Andhra Pradesh CJ 2025 PRE

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Subject Name : SCREENING TEST FOR CIVIL JUDGES
Creation Date : 2025-07-12 10:50:23
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SCREENING TEST FOR CIVIL JUDGES

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Civil Judge 2025

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Number of Questions : 100
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Sub-Section Id : 441009708235
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Question Number : 1 Question Id : 44100962920 Question Type : MCQ
Which of the following is true regarding the applicability of the CPC to Chartered High Courts?
Options :
441009250723. The CPC does not apply to Chartered High Courts.
441009250724. The CPC applies to Chartered High Courts only in the exercise of their appellate
jurisdiction.
441009250725. The CPC applies to Chartered High Courts except where specific rules have been
framed by the High Court.
441009250726. The CPC applies to Chartered High Courts only in suits involving the government.

Question Number : 2 Question Id : 44100964960 Question Type : MCQ

As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC), Sections 96 to 99-A, 107, read with which of the
following provisions of the CPC, deals with first appeal?
Options :
441009258835. Order 41
441009258836. Order 31
441009258837. Order 21
441009258838. Order 11

Question Number : 3 Question Id : 44100964967 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 114 of The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (Code), any person considering himself
aggrieved by a decree or order from which no appeal is allowed by this Code, may apply for which of the
following?
Options :
441009258867. Reference
441009258868. Review
441009258869. Revision
441009258870. Renewal

Question Number : 4 Question Id : 44100977296 Question Type : MCQ

A suit by or against a minor must comply with which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
Options :
441009307182. Section 88
441009307183. Order XXXII Rule 1
441009307184. Order VII Rule 11
441009307185. Order XX Rule 3
Question Number : 5 Question Id : 44100977306 Question Type : MCQ
Under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, the Rule Committee shall be constituted at:
Options :
441009307228. Any place as decided by the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
441009307229. The capital of the state where the High Court is located
441009307230. The town which is the usual place of sitting of each High Court
441009307231. The headquarters of the District Court

Question Number : 6 Question Id : 44100988245 Question Type : MCQ

The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, has come into force from:
Options :
441009350933. 1 January 1908
441009350934. 1 January 1909
441009350935. 1 July 1908
441009350936. 1 March 1909

Question Number : 7 Question Id : 44100988247 Question Type : MCQ

The provision relating to execution of decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is provided under:
Options :
441009350949. Section 79
441009350950. Section 67
441009350951. Section 87
441009350952. Section 82

Question Number : 8 Question Id : 441009142714 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 39 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, if a decree directs the sale or delivery of
immovable property situated outside the local limits of the jurisdiction of the Court that passed it, then
which of the following follows?
Options :
441009566982. The Court which passed the decree may, on the application of the decree holder, send
it for execution to another Court of competent jurisdiction
441009566983. The Court which passed the decree may, on its own, send it for execution to another
Court of competent jurisdiction
441009566984. The Court which passed the decree may, on the application of the decree holder, send
it for execution to its hometown court
441009566985. The Court which passed the decree may, on the application of the judgement debtor,
allow appeal
Question Number : 9 Question Id : 441009142778 Question Type : MCQ
Which of the following sections, under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, prohibits unauthorised
persons to address Court?
Options :
441009567218. Sec 230
441009567219. Sec 12
441009567220. Sec 139
441009567221. Sec 119

Question Number : 10 Question Id : 44100964978 Question Type : MCQ

Which of the following is repealed from The Indian Contract Act 1872 and now part of Sale of Goods
Act 1930?
Options :
441009258919. Mistakes as to law
441009258920. Frustration
441009258921. Warranty
441009258922. Fraud

Question Number : 11 Question Id : 44100977322 Question Type : MCQ

A, a tradesman, leaves goods at B’s house by mistake. B treats the goods as his own. In this context,
which of the following is true?
Options :
441009307288. B can keep the goods without any obligation to pay since he did not order them.
441009307289. If B is unaware of the mistake, he has no duty to return or pay for the goods.
441009307290. If B knowingly uses the goods, he must compensate A for them.
441009307291. A cannot claim payment from B under any circumstances.

