while Darwinian mutations are
(4)
small, directionless.

84) In the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it observed that it is passed through a two
chambered fish like heart stage, 3 chambered frog like heart stage & finally to four chambered heart
stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?

(1) Hardy - Weinberg law

(2) Lamarck's principle
(3) Biogenetic law
(4) Mendelian principle

85) Which of the following fossil man had religious feelings of worship and used burial customs

(1) African ape man

(2) Java man
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Peking man

86) The sequence of origin of life may be :

(1) Inorganic materials → Organic materials → Colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → Cell

(2) Organic materials → Inorganic materials → Colloidal aggregate → Eobiont → Cell
(3) Inorganic materials → Organic materials → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregate
(4) Organic materials → Inorganic materials → Eobiont → Cell → Colloidal aggregate

87) Dinosaurs were dominant during the_____period of ____era

(1) Tertiary and Coenozoic

(2) Jurassic and Palaeozoic
(3) Jurassic and Mesozoic
(4) Mesozoic and Jurassic

88) Refer the given statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Fossils are impression or remains of hard parts of life forms in rocks.
(ii) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they
existed.
(iii) Radio carbon method are used to determine the age of the fossils.
(iv) Study of fossils is called palaeontology.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) None of these

89) In the Stanley millers experiment identify the correct combination of gases & temperature ?

Gases Temperature

(1) CH4, NH3, CO2 400ºC

NH3, HCN, H2O,

(2) 1800ºC
vapour, H2

CH4, H2, NH3,

(3) 800ºC
H2O vapour

(4) CH4, HCN, CO2 8000ºC

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Weismann (i) Inheritance of acquired character

(B) Hugo de Vries (ii) Biogenetic law

(C) Ernst Haeckel (iii) Theory of continuity of germplasm

(D) Lamarck (iv) Mutation theory

(1) A - iii B-i C - iv D - ii
(2) A - ii B - iii C - iv D-i
(3) A - iv B - ii C-i D - iii
(4) A - iii B - iv C - ii D-i
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 3 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 3 1 1 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 1 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 2 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Diamagnetic

3)

25 × 10–7 N moving towards wire

4)

Ans.

5)

low coercivity and low retentivity

6) τ = MB sin θ (θ = 90º)
τ = (IA) B

τ = (I)

τ=

7) m = i (nR2)

R=
α = (2πR)

a = 2π

α=

8)

U3 < U2 < U1 < U4

9)

Ans.

10)

Ans.

11)
–3
Ans .1.6 × 10 C

12)

i=
i = i0(1 – e–t/τ)

13)

Ans. Energy

14)

Ans. 250 V

15)

Ans. 0.5

16)
Direction of induced current in loop is clockwise so motion of e– is anticlockwise
(i.e. from A to B)
so B plate become negative

17)

Correct Ans.

18)

Ans. -15 V

19)

Ans. IπR2

20)

Ans. 0.44 J

21)

Ans. 0.2 C

22)

Can either increase of decrease

23)

Acceleration of magnet is constant and less than 'g'

24)

Ans. Zero

25)

The current will change direction as the electron passes by

26)

Ans. –10 volt

27)
Correct Ans. 1 : 2

28)
I runs clockwise and "a" points to the right;

29)

Outward and decreasing with time

30)

Ans.

31)

Ans. C and D only

32)

Question Explanation
Find the self-inductance of a toroid using its number of turns, coil radius, and mean radius.

Concept
Self-inductance of a toroid depends on magnetic flux linkage and geometry of coil - turns, area,
and mean radius.

Calculation

Final Answer (1)

33)

Ans. only in the loop (i)

34)

Ans. 4950
35)

Ans. Weber

36)
W = ΔPE = PEj – PEi

W=

37) Maximum drop in P.E. = maximum gain in K.E.

38)

39)

Ans. 1.25 kW

40)

Ans. P→4; Q→2; R→3; S→1

41)

NCERT Pg # 76

(p) ωapplied force = (30 + 20) (100)

= 2500 J = 2.5 kJ
(q) ωfr = – 40 × 20 = – 800 J
= –0.8 kJ
(r) Total work done over 30 m displacement is
ω = 2500 – 1200
ω = 1300 J
ωnet = 1.3 kJ
 42)

All of the above

43)

If both assertion and reason are false

44)

Ans. 100%

45)

Ans.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Sulphate

47)

Fe+3 + SCN¯ → [Fe(SCN)]3+

Blood red colour

48)

Chromylchloride test is performed for the confirmation of chloride.

