COMPETENCE 15

Monitor compliance with legislative requirements

MSDS
1. A category of health hazard, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which includes teratogens and mutagens, is called
a? Reproductive hazard
2. What term is listed on a MSDS to describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously disabling health hazard? High
toxicity
3. What term is listed on a MSDS to describe a chemical that produces only minor health effects that usually heal with or without
medical attention when exposure stops? Low toxicity
4. Which health hazard term is listed on MSDS to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body tissue on contact?
Cryogenic

FIRE/FFE
5. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by? Removing the fuel
6. In which of the enumerated areas on board the high expansion foam must not be used for firefighting? Dry store room
7. The fire extinguisher action of CO2 is derived mostly from? Smothering
8. On deck fixed FFA installation, what is the purpose of the proportioner? Controls the quantity of foam concentrate to be injected
into the fire line
9. The most practical method of extinguishing a class A fire, involving burning dunnage, is to use? Water
10. When water mist system is activated, it does a “shut-off effect” on the protected area. Explain how this effect happens? The
floating fog foams walls of water.
11. Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the freezing when exposed to low temperatures? Foam
12. What is another disadvantage of using CO2 for fixed FFA aside from its smothering effect does not last long which can cause re-
ignition if air is admitted too soon? CO2 is very toxic
13. Which of the ff statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent? Its smothering effect is
excellent for Class B Fire

SAFETY/LSA
14. A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all purpose nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult
to control when the handle position is changed from? Shut to solid stream
15. An inflatable life raft can be launched by? Throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate
the raft
16. An inflatable life raft is hand-launched by? Throwing the entire container overboard
17. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an _____. Combustible
gas indicator
18. For the purpose of trainings and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched on scheduled with
their assigned crew? Once a month
19. If a raft must be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard? To some
fixed object on the ship
20. If you wish to remove an inflatable life raft from its cradle the best way to free it is by? Pushing the plunger on the center of the
hydrostatic release
21. The Master ensure that the Emergency Position Indication Radio Beacon (EPIRB) is tested monthly
22. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space tank or compartment, you should use a? Combustible gas indicator
23. What statement about immersion suits is FALSE? The suit should be worn only when abandoning ship
24. Which of the ff statements concerning immersion suits is FALSE? A small leak of water into suit will destroy the protective
qualities against hypothermia
25. Which of the ff operations should be carried out when launching an inflatable life raft by hand? Make sure the operating cord is
secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side
26. While at your boat station, a signal consisting of two short blast of the ship’s whistle is sounded. This indicates of what signals?
Stop lowering boats

FIRST AID
27. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should FIRST be? Directed to move to a cool space unassisted
28. The symptoms of fractured back are? Pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury
29. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is? Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
30. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by? Keeping a ice bag over the location of the
appendix
31. When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to? Evacuate patient to a hospital
32. Which of the ff should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? Elevated head

REGULATIONS
33. According to Coast Guard regulations, how many means of escape must be provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered
or employed? Two, at least one of which shall independent of watertight doors
34. According to Coast Guard regulations, which of the ff conditions is TRUE concerning the construction and/or operation of
pressure-vacuum relief valves? Valve bodies, discs, spindles, and seats must all be made of bronze or a corrosion resistant
material
35. According to regulations, a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 20 knots service speed must be capable
of producing a specific range of rudder movement at which of the minimum speeds listed below? 10 knots
36. According to steam regulations, piping subject to main boiler pressure must be hydrostatically tested at specified intervals.
Therefore, which of the ff statements is TRUE? Piping under 3 inches nominal pipe size need not to be hydrostatically tested
37. According to Title 46 CFR, of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested NOT more than 12 hours prior to
getting underway from a US port when the voyage is to be of 48 hrs or greater duration? Steering gear.
38. An electric driven steering gear power unit is required by regulations to be capable of putting the rudder over from 15A on the
other side in not more than 60 seconds under emergency power with vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, this test must be
carried out at how many knots? 10 knots
39. As per International Regulations requirements, how many bolts & nuts are permitted in a bolted flanged oil hose couplings? 4
40. Regulations require that an indicating light, located at the propulsion control station be illuminated if there is an overload what
would cause overheating of the ____. Steering gear motor.
41. Regulations require that OSV’s under 100grt must have a steering gear that is capable of moving the rudder ____. From 35
degrees on one side to 30 degrees to the other side in no more than 28 seconds
42. Regulations require that vessel of 500grt or less, what equipment must be tested weekly? Run emergency generator, driven by an
internal combustion engine, under load for at least 2 hours
43. How many should be the minimum security alert buttons to be provided on the ship as per ISPS Code regulation? Two
44. The regulations regarding hydrostatic testing of main steam piping state that? The hydrostatic test shall be applied from the
boiler drum to the throttle valve
45. The regulations require a method for the relief of an over pressurized refrigeration system, which of the ff statements complies
with these regulations? A rupture disk may be fitted in series with the relief valve
46. The regulations require that all electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be? Served by two electric power feeder
circuits
47. International regulations require that rubber mat or wood platform shall be installed in switchboards and starter panels in order
to _____. Protect personnel from electric shock

