Question Bank for Selection to the merged category of Chief Commercial-cum-Ticket Supervisor in

Level-6 against 10% LDCE

1) Maximum percentage of discount which can be granted under STS for retention of traffic shall be upto
_________depending upon volume of traffic.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 15%
D. 50%
Ans : C

2 ) For the matters pertaining to GCTs, who shall be the nodal officer for all issues regarding setting
up and/or operation of a GCT?
A. GM
B. ED(FM)
C. PCCM of concerned Zone
D. DRM of the concerned Division
Ans : D

3) Maximum percentage of discount which can be granted under STS for attracting incremental
volume of traffic shall be upto _____ depending upon volume of traffic?
A.10%
B.30%
C.15%
D.50%
Ans: B

4) What is the highest class of Goods Freight?

A. 120
B. 180
C. 150
D. 200
Ans : D

5) In case, payment for freight is not paid with in the stipulated time, late payment
Surcharge at ___ %is levied for other than Coal Traffic?
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 15 %
D. 20 %
Ans : A

6) A GoodsShed is classified as Group‐III, for the purpose of levying Wharfage

Charges, if ____ rakes are dealt per month.
A. Morethan 12 rakes
B. Morethan 10 rakes
C. 7 rakes to 10 rakes
D. Less than 7 rakes
Ans : D

7) For Mini rake beyond 500Km upto 1000km ____ % supplementary charge will be levied?
A. 5
B. 7.5
C. 10
D. 15
Ans : A
8) Under Automatic Freight Rebate Scheme for traffic loaded in traditional empty flow direction,
minimum number of permitted BOST wagons in a half rake will be ____?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 29
Ans : C

9) Premium Parking is allotted to _________category stations.

A. NSG 1,NGS2,NSG3
B. SG1,SG 2 ,SG3
C. HG1,HG2,HG3
D. All of the above
Ans : A

10) Which group of Goods sheds will be treated as CRTs unless & otherwise notified to contrary by
Zonal Railways?
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group II & III
Ans : C

11. The requirement and the maximum number of ATMs/DBUs in a location shall be determined by the
_____ .
A. Auction Conducting Officer (ACO) with the approval of DRM
B. Auction Conducting Officer (ACO) with the approval of ADRM
C. Auction Conducting Officer (ACO) with the approval of PCCM
D. Auction Conducting Officer (ACO) with the approval of Sr.DCM
Ans : A

12. What is the full form of BDU ?

A. Business Department Unit
B. Business Development Unit
C. Block Rake Development Unit
D. None of the above
Ans : B

13. At what rate will the freight be charged for booking the goods in Mini Rake?
A. Lumpsum
B. Train load class
C. Wagon Load class
D. None of the above
Ans : B

14) Instructions in regard to handling of explosive and other dangerous goods are laid down in _____?
A. IRCA Coaching Tariff
B. IRCA Goods Tariff
C. Commercial Manual Vol I
D. IRCA Red Tariff
Ans : D

15) Forwarding Note is tendered under Section ______ of Railway’s Act?

A. Sec 64
B. Sec 65
C. Sec 93
D. Sec 83
Ans : A
16) “The railway administration shall not be responsible in any case for the loss, destruction, damage,
deterioration or non-delivery of any consignment arising after the expiry of a period of seven days after the
termination of transit.” Which section in Railways Act 1989 states this?
A.Sec 96
B.Sec 97
C.Sec 98
D.Sec 99
Ans : D

17) A Railway Receipt shall be prima facie evidence of the weight and the number of packages stated
therein , under which section of Railways Act 1989?
A. Sec 50
B. Sec 62
C. Sec 65
D. Sec 70
Ans : C

18) When goods have arrived at the destination in tampered condition, _______________delivery is given.
A. Open
B. Assessment
C. Diversion
D. Part
Ans : A

19) If classification is not given for any commodity in the tariff, the commodity carried in tank wagon will be
charged at class _____ .
A. 180
B. 200
C. 120
D. 150
Ans : B

20) Wagon load rate is __________ .

A. T/L + 5%
B. T/L +10%
C. T/L + 15%
D. T/L + 20%
Ans : B

21) The single window operation portal for freight customer is :

A. FOIS
B. FBD
C. TMS
D. BDU
Ans : B

22) Children under _____ years of age are to be carried free in all classes.
A. 6 years
B. 12 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 12 years.
Ans : C

23) If a train is cancelled, full amount can be refunded on reserved ticket upto ………….
A. 6 hrs
B. 2 hrs
C. 3 hrs
D. 3 days.
Ans : D
24) The normal sleeping timing in a Reserved Coach is from _____ hrs to ______ hrs.
A. 22 hrs to 5 hrs
B. 21 hrs to 6 hrs
C. 21 hrs to 5 hrs
D. 22 hrs to 6 hrs
Ans: D

25. Unused Waitlist/RAC ticket, if not confirmed after the final chart ______ will be deducted when
cancelled.
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. Clerkage Charge.
D. (a) & (c)
Ans : C

26. CRIS stands for _______ .

A. Centre for Railway Information Station.
B. 2.Centre for Railway Inquiry System.
C. 3.Centre for Railway Inquiry Station.
D. 4.Centre for Railway Information System.
Ans : D

27. What is full form of RAC ?

A. Reservation Against Cancellation.
B. Reservation After Cancellation.
C. Reservation After Charting.
D. Refund After Cancellation.
Ans: A

28. PWB stands for ……

A. Parking Way Bill.
B. Parcel Way Book.
C. Partial Way Bill.
D. Parcel Way Bill.
Ans : C

29. Maximum number of break journeys permitted on single journey is ______ 2 times.
A. 3 times.
B. 4 times.
C. 5 times.
Ans: A

30. PRS stands for _______

A. Passenger Reservation System.
B. Parcel Reservation System.
C. Public Reservation System.
D. Passenger Reservation Station.
Ans: A

31. Full form of LHB coaches is ______.

A. Linke Hoffman Busch.
B. Linke Hoffman BOST
C. Linke Hommer Busch.
D. Linke Hoffman Busk.
Ans: A

32. What is the Free Allowance for Sleeper Class ticket ?

A. 40 kgs.
B. 35 kgs.
C. 50 kgs.
D. 70 kgs.
Ans A
33. Current Reservation is available upto _____ hrs before the schedule departure of train.
A. ½ hour
B. 1 hour
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours.
Ans : A

34. Drunkenness or nuisance upon a railway will be dealt as per section _______ of Railway Act, 1989
A. 141
B. 143
C. 144
D. 145
Ans : D

35. What is the period of validity of ½ set second class privilege pass ?
A. ARP
B. ARP + two months subject to maximum of 3 months.
C. ARP + one month subject to minimum of 4 months.
D. 5 months.
Ans : C

36. Demurrage charges shall be levied at Rs._____ per Eight Wheeler Wagon per hour.
A. Rs.150/-
B. Rs.100/-
C. Rs.200/-
D. Rs.175/-
Ans: A

37 Maximum how many Break Journeys are allowed on a Circular Journey Ticket?
A. 02
B. 03
C. 05
D. 08
Ans: D

38. Minimum Education Qualification of STBA is _______.

A. 6th Pass.
B. 8th Pass.
C. 10th Pass.
D. 12th Pass.
Ans C

39. Packages can be kept for a maximum period of _______ days at Cloak Room.
A. 07
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60
Ans: A

40.Concession of Ticket is always given on _______ .

A. Total Fare.
B. G.S.T
C. Base Fare.
D. None of the above.
Ans C

41.Advance Reservation Period is _______ days for Indian citizens.

A. 90 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 120 days.
D. 150 days.
Ans: B
42. Minimum Chargeable Distance for reservation in Sleeper Class is _______
A. 200 kms.
B. 300 kms.
C. 250 kms
D. 100 kms
Ans: A
43. SC/ST students are granted ________ % of concession on normal rate.
A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 30%
Ans: B

44. Full form of ODC is ________________.

A. Over Dimensional Content.
B. Over Dimensional Cargo.
C. Out Dimension Case.
D. Over Dimensional Consignment
Ans D

45. When a train is running late by more than 3 hours _______ on cancellation of Reserved Tickets across
the counter.
A. Concession charge is due
B. Clerkage is due
C. Full amount is refunded.
D. No refund is due
Ans: C

46.Luggage should be presented for booking at least ________ minutes before schedule departure of the
train.
A. 30 minutes.
B. 40 minutes.
C. 1 hour.
D. 1 ½ hour.
Ans: A

47. Clerkage Charges collected on unused unreserved IInd Class Ticket if cancelled up to 3 hrs the actual
departure of the train is Rs.______ .
A. Rs.30/-
B. Rs.10/-
C. Rs.15/-
D. Rs.5/-
Ans: A

48. In case, fare is not refunded at the station, the passenger should be issued with _______ .
A. Excess Fare Ticket.
B. Ticket Deposit Receipt
C. Challan.
D. Luggage Ticket.
Ans: B

49. On expiry of Free Time for removal of parcels _______ charge will be collected at the time of delivery of
parcels.
A. Cloak Room Charges.
B. Demurrage Charges.
C. Wharfage Charges.
D. Delay Charges.
Ans: C
50. ICCRP stands for ________
A. Identity Card cum Railway Pass
B. Income Certificate cum Ration Permit.
C. Identity Card for Railway Person.
D. Income Certificate for Railway Person.
Ans: A

51.What is the Free Allowance for 2nd Class AC Ticket ?

A. 70 kgs.
B. 50 kgs
C. 40 kgs
D. 35 kgs
Ans: B

52. If a person found travelling with transfer of Reserved Ticket, under which section he can be punished ?
A. Section 137
B. Section 138
C. Section 141
D. Section 142
Ans: D

53.What is MEA in Indian Railways ?

A. Maximum Employees in an Area
B. Minimum Essential Amenities.
C. Maximum Essential Amenities.
D. Maximum Employees Available.
Ans: B

54. Up to ______ no. of passengers can be booked on one Tatkal requisition form.
A. 4 Persons.
B. 6 Persons.
C. 8 Persons.
D. None of these.
Ans: A

55. At what time Tatkal Booking starts for 2nd AC class ?

A. 08 AM
B. 10 AM
C. 11 AM
D. None of these.
Ans: B

56. Annual escalation in the license fee for ATMs / DBU is _____ .
A. 5% of LF
B. 6% of LF
C. 6% of LF from 4th & 5th year
D. 5% of LF from 4th & 5th year
Ans: B

57. Which of the following is not a passenger amenity.

A. Drinking water on platforms.
B. Seating on Platforms.
C. Toilet in Station Master’s office.
D. Waiting Hall.
Ans: C

58. Dog is permitted to be booked with owner in

A. first class
B. AC 2 tier
C. Sleeper class
D. II class
Ans: A
59.Minimum freight charge for booking a dog is _______ .
A. Rs.50/-
B. Rs.30/-
C. Rs.100/-
D. None of these
Ans: B

60.Chargeable weight of a dog booked with a blind person in first class compartment is _______ .
A. 60 kg
B. 30 kg
C. 50 kg
D. none of these
Ans: B

61.The particulars that are mandatory to be printed on a journey ticket as per section 50 of Railway Act
1989 is _______ .
A. station from and station to
B. fare
C. class
D. all these
Ans: D

62. HOR is issued to high officials such as ______ .

A. General Manager
B. Governor
C. C.C.M.
D. FA&CAO
Ans: B

63. When a ticket is reserved upto destination for more than 500 KM, break journey short of destination is
_____ .
A. allowed
B. not allowed
C. permitted once only
D. permitted twice only.
Ans: C

64. Break journey can be permitted for those holding single journey tickets for distance more than _____ .
A. 200 km
B. 500 km
C. 400 km
D. any distance
Ans: B

65. Break journey rules are not applicable to ________ .

A. season ticket holders
B. railway pass holder
C. Indrail pass ticket holder
D. all
Ans: D

66.Break journey is not permitted at ______ .

A. junction stations
B. intermediate station
C. suburban stations
D. non-suburban stations
Ans: C

67. Break journey is not allowed on ______ .

A. blind concession ticket
B. concession tickets when issued for a specific purpose
C. mentally retarded concession ticket
D. physically handicapped concession ticket
Ans: B
68. The charging of minimum fare is not applicable to ______ .
A. concession tickets
B. child tickets
C. adult tickets
D. none
Ans: A

69. Cancer patients traveling to and from hospital ______ .

A. can break journey
B. cannot break journey
C. can break journey only once
D. can break journey twice
Ans: B

70. ____ contains details of various concession allowed by Railways in fares.

A. Coaching Tariff No.26, Part I, Vol.II
B. [b] Coaching Tariff, Part II
C. Coaching Tariff, Part III
D. Coaching Tariff, Part IV
Ans: A

71. Student concession on season ticket is allowed in ______ .

A. II class only
B. I class only
C. ACCC
D. I class & II class
Ans : D

72. For every break journey, fresh ______ is payable.

A. super-fast supplementary charge
B. reservation charge
C. 12% surcharge
D. clerkage
Ans : B

73. Reservation-cum-security deposit per coach is ______ .

A. Rs. 10000/-
B. Rs. 20,000/-
C. Rs. 25,000/-
D. Rs. 50,000/-
Ans : D

74. For reserving a special coach ___ % service charge is levied on fare.
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Ans: D

75. RAC facility is not available in _____ .

A. sleeper class
B. AC 2 tier
C. AC 3 tier
D. 1A AC
Ans : D

76. Transfer of certain tickets is prohibited as per section _____ .

A. 49
B. 54
C. 53
D. 55
Ans: C
77. A person needlessly interfering with the means of communication of train shall be prosecuted as per
section ___ of Railway Act 1989.
A. 137
B. 138
C. 141
D. 142
Ans : C

78. A person found traveling without ticket without intention to defraud the Railway is dealt as per section
___ of Railway Act 1989.
A. 138
B. 137
C. 55
D. 54
Ans : A

79. What is the additional Free Time allowed per rake for covering Open Wagons with Tarpaulins for
loading loose/bulk commodity?
A. 1 Hour 30 Minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 Hours
D. 1 Hour
Ans : D

80.For consideration of concession under Station to Station Rates, Benchmark NTKM is defined as
average NTKMs of corresponding periods of previous how many months?
A. 12 months
B. 6 months
C. 36 months
D. 24 months
Ans : A

81. Mini rake shall be allowed for 0 to 1000 km, Subject to levy of ____ % supplementary charges.
A. 5
B. 3 ‘
C. 10
D. None of these
Ans: A

82. Restricted commodity for Cargo aggregated scheme is _____.

A. Coal
B. Iron Ore
C. Container traffic
D. All of the given options
Ans : D

83. Development Surcharge is levied at ____ ?

A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Ans : B

84. ______ is empowered to introduce Round the Clock working hours at Goods Sheds?
A. PCOM
B. GM
C. DRM
D. PCCM
Ans: C

85. Who shall be responsible for the correctness of the particulars furnished in the forwarding note?
A. consignor
B. consignee
C. endorsed consignee
D. All of the given options
Ans: A
86.Which traffic comes under the purview of “ Priority A” of Preferential Traffic Schedule?
A.Food grains and sugar for public distribution
B.Fertilizers
C.Goods for emergency relief work for victims of natural calamities, like flood, drought, earthquake
etc
D.Military Traffic, when sponsored by MIL RAIL and approved by Railway Board
Ans: D

87.Penalty for mis‐ declaration of goods is covered under Section _____ of Railways Act,1989?
A.163
B.162
C.164
D.165
Ans : A

88) Unclaimed consignment has been defined in Section ____ of Rlys Act,1989?
A.83
B.84
C.85
D.None of the given options
Ans : B

89) An application for compensation under section 124 or section 124(A) may be made to the Claims
Tribunal by _____ .
A. The person who has sustained the injury or suffered any loss
B. Any agent duly authorised by effected person
C. By guardian if effected person is minor
D. Any of the given options
Ans. D

90. The Coach legend to be displayed outside the 3rd AC Economy Class coach is _____ .
A. B
B. H
C. E
D. M
Ans: D

91. As on date, the maximum Tatkal charges for 1st AC passenger is ______ .
A.Rs. 400
B.Rs. 300
C.Rs. 250
D.None of the given options
Ans. D

92. The minimum distance for charge in tatkal for AC Chair car is ______ .
A.500 Kms
B.150 Kms
C.250 Kms
D.None of the given options
Ans. C

93.What is the minimum cancellation charge for confirmed Executive class excluding GST ______
A.Rs. 250
B.Rs. 240
C.Rs. 200
D.Rs. 180
Ans: B

94. The charges for the defence personnel’s travel using warrants are paid by ______
A.Accounts General (Central Revenue)
B.Controller General of Defence Accounts
C.Comptroller and Auditor General
D.Ministry of Finance
Ans: B
95) YTSK Shall Issue ____
A.Only PRS ticket
B.Only UTS ticket
C.Both PRS and UTS ticket
D.None of the given options
Ans:C

96) The transactions being done through POS machines, are to be settled at _____
A.End of the day
B.Once in a week
C.End of each shift
D.End of evening shift
Ans :C

97) UTS on Mobile is enabled to issue ______

A. Single journey tickets
B. PF tickets
C. Season issue or Renewal
D. All of the given options
Ans:D

98) JTBS cannot issue______ Ticket.

A. Journey ticket
B. Platform ticket
C. Fresh Season ticket
D. None of the given options
Ans :B

99) . What is CPLP?

A. Common Parcel Leasing Policy
B. Comprehensive Parcel Leasing Policy
C. Comprehensive Policy for Leasing Parcels
D. Common Policy for Leasing Parcels
Ans: B

100 ) As per SOP, dealing with Parcel leasing tenders, who will be the Accepting Authority for tenders
having tender value above Rs. 100 Crores?
A. ADRM
B. PCCM
C. GM
B. DRM
Ans: B

101) 46) When rebooking is permitted, a fresh invoice should be issued in which _____ should be
included?
A. Debit charges
B. Under charges
C. All due charges
D. Paid‐on charges
Ans: D

102) Which station is responsible for collecting under charges?

A. Booking Station
B. Destination station
C. Intermediate station
D. None of the given options
Ans: B

103) SMU stands for______ .

A. Special Major Unit
B. Special Minor Units
C. Specific minor unit
D. None of the given options
Ans: B
104) Who is the Chairman of Zonal Railway Users' Consultative Committee?
A. The General Manager will nominate the Chairman of the Zonal Railway Users'
Consultative Committee
B. Secretary to General Manager will be the Chairman of the Zonal Railway Users' Consultative
Committee
C. The General Manager will be the Chairman of the Zonal Railway Users' Consultative Committee
D. None of the given options
Ans: C

105) The tenure of National Railway Users' Consultative Council is for a period not exceeding _____ .
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Ans: B

106) What is the Criteria in vogue for deciding NSG – 1 category station?
A. Stations Annual passenger earning more than Rs. 500 Cr
B. Stations Annual passenger earning more than Rs. 250 Cr
C. Stations Annual passenger earning more than Rs. 1000 Cr
D. None of the given options
Ans:A

107)Foot over bridge must be provided on the following type of stations as per minimum essential
amenities?
A. NSG
B. SG
C. HG
D. All of the given options
Ans: D

108) DRF in works program of Railway stands for?

A. Development Reserve Fund
B. Depreciation Reserve Fund
C. Development Renewal Fund
D. Depreciation Renewal Fund
Ans B

109) Pink Book Works are sanctioned at which level?

A. Zonal level
B. Divisional level
C. Railway Board level
D. Zonal or Divisional level
Ans - C

110) IRSDC stands for?

A. Indian Railway Stations Design Company
B. Indian Railway Stations Development Company
C. Indian Railway Stations Development Corporation
D. Indian Railway Stations Design Corporation
Ans C

111) Umbrella work of cost below Rs.2.5 Cr. can be sanctioned under _______ .
A. Board’s level
B. GM’s level
C. DRM’s level
D. None of the given options
Ans B

112) What is mandatory for registering complaints on Rail Madad?

A. Mobile Number
B. e‐mail address
C. Postal Address
D. None of the given options
Ans - A
113. A GCT shall not be permitted to book and handle the following commodities?
A. Full Parcel Rakes
B. Piecemeal Parcel traffic
C. Coal
D. Coke
Ans : B

114) For setting up and / or operation of a GCT , the nodal officer is _____ .
A. DRM of the concerned Division
B. GM of the Zone
C. PCCM of the Zone
D. EDFM(Railway Board)
Ans A

115) During monsoon season , the Permissible Carrying Capacity of which of the following commodities,
when loaded on CC+8 routes , shall be one tonne less than the PCC of those wagons during other
than monsoon season?
A. Coal
B. Iron Ore
C. Bauxite
D. Chrome Ore
Ans A

116) _____Project has been introduced in Indian Railways for computerised on‐board ticket checking and
allotment of vacant berths?
A. Online Transaction Processing
B. Centralised Ticketing System
C. Network Management System
D. Hand Held Terminal
Ans D

117) A person found traveling without ticket and with intention to defraud the Railway is dealt as per section
___ of Railway Act 1989.
A. 138
B. 137
C. 55
D. 54
Ans B

118) Smoking in Railway Premises is prohibited under Section_____ of Railway Act.

A. 144
B. 145
C. 162
D. 167
Ans D

119) Any person who wilfully obstructs or prevents any railway servant in discharge of his duties shall be
dealt as per Section ____ of Railways Act 1989.
A. 146
B. 147
C. 148
D. 149
Ans A

120)) Which of the following is not accounted in station outstanding?

A. Imprest cash,
B. Admitted debits,
C. Other miscellaneous items including unsold indemnity notes, time tables, tariffs, etc.,
D. Station office furnitures and equipments.
Ans – D
121) Which of the following are the way to clear Objected debits?
A. When credit advice notes are received from the Traffic Accounts Office withdrawing the incorrect
debit;
B. When the objection of the station is overruled and the Station Master there upon transfers the
debit to the admitted side,
C. When the outstanding amount is transferred to another station
D. .all the above
Ans : D

122) When the debits are recovered from the settlement dues of the staff concerned who will issue a letter
of authority to allow the Station Master to take special credit in station balance sheet?
A.PFA
B.Divisional Accounts Officer
C.PCCM
D.Sr.DCM
Ans D

123) Who is the coordinator of BDU at Zonal level?

A. CFTM
B. CCM(FM)
C. PCCM
D. CRSE(Freight)
Ans A

124) What is EOL at Goods Sheds/Sidings?

A. Electricity of Line
B. Efficiency of Line
C. Engine On Load
D. Efficiency of Load
Ans C

125) Free time for Demurrage/Wharfage calculation depends upon _____ .

A. Type of Wagon
B. Height of Waon
C. Load of Wagon
D . Width of Wagon
Ans A

126) Demurrage charges are calculated on _____ .

A. Only on particular wagon which is delayed
B. Only for particular party whose wagon is delayed
C.Wagons having same commodity as that of delayed wagon
D. Entire group (Rake) of Wagons
Ans D

127. Free time for Loading/Unloading of BCNHL wagons in mini rake is ____ .
A. 3 hours
B. 5 hours
C . 6 hours
D 9 hours
Ans B

128) Free time for double operation of container commodity handled by sling is ____ .
A .8 hours
B .6 hours
C.5 hours
D.10 hours
Ans A

129) . Free time for calculation of Demurrage/Wharfage charges is equally applicable to _____ .
A. Only for BG wagons
B .Only for MG wagons
C.BG as well as MG wagons
D.None of the above
Ans – C
130) Demurrage is charged on _____ .
A. Excess loading of wagons
B. Excess attachment of wagons
C. Excess detention of rake
D. None of the above
Ans : C

131) How many days prior notice needs to be given to terminals before reducing free time for loading rakes
of Coal and/or iron-ore ?
A. Three Months
B. Two Months
C. Five Weeks
D. Two weeks
Ans – D

132) The time lapsed between completion of 1st part of the rake and placement of 2nd part of the rake is
termed as ______ .
A. Extra time
B. Dies-Non
C. Application Time
D. Rest time
Ans B

133) Separate free time is applicable for _____ .

A. Rice commodity
B. Seven old steel plants
C. Fruits commodity
D. None of the above
Ans : B

134) Penal demurrage charges are levied for _______ .

A. Maximum of ten times of the prevalent rate
B. Maximum of four times of the prevalent rate
C. Maximum of six times of the prevalent rate
D. Maximum of twelve times of the prevalent rate
Ans – C

135) For calculating Night incentive under Demurrage/Wharfage, timings for night is considered from _____
.
A. 24.00 hrs to 8.00 hrs
B. 22.00 hrs to 6.00 hrs
C. 24.00 hrs to 6.00 hrs
D. 21.00 hrs to 6.00 hrs
Ans B

136) Siding charges is levied minimum for _____ .

A. one hour
B. two hours
C. three hours
D. four hours
Ans – A

137) AIEHC stands for _____ .

A. All India Engine Hire Charges
B. All India Electric Hire Charges
C. All India Electricity Hour Cost
D. All India Engine Hour Cost
Ans D

138). What are E-CR notes?

A. Electronic Cash Remittance notes
B. Electric cash Remittance notes
C. Electronic Cash Returns notes
D. Electronic Coupon Returns notes
Ans A
139) Undercharges are raised through _____ .
A. Voucher
B. Statement
C. Error sheet
D. Challan
Ans C

140) Parties are opting for Tripartite Agreement to avail the facility of ____ .
A. Concession in Freight
B. Concession in Demurrage charges
C. RTGS payment of freight
D. E-payment of freight
Ans – D

141) MPA stands for ______ .

A. Monthly paid statement
B. Machine prepared abstract
C. Machine paid summary
D. Machine paid abstract
Ans A

142) If railway loco is utilized for sending back the overloaded wagon/wagons to the loading/adjustment
point for load adjustment, then _______________charges are levied.
A. Siding
B. Shunting
C. Engine Haulage
D. Wagon detention
Ans C

143) Siding charge of the originating point should compulsorily be collected _____ .
A. separately
B. along with freight
C. at destination point
D. all of the above
Ans B

144). Details of e-CR entered in IPAS module is reconciled with figures appearing in ____ .
A. TMS
B. AIMS
C. FOIS
D. TAMS
Ans C

145) Trip time method is applicable only for the levy of ____ .
A. Shunting charges
B. Engine charges
C. demurrage charges
D. Siding charges
Ans D

146. What is RR?

A. Railway Requisition
B. Railway Receipt
C. Remittance Receipt
D. Railway Remittance
Ans B

147. FAUC in invoices means ____ .

A. Freight Accountal of Unaccounted charges
B. Freight Adjustment of Unaccounted charges
C. Freight Adjustment of Under charges
D. Freight Accountal of Under Charges
Ans –C
148. FAOC in invoices means ____ .
A. Freight Accountal of Other Charges
B. Final Adjustment of Other Charges
C. Freight Adjustment of Over charges
D. Final Adjustment of Over charges
Ans C

149 What is LTTC?

A. Link traffic Transport Contract
B. Long Traffic Transport Contract
C. Long Term Tariff Committee
D. Long Term Tariff Contract
Ans D

150. LWIS stands for ______ .

A. Liberalised Wagon Investment Scheme
B. Liberalised wagon instalment scheme
C. Leased Wagons for investment scheme
D.none of the above
Ans A

151. What is PFT?

A. Public freight terminal
B. Private freight terminal
C. Private freight transaction
D. Public freight transaction
Ans B

152. Invoices accountal is done through which computer system?

A.FOIS
B. PRS
C. TAMS
D. IPASS
Ans A

153. FOIS represents_____

A Freight on information system
B. Freight Operations information System
C. Freight online information system
D. Freight online invoices system
Ans B

154. eRR is issued for___

A. passenger traffic
B. Parcel traffic
C. Goods traffic
D. None of the above
Ans C

155 Haulage charges are leviable for _____ .

A. Movement of Containers
B. Movement of loaded wagons
C. Movement of empty wagons
D. All the above
Ans A

156. In case of mis-declaration of commodity in container is detected then charges will be _____ .
A. 2 times of existing haulage charges
B. 4 times of the highest container class rate
C. 2 times of highest container class rate
D. No charges
Ans – B
157 Congestion charge at 25% is leviable on ______ .
A. Goods traffic booked to Pakistan
B. Passenger traffic booked to Bangladesh
C. All traffic booked from ports
D. Goods traffic booked to Bangladesh
Ans :C

158. What is the rate of Premium Charge under Premium Indent Scheme?
A. 12%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 8%
Ans B

159. What is the amount of Wagon Registration Fee per rake?

A. Rs.25000/
B. Rs. 30000/
C. Rs. 50000/
D. Rs. 100000/
Ans : D

160. What is NTR in goods traffic ?

A. New Tariff Rate
B. Normal Tariff Rate
C. Notional Tariff Rate
D. Night Traffic Rate
Ans B

161. What is the GST rate on transportation of goods ?

A. 15%
B. 18%
C. 10%
D. 5%
Ans D

162. What is meant by PCC in Goods traffic ?

A. Permissible Carrying Capacity
B. Permanent Carrying Capacity
C. Permissible Carriage Capacity
D. Particular Carrying Capacity
Ans A

163. What is eTRR?

A. Emergency transmission of Railway Remittance
B. Electronically transmission of Railway Remittances
C. Electronic Transmission Railway Receipt
D. Emergency Transportation of Railway Receipts
Ans C

164 Time limit for raising Error sheet for undercharges from the date of accountal of transaction is _____
.
A.No limit
B.3 months
C.6 months
D.1 year
Ans C

165. Head of Public Grievance Office at Divisional Level is ____ .

A. Sr.DPO
B. Sr.DCM
C. ADRM
D. DRM
Ans C
166 Which commodity is exempted from levy of GST ?
A. Agricultural Produce
B. Railway Material and equipment’s
C. Milk, Salt and food grains
D. All above
Ans D

167. In case of diversion of rake on Party’s request, Diversion charges applicable are _______ .
A. Rs. 300/- per Wagon
B. Rs. 25000/- per rake
C. Rs. 750/- per Wagon
D. No charges applicable
Ans.A

168. Terminal Access Charges(TAC) for containers handled at CRT are leviable on ______ .
A.No. of containers handled
B.Rake basis
C.No. of wagons
D.None of the above
Ans B

169. Wagon Registration Fee is paid at the time of ______.

A. Placement of Freight
B. Generation of RR
C. Requisition of Indent
D. Removal of Freight
Ans C

170. Closing Balance of Balance Sheet indicates _____ .

A. Charges Outstanding at the location
B. Cash / Vouchers not received
C. Admitted/Not Admitted Debit
D. All above
Ans A

171. Closing Balance in the Station Balance Sheet is the part of ______ .
A. Cash in Transit
B. Accounts office Balance Sheet
C. Station outstanding
D. None of the above
Ans C

172. RO in Goods Balance Sheet means _____ .

A. Rates Order
B. Remission order
C. Recovery Order
D. None of the above
Ans B

173. Remission order is posted in the Goods Balance Sheet under the Category of _____ .
A. Special Debit
B. Accounts office Debit
C. Voucher column of CR Note
D. Special Credit
Ans D

174. The word Lumpsum Deposit is used with respect to ______ .

A. WRF Charges
B. Debit Credit Scheme
C. Premium Freight Charges
D. None of the above
Ans A
175. Vouchers Disallowed by Traffic Accounts becomes part of ______ .
A. Accounts Particulars
B. Closing Balance of Balance Sheet
C. Error Sheet
D. All above
Ans C

176. Credit Advice Note is issued against ______ .

A. TIA’s Debit
B. Admitted debit
C. Demurrage Forgone
D. Wharfage Foregone
Ans : A

177 Debit side of Station Balance Sheet shows _____ .

A. Accrual Earnings
B. Actual Earnings
C. Unrealised Earnings
D. None of the above
Ans B

178. FOIS is related to ______ .

A. UTS Transactions
B. Coaching Transactions
C. PRS Transactions
D. Goods Transactions
Ans D

179 TAMS means ______ .

A. Traffic Account Modules and System.
B. Transport Activities Management System.
C. Traffic Accounts Management System.
D. Traffic Apportionment Module System.
Ans C

180. The time limit to claim refund in case of double payment is ______.
A. 6months
B. 1 Year
C. 2 Years
D. 3 Years
Ans A

181 Overcharge sheet in refund cases is prepared by ________ .

A. CGS
B. CGW
C. SM
D. Yard Master
Ans A

182 Alpha T in RR denotes ______ .

A. Train load
B. Travelling distance
C. Train capacity
D. Train type
Ans A

183. The time limit to claim refund in case of Error in weight is _____ .
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Ans D
184. When Refund claim is lodged after time barred period, Competent Authority to condone the delay is
_____ .
A.Railway Board
B.General Manager.
C.Chief Commercial Manager
D. Chief Claims Officer.
Ans D

185. Accrued Demurrage charges appear on _____ side of the Balance Sheet.
A.Debit side of Balance Sheet
B.Credit side of Balance Sheet
C. Any one of the above
D. None of the above
Ans A

186. WRF stands for ______ .

A.Wharfage Registration Fees
B.Wagon Registration Fees
C.Wharfage Returned Fees
D.Wagon Returned Fees
Ans B

187. What is the penalty imposed if ticketing activity is affected due to non-availability of STBA ?
A. average daily turnover from sale of UTS tickets from that location subject to min of Rs 1000 per
day
B. average daily turnover from sale of UTS tickets from that location subject to min of Rs 2000 per
day
C. average daily turnover from sale of UTS tickets from that location subject to min of Rs 5000 per
day
D. none
Ans – B

188. Where should a party lodge a claim in case of Goods Compensation Claim?
A. Railway Board
B. Any Zonal Railway
C. Originating Station or Destination station
D. Any one of the above
Ans C

189. Where is wagon registration fees amount adjusted?

A. Railway Receipt
B. Railway Return
C. Remittance Receipt
D. Railway Remittance
Ans A

190. If Wagon registration fees amount is not adjusted in freight, then what is the time limit to claim that
Amount?
A. 6 Months
B. 1 Year
C. 2 Years
D. 3 Years
Ans D

191 Full form of SLA in case of Rail Madad is _____ .

A. Service Level Arrangements
B. Service Level Agreement
C. Station Level Agreement
D. Station Level Aid
Ans B
192. In Goods Compensation Claim upto what amount Post check is done ?
A. Upto 75,000/
B. Upto 1,00,000/
C. Upto 5,00,000/
D. Upto 10,00,000/
Ans A

193. Court Decree amount is debited to which head ?

A. Earnings
B. Charged Expenditure
C. Voted Expenditure
D. None of the above
Ans : B

194 On which side of the Balance Sheet does Remittance Order appear?
A. Debit side of Balance Sheet
B. Credit side of Balance sheet
C. C. Any one of the above
D. None of the above.
Ans B

195 Commercial Matters is contained in which Part of Model SOPGEN 2018 ?

A. Part A
B. Part C
C. Part E
D. Part G
Ans C

196. What does ‘OR’ in the Railway Receipt indicate?

A. Original Risk
B. Owners Risk
C. Owners Right
D. Original Rake
Ans B

197. What is the full form of ORR ?

A. Original Railway Receipt
B. Owners Railway Receipt
C. objective response rate.
D. None of the above.
Ans : C

198. What is the full form of SRR ?

A. Super Railway Receipt
B. System Railway Receipt
C. Super sessional Railway Receipt
D. None of the above
Ans C

199 Which are the 3 parties for Tri-partite agreement for e-Payment ?
A. Railways, Accounts & Bank.
B. Railways, Party & Bank.
C. Railways, Party & Commercial Department.
D. None of the above
Ans B

200. Customer entrusting any Goods to Railway for carriage shall execute in a specific form called
A. Formal Note
B. Forwarding Note
C. Freight Note
D. Freight Information
Ans B
201 Containers booked under hub and spoke system are granted benefit called ____ .
A. Time benefit
B. Travelling benefit
C. Transport benefit
D. Telescopic benefit
Ans D

202 Charges levied for hauling a rake (freight Train) between Railway serving station and its siding for
loading/unloading of goods are _____ .
A. Demurrage charges
B. Wharfage charges
C. Siding charges
D. Shunting Charges
Ans C

203) YTSK stands for _____ .

A. Youth Ticket Service Kiosk.
B. Yatri Ticket Seva Kiosk.
C. Yatri Ticket Suvidha Kendra
D. None of the above
Ans C

204 JTBS stands for _____ .

A. Jan Ticket Booking Seva
B. Jansadharan Ticket Booking Seva
C. Jaldi Ticket Booking Service
D. Joint Tour Booking Service
Ans B

205) The cash in credit side of station balance sheet is checked with _____ .
A. cash remittance notes
B. Accounts foils of cash remittance notes
C. Original copy of remission statements
D. credit advice in original
Ans A

206) Voucher in credit side of station balance sheet is checked with _____ .
A. return of through luggage ticket
B. return of through government assenger baggage
C. original voucher as consolidated in the voucher register.
D. return of local blank paper ticket.
Ans C

207) Which of the following is Non fare revenue?

A. Revenue from Platform tickets
B. Revenue from pay and park
C. Halt earnings
D. All of the above
Ans B

208) As per catering policy of 2017 the ratio of Revenue sharing between IR and IRCTC other than
departmental managed units is _____ .
A. 15:85
B. 50:50
C. 40:60
D. 20:80
Ans : C

209) Give an example of Sundry Revenue.

A. diet charges
B. bed rolls
C. electricity charges
D. security deposit

Ans – B
210)Which of the following minor heads comes under Sundry Revenue compilation?
A.rent
B.military traffic
C.penalty levied for irregular traffic
D.none of the above
Ans A

211) Revenue from advertisement and publicity pertains to _____ .

A. Sundry Revenue
B. Not pertains to Sundry
C. Pertains to Coaching Revenue
D. Pertains to Goods revenue
Ans A

212) ROPD means _____ .

A. Returns Of Previous Day
B. Returns Of Present Day
C. Refund Of Present Day
D. Refund Of previous Day
Ans D

213)If any error is noticed during the course of Internal check _____ is prepared.
A. accounts Office Balance sheet
B. Debit scroll
C. Error sheet
D. Advice of Internal check
Ans C

214) What do you mean by PMS?

A. Parcel Management System
B. Parcel Measurement System
C. Parcel Money System
D. Parcel
Ans A

215)What do you mean by FSLA related to booking of Newspaper & Magazines?

A. Free Service Lease Account
B. Free Stock Ledger Account
C. Free Service Ledger Account
D. Free Service Ledger Adjustment
Ans - C

216) Description of goods the customer gives in writing to send parcels to a particular destination station is
Called _____ .
A. Free Note
B. Forwarding Note
C. Furnishing Note
D. Facility Note
Ans – B

217) What is the full form of SLR?

A. Sleeper Luggage Rake
B. Side Luggage Rake
C. Super Luggage Rake
D. Seating cum Luggage Rake
Ans – D

218)How many ‘Scales’ for charging of freight for booking of Parcel Traffic?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. Five
Ans – C
219) For pay and use toilets contracts under BOT & ROMT, ___ % compounded annual escalation of
license fee is applicable from 4th year onwards
A. 10
B. 5
C. 6
D. 12
Ans B

220) What is the Minimum Distance for charging for all Parcel Traffic?
A. 1-Km
B. 50-Kms
C. 10-Kms
D. 5-Kms
Ans B

221) Minimum Distance for charging for the registered Newspapers & Magazines?
A. 25-Kms
B. 50-Kms
C. 100-Kms
D. 250-kms
Ans D

222) When parcels tendered for booking Parcel Way Bill is prepared in how many foils?
A. 4-Foils
B. 2-Foils
C. 3-Foils
D. 6-Foils
Ans A

223) Luggage Ticket is prepared in how many foils?

A. 4-Foils
B. 2-Foils
C. 3-Foils
D. 6-Foils
Ans –C

224) What is the full form of PRR related to PMS software?

A. Previous Reference Record No.
B. Progressive Reference Record No.
C. Progressive Record Reference No.
D. Present Reference Record No
Ans -B

225) What is the percentage of Development Charge on Parcel & Luggage Traffic?
A. 5%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 2%
Ans – D

226) How many days the unclaimed articles can be kept on hand at the station?
A. 2-days
B. 10-days
C. 7-days
D. 3-days
Ans - C

227) Bulky Articles will be charged at ____ .

A. One and Half times the normal rates
B. Thrice the normal rates
C. Four times the normal rates
D. Double the normal rates
Ans D
228) Which the highest Scale in charging ‘Parcel’ Traffic?
A. ‘S’ Scale
B. ‘P’ Scale
C. ‘R’ Scale
D. ‘L Scale
Ans C

229) The booking of the articles of special value & certain amount is to be paid on the excess value of the
article is called _____ .
A. Special Charge Development
B. Charge Percentage
C. Percentage charge on excess value
D. Charge
Ans - C

230) In which class the Dogs can be carried in Railways?

A. Sleeper Class
B. B) 3rd AC
C. 2nd AC
D. 1st AC
Ans D

231) Which the Lowest Scale for charging ‘Parcel’ Traffic?

A. ‘S’ Scale
B. ‘P’ Scale
C. ‘R’ Scale
D. ‘L Scale
Ans A

232) Demurrage on VP can be charged after free time at ______ rate.

A. Rs.100 per hour
B. Rs.150 per hour
C. Rs. 50 per hour
D. Rs. 75 per hour
Ans – B

233) ‘Kisan Special’ Train of parcel traffic is charged at _____ scale.

A. ‘S’ Scale
B. ‘P’ Scale
C. ‘R’ Scale
D. ‘L Scale
Ans – B

234) Percentage of GST applicable on ‘Parcel Traffic’ is _____ .

A. 2%
B. 1%
C. 4%
D. 5%
Ans D

235) ______ may designate an alternate goods shed for a busy goods shed within the Zonal Railway.
A. PCOM in coordination with PCCM
B. Sr.DCM in coordination with Sr.DOM
C. DRM
D. CFTM in coordination with CCM/FM
Ans A

236) Wharfage on parcel traffic is charged at ____ .

A. Rs.10/- rate per hour/per quintal
B. Rs. 5/- rate per hour/per quintal
C. Rs. 1/- rate per hour/per quintal
D. None of the above
Ans - C
237) Rationalisation of rates for parcel traffic is done on the basis of % utilisation of SLR for a period of 12
months from
A. January to December
B. April to September
C. July to June
D. April to March
Ans –D

238) Scale applicable for non-leased parcel booking for newly introduced regular mail/Exp.Train in the first
year till the date of annual review will be?
A. ‘R’ Scale
B. ‘L’ Scale
C. ‘R’ +25%
D. ‘P’ Scale
Ans –D

239) Rationalisation of Rates for parcel traffic to determine categorization of each train of charging freight
for parcel and luggage traffic in applicable for
A. 2-year
B. 5-year
C. 3-year
D. 1 year
Ans D

240) Permission for loading/unloading of parcels may be given at a maximum of how many intermediate
stations for PCETs.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 2
D. 6
Ans B

241) Charges for transportation of all animals, including animals and birds, in parcel-Vans and Broke-Vans,
is charged at
A. ‘L’ scale
B. ‘‘L’ + 50%
C. ‘L’ + 25%
D. None of the above
Ans C

242) As per policy guidelines on comprehensive parcel leasing policy, parcel vans (VPHs, VPs/VPUs, etc)
shall be leased out
A. on round trip basis
B. on contracts through open tenders for Temporary basis
C. 5 years day to day basis
D. None of the above
Ans A

243) Reserve price for leasing of parcel van on round trip basis shall be
A. 1.50- times of single journey freight
B. 2- times of single journey freight
C. 3- times of single journey freight
D. None of the above
Ans-A

244) Wagon registration fee for registration of indents for parcel rake is
A. Rs. 100000/- per vehicle/parcel van
B. Rs. 20000/- per vehicle/parcel van
C. Rs. 50000/- per vehicle/parcel van
D. Rs.15000/- per vehicle/parcel van
Ans – A
245) Scale R, Scale P and Scale S are the schedule rates for ____ .
A. Goods traffic
B. Parking charge
C. Parcel traffic
D. None of the above
Ans - C
246)Sr. DCM is the accepting Authority for tenders dealings with parcel leasing for value of contract of
_____ .
A. Above Rs. 5 crore upto Rs. 50 crores
B. Above Rs. 50 crore upto Rs. 100 crores
C. Above 100 crores
D. Above Rs. 2.5 crore upto Rs. 5 crores
Ans – D

247) DRM is the accepting Authority for tender dealing with parcel leasing for value of contract of _____ .
A. Above Rs. 5 crore upto Rs. 50 crores
B. Above Rs. 50 crore upto Rs. 100 crores
C. Above Rs. 2.5 crore upto Rs. 5 crores
D. Above 100 crores
Ans –B

248) CCM (PHOD) is the accepting authority for tender dealing with parcel leasing for value of contract of
____ .
A. Above 100 crores
B. Above Rs. 5 crore upto Rs. 50 crores
C. Above Rs. 50 crore upto Rs. 100 crores
D. Above Rs. 2.5 crore upto Rs. 5 crores
Ans A

249) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Busy Season Surcharge levied in case
of goods traffic?
A. Busy season charge is not levied on all commodities transported in covered wagons
(BCX,BCN,BCNHL,BCCW,BCFC & its equivalent wagon groups) during September.
B. Busy season charge is levied on Coal & Coke.
C. Busy season charge is levied on Automobile traffic moving in NMG group, BCACM ,BCCNR &
privately owned wagons for automobile like BCACBM wagons etc
D. Busy season charge is levied on Merry Go Round Traffic
Ans A
250) Lease holders can stack his consignments for _____ for leased SLRs.
A. 5 hours before the schedule departure of train
B. 3 hours before the schedule departure of train
C. 2 hours before the schedule departure of train
D. 4 hours before the schedule departure of train
Ans C
251) Lease holder can stack his consignments for _____ for leased VPs.
A. 4 hours before the schedule departure of train
B. 2 hours before the schedule departure of train
C. 3 hours before the schedule departure of train
D. 5 hours before the schedule departure of train
Ans - C

252) The lease holder shall be required to prepare detailed ‘Manifest’ for consignments in _____ .
A. 4 copies
B. 3 copies
C. 2 copies
D. 5 copies
Ans A
253) Railway may terminate the lease contract after how many defaults by lease holder?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Ans C
254) In case of parcel vans (VPH/VP/VPU, etc), tolerance limit for over loading is
A. 1 tonne
B. 0.5 tonnes
C. 2 tonnes
D. 5 tonnes
Ans A

255) In case of leased SLRs, lease holder must remove his consignments within a maximum period of
A. 3 hours after the actual arrival of the train
B. 4 hours after the actual arrival of the train
C. 5 hours after the actual arrival of the train
D. 2 hours after the actual arrival of the train
Ans D

256) Lease holder shall not be allowed to terminate the contract before
A. One year (10 months + 2 months notice period)
B. 14 months (1 year + 2 months notice period)
C. 3 years
D. None of the above
Ans A

257. Which category of pass facility is admissible to Group A’ and Group B’ Railway Employees?
A. First Class A’ Pass.
B. First Class Pass.
C. Platinum Pass
D. Gold Pass.
Ans: A

258 What part of fare of a ticket is paid to get berths reserve of a P.T.O issue to a Railway Employee ?
A. 1/3
B. ½
C. ¼
D. 2/3
Ans: A

259. In case of Loading of Parcel traffic in NMG (including it's Variants), the freight shall be charged ---
--------------------at ?
A.10%abovetheP‐Scale
B.20%abovetheR‐Scale
C.20%abovetheS‐Scale
D.20%abovetheP‐Scale
Ans: D

260.What is the highest class of Goods Freight?

A.Class200
B.Class180
C.Class120
D.Class 150
Ans: A

261. In case, payment for freight is not paid within the stipulated time,late payment
surcharge@-----%is levied for other than Coal Traffic?
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 20
Ans : B
262. A GoodsShed is classified as Group‐III, for the purpose of levying Wharfage
Charges, if ___ rakes are dealt per month?
A. More than12 rake
B. More than10 rakes
C. 07 rakes to10 rakes
D. Less than 7 rakes
Ans: D

264. As per Catering Policy 2017, tenure of Food Plaza shall be for a period of ____ years.
A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 15
Ans: C

265. As per Catering Policy 2017, tenure of Minor units shall be for a period of ______ years.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 6
Ans: B

266. Refreshment rooms at erstwhile B and below category is managed by _____ .

A. Division
B. Zone
C. IRCTC
D. .None of the above
Ans: A

267. NFR means ________

A. Net Freight Revenue
B. Non Fare Revenue
C. Net Fare Revenue
D. None of the above
Ans: B

268. _____________ is a non fare revenue.

A. Ticket checking revenue
B. Revenue from sale of platform tickets
C. Revenue from sale of timetable
D. Revenue from advertisements
Ans: D

269. If a rake originally booked to a Busy Goods Shed is diverted to its corresponding Alternate Goods
Shed upon customer request, then _____ .
A. the Terminal Charge will not apply
B. previously collected terminal charge will be refunded
C. Diversion Fee will be charged
D. All options are correct
Ans: D

270. A semi –high speed fully air-conditioned train with modern onboard facilities is _____ .
A. Antyodaya
B. Tejas
C. Jan shatabdi
D. Garib Rath
Ans: B
271. ____% of bonus offered on recharge of Railway wallet.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 1
Ans: A

272. Tickets can be booked through UTS on Mobile app atleast ____ away from railway track/station in non
suburban section
A. 5m
B. 10 m
C. 15 m
D. 20 m
Ans : A

273. _________concession is enabled in UTS on Mobile app.

A. Divyangjan
B. Students
C. Cancer
D. TB
Ans : A

274. ATVM smart card can be recharged upto a maximum of _______ .

A. Rs.10000/-
B. Rs.20000/-
C. Rs.25000/-
D. Rs.30000/-
Ans: B

275. The contract period of STBA at NSG 4 category station is ______.

A. one year
B. Two year
C. Three year
D. Five year
Ans: A

276. What is the percentage of commission for STBA in the slab 1 having monthly turnover from Rs.1 –
Rs.20000/-?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 25
Ans: D

277. What is the commission for ticket issued by JTBS?

A. Re.1/- per passenger
B. Rs. 2/-per passenger
C. Rs.3/- per passenger
D. 4.Rs.5/- per passenger
Ans: B

278. Service charge for season ticket issued by JTBS

A. Re.1/- per passenger
B. Rs. 2/-per passenger
C. Rs.3/- per passenger
D. Rs.5/- per passenger
Ans: D
279. Foreign tourists can book their tickets_____ days in advance.
A. 356
B. 365
C. 366
D. 360
Ans: B.

280. PMBJK refers to_________

A. Pradhan Manthri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Kendra
B. Prime Minister’s Bharatiya Janatha Kendra
C. Pradhan Manthri Bharathiya Jansadharan Kendra
D. None of the above
Ans: A.

281. What is the appropriate court for dealing with the claims case?
A. District Court
B. High Court
C. Railway Claims Tribunal
D. Bone of the above
Ans: C

282. Which of the following is not part of Social Service Obligations borne by Railways?
A. Pension paid to railway retirees
B. Passenger and other coaching services rendered below the cost of operation
C. Uneconomical branch lines
D. Carriage of essential commodities at below the cost of operation
Ans: A

283.Full form of FRT in Rail Madad is ____ .

A. Freight Redressal Time
B. Fully Redressed Tag
C. First Response Time
D. File Response Time
Ans: C

284.Full form of ATR in Rail Madad is _____ .

A. Action Taken Report
B. Average Time Redressal
C. Average Time Report
D. Action Taken Remarks
Ans:D

285.Section 97 deals with ______ .

A. out of sale proceeds, Railways will return price to the party after deducting dues
B. Responsibility of Rly Administration for goods carried at Owner's risk
C. General Responsibility of Rly Administration as carrier of Goods
D. Responsibility of Rly Administration for delay in transit
Ans: B

286.Percentage of concession given for Special Purpose Wagons under LWIS scheme is _________ .
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Ans : C
287.In JPP-RCS policy, for time tabled services/scheduled service, how many Parcel Vans shall be
earmarked for exclusive use by the India Post?
A. 50 % of the composition of full parcel train
B. 5 coaches
C. 2 coaches
D. less than 5 coaches
Ans:C

288.What is the penalty imposed on lease holder if there is false declaration of commodity and such
commodities are booked in PCET, which should not be loaded?
A. 1 lakh Rupees
B. Rs 50,000
C. 2 lakhs Rupees
D. 5 lakhs Rupees
Ans: D

289.Punitive charges for wagons detected overloaded after that had already undergone load adjustment
is _____ .
A. 5000 per wagon
B. 50000 per wagon
C. 4 % of notional freight
D. 1 lakh per wagon
Ans: D

290.In case of two point rake (covered wagon), Destination terminals should not be more than _____ kms
apart.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Ans: D

291.In case of Rakes from two originating terminals (covered wagon), Loading of rakes from two terminals
can be done only if the two loading terminals are less than ____ Kms apart.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Ans: A

292.Loading of Mini rake for containers has been permitted by Railway Board recently. What is its
minimum composition?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 25
D. 23
Ans: C

293.The busy season surcharge for container is ___%

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans: B
294. The advice of placement and return of wagons at interchange point, given to siding owner is called
________ .
A. Placement Voucher
B. Return Voucher
C. Siding Voucher
D. Release voucher
Ans: C

295. For open rake (BOXN etc), free time for loading under EOL scheme is _________ hrs.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Ans: A

296. While granting concession under STS, it should be ensured that net chargeable freight after all
concession should not be less than the NTR of class___________.
A. 100
B. LR1
C. LR3
D. 120
Ans: A
297.Railway administration is empowered to quote station to station rates as per section ___________of
Railways Act 1989.

A. 28
B. 29
C. 31
D. 32
Ans:D

298.A concession of ________________% on NTR will be given on the traffic booked to and from North
Eastern States.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 5
Ans:B

299.What is the free time for loading/unloading in Mini rake?

A. 2 hrs
B. 3 hrs
C. 4 hrs
D. 5 hrs
Ans: D

300. What is the minimum number of wagons to be loaded for each destinations in Two point rake?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Ans: D

301.A supplementary charge of ____% will be levied on Base Freight for Multi point rakes.

A. 30
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Ans: B
302. A supplementary charge of _____% will be levied on Base Freight for Two point rakes.
A. 30
B. 20
C. 10
D. 5
Ans: D

304. In case of multi point rakes the designated terminals cannot be more than ___________Km apart
A. 200
B. 100
C. 500
D. 50
Ans: A

306. What should be the minimum distance of proposed Halt from both adjacent stations in Non Suburban
section?
A. 3 kms
B. 4 kms
C. 5 kms
D. 10 kms
Ans: C

307. The minimum commission payable to the Halt Contractor would be _________ per month for halts
having stoppage of more than two pairs of trains.
A. Rs.500
B. Rs.1000
C. Rs.1500
D. Rs.2000
Ans: C

308. What is the minimum qualification of Halt contractor?

A. Able to read and write
B. 10 th pass
C. 12 th pass
D. Graduate
Ans. B

309. What is the contract period of Halt station?

A. 2 years
B. 6 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Ans: D

310. DRUCC meeting shall be conducted ________ .

A. Once in a Month
B. once a quarter not less than three times a year.
C. once in six months’
D. once in a year
Ans: B.

311. What is percentage of sub-quota for ladies in case of allotment of MPS?

A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33
Ans: D

312. What is the maximum number of MPS per Division allotted to an individual/entity?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans: D
313. In one station one product policy, the initial approval has to be given by ______
A. Sr DCM
B. Sr DEN
C. DRM
D. Sr DOM
Ans: C

314. Tenure for normal pay and use toilets is ______ years.
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
Ans: B

315.The tenure for high investment contracts like parking,/ CCTV is __________years.
A. 10
B. 7
C. 5
D. 3
Ans : C

316.The tenure for Pay and Use toilets under Build, Operate and Transfer is _______ years.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 7.5
D. 5
Ans: A

317.The tenure for Pay and Use toilets under Renovate, Operate, Maintain and Transfer is _______years.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 7.5
D. 5
Ans: B

318. OSOP stand for _________

A. One stall one product
B. One station One Product
C. One Service Only Product
D. One Stall Over period
Ans: B

319.The share of Indian Railways from the Mobile Catering units managed by IRCTC is ____ %
A. 30
B. 40
C. 60
D. 85
Ans: B

320. The tenure of a normal parking contract is _________years.

A. 10
B. 7
C. 5
D. 3
Ans. D

321.The categorisation of stations for provision of passenger amenities shall be reviewed in every
_________?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Ans:C
322.What is CPGRAMS?
A. Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring system
B. Centralized passenger grievance Redress and Monitoring system
C. Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Management system.
D. Centralized Public Grievance Railway Commission Management system.
Ans: A

323.Head of Public complaints at zonal level is____________ .

A. PCCM
B. AGM
C. GM
D. CPRO
Ans:B

324.Who is the competent authority for approving the proposals under NINFRIS?
A. DRM
B. PCCM
C. Sr DCM
D. ADRM
Ans. A

325.Minimum composition of coaches for special trains in FTR is _______ .

A. 16
B. 2.18
C. 3.20
D. 4.22
Ans: B

326 SMU stands for _____ .

A. Special Major units

B.Special Minor Units
C.Specific Minor Units
D.Specific Major Units
ANS - B

327.ICMS is the abbreviation of?

A. Integrated Coaching Monitoring System

B. Indian Coaching Management System
C. Internal Coaching Management System
D. Integrated Coaching Management System
Ans - D

328.The minimum qualification required for engaging staff for manning the YTSK counter is ______ .

A. 7th class
B. 10th class
C. Graduation
D. 12th
Ans – B

329 The STBA shall deposit the cash collected through sale of tickets to _____ .
A. Bank
B. SM
C. Cash office
D. None
Ans – B
330 Refund of tickets issued by JTBS is granted by ______ .
A. JTBS
B. Serving Station
C. Sr.DCM
D. CCO
Ans- B

331.The cost of establishing, operating and maintenance of YTSK shall be borne by _______ .
A. Railways
B. Licensee
C. Railways and Licensee
D. Central Government
Ans – B

332.The initial tenure of YTSK license shall be for a period of _______ .

A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. 2 years
Ans – B

333. The YTSK licensee shall pay license fee of Rs._____ per counter per annum to Indian Railways

A. Rs.5000/-
B. Rs.15000/-
C. Rs.25000/-
D. Rs.20000/-
Ans - A

334. Bed-rolls will be supplied to passengers in _____ Classes free of charge.

A. 1A
B. 2A
C. 3A
D. all the above
Ans - D

335 No reservation charge is collected in case of _____ passengers.

A. NOSB
B. express train
C. superfast
D. all the above
Ans - A

336 Separate seat/berth can be allotted for a child below 5 years of age at ___ fare.

A. half
B. full
C. nil
D. all the above
Ans – B

337. Railway Employees' season ticket is issued for a max of ____ kms

A. 150
B. 160
C. 110
D. 100
Ans – C
338 Season ticket can be renewed upto maximum of ____ days in advance of the date of expiry at
either of the stations.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 12
D. 20
Ans - A

339 Season ticket holders will be treated as travelling without ticket if ____ .

A. holding more than 1 season

B. found in reserved coaches
C. no ID available
D. all the above
Ans – D

340 UTS tickets upto ____ km are issued on the date of journey only.

A. 199
B. 200
C. 300
D. 250
Ans - A

341 A genuine passenger with original photo ID but without ERS will be issued with an EFT for Rs.
____ per ticket, by the TTE

A. 250
B. 200
C. 150
D. 50
Ans - D

342 Online booking of retiring rooms is not allowed on _____ tickets.

A. CNF
B. RAC
C. WL
D. none
Ans - C

343 A flat ____ % bonus is given as incentive while recharging/ topping up an ATVM smart card

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
Ans - A

344 I-ticket receipt booked by military personnel is facilitated through _____ .

A. GPS
B. DTS
C. PTS
D. RBS
Ans – B

345 Ex. M.P. can travel by all trains in the highest entitled class of ____ .

A. 3A
B. 2A
C. 1A
D. none
Ans – C
346 The % of concession for a cancer patient in 3AC class is _____ .

A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
Ans - D

347 The Licensed coolie porters are issued with _____ set/s of Pass and set/s of PTO.

A. One ,Two
B. Two, one
C. Two, One
D. One, One
Ans- A

348 Number of privilege passes issued per year for Gazetted Officers is ____ Sets

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Ans - C

349 Which of the following person cannot be included as a dependent?

A. Widowed Mother
B. widowed Sister
C. Father
D. Divorced Sister.
Ans - C

350 Break journey time in circular journey is calculated at the rate of one day for every ___ km

A. 200
B. 400
C. 500
D. 300
Ans - A

351 Journey time in circular journey is calculated at the rate of one day for every _____ km or part
thereof.

A. 200
B. 400
C. 500
D. 300
Ans - B

352 Privilege Cheque pass can be issued by longer route, if the distance does not exceed shortest
route distance by more than ____ %.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans – C

353 Validity of the Cancer Concession for the Outward journey is ____ .

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 5 years
D. 1 year
Ans – D
354 Privilege pass to Licensed Coolie porters is issued for _____ .

A. Family
B. Self alone
C. Self & Spouse
D. Self and Attendant
Ans - C

355 Bronze pass holders working in _____ can travel all over Indian Railways.

A. Railway Board
B. HQ
C. Zone
D. none of the above
Ans – A

356 In case of confirmed reservation on privilege passes, the pass holder can make a maximum of ___
times reservation provided the earlier reservation is cancelled.

A. 2
B. 3
C. one time
D. no limit
Ans - B

357 Which of the following passengers shall be considered for up gradation to higher class?

A. Tatkal passengers
B. Pass holders
C. Bulk booking
D. Concession passengers
Ans -A

358 Accommodation in an alternate train shall be provided which is leaving within ____ hrs from the
scheduled departure of original train through ATAS.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 3
D. 12
Ans - D

359 Boarding point change can be done up to _____ .

A. Preparation of first chart

B. 30 minutes from Scheduled departure
C. 24 hrs advance
D. None
Ans - A

360 The charges collected for issue of duplicate ticket to PTO holders is _____ .,

A. Rs.10/Passenger
B. Rs.10 /ticket
C. free of cost
D. Rs. 30 /ticket
Ans – A

361 The charges collected for postponement of CNF journey ticket is ______ .

A. Fresh reservation charge

B. Fresh clerkage
C. Rs. 30/ ticket
D. Cancellation charge
Ans – A
362 ATAS opted passenger can travel in the alternate train on the authority of _____ .

A. New ticket
B. Original ticket
C. No ticket is necessary
D. None
Ans - B

363 No. of berths earmarked in SL class under ladies quota is ______.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 2
Ans – C

364 Minimum chargeable distance in tatkal booking in 2 A/c class is _____ .

A. 250
B. 500
C. 400
D. 300
Ans - B

365 General public should submit application for change of name _____ hrs in advance.

A. 12
B. 4
C. 24
D. 48
Ans - C

366 What is the full form of RCT?

A. Railway Claims Tribunal
B. Railway Claims Terminus
C. Rail Claims Tribunal
D. Railway Commercial Traffic
Ans – A

367 Bulk booking is permitted from ____ hrs onwards on the day of opening of reservation.

A. 09.00 hrs
B. 10.00 hrs
C. 11.00 hrs
D. 08.00 hrs
Ans - A

368 The Quota Code for emergency Quota is _____ .

A. LD
B. HO
C. HQ
D. EH
Ans – B

369 Duplicate tickets are issued for _____ .

A. Un reserved tickets
B. W/L passengers
C. CNF /RAC ticket holders
D. None of these
Ans – C
370 The charges collected for issue of duplicate tickets to Confirmed Torn/Mutilated tickets after chart
preparation is _____ % of fare.

A. 25
B. 50
C. 10
D. None of these
Ans - A

371 The charges collected for issue of duplicate tickets to RAC – lost tickets after chart preparation is
______ % of fare.

A. 25
B. 50
C. 10
D. None of these
Ans – D

372 For name change among marriage parties, request to be submitted ____ hrs in advance.
A. 48 hrs
B. 24 hrs
C. 12 hrs
D. 10 hrs
Ans - A

373. Check soldier ticket is issued to which of the following category?

A. Military Individuals
B. Groups
C. Families
D. Military officers with family
Ans - A

374 Police warrant is issued up to the rank of which of the following category?
A. Assistant Commissioner
B. Inspector
C. SP
D. commissioner
Ans - B

375 Which of the following is not a travelling authority?

A. Season ticket
B. Platform permit
C. Exchanged PTO
D. Complimentary pass
Ans - B

376 The charges collected for postponement of journey in a RAC ticket is ______ .
A. Clerkage charge
B. Fresh reservation charges
C. Rs. 30/ ticket
D. Rs.60/Ticket
Ans – A

377 The minimum charges prescribed for tatkal tickets in SL class is Rs._____ .
A. 100
B. 200
C. 124
D. 300
Ans – A
378 The minimum charges prescribed for tatkal tickets in 2S class is Rs.____ .
1. 10
2. 15
3. 100
4. 200
Ans - A

379 Luggage should be booked only on the authority of _____ .

A. Ticket/Pass
B. Forwarding note
C. Gate Pass
D. Money receipt
Ans – A

380 Minimum distance for charging luggage is ______ .

A. 10 km
B. 25 km
C. 50 km
D. 100 km
Ans - 3

381 Luggage can be booked not more than ______ hrs in advance and up to ____ minutes from
schedule departure of train.

A. 24/50
B. 48/30
C. 30/24
D. 24/30
Ans - D

382 Minimum Chargeable freight in Luggage booking is Rs.______ and weight is ____ Kg.

A. 50/10
B. 30/50
C. 30/10
D. 10/30
Ans - C

383 Development charges levied for household articles is ____ %

A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 8
Ans - C

384 Luggage booked as ICP beyond LFA is charged at ___ times of L scale

A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. D
Ans – 2

385 Luggage free allowance applicable for I A passenger is ____ kgs.

A. 40
B. 5
C. 60
D. 70
Ans D
386 Maximum dimensions of a package allowed as ICP is ____ cm.

A. 100 X 100X 70
B. 100 X 60 X 25
C. 100 X 60 X 45
D. 100 X 60 X 35
Ans B

387.The Animals and Birds carried in BV are charged under _____ scale.

A. L
B. L+25%
C. R
D. R+25%
Ans – B

388 Charges levied for carriage of Invalid chairs of Orthopedically handicapped persons on production
of doctor certificate is _____ .

A. 75% concession
B. 50% concession
C. 90% concession
D. Actual Free
Ans - D

389 Clerkage charge of Rs.____ per Luggage ticket shall be levied at the time of cancellation.

A. 10
B. 30
C. 5
D. 20
Ans - C

390 What is maximum free allowance given to child irrespective class of travel?

A. 40
B. 30
C. 75
D. 50
Ans - D

391 Which of the following is special packing condition prescribed for salt?

A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Ans - C

392 Which of the following is the correct weight chargeable in case of small animals carried in cage and
in loose?

A. 30,40
B. 20,30
C. 20,40
D. 40,20
Ans – C

393 Minimum weight for charging luggage is _____ .

A. 5 Kgs
B. 10 kgs
C. 50 kgs
D. None of these
Ans – B
394 In case of scooter of 150 CC, the chargeable weight is _____ .

A. 100 kgs
B. 200 kgs
C. 125 kgs
D. 150 kgs
Ans B

395.Articles exempted from weighment on II class ticket are ______ .

A. Walking Stick
B. Umbrella
C. Food items for journey
D. All of these
Ans – D

396 Oxygen Cylinders along with a patient are allowed on a medical certificate in which of the following
classes?

A. AC
B. 3A
C. SL only
D. All
Ans - D

397 Luggage Free Allowance given for luggage carried in BV in SL is _____ .

A. 35
B. 40
C. 50
D. Nil
Ans - D

398 The space allowed for leasing of parcels in VPU is ____ tonnes.

A. 24
B. 4
C. 5
D. 23
Ans - D

399 A copy of _____ is required for booking a motor cycle.

A. License of the owner

B. Aadhaar
C. Ration card
D. RC book
Ans - D

400 Ghee in packages as Luggage will be charged under scale ____ .

A. L
B. R
C. P
D. S
Ans –A

401 If the luggage is carried is in excess of maximum ICP the weight in excess will be charged at ____
of ‘L’ scale.

A. 6 times
B. 1.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 1 time
Ans – A
402 Luggage Free Allowance permitted for II class Season Ticket holders is ____ kgs.

A. 5
B. 10
C. nil
D. No limit
Ans - B

403 The free allowance of luggage permitted for an adult in AC Chair Car is ___ Kgs.

A. 70
B. 50
C. 40
D. 35
Ans – C

404 What is the registration fee for parcel loading of one parcel van?

A. Rs 10000
B. Rs 5000
C. Rs 2500
D. RS 1000
Ans - B

405. PCEV charges are collected for motor cycle should not exceed ____ % of excess value.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Ans- A

406 Luggage Free Allowance permitted for Metal Pass holders is ____ kgs.

A. 150
B. 110
C. 140
D. 200
Ans - C

407 Luggage Free Allowance permitted for First Class ‘A’ Pass holders is ____ kgs.

A. 150
B. 110
C. 140
D. 200
Ans - C

408 Unstamped indemnity note may not be accepted in which of the following cases?

A. Perishables
B. Goods of low value
C. RMC traffic
D. Cement
Ans – D

409 Which of the following is the packing condition for motor vehicles?

A. P2
B. P3
C. P5
D. P6
Ans – D
410 Any single package exceeding the weight of ____kg is treated as ‘bulky’.
A. 100
B. 50
C. 70
D. 200
Ans - A

411 Customer is responsible to produce e-way bill for consignments of value more than Rs.____ .

A. 5000
B. 15000
C. 1500
D. 50000
Ans - D

412 Under rationalization, parcel loading /unloading is permitted only when scheduled stoppage time is
____ minutes or more.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Ans - C

413 Standard chargeable weight of motor cycle of 125 CC is ____ kg.

A. 100
B. 125
C. 200
D. 250
Ans - C

414 Fish should be packed with ice at the ratio of ____ .

A. 1:1
B. 2:2
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
Ans - C

415 Rate of Wharfage on bicycle is ____ per hour.

A. Rs. 5/-
B. Rs. 10/-
C. Rs. 15/-
D. Rs. 25/-
Ans - B

416 Wharfage free time for parcels and Luggage in a notified station is _____ hours of working of
delivery section of parcel office after consignment is unloaded.

A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 18
Ans – B

417 Wharfage free time for Motor cycles in a notified station is _____ hours of working of delivery
section of parcel office after consignment is unloaded.

A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 18
Ans –A
418 Bulky articles are charges at _____ .

A. normal scale
B. 1.5 times of the scale
C. double the scale
D. 4 times the scale
Ans - C

419 Registered Newspapers & Magazines will be charged at 45 % of Scale ___ and minimum charge is
Rs ____ .

A. P/30
B. P/10
C. S/10
D. S/2
Ans – D

420 The Railway shall deliver the consignment on surrender of Railway parcel waybills as per section
___ of Railways Act.

A. 76
B. 71
C. 72
D. 66
Ans - A

421 Penalty for misdeclaration for parcel is ____ .

A. 1.5 times of the scale

B. normal charges
C. double the highest class
D. no penalty
Ans - C

422 Charges for cancellation of parcel way bill is Rs.______ .

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
Ans - B

423 The chargable weight for small animal/birds when carried in cage is ____ Kgs.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Ans - B

424 The standard weight of a corpse is ___ Kgs and minimum freight is Rs._____.

A. 200/30
B. 300/50
C. 300/30
D. 200/50
Ans – D

425 The maximum transit time for booking of day old chicks is ____ hours.

A. 20
B. 24
C. 30
D. 48
Ans – C
426 Livestock booked under parcel shall be removed from the railway premises within ____ hours from
the time of arrival at destination.

A. 12
B. 18
C. 30
D. 24
Ans - D

427 WDRF for one parcel van is Rs._____ .

A. 1500
B. 5000
C. 15000
D. 50000
Ans – B

428 The chargeable weight of dog carried in the Brake van is ____ .

A. 40 kg
B. 30 kg
C. 60 kg
D. 20 kg
Ans :B

429 Parcel Management System has ____ modules.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans - D

430 Which of the following is must while Booking of a corpse?

A. Medical certificate
B. police certificate
C. Death certificate
D. Birth certificate
Ans - A

431 Railway Marking Consists of ______ .

A. From & To Stations

B. Name of the Consignee
C. Name of the Consignor
D. Wt of the article
Ans - A

432 The highest scale for charging parcels is _____ .

A. L
B. R
C. P
D. S
Ans – B

433 For Rebooking of parcels the party has to submit _____ .

A. Fresh Forwarding Note

B. Original PWB
C. A request in writing
D. All of these
Ans – D
434 Forwarding Note should be _____ .

A. Sent to destination
B. Sent to Accounts office
C. Preserved at the Forwarding station
D. Filed in the Claims office
Ans - C

435 Wharfage on parcels are collected on _____ .

A. Per package basis

B. Per quintal basis
C. Per 50 kgs or part
D. None of these
Ans – C

436 Rate of Wharfage on Auto rikshaw is ____ per hour.

A. 25
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans - A

437 The unique number generated by PMS is called _____ .

A. PNR
B. FNR
C. PRR
D. NMR
Ans - C

438 Total number of groups of commodities available in general classification of goods ( IRCA Goods
Tariff Part I , Vol.II is ____ .

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
Ans - D

439 WDRF for a BG wagon is Rs._____ .

A. 5000
B. 6000
C. 100000
D. 1000
Ans - B

440 WDRF will be forfeited when the demand is cancelled within _____ days of registration.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans – B

441 Lump sum deposit towards WDRF for Government Departments is Rs.____ .

A. 10,000
B. 20,000
C. 500,000
D. 40,000
Ans – C
442 Wagon can be registered through electronic mode at the ____ website.

A. www.fois.gov.in
B. www.fois.indianrail.gov.in
C. www.foisindia.gov
D. www.indianrailway.gov.in
Ans - B

443 Specific packing conditions are of ___ types.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Ans –D

444 Specific packing condition applicable to commodities such as Cotton

& other textiles consignment is _____ .
A. P1
B. P2
C. P3
D. P4
Ans - C

445 Special Packing condition applicable for Food grains & pulses is ____ .

A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
Ans - B

446 Special Packing condition S-3 is for _____ .

A. Metal scrap
B. Food grains & pulses
C. Salt ( Human consumption)
D. Coal & Coke
Ans - C

447 Seal Cards , Bracket labels, Paste on labels are ______ labels.

A. Descriptive
B. Directive
C. Non descriptive
D. Non directive
Ans - B

448 _________ is one of the low rated classifications.

A. 100
B. 120
C. LR1
D. 150
Ans – C

449 There are _____ classes denoted in Goods Tariff 49, Part – I, Vol. – II

A. 18
B. 46
C. 30
D. 25
Ans – B
450 Which of the following is the development charges collected for goods traffic on NTR?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans - A

451 A Commodity which has the Train Load classification as 110, when offered in Wagon Load, it will
be charged under class _____ .

A. 110+10%
B. 110+20%
C. 110+5%
D. 110A
Ans – A

452 If goods are mis-declared, then penalty is _____ .

A. Double the higher class

B. 4 times the applicable class
C. 4 times the highest class
D. 4 times the highest haulage class
Ans - B

453 The rate of Terminal charge levied on Railway owned wagons at Goods sheds and PFTs is ____?

A. Rs 20 /Tonnes
B. Rs 30 /Tonnes
C. Rs 45 /Tonnes
D. Rs 40 /Tonnes
Ans - A

454 When more than one RR is issued as per the request of the consignor, an additional amount of Rs
.____ will be collected for each RR.

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
Ans - C

455 PTO is published by _____ and has ____ schedule.

A. Parliament/5
B. State government/4
C. Railway board/4
D. Station/6
Ans - C

456 WDRF for RMC is _____ . .

A. 1500
B. 50000
C. Lumpsum
D. Nil
Ans – D

457 In wagons containing Dangerous goods and livestock, _____ should not be used.

A. Wire lead seal

B. powder van
C. descriptive labels
D. Wax seals
Ans –D
458 The ____ vehicle is suitable for carrying motor cars.

A. NMG
B. BOST
C. BOXN
D. BCNA
Ans - A

459 As per ‘Preferential Traffic Order’, the goods booked for emergency relief work is given ___
priority.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans – B

460 A maximum of _____ RR’s can be issued per wagon.

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Ans - D

461 The charges collected from the consignor for registration of wagon is called _____ .

A. WDRF
B. Detention charges
C. Stacking Charges
D. Registration Charges
Ans - A

462 Specific packing condition 1 applies to _____ .

A. Bagged consignment
B. Cotton Textiles
C. Liquid consignment
D. Loose Consignment
Ans - A

463 The Rationalization scheme is not applicable to _____ consignment.

A. Cement
B. Food grains & pulses
C. Over Dimensional consignment
D. Sugar
Ans - C

464 General Forwarding Note is not accepted for which of the following consignment?

A. Explosive
B. Perishables at RR rate
C. Defectively packed consignment
D. All of them
Ans – D

465 _______ is the prime facie evidence for the weight and number of packages.

A. RR
B. Gate Pass
C. Forwarding Note
D. Delivery book
Ans – A
466 If the RR cannot be prepared within ____ hrs from the time of loading, ___ can permit another 24
hours time for preparation of RR based on the weight furnished by the weigh bridge.

A. 24 / DRM
B. 48 / DRM
C. 24 / DCM
D. 24 / DRM
Ans - 3

467 If the weighment details are not received within ___ hours, RR should be prepared based on
sender's weight.

A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 20
Ans - B

468 GST is levied at ____ % on goods and services for transportation of goods by rail.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans - D

469 Railway Receipt is governed by Section ____ of Railway Act, 1989.

A. 62
B. 63
C. 64
D. 65
Ans - D

470.As per Section ____ of Railways Act 1989, a consignment shall be delivered to the consignee on
surrender of RR.

A. 74
B. 75
C. 78
D. 76
Ans - D

471 DDM should be issued within ______ hours from the time of opening of the wagon.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Ans - C

472 In case of request for reweighment of goods by the owner, permission of ____ is required.

A. ACM
B. DCM
C. DRM
D. Sr.DCM
Ans. D

473 ____ charges are collected when the commodities are loaded in a wagon beyond its PCC or as
notified by the Railway

A. Detention
B. Stabling
C. Demurrage
D. Punitive
Ans – D
474 Punitive charges can be collected from _____ .

A. Consignor
B. Consignee
C. Endorsee
D. All the three above
Ans - D

475 When the party is unable to produce the RR, delivery of Goods may be given on execution of
_____ .

A. Forwarding Note
B. Indemnity Note
C. PDC
D. None of these
Ans – B

476 At present, under which tendering system will advertisement be displayed on trains ?

A. Open tender
B. 2 bid tender system
C. Application invited through GEM
D. E auctioning
Ans : D
477 Caution deposit collected for the delivery of consignment on indemnity note can be refunded, if the
original RR is produced within _____.

A. 10 days
B. 1 month
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Ans - D

478 Any single package weighing more than ____ tonne(s) is called Crane Consignment.

A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
Ans- C

479 In case of booking of explosives, the sender should give atleast _____ hours notice to the SM of
the booking station.

A. 24
B. 48
C. 72
D. 12
Ans - B

480 In case of Booking of explosives, explosives can be loaded upto ____ tonnes or _____% of MCC
of the wagon whichever is less.

A. 10 / 50%
B. 50 / 10%
C. 10 / 25%
D. 25 / 10%
Ans – A

481 The registration fee for e-auctioning is Rs _________.

A. 2000+GST
B. 5000+GST
C. 7500+GST
D. 10000+GST
Ans – D
482 In Case of Open Delivery, the OD granting official prepares the JSR in ____ copies.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Ans - D

483 In case of Assessment Delivery, when the estimated loss is more than Rs. _____ the application is
forwarded to DCM

A. 500
B. 200
C. 100
D. 300
Ans - A

484 Booking of a consignment from the original destination to any other station without taking delivery
is called _______ .

A. Rebooking
B. Diversion
C. Booking
D. Weighment
Ans - A

485 Delivery of goods at a station other than the original destination prior to the arrival of goods is
called ______ .

A. Rebooking
B. Diversion
C. Delivery short of destination
D. None of these
Ans - B

486 The rate of demurrage charge for 8-wheeler is Rs.____ per hour or part of an hour.

A. 160
B. 150
C. 100
D. 75
Ans - B

487 To provide night incentive schemes, free time for loading / unloading / removal of consignment
should compulsorily expire after ____ hrs only.

A. 21.00
B. 20.00
C. 22.00
D. 23.00
Ans - C

488.Rate of wharfage charge at Group I goods shed is ____ per wagon per hour or part thereof.

A. Rs.150
B. Rs.120
C. Rs.75
D. Rs.100
Ans – A

489.Rate of wharfage charge at Group II goods shed is ____ per wagon per hour or part thereof.

A. Rs.150
B. Rs.120
C. Rs.75
D. Rs.100
Ans – B
490 Rate of wharfage charge at Group III goods shed is ____ per wagon per hour or part
thereof.

A. Rs.150
B. Rs.120
C. Rs.75
D. Rs.100
Ans - C

491 Free time for removal of goods from railway premises (wharfage charge) at a group I goods shed is
____ .

A. 10 hrs
B. 12 hrs
C. 15 hrs
D. 30 hrs
Ans – B

492. Free time for removal of goods from railway premises (wharfage charge) at a group II goods shed is
____ .

A. 10 hrs
B. 12 hrs
C. 15 hrs
D. 30 hrs
Ans - C

493.Free time for removal of goods from railway premises (wharfage charge) at a group III goods shed is
____ .

A. 72 hrs
B. 13 hrs
C. 16 hrs
D. 30 hrs
Ans -A

494. In case of Livestock transported through Wagons, wharfage free time irrespective of group is ____
working hours from the expiry of free time for loading / unloading.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans - C

495 In case of advance stacking, permission of stacking for more than 5 days and upto 10 days is
given by _____ . .

A. DCM
B. Sr.DCM
C. DRM
D. None of the these
Ans - C

496. Once advance stacking permission has been granted, cancellation of indents will not be permitted
upto ____ days from the 1st day of advance stacking.

A. 15
B. 48
C. 12
D. 10
Ans – A
497 Railway's liability with respect to loss or damage in case of baggage is upto Rs._____ /- per kg.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 150
Ans – B

498.Railway's liability with respect to loss or damage in case of Goods/Parcels is upto Rs._____/- per kg.

A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 200
Ans . C

499 SMs are authorized to accept PCEV for goods of value upto Rs.______.

A. One Lakh
B. Two Lakhs
C. Rs 25,000
D. Rs.50,000
Ans – A

500 Dangerous goods should be packed as per the guidelines given in _____ .

A. Military Tariff
B. Coaching Tariff
C. Red Tariff
D. Goods Tariff
Ans - C

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