03-12-2024

7650CMD303021240039 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,

are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

2) In the relation; y = a cos (ωt + Kx), the dimensional formula for Kx is same as that of :-

(1) a/ω
(2) a/y
(3) ωt/a
(4) ya/ωt

3) A physical quantity X is given by . If the percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and

d are 4%, 2%, 3% and 1% respectively, then calculate the percentage error in X.

(1) 17.5 %
(2) 18 %
(3) 15.5 %
(4) 10.5 %

4) The equation of a wave is given by :

where ω is angular velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimension of K is

(1) [LT]
(2) [T]
(3) [T–1]
(4) [T2]

5) The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is:-

(1) [M2L2T]
(2) [ML2T–2]
0
(3) [M L–1]
(4) [ML2T]

6) If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional
formula of surface tension will be :

(1) [EV–2T–2]
(2) [EV–1T–2]
(3) [E–2V–1T–3]
(4) [EV–2T–1]

7) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty (ρ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2ρ]
(2) [A2 vρ]
(3) [Avρ2]
(4) [Avρ]

8) In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then
the dimensional formula of energy is :-

(1) FA2T
(2) FAT2
(3) F2AT
(4) FAT

9) If physical quantity x is represented by x = [MaLbT–c] and the maximum percentage erros in M, L

and T arc α%, β% and γ% respectively, then the total maximum error in x is :

(1) (αa + βb – γc) × 100%

(2) (αa + βb + γc) × 100%
(3) (αa – βb – γc) × 100%

(4)

10) If and ΔA is absolute error in A and ΔB is absolute error in B then absolute error ΔP in
P is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) The length of a rod is (11.05 ± 0.05) cm. What is the sum of lengths of two such rods :-

(1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm

(2) (22.10 ± 0.05) cm
(3) (22.1 ± 0.15) cm
(4) (22.10 ± 0.10) cm

12) Time intervals measured by a clock give the following readings :

1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s.
What is the percentage relative error of the observations ?

(1) 2 %
(2) 4 %
(3) 16 %
(4) 1.6 %

13) If error in the measurement of side of cube is and error in the measurement of mass of
cube is , then maximum possible error in the density of cube will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A wire is of mass . The radius is and length is .

The maximum percentage error in density is

(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 8
(4) 16%

15) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisios on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

16) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n division of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading: 0 mm.
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above data is :-

(1) 0.026 cm
(2) 0.005 cm
(3) 0.52 cm
(4) 0.052 cm

18) The pitch and the number of circular scale division in a screw gauge with least count 0.04mm
are respectively.

(1) 1mm and 100

(2) 0.5 mm and 50
(3) 1mm and 25
(4) 0.5mm and 25

19) The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and 100 division in its circular scale. In measuring the
diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd circular scale division coincides
with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is :

(1) 4.05 mm
(2) 4.415 mm
(3) 3.005 mm
(4) 4.210 mm

20) Two blocks 5 kg and 10 kg are placed as shown in figure. Find maximum force that can be

applied so that both block move together.

(1) 90 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 180 N
21) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :

(1) 20 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 2 N

22) Frictional force acting on the block is :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 500 N
(4) 200 N

23) For the arrangement shown in the figure the tension in the string is :-

(1) 5.0 N
(2) 5.2 N
(3) 0.2 N
(4) 0

24) Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a string which passes over a pulley attached
to the top of a double inclined plane of angles of inclination α and β. If M2 > M1, the acceleration a of
the system is given by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

25) A block is dragged on smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with velocity v. The

horizontal velocity of the block is :

(1) v

(2)

(3) vsinθ

(4)

26) A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5ms–1. A force acts on it for some time in the direction of
motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body :-

(1) 9.25 ms–1

(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 14.25 ms–1
(4) 4.25 ms–1

27) In the system shown mass of the man is 50 kg and mass of lift is 30 kg. If the system is in
equilibrium then force applied by man on the rope is (assume that the string on the right side of

pulley does not touch the lift at any point) :-

(1) 400 N
(2) 800 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 500 N

28) Let us consider two forces F1 and F2 acting on a body of mass 2 kg as shown in the figure.F1 = 10

N, F2 = 2N, what will be the acceleration ?

(1) 4 ms–2
(2) 1.2 ms–2
(3) 2 ms–2
(4) 6.4 ms–2

29)

Find acceleration of blocks ?

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 9 m/s2

30) For a system shown in figure, the extension in the spring at steady state is :-

(force constant, K = 240 N/m)

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 40 cm

31) Same spring is attached with 2 kg. 3 kg and 1 kg blocks in three different cases as shown in the
figure If x1, x2, x3 be the extension in the spring in the three cases, then :-

(1) x1 = 0, x3 > x2
(2) x1 > x2 > x3
(3) x3 > x2 > x1
(4) x2 > x1 > x3

32) Two blocks connected by an ideal spring of constant 100 N/m and moving on a smooth horizontal
surface under influence of a force of 36 N. What is extension in spring when acceleration of 2kg

block is twice that of 5kg block?

(1) 4 cm

(2)
cm

(3)
cm
(4) 16 cm

33) A body of mass 3 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it is given by S = (in
metres). Find the work done by the force in first 2 seconds.

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 24 J

34) A position dependent force acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and

displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joules is

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

35) The position x(in m) of a particle of mass 1 kg moving along x-axis varies with time t(in sec) as t
= under the action of a force. The work done by the force from t = 1 to t = 5 sec. :-

(1) zero
(2) 4J
(3) 6J
(4) 10J

SECTION - B

1) A variable force, given by the 2-dimensional vector , acts on a particle. The force is
in newton and x is in metre. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the particle as it moves from
the point with coordinates (2,3) to (3,0) ? (The coordinates are in meters)

(1) –7 J
(2) Zero
(3) +7J
(4) +19 J

2) A toy gun uses a spring of very large value of force constant k. When charged before being
triggered in the upward direction, the spring is compressed by a small distance x. If mass of shot is
m, on being triggered it will go upto a height of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A uniform chain of mass 4 kg and length 2 m is kept on the table such that 3/10th of the chain
hangs freely from the edge of the table. How much work has to be done in pulling the entire chain
on the table?