Question Number : 12 Question Id : 44100977331 Question Type : MCQ

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which Chapter provided for specific provisions relating to resale on
the buyer's failure to perform:
Options :
441009307320. Chapter V
441009307321. Chapter VI
441009307322. Chapter VII
441009307323. Chapter VIII
Question Number : 13 Question Id : 441009106137 Question Type : MCQ
According to Section 3 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, communication, acceptance and revocation of
proposals is deemed to be made by which of the following?
Options :
441009422585. Any consideration
441009422586. Any favour
441009422587. Any reference
441009422588. Act or omission

Question Number : 14 Question Id : 441009106163 Question Type : MCQ

The promisee, in a contract of indemnity, acting within the scope of his authority, is entitled to recover
from the promisor, which of the following, under Section 125 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Options :
441009422687. Damages paid in matter of indemnity
441009422688. Loss suffered due to breach
441009422689. Future losses of opportunity as well
441009422690. Any past consideration pending

Question Number : 15 Question Id : 441009109288 Question Type : MCQ

What may be the consideration for a guarantee under Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Options :
441009434873. Anything done for the benefit of the principal debtor
441009434874. Anything done for the surety only
441009434875. Any condition fulfilled for the agent of surety
441009434876. Any promise for the recovery of debt

Question Number : 16 Question Id : 441009143879 Question Type : MCQ

Mr. A, a renowned businessman, is known for selling five different types of oil, and agrees to sell to B “a
hundred tons of oil”. What will be the legal effect of this agreement?
Options :
441009571489. Valid
441009571490. Void
441009571491. Voidable
441009571492. Immoral

Question Number : 17 Question Id : 44100964986 Question Type : MCQ

The Hindu Marriage Act 1955, generally applies to the following, EXCEPT:
Options :
441009258955. the Virashaivas
441009258956. the Lingayats
441009258957. the Buddhists
441009258958. the Parsis
Question Number : 18 Question Id : 44100977349 Question Type : MCQ
As per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, If two Hindus want to marry but fall within the degrees of
prohibited relationship, their marriage is valid only if ________.
Options :
441009307384. they obtain a court order
441009307385. their custom or usage allows it
441009307386. they take written consent from family members
441009307387. they declare their relationship publicly

Question Number : 19 Question Id : 44100977363 Question Type : MCQ

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, can a document be deemed inadmissible solely because it is not
duly stamped or registered?
Options :
441009307432. Yes, such documents are always inadmissible in a trial.
441009307433. No, they remain admissible in a trial under this Act.
441009307434. Only if both parties agree to its admissibility in a trial.
441009307435. It depends on the type of document in a trial.

Question Number : 20 Question Id : 441009109379 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 29 of the Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage solemnised before the Act’s
commencement shall not be declared invalid for which of the following reasons?
Options :
441009435237. The parties belonged to the same gotra.
441009435238. The parties belonged to the same tribe.
441009435239. The parties were sapindas of each other.
441009435240. The parties were within a prohibited relationship.

Question Number : 21 Question Id : 44100964993 Question Type : MCQ

The application of The Hindu Succession Act 1956, extends to the following, EXCEPT:

Options :
441009258987. any child whose parents are Hindus, Buddhists, Jainas or Sikhs by religion
441009258988. any person who is a Buddhist, Jaina or Sikh by religion
441009258989. any person who converted from the Hindu, Buddhist, Jaina or Sikh religion
441009258990. any member who is a Scheduled Tribe as per Article 356 (25) of the Indian
Constitution
Question Number : 22 Question Id : 44100977379 Question Type : MCQ
What is the legal term used when a deceased person’s property reverts to the state due to a lack of heirs
under the Hindu Sucession Act 1956?
Options :
441009307488. Succession
441009307489. Escheat
441009307490. Testamentary transfer
441009307491. Probate

Question Number : 23 Question Id : 441009109389 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if an intestate has left no heir qualified to succeed
to his property in accordance with the provisions of this Act, how such property shall devolve?
Options :
441009435277. Such property shall devolve upon the daughter.
441009435278. Such property shall devolve on the Government.
441009435279. Such property shall devolve on the nearest relative.
441009435280. Such property shall devolve on the wive’s relatives