49)

Black

50) If conc. H2SO4 is used first, anion of both types will react

51)

Ni+2

52)

A–i; B–iii; C–iv; D–ii

53)

Fe+3 + K4[Fe(CN)6] → Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

Fe+3 + SCN– → [Fe(SCN)]+2

54) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about matching of coloumn 1 with column 2

Concept:
This question is based on Properties of Gases

Solution:
a) Violet color gas: This is characteristic of iodine I2 vapor. So,a) → (r)
b) Rotten egg smell: This is the characteristic smell of Hydrogen Sulfide H2S gas. So, b) → (s)
c) Brown color: (q) Nitrogen Dioxide NO2 gas (brown gas) or (t) Bromine (Br2) liquid/ vapor
(reddish-brown).
d) Suffocating smell: This is a strong characteristic of Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) gas. It is also often
described as a pungent, choking smell. So, d) → (p)

Hence,
Correct Option: 1

55)

Answer : 4
Concept:
The reaction between mercuric iodide (Hgl42-)and potassium iodide (Kl) involves the formation
of a stable complex ion. Here's the reaction
Explanation: The reaction between mercury (II) iodide (Hgl2) and potassium iodide (Kl)
is notable because they interact to form a soluble complex. This is utilized in the preparation of
Nesser's reagent,
Reaction Steps
1. Formation of the Complex:
Hgl2+2Kl→K2[Hgl4]

56)

F > Cℓ > Br > I...........electron affinity

57)

HF > HCℓ > HBr > HI............acidic strength

58)

a,b,c
59) I.E1 of O2 = 1175 kJ/m.
I.E. of Xe = 1170 kJ./m

60) Parts NCERT Page no. 211

61)

T-shaped, octahedral

62)

HeF4

63)

square planar and acts as a fluoride donor with PF5

64)

Correct Ans. NO

65)

BiF3

66)

all the above variations followed

67) Explanation :
Question is asking about incorrect order of BP.

Concept :
About Weak forces.

Solution :
The correct order of group 15 hydrides would be
PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3 < BiH3.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

68) Page. 182 para 1

69) Ncert-class12th, part-1, pg.No:189, Edition-2022-23

70)

Correct Ans. Na

71)

H2Te

72)

Water molecules are having weak hydrogen bonds between them

73)

H2Te

74)

BF3

75)

The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges

76)

BiI3 > BiI5

77)

forward.

78)

x∝P

79) N2 + 3H2 2NH3

PT = 5 atm

= 2 atm

= 1.5 atm

= 1.5atm
 kP = = = 1/3

80)

81)

Ans. 36

82)

positive

83)

mostly products

84)

Ans. 68%

85)

Ans. 68.1%

86) α =

0.1 = = D = 60
molar mass = 2 × 60 = 120

87)

Explanation

A. The relationship between the equilibrium constants Kp (in terms of partial pressures) and Kc
(in terms of molar concentrations) for a reversible gaseous reaction is given by the equation:

Kp = Kc(RT)Δn

where:

A. R is the ideal gas constant

B. T is the temperature in Kelvin
 C. Δn is the change in the number of moles of gaseous substances (moles of gaseous products -
moles of gaseous reactants).

Concept

A. Need to find the reaction where the number of moles of gaseous products is less than the
number of moles of gaseous reactants.

A. N₂O₃(g) ⇌ NO₂(g) + NO(g)

A. Δn = (1 + 1) - 1 = +1 (Kp > Kc)
B. 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2H₂O(g)
A. Δn = 2 - (2 + 1) = -1 (Kp < Kc)
C. H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
A. Δn = 2 - (1 + 1) = 0 (Kp = Kc)
D. 2SO₃(g) ⇌ 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g)
A. Δn = (2 + 1) - 2 = +1 (Kp > Kc)

Only in reaction 2 is Δn negative, which means Kp will be less than Kc.