(1) 7.2 J
(2) 120
(3) 1200 J
(4) 3.6 J

4) A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of

friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k = 100
N/m with a velocity 2 m/s. The maximum compression of the spring is :
(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

5) A particle moves with a velocity = m/s under the influence of a constant force
The instantaneous power applied to the particle is :-

(1) 200 J/s

(2) 40 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

6) Rate of doing work by force acting on a particle which starts its motion from origin along x-axis
depends on a position x of particle and this rate is equal to 2x. Expression of velocity of particle at
any position x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg moving along x-axis given by . If total
mechanical energy of particle is 2 J, then find its maximum speed.

(1) 7
(2)
(3)
(4) 1

8) Potential energy of a particle is related to x coordinate by equation x2 – 2x. Particle will be in

stable equilibrium at

(1) x = 0.5
(2) x = 1
(3) x = 2
(4) x = 4

9) If a car covers of the total distance with speed v1 and distance with speed v2 then
average speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A particle starts from rests and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then it travels a
distance 2S with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance 3S with uniform retardation and comes
to rest. If the complete motion of the particle is a straight line then the ratio of its average velocity
to maximum velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The relation between time and distance is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The
retardation is :-

(1) 2αv3
(2) 2βv3
(3) 2αβv3
(4) 2β2v3

12) The time of flight of a projectile is 10s and range is 500m. Maximum height attained by it is- [g =
10 m/s2]

(1) 25 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 82 m
(4) 125 m

13) A particle is moving with uniform acceleration. The distance covered by it in 4th second is two
times of distance covered in 2nd second. If acceleration of the particle is 3m/s2, then the initial
velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 1.5 m/s

(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4.5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

14) A river of width 100 m is flowing with speed 10 m/s. A man can swim with speed 5 m/s in still
water, minimum time taken by him to cross the river.

(1) 5 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) 15 sec
(4) 20 sec

15) A man walks in rain at 72 cm/s due east and observes the rain falling vertically. When he stops,
rain appears to strikes his back at 37° from the vertical Find velocity of raindrops relative to the
ground

(1) 100 cm/s

(2) 26 m/s
(3) 120 cm/s
(4) 54 cm/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) A system is provided 50 J of heat and work done on the system is 10 J. The change in internal
energy during the process is :

(1) 40 J
(2) 60 J
(3) 80 J
(4) 50 J

2) Which of the following conversion is associated with positive entropy change ?

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(2) Mn(s, T = 800 K) → Mn (s, T = 400 K)
(3) H2 (g, 10 atm) → H2 (g, 4 atm)
(4) H2O(g) → H2O(ℓ)

3) The molar enthalpy of fusion of ice is 6.01 kJ mol–1. The entropy change of fusion for 1 mole of ice
at its melting point will be :

(1) 22 J mol–1 K–1

(2) 44 J mol–1 K–1
(3) 109 J mol–1 K–1
(4) 11 J mol–1 K–1

4) The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C(graphite) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170
JK–1 respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at :-

(1) 510 K
(2) 710 K
(3) 910 K
(4) 1110 K

5) For which of the following process |ΔH| > |ΔU|

(1) 2HI(g) → H2(g) + I2(g)

(2) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) combustion of CH4(g) at 25°C
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6) Which of the following relationship is incorrect ?

(1) ΔH = U + ΔngRT (for reaction)

(2) ΔG = – TΔSsys
(3) ΔG° = –2.303 RT log K

(4) w = + 2.303 nRT log

(for reversible isothermal process)

7) For a certain reaction, the enthalpy change and entropy change are –2.5 × 103 calorie and 7.4
calorie/kelvin respectively . At 298 K the reaction :-

(1) Will be spontaneous

(2) Will be reversible
(3) Will be irreversible
(4) Will be non-spontaneous

8) In which of the following process, work is independent of path

(1) Isothermal
(2) Isobaric
(3) Adiabatic
(4) Isochoric

9) On stretching of rubber band, entropy :-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
(4) All of the above

10) The enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 3.73 kJ mol–1 at 373 K. Find ΔS in
J/mol K :-

(1) 100 J/mol K

(2) 10 J/mol K
(3) 1000 J/mol K
(4) 373 J/mol K

11) When a gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly, the final temperature is-

(1) Higher than the initial temperature

(2) Lower than the initial temperature
(3) The same as initial temperature
(4) Dependent upon the rate of compression

12) On mole of an ideal gas at STP expands from 30 L to 40 L in vacuum then work done by the gas
will be :-

(1) 10 atm-L
(2) 101 J
(3) Zero
(4) 30 J

13) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 94.2 kcal

H2(g) + ½O2(g) → H2O(ℓ) + 68.3 kcal
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ) + 210.8 kcal
The heat of formation of methane in kcal will be :-

(1) – 45.9
(2) – 47.8
(3) – 20.0
(4) – 47.3

14) The values of heat of formation of SO2 and SO3 are –298.2 kJ mol–1 and –98.2 kJ mol–1. The heat of
reaction of the following reaction will be :
(1) –200 kJ
(2) –356.2 kJ
(3) +200 kJ
(4) –396.2 kJ

15) What is the heat of formation of NO :-

Given N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) – 24 kcal

(1) – 12 kcal/mol
(2) –24 kcal/mol
(3) 12 kcal/mol
(4) 24 kcal/mol

16) Which of the following reaction is showing equation corresponding to heat of formation as well
as combustion ?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)

(2) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
(3) 2NO(g) → N2O4(g)
(4) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

17) Na(s) → Na(g), the heat of reaction is called as

(1) Heat of vaporisation

(2) Heat of atomisation
(3) Heat of sublimation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

18) For the reaction 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct option is:

(1) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0

(2) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
(3) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
(4) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0

19) Assertion : For a process, if the entropy change for the system is positive, the process will
always be spontaneous.
Reason : According to second law of thermodynamics, entropy of the system, increases in all
spontaneous process.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

20) Assertion : T, P, V are called state variables or state function. Reason : Their values depend on
the state of the system and how it is reached.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

21) Assertion : Heat added to a system at lower temperature causes greater randomness than when
the same quantity of heat is added to it at higher temperature.
Reason : For reversible process, when constant heat is given to system then entropy change is
directly proportional to the temperature.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

22) Find empirical formula of the compound if mass percentage of M = 68% (atomic mass = 34) and
remaining 32 % oxygen.