Question Number : 24 Question Id : 441009142847 Question Type : MCQ

Who is an heir, as per The Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
Options :
441009567490. Any person, male or female, who is entitled to succeed the property of an intestate
under this Act
441009567491. Any person, male or female, who is entitled to repay the loan of his successors
441009567492. Any lawful legal successor under the Hindu Marriage Act
441009567493. Any person, male or female, who is entitled to succeed the property of the person who
dies, under the Indian Succession Act

Question Number : 25 Question Id : 44100964999 Question Type : MCQ

Through an Acquisition by prescription under the Indian Easements Act 1882, a person gains an
easement right over another's property, peacefully and continuously using that property without
interruption, for a period of how many years?
Options :
441009259015. Thirty
441009259016. Forty
441009259017. Twenty
441009259018. Ten
Question Number : 26 Question Id : 441009109394 Question Type : MCQ
According to Section 32 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, who is entitled to enjoy the easement
without disturbance by any other person?
Options :
441009435297. Tenant
441009435298. Owner or occupier
441009435299. Licensee
441009435300. Lessee

Question Number : 27 Question Id : 441009142896 Question Type : MCQ

Which of the following is an essential of apparent easement, under the Indian Easements Act, 1882?
Options :
441009567674. Shown by some temporary sign
441009567675. Shown by some permanent sign
441009567676. Capable of being transferred
441009567677. Not liable to any charge

Question Number : 28 Question Id : 44100990735 Question Type : MCQ

The specific relief can be granted for enforcing ________ only under Section 4 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963.
Options :
441009361090. Individual Civil Rights
441009361091. Constitutional Rights
441009361092. any rights against the public
441009361093. any legal rights against the public

Question Number : 29 Question Id : 44100990741 Question Type : MCQ

According to the provision of Section 34 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, any person entitled to any legal
character or right as to any property may institute a suit against a person denying or interested to deny his
title to such character or right. The court may, in its discretion, make a declaration that the person is so
entitled, and the plaintiff need not in such suit ask for any further ___________.
Options :
441009361116. compensation
441009361117. relief
441009361118. damages
441009361119. claims
Question Number : 30 Question Id : 44100990742 Question Type : MCQ
When may a perpetual injunction be granted to the plaintiff under Specific Releif Act, 1963?
Options :
441009361132. To prevent the breach of an obligation existing in another's favour
441009361133. To prevent the breach of an obligation existing in his favour, whether expressly or by
implication
441009361134. To prevent the breach of an obligation cretaed by tort
441009361135. No perpetual injunction can be granted

Question Number : 31 Question Id : 441009113037 Question Type : MCQ

A declaration made under Section 35 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, is binding upon whom?
Options :
441009449711. Only on the parties to the suit
441009449712. Only on the plaintiff
441009449713. Only on the defendant
441009449714. Only on the agents

Question Number : 32 Question Id : 441009142914 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 32 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, which instrument may be partially cancelled?
Options :
441009567746. When it is evident of different rights or obligations
441009567747. When it is evident of preemptory rights
441009567748. When it is difficult to prove
441009567749. When it is easily demonstrable

Question Number : 33 Question Id : 44100963127 Question Type : MCQ

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the limitation period for a suit filed by the
government?
Options :
441009251543. The limitation period is the same as for private individuals.
441009251544. The limitation period is extended by 30 years.
441009251545. The limitation period is extended by 60 years.
441009251546. The limitation period does not apply to the government.

Question Number : 34 Question Id : 44100977563 Question Type : MCQ

If a spouse seeks divorce after several years of separation, can the suit be dismissed solely on the grounds
of limitation under the Limitation Act, 1963?
Options :
441009308184. Yes, if more than three years have passed
441009308185. No, because its is saved by Section 29 of the Limitation Act 1963
441009308186. Yes, if the case is filed after 12 years
441009308187. No, because divorce cases cannot be filed after 6 months of separation
Question Number : 35 Question Id : 441009113105 Question Type : MCQ
According to Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in the case of a suit against a company being wound
up by the court, the suit is considered instituted when the:
Options :
441009449979. claim is filed in the court
441009449980. claimant sends in his claim to the official liquidator
441009449981. claimant sends his claim to the company management
441009449982. claim is filed with the registrar of the company

Question Number : 36 Question Id : 441009142925 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, what is the effect of fraud?
Options :
441009567786. The period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff or applicant has
discovered the fraud.
441009567787. The period of limitation is not applicable.
441009567788. The right gets expired.
441009567789. The right to file suit is extended by 4 years.