Answer option 2, {2H₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2H₂O(g)}.

88)

Explanation:
Calculation of equilibrium constant for given reaction.
Given Data

A. N2(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), Kc = 4 × 10–4

Concept:

A. Reversing a reaction inverts the equilibrium constant.

B. Multiplying a reaction by a factor raises the equilibrium constant to that power.

Calculation:

A. Reverse the first reaction:

A. 2NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g), Kc' = 1 / Kc = 1 / (4 × 10–4) = 2500
B. Multiply the reversed reaction by 1/2:
A. NO(g) ⇌ 1/2 N2(g) + 1/2 O2(g), Kc2 = (Kc')1/2 = (2500)1/2 = 50

Answer option 2, (50).

89)

Temperature

90)

6.25 × 104 atm

BIOLOGY

91)

Explanation :
The question asks what insects pest is controlled by the protein encoded by the dry II Abgene.

Concept :
The concept based on Bt. cotton.

Final Answer : (2)

92)

Explanation : The question asks what Novel application Bt strains have been used for
designing.

Concept : The concept based on Bt-cotton.

Solution : Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a bacteria that produces proteins toxic to certain
insects.
These Bt genes have been incorporated into plants to create genetically modified (GM) crops
that are resistant to specific insect pests.

Final Answer : (2)

93)

It lead to insertional activation of enzyme producing gene

94)

Correct Ans. 3

95) NCERT Pg. # 137

96)

Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages

97)

NCERT Pg#209

98) NCERT Pg. # 209

 99)

To match the functions with the components of the endomembrane system:

Components and their Functions:

A. A. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER):

B. Key site for protein synthesis (Rough ER) and lipid synthesis (Smooth ER).
C. Function: i. Protein synthesis and secretion.
D. B. Golgi Apparatus:
E. Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids. Also forms glycoproteins and glycolipids.
F. Function: iii. Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
G. C. Lysosome:
H. Contains hydrolytic enzymes for the breakdown of biomolecules.
I. Function: iv. Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
J. D. Vacuole:
K. Stores materials such as water, ions, and waste products.
L. Function: ii. Contains excretory products and other materials not useful for cells.

Correct Option:
3. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

100) NCERT-139

101)

Many recognition sites for single restriction enzyme

102)

The correct answer is option 3. Both statements I and II are correct

A. Statement I: Nuclear pores are indeed formed by the fusion of the inner and outer
nuclear membranes, allowing selective exchange of materials between the nucleus and
cytoplasm.

B. Statement II: The nucleolus is the site of active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and
assembly of ribosomal subunits.

So, both statements are correct.

103)

Maturation of proinsulin into insulin

104)

Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell
105)

Ans. 27

106) NCERT Page No. # 214 / 234

107) NCERT XIIth Page - 213

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 214

109)

There is danger of coming viruses and toxins with introduced crop.

110)

NCERT-XII, Page # 184

111)

Explanation : Find the correct pairings between the terms in column-A and their
corresponding matches in Column-B

Concept : The concept based on Biotechnology in Medicines.

Final Answer : (3)

112)

A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

113)

Nuclease

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 165,166

115)

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut DNA at specific recognition sequences. These
sequences are typically:
• Palindromic: They read the same forward and backward on opposite strands.
• Short: Usually 4-8 base pairs long.

116) NCERT-136

117)

PvuI, PstI

118)

tetR gene

119)

Ans. Sal I

120)

Ans. Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants without any exception

121)

Ans. Ori site

122) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201

123)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 195

124)

Only lane 1 shows undigested DNA fragment

125)

Separation of DNA fragments according to their size or length

126)

The smaller the DNA fragment size, the - farther it moves

127)
Negative, positive

128)

Lac-Z gene shows insertional inactivation due to insertion of foreign DNA

129) NCERT Pg. #168

131) Concept:
PCR is method to used to amplify DNA, creating millions of copies of specific DNA segment.
Solution:
From the given options Tag polymerase is enzyme used in PCR.
If is a heat-stable enzyme used to synthesize DNA in PCR.