(1) MO
(2) M2O
(3) MO2
(4) M2O3

23) If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number of molecules in a drop of water is :

(1) 6.023 × 1023 molecules

(2) 1.376 × 1026 molecules
(3) 1.62 × 1021 molecules
(4) 4.346 × 1020 molecules

24) For a reaction,

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3 (g), identify when dihydrogen (H2) act as a limiting reagent in the following
reaction mixtures.

(1) 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2
(2) 35 g of N2 + 8 g of H2
(3) 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2
(4) 28 g of N2 + 8 g of H2

25) A compound contains 54.55% carbon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. The empirical
formula of this compound is :

(1) C3H5O
(2) C4H8O2
(3) C2H4O2
(4) C2H4O

26) The pairs which illustrate the law of multiple proportions is :

(1) PH3, HCl

(2) CuCl2, CuSO4
(3) PbO, PbO2
(4) H2S, SO2

27) A bivalent metal has an atomic mass of 64u. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate (in amu) is :

(1) 182
(2) 168
(3) 192
(4) 188

28) An organic compound has an empirical formula (CH2O). Its vapour density is 45. The molecular
formula of the compounds is :

(1) CH2O
(2) C2H5O
(3) C2H2O
(4) C3H6O3

29) Assertion (A) : Molality of a solution does not change with temperature.
Reason (R) : Mass is affected with temperature.

(1) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct; R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct; R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect; R is correct.

30) Gram-atomic mass of carbon is :

(1) 12
(2) 12 g
(3) 12 amu
(4) 6 amu

31) How many moles of NaOH are there in 2L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution ?
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.2

32) Which of the following concentration term depends upon temperature ?

(1) Molality
(2) Molarity
(3) Mole fraction
(4) Mass percent

33) Air contains 20% O2 by volume. How much volume of air will be required for combustion of 100
cc of acetylene ?

(1) 500 cc
(2) 1064 cc
(3) 212.8 cc
(4) 1250 cc

34) and are the examples of

(1) isobars
(2) isotopes
(3) isotones
(4) isoelectronic

35) The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is :

(1) Cr3+, Fe3+

(2) Fe3+, Mn2+
(3) Fe3+, Co3+
(4) Sc3+, Cr3+

SECTION - B

1) In the reaction
8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9Fe
the number of moles of electrons transfered by 1 mol of reductant :-

(1) 24
(2) 8
(3) 3
(4) 12
2) Which of the following shows nitrogen with its increasing order of oxidation number ?

+ –
(1) NH4 < N2O < NO < NO2 < NO3
+ –
(2) NH4 < N2O < NO2 < NO < NO3
+ –
(3) NH4 < NO < N2O < NO2 < NO3
– +
(4) N2O < NO < NO2 < NO3 < NH4

3) Oxidation state of cobalt in

[Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]SO4 is

(1) 0
(2) +4
(3) –2
(4) +3

4) At 298 K the value of is maximum for which of the following reaction.

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

(2) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
(3) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g)
(4) A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 5C(g)

5) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g) Initially pressure is 6 atm and total pressure at equilibrium is 10 atm. Then
find out KP :-

(1) 1 atm
(2) 8 atm
(3) 16 atm
(4) 4 atm

6) Active mass of 10 g CaCO3(s) :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.01

7) The equilibrium constant value KP for the equilibrium :

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) changes with :-

(1) Total pressure

(2) Temperature
(3) Catalyst
(4) Amount of H2 and I2 present
8) : K1
: K2
The equilibrium constants are relate to each other as :

(1) K2 = K1
4
(2) K2 = (K1)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following solution will have pH = 7?

(1)
100 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(2)
100 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(3)
50 mL, HCl + 100 mL, NaOH

(4)
50 mL, HCl + 50 mL, NaOH

10) Amongst the following solutions, the buffer solution is : (equal moles of both compounds are
taken)

(1) NH4Cl + NH4OH solution

(2) NH4Cl + NaOH solution
(3) NH4OH + HCl solution
(4) NaOH + HCl solution

11) Which aqueous solution of salt will have highest pH :-

(1) HCOOK
(2) NH4Cl
(3) MgSO4
(4) NaCl

12) The pH of solution is increased from 3 to 6. Its H+ ion concentration will be :-

(1) Reduced to half

(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 1000 times
(4) Increased by 1000 times

13)
Which of the following will not undergo hydrolysis in water :-

(1) Sodium sulphate

(2) Ammonium sulphate
(3) Copper sulphate
(4) All the salts will hydrolyse

14) Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in the compound :

(1) CaOCl2
(2) COCl2
(3) KClO3
(4) Cl2O7

15) The equilibrium constant (KP) for the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of the
container is reduced to one-half of its original volume, the value of KP for the reaction at the same
temperature will be :-

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 16
(4) 4

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Algin and agar-agar are phycocolloids found in:-

(1) Red algae and brown algae respectively

(2) Green algae and red algae respectively
(3) Green algae and brown algae respectively
(4) Brown algae and red algae respectively

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect for cycas plant :-

(1) Coralloid roots are present.

(2) Needle like leaves are present.
(3) Dioecious plant.
(4) Female cone is absent.

3) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II
 (i) Algae (a) Naked seed

(ii) Bryophyta (b) Prothallus

Sporophyte depends
(iii) Pteridophyta (c)
on gametophyte

(iv) Gymnosperm (d) Zygotic meiosis

(1) (i)-a, (iv)-b, (iii)-c, (ii)-d
(2) (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c, (i)-d
(3) (iii)-b, (ii)-c, (i)-d, (iv)-a
(4) (iv)-a, (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d

4) How many of the following statements are incorrect for mosses ?

(A) Gametophyte consist of two stages i.e. protonema stage and leafy stage.
(B) Vegetative reproduction in mosses is by fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema.
(C) Sex organs are produced at the apex of protonema.
(D) Sporophyte in mosses is less developed than that in liverworts.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Assertion: Majority of pteridophytes are heterosporous.