Question Number : 37 Question Id : 44100967360 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 6 of The Transfer of Property Act 1882, which of the following can be transferred?
Options :
441009268194. A mere right to sue
441009268195. A right to future maintenance
441009268196. An easement
441009268197. The dominant heritage

Question Number : 38 Question Id : 44100967363 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 58 (g) of The Transfer of Property Act 1882, which of the following statements is true
regarding an Anomalous Mortgage?
Options :
441009268206. A mortgage created only for agricultural land in rural areas
441009268207. Which does not fall under any defined categories such as simple, usufructuary or
mortgage by conditional sale
441009268208. Which is created through oral agreement and is not legally enforceable
441009268209. Where the entire ownership is transferred with no provision for redemption
Question Number : 39 Question Id : 441009113149 Question Type : MCQ
Which of the following is true regarding the operation of transfer under Section 8 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882?
Options :
441009450143. A transfer of property passes forthwith to the transferee only limited interest which
the transferor is having.
441009450144. A transfer passes to the transferee all the interest which the transferor is then capable
of passing in the property.
441009450145. A transfer passes to the transferee all the interest which the transferor is going to
acquire in the future.
441009450146. A transfer of property passes forthwith to the transferee only the rights of an agent.

Question Number : 40 Question Id : 441009113163 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, what is the price paid in a lease called?
Options :
441009450195. Consideration
441009450196. Promise
441009450197. Premium
441009450198. Instalment

Question Number : 41 Question Id : 441009142967 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 60 of The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, what is a suit for redemption?
Options :
441009567942. A suit to re-transfer the mortgaged property
441009567943. A suit to receive compensation
441009567944. A suit to enforce right against breach
441009567945. A suit to restrict future transfer

Question Number : 42 Question Id : 441009143953 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 130 of The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of actionable claim can be
effected:
Options :
441009571789. by the execution of an instrument in writing and signed
441009571790. by the execution of an instrument in verbal form
441009571791. by the execution of an instrument through voice recording
441009571792. by the execution of an instrument through video conferencing

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Question Number : 43 Question Id : 44100991002 Question Type : MCQ
According to AP Civil Rule of Practice, which of the following applications can be rejected with costs, as
per the statement provided?
Options :
441009362152. An application that does not prays for a substantive order related to the main suit
441009362153. An application that prays for interim relief pending the final hearing
441009362154. An application that merely prays for the dismissal of another application or for an
order that should be sought on the date fixed for hearing
441009362155. An application that introduces new evidence relevant to the appeal

Question Number : 44 Question Id : 441009113284 Question Type : MCQ

According to the Andhra Pradesh Civil Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, ‘Application’
includes execution application, execution petition, and which of the following?
Options :
441009450655. Interlocutory application, whether written or oral
441009450656. Decree of the court
441009450657. Executive order
441009450658. Execution petition

Question Number : 45 Question Id : 441009113348 Question Type : MCQ

According to Rule 30(19) of the Andhra Pradesh Civil Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, every
Vakalat shall, unless otherwise ordered by the Court, be in which of the following forms?
Options :
441009450903. Form No. 11
441009450904. Form No. 12
441009450905. Form No. 13
441009450906. Form No. 15

Question Number : 46 Question Id : 441009113412 Question Type : MCQ

According to Rule 93(2) of the Andhra Pradesh Civil Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, within
how many days should a party deposit with the Court the prescribed fee for the service of summons?
Options :
441009451159. 7 days from the date of making the application
441009451160. 10 days from the date of making the application
441009451161. 12 days from the date of making the application
441009451162. 13 days from the date of making the application
Question Number : 47 Question Id : 441009145108 Question Type : MCQ
What do you mean by 'proceeding' under Andhra Pradesh Civil Rules of Practice and Circular Orders,
1990?
Options :
441009576405. All documents filed in court except confession
441009576406. All documents filed in court except admission
441009576407. All documents filed in court other than documents produced as evidence
441009576408. All documents filed in court oral testimony