132) NCERT Pg. # 201, 202

133) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 202

134)

The primers used in PCR are oligonucleotides and primer annealing occurs at 90°C

135) NCERT-XII Pg #173, Module

136)

All are reason for infertility

137)

Genital Herpes – Non curable STIs or RTI STIs are also called RT

138)

NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 61

139)

Venereal diseases can spread through:

(a) Using sterile needles – False.

(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person – True.

(c) Infected mother to foetus – True.

 (d) Kissing – False.

(e) Inheritance – False..

Thus, the correct answer is: 3 — (b) and (c) only.

140) (A) Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction.
reproductive health refers to the physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being in all
matters relating to the reproductive system, at all stages of life
(B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India.

A. This statement is correct. Amniocentesis, a medical procedure used to obtain a sample of

amniotic fluid for testing, is banned in India for sex determination due to the Pre-Conception
and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994, which aims to prevent female
feticide.

(C) "Saheli" - a new oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New
Delhi).

A. This statement is correct. "Saheli" is an oral contraceptive pill developed by the Central Drug
Research Institute (CDRI) in collaboration with ICMR (Indian Council of Medical Research) for
females. It is a non-steroidal, progesterone-only pill.

(D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of the fetus.

A. This statement is correct. Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure used to detect genetic

disorders such as Down syndrome and other chromosomal abnormalities, and it also helps
assess the fetal health and survival.

141) Question Explanation: To evaluate Statements.

Concept : Amniocentesis
Solution :
Statement (I) → Correct.
Foetal sex determination can be done by Amniocentesis through study of chromosomal pattern
from cells extracted from amniotic fluid.
Statement (II) → Correct.
It is bonned for sex determination in india to check female forticide.
Final Answer : option (4).

142)

NCERT Pg # 60

143)

XIITh NCERT Pg No-121

144)

NCERT XII_Pg NO : 115

 145) Question Is Asking:

A. Match assisted reproductive technology (ART) techniques with their correct descriptions.

Solution Explanation:

A. ZIFT involves zygote transfer to fallopian tubes.

B. IUT involves embryo transfer to the uterus.
C. ICSI involves sperm injection into the ovum.
D. GIFT involves gamete transfer to fallopian tubes.
E. Therefore, the correct matching is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

Answer:
The correct answer is option 4: A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II.

146) Prolactin

147) NCERT-XIIth Pg. # 49

148)

Correct Ans. Three

149) NCERT-XII Pg#46

150) NCERT Pg. # 47

151) NCERT XIth Pg # 274, Fig # 17.5

152) NCERT Pg.#274,275

153) NCERT Ch.17 Pg.no. # 272, para-17.2.1

154) NCERT-XI ; PAGE # 268

155)

NCERT Page # 272

156) NCERT XI Page No. 273 Para No. 17.3

157) NCERT XI Page No. 271, 272 Para No. 17.2.1

158)
 A. Question: Match the disorders given in Column I with symptoms under Column II. Choose
the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers.

B. Given Data:

Column I (Disorders): (a) Asthma (b) Bronchitis (c) Silicosis (d) Emphysema

Column II (Symptoms): (i) Occupational respiratory disorder (ii) Inflammation of bronchi

and bronchiole (iii) Damaged alveolar wall (iv) Inflammation of bronchi (v) Cough with blood-
stained sputum

C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory disorders and their associated
symptoms.

D. Explanation:

A. Asthma: Asthma is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles, leading to

difficulty breathing, wheezing, and coughing. So, (a) matches with (ii) and (iv) as both describe
inflammation of the bronchi.
B. Bronchitis: Bronchitis involves inflammation of the bronchi. So, (b) matches with (iv). While
(ii) also mentions bronchioles, (iv) is a more direct and specific match for bronchitis.
C. Silicosis: Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder caused by inhaling silica dust, which
damages the lungs. So, (c) matches with (i).
D. Emphysema: Emphysema involves damage to the alveolar walls, the tiny air sacs in the lungs
responsible for gas exchange. This damage reduces the lung's capacity to exchange gases. So,
(d) matches with (iii).

Therefore, the correct answer is 4 : a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

159) NCERT page: 270

160) NCERT page: 272

161) NCERT Pg. 274

162) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 274

163) NCERT XI Pg. # 275

164) NCERT-XI , Pg# 275

165) NCERT-XI, Page # 185, 186, 187

A → Correct , B → Correct , C → Incorrect →Change in volume of thoracic cavity will be seen
in change in pulmonary cavity.
D → Correct

166)
 Question Asking About :
The question asks to identify the incorrect statements among the given options regarding the
theory of evolution.