Reason: Majority of bryophytes are heterosporous.

(1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct R is incorrect.
(4) A & R are incorrect.

6) Chlorophyceae usually have a rigid cellwall of an inner layer of ____A____ and an outer layer of
____B____.

(1) A - Cellulose, B - Pectose

(2) A - Algin, B - Pectose
(3) A - Cellulose, B - Cellulose
(4) A - Pectose, B - Cellulose

7) Precursor of seed habit is seen in

(1) Funaria
(2) Equisetum
(3) Selaginella
(4) Adiantum

8) Assertion : In gymnosperm the male and female gametophytes do not have independent free
living existence.
Reason : All gymnosperm exclusively show heterosporous nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion : Gymnosperms don't produce fruit.

Reason : Ovules of gymnosperms are not enclosed by ovary wall.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Assertion A: Mosses and lichens are the pioneer species in the process of ecological succession
and play a crucial role in soil formation.
Reason R: By decomposing rocks, mosses make the substrate suitable for the growth of higher
plants and prevent soil erosion.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

11) The correct sequence of evolution is :

(1) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Dicots → Monocots

(2) Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Dicots → Monocots → Bryophyta
(3) Bryophyta ® Gymnosperms ® Dicots ® Monocots ® Angiosperms
(4) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Monocots → Dicots

12) Boundaries of kingdom_______ are not well defined.

(1) Plantae
(2) Animalia
(3) Protista
(4) Fungi

13) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) A virus contains both RNA and DNA as a genetic material

(2) Prions consist of protein only
(3) Viroids are smaller than viruses
(4) Viroids are made up of only RNA and lack the protein coat
14) Mismatched in following is -

(1) Sporangiospores - Endogenous

(2) Basidiospores - Endogenous
(3) Conidia - Exogenous
(4) Ascospores - Endogenous

15) The organisms which are present in the elementary canal of cows and buffaloes are present in
the elementary canal of cows and buffaloes and responsible for the production of biogas are known
as–

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Green algae
(4) Methanogens

16) Assertion : Chlamydomonas and chlorella are member of kingdom protista.

Reason : Chlamydomonas and chlorella are single cell eukaryotic organism.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

17) Refer to the statement and answer the question. "Once the sexual stage of members of
deuteromycetes were discovered, they were often moved to X and Y." Identify X and Y.

(1) X - Monera ; Y - Protista

(2) X - Basidiomycetes ; Y - Cyanophyceae
(3) X - Ascomycetes ; Y - Basidiomycetes
(4) X - Phycomycetes ; Y – Archaebacteria

18) Cytotaxonomy is based on :-

(1) Chromosome number

(2) Chromosome structure
(3) Chromosome behaviour
(4) All of these

19) Kingdom - Plantae

Division - Angiospermae
Class - Dicotyledonae
Order - "A"
Family - "B"
Genus - Mangifera
Species - Mangifera indica
Identify A and B in given classification.

(1) A - Fabaceae, B - Poales

(2) A - Sapindales, B-Anacardiaceae
(3) A - Poales, B - Solanaceae
(4) A - Diptera, B - Muscidae

20) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Systematics is the study of diversity and relationships among organisms

(2) The word systematics is derived from the latin word 'systema'
(3) Systematics means systematic arrangement of organisms
(4) Systematics does not take into account the evolutionary relationships between organisms.

21) Which of the following statements are incorrect

(A) Most common method of reproduction in bacteria is binary fission
(B) Mycoplasma are organisms that cannot survive without oxygen
(C) Bacteria adopt a primitive method of transfer of genetic material from one bacteria to another
bacteria called genetic recombination.
(D) Gram negative bacteria is having single layer cell wall.

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) B only
(4) B and D

22) When we move from triticum to plantae in taxonomic hierarchy the :-

(I) Specificity ___a___
(II) Common characters ___b___
(III) General characters ___c___

a b c

(1) Decrease Decrease Increase

(2) Increase Increase Decrease

(3) Increase Decrease Decrease

(4) Decrease Increase Increase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Find the correct statements from the followings

(A)Each rank or taxon, in fact represents a unit of classification
(B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents a rank or category
(C) A taxonomic category is a part of ovarall taxonomic hierarchy
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct biological entities, they are only morphological aggregates

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) A, C & D are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct
(4) Only A and B are correct

24) Which of the following statements are not true ?

"Family" is a group of genera with still less number of similarites as compared to genus &
(1)
species.
(2) "Species" is group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
(3) "Order" is the assemblage of families.
(4) Taxonomic categories are mere morphological aggregates.

25) Stored food of red algae and green algae are, respectively :-

(1) Starch and floridean starch

(2) Laminarin and starch
(3) Floridean starch and laminarin
(4) Floridean starch and starch

26) Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed
habit because :-

(1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte

(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.
(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
(4) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.

27) Green, multicellular, asexual buds germinate to form new individuals in liverworts and are
called–

(1) Tuber
(2) Zoospores
(3) Gemmae
(4) Antipodals

28) In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called ______ and ______ respectively.

(1) microsporangia; macrosporangia

(2) male strobili; female strobili
(3) antheridia; archegonia
(4) androecium; gynoecium

29) Holdfast, stipe and frond consitute the plant body in case of
(1) Volvox
(2) Chara
(3) Laminaria
(4) Chlamydomonas

30) Volvox, Ulothrix, spirogyra, Chara, Dictyota, Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, Porphyra and
Polysiphonia, etc., are the examples of organism. Number of organism which having chlorophyll a
and chlorophyll c are

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Seven
(4) Five

31) Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum, Lycopodium, Pteris belong to how many classes of
pteridophyte

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

32) In cycas, endosperm cell have 20 chromosomes then how many chromosomes are present in
nucellus.