Question Number : 48 Question Id : 44100977599 Question Type : MCQ

As per the Indian Stamp Act 1899, what is the condition for the repayment of stamp duty when a
debenture is renewed?
Options :
441009308344. The application must be made within ten days of renewal
441009308345. The application must be made within fifteen days of renewal
441009308346. The application must be made within one month of renewal
441009308347. The application must be made within forty five days of renewal

Question Number : 49 Question Id : 441009113579 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 17 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, when shall all instruments chargeable with duty
and executed by any person in India, be stamped?
Options :
441009451814. Before or at the time of execution
441009451815. At the time of execution only
441009451816. Before execution only
441009451817. After the sale is completed

Question Number : 50 Question Id : 441009145128 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 34 of Indian Stamps Act, 1899, where any receipt chargeable with duty produced before
any officer unstamped in the course of the audit of any public account, such officer may in his discretion,
instead of _________ the instrument, require a duly stamped receipt to be substituted, therefore.
Options :
441009576481. cancelling
441009576482. impounding
441009576483. amending
441009576484. penalising
Question Number : 51 Question Id : 441009145136 Question Type : MCQ
As per Section 35 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, instruments not duly stamped are ___________.
Options :
441009576513. admissible in evidence
441009576514. inadmissible in evidence
441009576515. not relevant
441009576516. relevant

Question Number : 52 Question Id : 44100967427 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 2 of The Telangana Land Encroachment Act, 1905, a 'high water mark' refers to the
highest point reached by ordinary spring tides during ___________.
Options :
441009268474. winter season
441009268475. rainy season
441009268476. summer season
441009268477. any season

Question Number : 53 Question Id : 44100991054 Question Type : MCQ

The term ‘high water marks’, as mentioned in Section 2 of the Telangana Land Encroachment Act, 1905,
means:
Options :
441009362344. the highest point reached by ordinary spring tides at any season of the year
441009362345. the highest point reached by ordinary spring tides every 3 year
441009362346. the water mark mentioned in the sea or river
441009362347. the level of water marked in a year

Question Number : 54 Question Id : 44100991059 Question Type : MCQ

Under the Telangana Land Encroachment Act, 1905, the levy of assessment on lands unauthorisedly
occupied may be imposed by:
Options :
441009362364. Collector / Tehsildar / Deputy tehsildar
441009362365. Collector / District Magistrate / Executive Magistrate
441009362366. Tehsildar / Additional District Magistrate / District Magistrate
441009362367. Deputy tehsildar / Executive Magistrate / Judicial Magistrate
Question Number : 55 Question Id : 44100965617 Question Type : MCQ
Where any document purporting to be a certified copy of a public record is presented in court, the
opposing party challenges its admissibility, claiming it is not properly certified. Under which provision of
the Indian Evidence Act can the court presume the genuineness of the document?
Options :
441009261426. Section 76 of the Indian Evidence Act
441009261427. Section 77 of the Indian Evidence Act
441009261428. Section 79 of the Indian Evidence Act
441009261429. Section 80 of the Indian Evidence Act

Question Number : 56 Question Id : 44100967430 Question Type : MCQ

What is constituted under Section 20 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a statement is made by a
person to whom a party to the suit has expressly referred for information in reference to a matter in
dispute?
Options :
441009268486. Confession
441009268487. Admission
441009268488. Rescission
441009268489. Novation

Question Number : 57 Question Id : 44100967441 Question Type : MCQ

Section 63 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with which of the following?
Options :
441009268530. Primary evidence
441009268531. Secondary evidence
441009268532. Direct evidence
441009268533. Circumstantial evidence

Question Number : 58 Question Id : 44100977874 Question Type : MCQ

In which stage of witness examination are leading questions generally NOT allowed?
Options :
441009309494. Examination-in-chief
441009309495. Cross-examination
441009309496. Re-examination
441009309497. During opening statements

Question Number : 59 Question Id : 44100991307 Question Type : MCQ

What would be considered a private document, as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
Options :
441009363352. All other document which are not mentioned under section 74 of Indian Evidence Act
441009363353. The documents which are available to public
441009363354. The documents which are not public
441009363355. The documents which are public but confidential
Question Number : 60 Question Id : 441009116405 Question Type : MCQ
As per Section 91 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when the disposition of property has been reduced to
writing and law required it to be reduced to writing, then which of the following is correct?
Options :
441009463035. Only proof is government records allowed
441009463036. Report of the Lekhpal admissible
441009463037. Opinion of the court only matters
441009463038. No evidence shall be given in proof of the terms of such contract