SOLAS
48. As per SOLAS Reg. 11-2 for vessels > 6000grt, how much should be the minimum fire main pressure maintained with two jets of
water simultaneously delivering through any adjacent hydrant? 0.27Mpa
49. As per SOLAS Reg. 11-2, what should be the length of fire hoses in machinery spaces? Minimum of 10M and maximum of 15M
50. As per SOLAS regulation, what else should be contained in the international connection box aside from connection flange, nuts
and bolts, gasket and eight washers? Spanners
51. As per SOLAS requirements, after failure of the main power supply, how long should emergency generator come on load
automatically? Within 45 seconds
52. As per SOLAS requirements, emergency generator should have an automatic secondary starting system, either pneumatic or
hydraulic, capable of providing how many consecutive starts within how many minutes? Three starts within 30 minutes

MARSEC
53. Under MARSEC level 1, the min security measures are always maintained onboard and I port and ship and ship operation are
carried out as per ship and port facility plan. What else is required? Minimum access in the ship to be maintained at all times.
54. Under MARSEC level 2, is it required to conduct additional security briefings to ship’s personnel with emphasis in relation to the
security level and carry out full or partial search of the ship. What else is required? Increase the search frequency and details of
person due to board or disembark
55. What should be the MARSEC level of the ship as compared to the Port’s MARSEC level? The same or higher
56. In order to have an effective security plan or measures to take in the event of pirate attacks, which of the ff persons or groups
should be informed? Ship’s crew

EMERGENCY GENERATOR
57. On which area on board must be the emergency generator engine and switchboard be located as per SOLAS requirement? Above
the uppermost continuous deck
58. For how long should emergency generator be capable of giving power on cargo and passenger ships as per SOLAS requirements?
18hrs and 36 hrs respectively
59. How many consecutive starts should an emergency generator with automatic primary battery starting system, be capable of as
per SOLAS requirements? Three

STEERING GEAR
60. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulation require that? The entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours
prior to departure

ISPS
61. The ISPS code was implemented by IMO as a comprehensive set of instruments for international security by prescribing
responsibilities to a government authority, shipping companies, seafarers and ______. Port authorities
62. Who is a company appointed person responsible for the ship security assessment and for the onboard survey to confirm the
development and implementation of the ship security plan as per ISPS Code? CSO

CERTIFICATE
63. How long a “Declaration of Inspection” must be kept on board? One month
64. A re-inspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the ff months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid? 10-14
months
65. What is the period of validity of a Safety Management Certificate? 60 months
66. Where can we find the official documentation of a vessel? Certification of Documentation
67. You are operating a 150GT towing vessel, what is NOT required on the vessel? Certificate of Inspection

INTERNATIONAL SHORE CONNECTION

68. What is the purpose of International Shore Connection? To provide an attachment for hose from shore for firefighting

SSAS
69. The SSAS alert is first received by the shipowner or an SSAS management third party, then passed to the ship’s flag state. To
whom are these receivers obliged to inform next? National authorities where the ship is sailing.
70. What is installed as silent safety measure which aims to strengthen ship’s security and subduing acts of piracy and/or terrorism
against shipping? SSAS

OTHERS
71. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to comply with the ff conditions EXCEPT _____. It must be more
than 12 miles from the nearest coast.
72. from the nearest land does floating cargo associated waste, not plastic or otherwise regulated under MARPOL annexes can be
discharge? 25
73. On a tank ship vessel, who are responsible for the sanitary inspection of the crew’s quarter? Master and Chief Engineer
74. Once a problem has been identified by the management, the next move is to ____. Identify the decision objectives
75. The ff equipments are required to be connected to the emergency switchboard EXCEPT the _____. Fire and GS pump
76. The master or person-in-charge of a vessel is required to submit a casualty report of an international grounding under what
condition? If it creates a hazard to navigation
77. The method of finding out and recording the levels of the risk, with the aim of minimizing accidents, damage and ill health on
board ship is called? Assessment
78. There are three learning scope for instruction objectives. Which objectives is NOT part of these learning scopes? Enabling
objectives ( Disabling, Subject and Cognitive Objectives)
79. To whom must proper familiarization of duties be given? New personnel
80. What do you call a systematic application of management system policies, procedures and practices to the task of analyzing,
evaluating, and controlling environmental risk? Environmental Risk Management
81. What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer procedures? The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the
vessel
82. What refers to establishing objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with customer requirements and
the organization policies? Planning
83. When manager and employees define goals for every department, project and person and use them to monitor performance, the
method is called? Management by objectives
84. When you notice oil on the water near your vessel taking on fuel, you should FIRST? Stop loading
85. Which of the ff emissions is NOT covered under IAPP certificate? Galley exhaust emission
86. Which of the ff implies that we determine the extent of some characteristics associated with something such as a person or an
object? Measurement
87. Which of the ff statements is correct concerning the regulation regarding the internal combustion engine exhaust, boiler and
galley uptakes and similar sources of ignition? They shall be kept clear of and suitably insulated from any hardwork or other
combustible matter
88. Which one of the equipment listed is required to be connected to the emergency switchboard as part of the essential shipboard
equipment? Engine room control console
89. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which has burned packages containing plastics? Discharge to
shore facility only
90. Who is the officer onboard responsible for the sanitary condition of the engineering department? Chief engineer.
91. Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly? Master
92. You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must FIRSR receive approval from the Federal On-Scene Coordinator (OSC) prior to?
Applying chemical agents
93. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. What action
would you take before resuming pumping? Replace the hose
94. In accordance with international regulations, it is the duty of the C/E to acquire and seal a sample fuel oil received whenever fuel
bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until the _____. Voyage is completed
95. A crack located in the shell plating or deck plating of a ship, may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by? Drilling a
hole at each end of the crack