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 10

33) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II

(a) Kingdom (i) Pardus

(b) Order (ii) Panthera

(c) Family (iii) Fungi

(d) Genus (iv) Canidae

(e) Species (v) Rannales

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-v, (c)-iv, (d)-ii, (e)-i
(2) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-v, (d)-ii, (e)-i
(3) (a)-iii, (b)-v, (c)-ii, (d)-iv, (e)-i
(4) (a)-i, (b)-v, (c)-ii, (d)-iv, (e)-iii

34) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
 Column-I Column-II

a Order 1 Solanum

b Kingdom 2 Solanaceae

c Family 3 Plantae

d Genus 4 S. tuberosum

e Species 5 Polymoniales
Codes :
a b c d e

(1) 5 3 2 1 4

(2) 4 2 5 3 1

(3) 1 5 3 4 2

(4) 3 4 1 5 2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) In the following flow diagram, identify the correct categories according to the taxonomic
hierarchy.

(a) Primata, diptera and carnivora belong to category 1

(b) Petunia, Datura and Solanum belongs to same category 2
(c) Angiospermae belongs to category 5
(d) Man and dog shows maximum similarity at category 4
(e) Category 3 is same for lion, tiger and leopard
Select the correct statement:

(1) a, b, d, e
(2) b, c, d, e
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, e

SECTION - B

1) About how many species are known and described till how ?

(1) 30 millions
(2) 1.7 to 1.8 millions
(3) 0.2 millions
(4) 17 millions

2) Arrange the following taxa in ascending order according to their rank in taxonomic hierarchy
(A) Angiospermae (B) Anacardiaceae
(C) Mangifera (D) Dicotyledonae

(1) A → D → B → C
(2) C → D → B → A
(3) A → B → D → C
(4) C → B → D → A

3) Taxonomy classify organisms into different taxa. Which one is not the basis of modern taxonomic
studies?

(1) Structure of cell

(2) Developmental process
(3) Ecological information
(4) Evolutionary relationship

4) The given flow chart represents the hierarchy of various taxonomic categories. Identify the
missing categories (P, Q and R) and select the correct statement regarding this :-
(R) → Phylum/Div → (Q) → order → (P)
(i) P is the taxonomic category which contains a number of related genera.
(ii) Examples of category Q are monocotyledonae, dicotyledonae, Mammalia etc.
(iii) R represents the basic unit of taxonomic categories.
(iv) Examples of category R are fungi, monera, protista, plantae etc.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

5) Who is known as 'The Darwin of 20th century'?

(1) Lamarck
(2) Ernst Mayr
(3) Carolus Linnacus
(4) Robert May

6) Metabolic reactions take place

(1) In vitro
(2) In vivo
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only in unicellular organisms

7) Organisms that can sense and response to environmental cues ?

(1) Eukaryotes only

(2) Prokaryotes only
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Those with a well-developed neuroendocrine system

8) ICBN stands for

(1) International Code for Biosphere Nomenclature

(2) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(3) International Class for Biological Nobel laureate
(4) International committee for Biological Naming

9) The descending arrangement of categories is called

(1) Classification
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Hierarchy
(4) Key

10) Genera of Petunia and Datura belongs to the family

(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Any of these

11) What is/are the criteria used by Whittaker for classification ?

1. Cell structure
2. Thallus organization
3. Mode of nutrition
4. Mode of reproduction
5. Phylogenetic relationship
6. Biochemical difference
7. Physiological character

(1) All except 5 and 6

(2) All except 5 and 7
(3) All except 6 and 7
(4) All except 3 and 4

12) Identify structure 'A' in the given diagram. Spore

(1) dsDNA
(2) Plasmid
(3) Spore
(4) Cosmid

13) Naked DNA (without histone) as genetic material is found in

(1) Neurospora
(2) Agaricus
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Alternaria

14) Euglena possess all except

(1) Pellicle
(2) Two equal flagella
(3) Two unequal flagella
(4) Mixotrophic nutrition

15) Sleeping sickness is caused by

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Paramecium
(3) Trypanosoma
(4) Entamoeba

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A
1) Which type of tissue has maximum power of regeneration ?

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

2) In following Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present :-

(1) Interdigitation
(2) PCT
(3) Stomach
(4) Gall bladder

3) Fill in the blanks :-

a. The ....1.... consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function as it does in our skin.
b. The ....2.... is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts
and tubes.

(1) 1–squamous epithelium, 2–cuboidal epithelium

(2) 1–columnar epithelium, 2–squamous epithelium
(3) 1–simple epithelium, 2–compound epithelium
(4) 1–compound epithelium, 2–simple epithelium

4) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cubical epithelium

5) Articular cartilage is an example of :-

(1) Hyaline cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

6) Which of the following animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

(1) Ctenophores
(2) Cnidarians
(3) Sponges
(4) Round worms

7) Pick the odd pair:-

(1) Cellular - Porifera
(2) Tissue level - Aschelminthes
(3) Organ level - Platyhelminthes
(4) Organ system level - Annelida

8) Digestive system is complete first in which phylum ?

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

9) __________ is responsible for maintaining the current of water in sponge.

(1) Osculum
(2) Porocytes
(3) Spongocoel
(4) Choanocytes

10) Which animal of coelenterata shows metagenesis ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Jelly fish
(3) Obelia
(4) Aurelia

11) What is common to Earthworm, Nereis and Leech ?

(1) Bilateral symmetry

(2) Metamerism
(3) Coelomate
(4) All of the above

12) In echinoderms the excretory system is :-

(1) Malpighian tubules

(2) Nephridia
(3) Proboscis gland
(4) Absent
13) Choose incorrect option about figure given below :-

(1) The body is divided into anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk
(2) Circulatory system is of closed type
(3) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(4) Fertilisation is external

14) Select the incorrect statement about mollusca :-

(A) Only aquatic animals
(B) Organ - system level organisation
(C) Body divided into head, trunk and foot
(D) Usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect development
(E) Gills are related with excretion only.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, C, E
(3) A, B, E
(4) C, D, E

15) Assertion: A closed circulatory system is found in annelids.

Reason: Annelids possess true coelom.

(1) The assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) The assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

16) Animals belonging to phylum chordate are fundamentally characterized by the presence of

(1) Notochord
(2) Hollow nerve cord
(3) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
(4) All of the above

17) In which of the following organism notochord is persistent throughout the life?

(1) Herdmania
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Ascidia
(4) Balanoglossus

18) Petromyzon have :

(1) Bony cranium and vertebral column

(2) Scales and Paired fins
(3) Cartilagenous cranium and vertebral column
(4) 4-7 pairs of gill clefts

19) Exocoetus shows many characters of bony fishes except :-

(1) Terminal mouth

(2) Two chambered heart
(3) Devoid of air bladder
(4) Devoid of claspers

20) The amphibians are characterized by

(1) Scaleless, smooth moist and glandular skin

(2) Claws present at the tip of digits
(3) Monocondylic skull
(4) Only aquatic habitat

21) Which of the following pair is unmatched for the animals of Reptilia class :-

(1) Temperature constant and external fertilisation

(2) Sexes seperate and lack of Metamorphosis
(3) 12 pairs cranial nerves and rough skin
(4) Skull monocondylic and skin with scales

22) What is common in Corvus, Columba, Neophron and Pavo ?

(1) Skin is wet due to Preen glands

(2) External fertilisation
(3) Crop and gizzard are present
(4) All are poikilothermal

23) Which of the following is a flight less bird ?

(1) Pigeon
(2) Ostrich
(3) Crow
(4) Peacock

24) Assertion (A) :- Sea-horse is an aquatic mammal.

Reason (R) :- Sea horse has milk producing glands.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

25) What is correct about the most common species of frog in India ?

(1) Colour of dorsal side is olive green with dark irregular spots
(2) 5 digits in forelimbs, 4 digits in hindlimbs
(3) Male frog lacks vocal sacs
(4) It performs hibernation but not aestivation

26) Alimentary canal is short in frog due to ?

(1) Carnivorous nature

(2) Omnivorous nature
(3) Herbivorous nature
(4) Frugivorous nature

27) Compared to those of humans the erythrocytes in frogs are:

(1) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin

(2) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(3) Very much smaller and fewer
(4) Nucleated and without haemoglobin

28) The triangular sac like structure which receives blood through the vena cava in frog is:

(1) Ventricle
(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Hepatic portal system
(4) Conus arteriosus

29) What is the function of mesorchium in frog ?

(1) Connect kidney to ovary

(2) Connect testis to kidney
(3) Connect liver to gall bladder
(4) Connect head to trunk

30) How many ova are laid by mature female frog at a time ?

(1) 2000–5000
(2) 2500–5000
(3) 2500–3000
(4) 100–500
31) Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names
labelled A, B, C and D :-

A B C D

Fat Bidder's Vasa

(1) Ureter
bodies canal efferentia

Fat Bidder's Vasa

(2) Ureter
bodies canal efferentia

Adrenal Bidder's Vasa

(3) Ureter
gland canal efferentia

Adrenal Bidder's Vasa

(4) Testes
gland canal efferentia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect one

(1) In male frog cloaca is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperm to outside
(2) there is no functional connection in ovaries and kidneys in female frog
(3) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000 eggs at a time
(4) In frog fertilization is external and development is direct through the larval stage called tadpole

33) The blood of frog :-

(1) Is composed of corpuscles but lack plasma

(2) Contain RBCS, WBCS and platelets or thrombocytes and plasma
(3) Contain RBCS which are oval, biconvex and nucleated
(4) Is related of more than one options mentioned above

34) Identify the structure of mouth part of cockroach shown below as well as its related correct
function and select the correct option for the two together ?

Name of structure Function

(1) Labrum Acts as upper lip

(2) Labium Acts as lower lip

(3) Mandible Biting and chewing of food

(4) Hypopharyx Acts as tongue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) In male Cockroach the genital pouch is formed by :-

(1) 5, 6, 7th tergum

(2) 6, 7, 8th tergum
(3) 7, 8, 9th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th tergum

SECTION - B

1) Mark the incorrect statement regarding the animal shown in the figure below:

(1) Body is dorso-ventrally flat, unsegmented and leaf like.

(2) Flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation.
(3) Absorbs nutrients from the host directly through body surface.
(4) Fertilisation is internal and development is through many larval stages.

2) The figure below shows three different animals (A, B, C). Select the option giving correct
identification together with their common name and development either oviparous or viviparous :-

(1) C-Macropus- Flying fox, Oviparous

(2) A-Rattus- Rat, Viviparous
(3) B-Pteropus - Kangaroo, Oviparous
(4) A-Ornithorhynchus-Platypus, Oviparous

3) In frogs :-

(1) Respiration by lungs is called pulmonary respiration

(2) The lungs are a pair elongated, pink coloured sacs present below the thorax
(3) During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin
(4) Both (1) & (3) are correct

4) Female frogs do not have:

(1) Tympanum
(2) Nictitating membrane
(3) Vocal sacs and copulatory pads
(4) Hibernation and aestivation

5) Assertion :- In frog development is indirect and its larva is called tadpole.

Reason :- Ferilization in frog occurs externally.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

6) Generally cockroach is __(I)__ coloured insect, however in tropical region, they have been
reported to be __(II)__ coloured.:-

(1) (I) brown or red, (II) yellow, purple and white

(2) (I) brown or black, (II) yellow, red and green
(3) (I) brown or yellow, (II) red, green, white
(4) (I) red or yellow, (II) brown, green, black
7) Chitinous exoskeleton in each segment of cockroach, consist of :-

(1) Dorsal sternum & ventral tergum

(2) Dorsal tergum & ventral sternum
(3) Dorsal sternum & lateral pleuron
(4) Dorsal tergum & ventral pleuron

8) Number of ommatidia in a cockroach is _____.

(1) 2000
(2) 4000
(3) 6000
(4) 1000

9) Given below is a diagram of the head region of cockroach with certain labeling. Find out the

option which include all correct labelling

(1) A-compound eye B-Ocellus

(2) C-Mandible D-Labium
(3) E-labrum F-Maxilla
(4) G-Antenna D-Labium

10) Match List–I with List-II regarding the organs of Cockroach:

List–I List–II

(a) Crop (i) grinding the food particles

(b) Proventriculus (ii) secretion of digestive juice

(c) Hepatic caecae (iii) removal of nitrogenous waste

(d) Malpighian tubules (iv) storage of food

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
11) Given below is the figure of open circulatory system of cockroach. Identify A,B and C and choose
the correct option ?

A = Ostia
(1)
B = Allary muscles C = Heart chamber
A = Allary muscles
(2)
B = Ostia C = Heart chamber
A. Anterior Aorta
(3)
B. Allary muscles C. Heart chambers
A = Anterior Aorta
(4)
B = Turgosternal muscles C = Atrial chamber+

12) In following diagram identify the structures A, B and C.

(1) A–ovary, B–spermatheca, C–colleterial gland

(2) A–spermatheca, B–colleterial gland, C–ovary
(3) A–colleterial gland, B–spermatheca, C–ovary
(4) A–phallic gland, B–spermatheca, C–colleterial gland

13) Which cartilage is present on the end of long bones ?

(1) Elastic cartilage

(2) Fibrous cartilage
(3) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

14)

The following figure represent a tissue, this tissue is found in :-

(1) PCT
(2) Fallopian tube and stomach
(3) Fallopian tube and Bronchioles
(4) Blood vessels and air sacs

15) Assertion :- The cells of all connective tissues except blood secrete fibres.
Reason :- The fibres provide elasticity, strength and flexibility to the tissue.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 4 4 4 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 4 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 1 4

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 2 2 2 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 4 4 4 2 4

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) and =
⇒

So

7) F = Aαvβργ
or [MLT]–2 = [L2]α[LT–1]β[ML–3]γ
= [MγL2α+β–3γT–β]
This gives: γ = 1, β = 2
and 2α + β – 3γ = 1
or α = 1; F = Av2ρ

8) E = KFa Ab Tc

a = 1, a + b = 2 ⇒ b = 1
and – 2a – 2b + c = – 2 ⇒ c = 2
∴ E = KFAT2

9)

10) Here

12) Mean of observation

= = 1.25 s
Mean absolute error

= = 0.02 s

% error = = 1.6%

16)
 One main scale division, 1 M.S.D. = x cm
One vernier scale division, 1 V.S.D. =
Least count = 1M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D.

= =

19) L.C. =
Diameter = (8 × 0.5) + (83 × 0.005) mm
= [400 + 0.415] mm
= 4.415 mm

22)
N = 500 N
fL = μN = 0.2 × 500 = 100.0 N
fD = 5g = 50
fD < fL
fr = fD = 50 N

24)

25)

Let v' be velocity of block.

v' cos (90–θ) = v

v' sin θ = v

v' =

30)

At steady state acceleration of both block will be same

So
T = kx = 6 × 4

x=

31)

T2 > T1 > T3
thus x2 > x1 > x3

32)
Fsp = 2 × 2a
36N – Fsp = 5a ⇒ Fsp = 16N
⇒ δ = m = 16 cm

34)
=
= 35 - 25 + 125 = 135 J

35)

t=
x = (t – 3)2
x = t2 – 6t + 9

v= = 2t – 6
at t = 1 sec, v = 2(1) – 6 ⇒ –4m/s
at t = 5 sec, v = 2(5) – 6 ⇒ 4m/s

W=0

36)
 ⇒

Work done, W =

= = 33 + 4 × 0 – (23 + 4 × 3)
= 27 + 0 – (8 + 12) = 27 – 20 = + 7 J
According to work energy theorem,
Change in the kinetic energy = Work done
ΔKE = + 7 J

37)

38)

The center of mass of the hanging part is at 0.3 m from table

Mass of hanging part = × 0.6 =1.2 kg

So, W = mgh= 1.2 x 10 x 0.3 = 3.6 J
(center of hanged part distance from top is taken as several points are located at different
distance from top)

39)

m = 50 kg, k = 100 Nm–1

v = 2 ms–1, μ = 0.1

x2 + x – 2 = 0
40)

41)
FV = 2x

44)

48)

Use =u+
Here a = 3 m/s2

on solving u = 1.5 m/s2

49)

= 20 sec
 50)

sin 37° =

∴
∴ VR = 120 cm/s

CHEMISTRY

51)

ΔE = q + w
∴ ΔE = (+50) + (+10) = 60 J

54)

For spontaneous process ΔG must be negative so, according to Gibb's energy equation
ΔH – T.ΔS < 0
ΔH < TΔS

∴ ⇒ T > 1000 K

55) Theory based

56) ΔG = – TΔSTotal

57) ΔH = Negative
ΔS = Positive
Always spontaneous condition at all temperature

58)

Adiabatic process
q=0

∴ ΔE = w

59)
On stretching of rubber, macromolecules are converted in uncoiled form which is more
ordered therefore entropy decreases.

60) ΔS =

61)

In adiabatic process, q = 0
From 1st Law
ΔU = q + W
ΔU = W
We know → ΔU = nCVΔT
W = nCVΔT
When gas is compressed, work is positive, which means, temperature will increase.
So final temperature will be higher than initial temperature.

62)

NCERT Pg. # 142

63)
∴ = – 94.2 + 2( –68.3) + 210.8
= – 20 kcal.

64) ΔHR = Σ(ΔHf)product – Σ(ΔHf)reactant

= –98.2 – (– 298.2) – ×0
= + 200 kJ

65) N2 + O2 → 2NO ΔH = + 24 kcal

→ NO ΔH = + 12 kcal

66)

C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

67)

Na(s) →Na(g) sublimation or Atomization

68)

2Cl (g) → Cl2 (g)

For association, exothermic
ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
n is decreasing

69)

ΔStotal > 0 for spontaneous process

70) NCERT 23-24, Page No. # 138, Part-1, Unit-5.

71) NCERT XI, Part-I, Pg # 176, 177 Edition 2017

For reversible process, when constant heat is given to system then entropy change is inversely
proportional to the temperature.

ΔS =

72)

Given, % of element (M) = 68 %

and of oxygen (O) = 32 %
Atomic mass of M = 34
Atomic mass of O = 16
Thus, empirical formula of MxOy is
element → % of mass → moles (n)
M → 68 → 68/34 = 2
O → 32 → 32/16 = 2
Hence, empirical formula of given compound is M2O2 or MO.

73) (i) Density of water = 1 g/mL

∵ 1000 mL = 1000 g
(ii) Number of moles of water in 1000 g (n) = w/m

n= = 55.56 moles

∴ Number of moles in 1 mL of water (n) =

(n) = 0.0556 moles
(iii) ∵ 1 mL of H2O contain 20 drops

∴ Number of moles of H2O in one drop =

(n) per drop = 0.0027

(iv) ∵
N = n × NA = 0.002 × 6.023 × 1023
N = 0.0162 × 1023 = 1.62 × 1021 molecules
 74)

When 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 is taken as a combination then dihydrogen (H2) act as a limiting

reagent in the reaction.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ...(I)
2 × 14 g 3 × 2 g 2(14 × 3)
28 g 6g 34 g
28 g N2 requires 6g H2 gas.

56 g of N2 requires × 56 g = 12 g of H2
12 g of H2 gas is required for 56 g of N2 gas but only 10 g of H2 gas is present in option (1).
Hence, H2 gas is the limiting reagent.
In option (2) , i.e., 35 g of N2 + 8g of H2
As 28 g N2 required 6 g of H2.

35 g N2 required × 35 g H2
⇒ 7.5 g of H2.
Here, H2 gas does not act as limiting reagent since 7.5 g of H2 gas is required for 35 g of N2
and 8g of H2 is present in reaction mixture.
Mass of H2 left unreacted = 8 – 7.5 g of H2 = 0.5 g of H2
Similarly, in option (3) and (4), H2 does not act as limiting reagent.
For 14 g of N2 + 4g or H2.
As we know, 28 g of N2 reacts with 6g of H2.

14 g of N2 reacts with × 14 g of H2
⇒ 3g of H2.
For 28 g of N2 + 6g or H2, i.e., 28 g of N2 reacts with 6 g of H2(by equation I).

75)

Element % At. weight % Atomic weight Simplest molar ratio

C 54.55 12
= 4.54 =2

H 9.09 1
= 9.09 =4

O 36.36 16
= 2.27 =1

∵ Empirical formula is C2H4O.

76)

CuCl2, CuSO4 illustrate the law of multiple proportions. Here, Cu is reacting with two different
components to produce two different compounds.

77)
Atomic mass of the metal = 64 u
Formula of metal nitrate = M(NO3)2
∴ Molecular mass = 64 + 28 + 96 = 188 u

79)

Molality of a solution does not change which temperature, since mass remains unaffected with
temperature.

83)

2C2H2 + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O

2cc 5cc
100 cc 250cc

Hence, air will be needed = × 250 = 1250 cc.

84) and are the examples of isobars having same mass number but different atomic
numbers.

85) 24Cr = [Ar]3d5, 4s124Cr3+ = [Ar]3d3

6 2 3+
26Fe = [Ar]3d , 4s 26Fe = [Ar]3d5
5 2 2+
25Mn = [Ar]3d , 4s 25Mn = [Ar]3d5
7 2 3+
27Co = [Ar]3d , 4s 27Co = [Ar]3d6
1 2 3+
21Sc = [Ar]3d , 4s 21Sc = [Ar]
3+ 2+
Thus, Fe and Mn have the same electronic configuration.

86)
R.A.
Change in oxidation no. of
reductant = moles of electrons transferred by
1 mol reductant = 3

87) x = –3, N2O x = 1

NO x = +2, NO2 x = 4, x=5

88)

[Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]SO4
x+0–1–2=0
x = +3
89)

90) PCl5 ⇌ PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)

6 atm 0 0
(6-x)atm x atm x atm
6 + x = 10
x=4

91)

Active mass of solid = 1

92)

Equilibrium constant changes with T.

93)

Flip the first reaction & multiply by 4.

94)

N1V1 = N2V2

95)

Basic buffer WB + salt (WBSA)

96) HCOOK (WASB)

pH =

97)

pH = 3, [H+] = 10–3M = N1

pH = 6, [H+] = 10–6M = N2 ⇒ N2 = × N1
+
if pH is changed from 3 to 6, [H ] ion concentration reduced by 1000 times.

98)

SASB salt does not undergo hydrolysis

 99)

In CaOCl2; O.S. of Cl is –1 & +1.

100)

Equilibrium constant depends only on temperature.

BOTANY

101) NCERT Pg. # 32, 3.1

102)

NCERT Pg. # 32, 33

103)

NCERT Pg. # 28, 32

104)

NCERT Pg. # 30

105)

MQ NCERT 36-39

108) NCERT - Pg. # 39

109) NCERT Page No. 38

110) The assertion is true as mosses and lichens are often the first organisms to colonize bare
rocks, starting the process of ecological succession that leads to soil formation. The reason is
also true and is the correct explanation for the assertion because by decomposing rocks,
mosses contribute to the formation of soil, which is necessary for the growth of higher plants.
Additionally, the dense mats formed by mosses help in reducing soil erosion by cushioning the
impact of falling rain.

118) NCERT XI, Page # 30

120) NCERT XI Pg. # 8, para 1.2

 122) NCERT Pg. # 10,11

124) NCERT XI Pg # 9,10

126)

NCERT XI Pg. # 38

131)

NCERT XI, Pg # 38 ; Para : 2nd

133)

NCERT Pg. # 9, 10

136)

NCERT Pg. # 6

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 11, Table 1.1

138)

NCERT Reference:
Botany-XI Page No.- 8

ZOOLOGY

151)

Greater power of regeneration - Epithelial tissues

Least power of regeneration - Nervous tissue

153) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101, Ist para

157)

Ncert Page 47.

160) NCERT Pg. # 50

161) Allen Module Page No. 59.

163) NCERT XI Pg. # 54, Para-4.2.10, Fig-4.15

167)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

168) Module Pg. # 32

169) NCERT Pg. # 57

174) NCERT Pg. No. 48

176) NCERT Pg No. # 81

178)

NCERT Pg No : 118

180) NCERT Pg. # 120

181) NCERT Eng- Page - 119 ,Dia. - 7.21

184)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112

187) NCERT Pg.# 59-60

189) NCERT Page No.-116

190) NCERT XI Pg. # 120

191) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 111

192) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 112

195)

NCERT Pg. # 113

200)
Fibroblasts are the main cells of C.T, which secrete various type of fibres.