Solution :
Let's analyze each statement :
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
• Truthfulness : This statement is incorrect, Evolution by natural selection is not a directed
process in the sense of being predetermined towards a specific goal or outcome.
(C) The geological history of earth is not related with the biological history of earth.
• Truthfulness : This statement is incorrect. Changes in Earth's geology profoundly influenced
the evolution of life, and conversely, biological processes have also shaped the geological
environment.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

167) NCERT(XII) Pg# 129 Para: 7.3

168) NCERT(XII) Pg# 132 Para: 7.3

169) NCERT(XII) Pg# 132 Para: 7.3

170)

NCERT : PAGE 134

171)

Module 7

172)

Stabilizing selection:
• It favours the average or normal phenotype and eliminates the extreme variants.
• After this natural selection mean value never change.
• Peak gets higher and narrower because more individuals acquire mean character value.
• Always operates in constant environment.
e.g. Mortality in human babies: The optimum birth weight favoured by stabilizing selection is 3
kg. New born infants less than 2 kg and more than 4.5 kg have the highest mortality rate.

173) According to Hugo de Vries it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor
variations (heritable) that Darwin talked about.

A. Mutations are random and directionless while Darwinian variations are small and directional.
174)

• The Biogenetic law, also known as Recapitulation theory, was proposed by Ernst Haeckel.
• It suggests that the developmental stages of an embryo (ontogeny) reflect the evolutionary
history (phylogeny) of the species.
• In this context, the observation of the mammalian heart passing through stages
resembling a fish-like two-chambered heart, a frog-like three-chambered heart, and finally
a four-chambered heart in mammals aligns with this hypothesis.

The correct answer is option 3. Biogenetic law.

175)

Question Asking About:

Asks to identify the fossil hominid species that exhibited evidence of religious feelings through
worship and the practice or burial customs.

Solution :
Neanderthal man was the first hominid to develop ritualistic behavior, including burial
customs.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

176) The correct sequence of the origin of life is:

1. Inorganic materials Eobiont Cell Organic materials → Colloidal aggregate →
• Inorganic materials: These are simple, non-living substances like water, carbon dioxide,
and minerals.
• Organic materials: Through processes like chemical reactions and possibly with energy
from lightning or hydrothermal vents, inorganic materials can form simple organic molecules
like amino acids and nucleotides.
• Colloidal aggregate: These are clusters of organic molecules that start to interact and form
more complex structures.
• Eobiont: These are considered the earliest proto-cells, with a rudimentary boundary and
some internal organization.
• Cell: The final stage is the development of a true cell, with a defined membrane, genetic
material, and the ability to reproduce.

177)

Module.92

178)

The correct answer is 1. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

• (i) Fossils are impression or remains of hard parts of life forms in rocks. This statement is
correct. Fossils are indeed impressions or remains (like bones, shells, etc.) of ancient
organisms preserved in rocks.
• (ii) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which
they existed. This statement is correct. Sedimentary layers are like a time capsule. Older
layers are found below newer ones. By studying the fossils found in different layers, scientists
can determine the relative ages of
the organisms and the geological time period they lived in.
• {iii) Radio carbon method are used to determine the age of the fossils. This statement is
correct. The radiocarbon dating method is a technique used to determine the age of organic
materials containing carbon, such as fossils. It's based on the decay rate of carbon-14, a
radioactive isotope of carbon.
• {iv) Study of fossils is called palaeontology. This statement is correct. Paleontology is the
scientific study of fossils. It helps us understand the history of life on Earth and how organisms
have evolved over time.

179)

NCERT : PAGE 127-128 (FIG 7.1)

180)

The correct answer is indeed Option 4:

• A-iii: Weismann proposed the Theory of Continuity of Germ plasm.
• B-iv: Hugo de Vries is known for his Mutation Theory.
• C-ii: Ernst Haeckel proposed the Biogenetic Law.
• D-i: Lamarck is famous for his theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics.