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UGC NET Computer Science - Model MCQ Paper
1. (Unit 1: Discrete Structures)
Which of the following is NOT a tautology?
A) p∨¬p
B) p→(p∨q)
C) (p∧q)→p
D) p∧¬p
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
● A tautology is a propositional formula that is always true, regardless
of the truth values of its variables.
● p∨¬p (Law of Excluded Middlis always true.
● p→(p∨q) is always true (if p is true, p∨q is true; if p is false, the
implication is true).
● (p∧q)→p is always true (if p∧q is true, then p must be true; if p∧q is
false, the implication is true).
● p∧¬p (Contradiction) is always false.
2. (Unit 1: Discrete Structures - Matching)
Match the following graph concepts:
List I List II
a) Eulerian Circuit i) Visits every vertex once
b) Hamiltonian Cycle ii) Minimum weight edges
c) Spanning Tree iii) Visits every edge once
d) Bipartite Graph iv) Can be 2-colored
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A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
B) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
D) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
● An Eulerian Circuit traverses every edge exactly once.
● A Hamiltonian Cycle visits every vertex exactly once.
● A Spanning Tree connects all vertices with minimum edges (often
associated with minimum weight in MST algorithms, though the
definition itself is about acyclic connection).
● A Bipartite Graph is a graph whose vertices can be divided into two
disjoint sets such that no two vertices within the same set are
adjacent, meaning it can be colored with two colors.
3. (Unit 2: Computer Architecture)
Which addressing mode is most suitable for accessing elements of an array?
A) Immediate Addressing
B) Direct Addressing
C) Indexed Addressing
D) Register Indirect Addressing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
● Indexed Addressing calculates the effective address by adding an
index value (often from a register) to a base address.
● This allows easy access to array elements where the base address is
the start of the array and the index register holds the element offset.
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4. (Unit 2: Computer Architecture - Statement)
Consider the following statements regarding RISC architecture:
Statement I: RISC processors typically have a large number of general-purpose
registers.
Statement II: RISC instructions are generally complex and take multiple clock cycles
to execute.
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement I is true: RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computing)
architectures emphasize a large register file to minimize memory
access.
● Statement II is false: RISC instructions are simple, fixed-length, and
designed to execute in a single clock cycle whenever possible,
facilitating pipelining. Complex instructions are characteristic of CISC
(Complex Instruction Set Computing).
5. (Unit 3: Programming Languages)
What is the output of the following C code snippet?
#include <stdio.h>
int main() {
int a = 5, b = 3;
printf("%d\n", a+++b); // Note the post-increment
return 0;
A) 8
B) 9
C) 7
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D) Compiler Error
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
● The expression a+++b is parsed as (a++) + b.
● The post-increment operator a++ uses the current value of a (which is
5) for the addition and then increments a to 6.
● So, the expression evaluated is 5 + 3, which equals 8.
● After the statement, a becomes 6.
6. (Unit 3: Computer Graphics)
Which transformation is used to change the size of an object?
A) Translation
B) Rotation
C) Scaling
D) Shearing
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
● Scaling transformation alters the size of an object by multiplying its
coordinates by scaling factors (Sx,Sy,Sz).
● Translation moves an object.
● Rotation pivots an object around a point.
● Shearing distorts the shape of an object.
7. (Unit 4: DBMS)
Which normal form deals with transitive dependencies?
A) 1NF
B) 2NF
C) 3NF
D) BCNF
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
● A relation is in 3NF if it is in 2NF and has no transitive dependencies.
● A transitive dependency exists when a non-key attribute determines
another non-key attribute (e.g., A -> B and B -> C, where A is the key).
3NF aims to eliminate such dependencies.
8. (Unit 4: DBMS - Statement)
Statement I: SQL stands for Structured Query Language and is a declarative
language.
Statement II: The DELETE command in SQL removes a table from the database.
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement I is true: SQL is the standard language for relational
databases and is declarative (users specify what data they want, not
how to get it).
● Statement II is false: The DELETE command removes rows (records)
from a table based on a condition. The DROP TABLE command
removes the entire table structure and data.
9. (Unit 5: Operating Systems)
Which scheduling algorithm can potentially lead to starvation?
A) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
B) Shortest Job First (SJF) - Preemptive or Non-preemptive
C) Round Robin (RR)
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D) Priority Scheduling
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
● Priority Scheduling assigns priorities to processes. If there is a
continuous stream of high-priority processes, low-priority processes
may never get the CPU, leading to starvation.
● SJF can also lead to starvation for long jobs if there's a continuous
supply of short jobs. However, Priority Scheduling is a more direct
cause, especially with static priorities. RR and FCFS generally avoid
starvation.
10. (Unit 5: Operating Systems)
The "Banker's Algorithm" is used for:
A) Deadlock Prevention
B) Deadlock Avoidance
C) Deadlock Detection
D) Deadlock Recovery
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Banker's Algorithm is a classic deadlock avoidance algorithm.
● It checks if granting a resource request will lead to a safe state (a state
from which all processes can eventually complete). If the resulting
state is unsafe, the request is denied.
11. (Unit 6: Software Engineering)
Which software development model is best suited for projects where requirements
are well-understood and unlikely to change significantly?
A) Spiral Model
B) Prototyping Model
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UGC NET COMPUTER SCIENCE UNIT WISE
TREND ANALYSIS
This analysis is based on the UGC NET Computer Science and
Applications syllabus and the question pattern and structure
presented in the UGC NET History PYQ analysis. It offers an estimated
framework of potential question types and important areas for
Computer Science and Applications, aiming to help you strategize your
preparation.
1. Balance in Question Types:
Similar to the History PYQ analysis, the UGC NET Computer Science
and Applications examination is likely to feature a balance of various
question types. The major question types could include:
Factual Identification: Questions based on direct identification of
definitions, terms, concepts, algorithms, protocols, components,
models, data structures, programming language features,
theorems, and key figures in computer science. (Example: What is
the time complexity of Quick Sort in the worst case? Which layer of
the OSI model is responsible for routing? What is the purpose of a
semaphore?)
Problem-Solving/Application-Based: A significant portion of
questions will require applying theoretical knowledge to solve
problems, design solutions, analyze scenarios, or interpret outputs.
This is particularly relevant for topics in Discrete Structures,
Computer System Architecture, Programming, Data Structures &
Algorithms, Theory of Computation, and Data Communication &
Computer Networks. (Example: Given a truth table, identify the
Boolean function. Write a SQL query to retrieve specific data.
Calculate the critical path in a PERT chart. Trace the execution of
an algorithm.)
Chronological Order: Questions requiring the arrangement of
historical developments in computing, programming language
generations, operating system evolution, or network standards in
their chronological sequence.
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Matching: Questions matching concepts with definitions,
algorithms with time complexities, protocols with their layers,
programming language features with their paradigms, data
structures with their applications, or theorems with their
statements.
Assertion & Reason: Questions evaluating the relationship
between a statement about a computer science concept, algorithm,
system, or technology and its underlying reason or principle.
(Example: Assertion (A): A B+ tree is preferred over a B tree for
database indexing. Reason (R): B+ trees store data only at the leaf
nodes, allowing for faster sequential access.)
Conceptual Understanding: Questions testing the understanding
of major concepts, theories, paradigms, and principles across all
areas of computer science, requiring more than just rote
memorization.
Multiple Correct Statements: Questions presenting several
statements about a concept, technology, algorithm, or system,
requiring the identification of the group of correct or incorrect
statements. These test detailed and nuanced knowledge.
Passage-Based Questions: Questions based on a passage
describing a technical scenario, a problem description, a research
abstract in computer science, or a discussion on a computing
trend, testing comprehension, analysis, and application of
knowledge.
2. Difficulty Level and Skill Testing:
The examination is likely to test both theoretical knowledge and
practical application skills. A strong foundation in fundamental
concepts is crucial, along with the ability to apply these concepts to
solve problems.
Problem-solving and application-based questions often require
analytical thinking and the ability to work through technical
details.
Conceptual understanding questions test depth of knowledge
beyond surface-level definitions.
Questions involving algorithms, data structures, and logic require
strong analytical and logical reasoning skills.
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3. Latest Trends:
Based on the structure of the syllabus and the rapidly evolving field of
Computer Science, the following areas might receive particular
emphasis:
Topics in Unit 4 (Database Management Systems), especially Big
Data Systems and NOSQL, reflecting current industry trends.
Topics in Unit 8 (Theory of Computation and Compilers),
particularly Formal Languages, Automata Theory, and Compiler
Design principles.
Topics in Unit 9 (Data Communication and Computer Networks),
including Network Security, Mobile Technology, Cloud Computing,
and IoT, which are highly relevant in modern computing.
Topics in Unit 10 (Artificial Intelligence), covering various
approaches to AI, Machine Learning (ANN, GA), Knowledge
Representation, and Natural Language Processing, given the
significant advancements in this field.
Questions requiring the application of concepts from Unit 1
(Discrete Structures and Optimization) to other areas like
algorithms, database design, or network analysis.
4. Subject Matter Focus and Importance:
The syllabus is divided into 10 units, each with its specific importance
and focus area:
Unit-1: Discrete Structures and Optimization
o Importance: Provides the mathematical and logical foundation
for many other areas of computer science.
o Potential Focus: Mathematical Logic, Sets and Relations,
Counting, Mathematical Induction, Probability, Group Theory,
Graph Theory (especially paths, circuits, trees, spanning trees),
Boolean Algebra, Linear Programming, PERT-CPM.
o Potential Question Types: Factual, Problem-Solving (logic
proofs, set operations, counting, graph problems, optimization
problems), Conceptual, Matching.
Unit-2: Computer System Architecture
o Importance: Covers the fundamental building blocks and
organization of computer systems.
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UGC-NET COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATION, JUNE-2020
Q 1. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The problem "Is L1 𝖠 L2 = ∅?" is undecidable for context
sensitive languages L1 and L2
Statement II: The problem "Is W∈L?" is decidable for context sensitive language L, (where W is
a string).
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
Ans (A)
Q 2. Consider a machine with a byte addressable main memory of 216 bytes and block size of 8
bytes. Assume that
a direct mapped cache consisting of 32 lines used with this machine. How many bits will be
there in Tag, line and
word field of format of main memory addresses?
A. 8, 5, 3
B. 8, 6, 2
C. 7, 5, 4
D. 7, 6, 3
Ans (A)
Q 3. The following program isstored in memory unit of the basic computer. What isthe content
of the accumulator
after the execution of program? (All location numbers listed below are in hexadecimal).
Location Instruction
210 CLA
211 ADD 217
212 INC
213 STA 217
214 LDA 218
215 CMA
216 AND 217
217 1234H
218 9CE2H
A. 1002H
B. 2011H
C. 2022H
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D. 0215H
Ans (D)
Q 4. Let G be a simple undirected graph, TD be a DFS tree on G, and TB be the BFS tree on G.
Consider the following statements.
Statement I : No edge of G is a cross with respect to TD.
Statement II : For every edge (u, v) of G, if u is at depth i and v is at depth j in TB then |𝐢 − 𝐣|= 1.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
Ans (C)
Q 5. A non-pipeline system takes 50ns to process a task. The same task can be processed in six-
segment pipeline
with a clockcycle of 10ns. Determine approximately the speedup ratio of the pipeline for 500
tasks.
A. 6
B. 4.95
C. 5.7
D. 5.5
Ans (B)
Q 6. What is the radix of the numbers if the solution to the quadratic equation 𝒙𝟐 − 𝟏𝟎𝒙 + 𝟐𝟔 =
𝟎 𝐢𝐬 𝒙 =
𝟒 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝒙 = 𝟕?
A. 8 B. 9
C. 10 D. 11
Ans (D)
Q 7. Consider the following pseudo-code fragment, where a and b are integer variables that
have been initialized:
Pre-conditions: (𝒂 > 𝟏 𝖠 𝒂 < 𝒃) /
Assume that overflow never occurs /
𝐢𝐧𝐭 𝒙 = 𝟎; 𝐢𝐧𝐭 𝒑 = 𝟏;
𝐰𝐡𝐢𝐥𝐞 (𝒑 < 𝒃) {
𝒑 = 𝒑 ∗ 𝒂;
𝒙 = 𝒙 + 𝟏;}
When the while loop terminates, what will be the value of x in terms of a and b?
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A. 𝑎𝑏
B. 𝑏𝑎
C. ⌊𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏⌋ / ⌊ ⌋ meAns floor /
D. ⌊𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏⌋ / ⌈ ⌉ meAns ceil */
Q 8. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Quality control involves the series of inspections, reviews and tests used
throughout the software
process, to ensure each work product meets the requirements placed upon it.
Statement II : Quality assurance consists of auditing and reporting functions of management.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
Ans (A)
Q 9. In HTML, tag is used for:
A. defining a path between two nodes in an image
B. defining clickable region in an image
C. highlighting an area in an image
D. defining the site-map of a web-site
Ans (B)
Q 10. Suppose you are compiling on a machine with 1-byte chars, 2-byte shorts, 4-byte ints, and
8-byte doubles, and
with alignment rules that require the address of every primitive data element to be an integer
multiple of the
element's size. Suppose further that the compiler is not permitted to reorder fields; padding is
used to ensure
alignment. How much space will be consumed by the following array?
struct {
short s;
char c;
short t;
char d;
double r;
int i;
} A [10]; /10-element array of structs/
A. 150 bytes
B. 320 bytes
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C. 240 bytes
D. 200 bytes
Ans (C)
Q 11. Consider the following recursive Java function 𝒇 that takes two long arguments and
returns a float value:
public static float 𝒇 (long m, long n) {
float result = (float) m / (float) n;
if (𝒎 < 𝟎∥
𝒏 < 𝟎) return 0.0f;
result −= 𝒇(𝒎 ∗ 𝟐, 𝒏 ∗ 𝟑);
return result;}
Which of the following real values best approximates the value of 𝒇 (1, 3)?
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
Ans (A)
Q 12. The data node and name node in HADOOP are:
A. Worker Node and Master Node respectively
B. Master Node and Worker Node respectively
C. Both Worker Nodes
D. Both Master Nodes
Ans (A)
Q 13. Consider a relational schema S = (U, V, W, X, Y, Z) on which the following functional
dependencies hold:
,U → V, VW → X, Y → W, X → UWhich are the candidate keys among following options?
A. UY, VY
B. UY, VY, XY
C. UYZ, VYZ, VWZ
D. UYZ, VYZ, XYZ
Ans (D)
Q 14. Consider a hypothetical machine with 3 pages of physical memory, 5 pages of virtual
memory, and < A, B, C,
D, A, B, E, A, B, C, D, E, B, A, B > as the stream of page references by an application. If P and Q are
the number of
page faults that the application would incur with FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithms
respectively, then (P,
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