Question Number : 61 Question Id : 441009144005 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 23 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872, admission is not relevant in which of the
following cases unless there is an express condition or under certain circumstances?
Options :
441009572001. Criminal cases
441009572002. Civil cases
441009572003. Intellectual Property cases
441009572004. Consumer cases

Question Number : 62 Question Id : 441009145187 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 103 the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, 'A' prosecutes 'B' for theft, and wishes the Court to
believe that 'B' admitted the theft to 'C'. Select the correct option.
Options :
441009576713. 'A' must prove the admission.
441009576714. 'A' must disprove the admission.
441009576715. Anyone may prove their point.
441009576716. Court decides who needs to prove in a particular case.

Question Number : 63 Question Id : 44100967458 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 61 of The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, every summons issued by the court must be
in all of the following, EXCEPT:
Options :
441009268598. in writing
441009268599. in verbal form
441009268600. signed by the presiding officer
441009268601. with the seal of the Court
Question Number : 64 Question Id : 44100967469 Question Type : MCQ
As per Section 151 of The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, what is the maximum time period that is
allowed to detain in custody a person, from the time of his arrest, unless his further detention is required
or authorised under any law?
Options :
441009268642. Twelve hours
441009268643. Thirty-six hours
441009268644. Forty-eight hours
441009268645. Twenty-four hours

Question Number : 65 Question Id : 44100967475 Question Type : MCQ

What kind of power is given to the Magistrate under Section 204 of The Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973?
Options :
441009268666. To issue summon or warrant for the attendance of the accused
441009268667. To dismiss the case even though sufficient grounds are there to proceed
441009268668. To pass a judgement deciding if the accused is guilty
441009268669. To file witnesses for the prosecution

Question Number : 66 Question Id : 44100967478 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 225 of The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, trial before which court shall be conducted
by the Public Prosecutor?
Options :
441009268678. Supreme Court
441009268679. High Court
441009268680. Court of Session
441009268681. District Court

Question Number : 67 Question Id : 44100967486 Question Type : MCQ

Which Chapter of The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the Judgement?
Options :
441009268710. XXVII
441009268711. XXVI
441009268712. XXV
441009268713. XX
Question Number : 68 Question Id : 44100977877 Question Type : MCQ
As per Criminal Procedure Code, if a case involves both cognisable and non-cognisable offences, how is
the case classified?
Options :
441009309506. As a non-cognisable case
441009309507. As a civil case
441009309508. As a cognisable case
441009309509. As a summary case

Question Number : 69 Question Id : 44100977880 Question Type : MCQ

Under Section 225 of CrPC, in which court does the Public Prosecutor conduct the prosecution?
Options :
441009309518. Magistrate’s Court
441009309519. High Court
441009309520. Court of Session
441009309521. Supreme Court

Question Number : 70 Question Id : 441009144010 Question Type : MCQ

Which of the following is excluded from the list of objectionable articles to which Section 94 of the Code
of Criminal Procedure 1973, is applicable?
Options :
441009572029. Counterfeit currency notes and counterfeit stamps
441009572030. Obscene objects referred to in Section 292 of the Indian Penal Code
441009572031. Forged documents, false seals and counterfeit coins
441009572032. Pieces of metal made in compliance with the Metal Tokens Act, 1998

Question Number : 71 Question Id : 441009144023 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 151 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no person arrested in order to prevent
the commission of cognisable offences cannot be detained in custody for a period which exceeds
_______________, unless such detention is required as per law.
Options :
441009572085. 20 hours
441009572086. 22 hours
441009572087. 23 hours
441009572088. 24 hours
Question Number : 72 Question Id : 441009145196 Question Type : MCQ
As per Section 215 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no error in stating either the offence or the
particulars required to be stated in the charge, shall be regarded as material unless ______________.
Options :
441009576749. accused was in fact misled by such error or omission, and it has occasioned a failure
of justice
441009576750. accused was in fact not misled by such error or omission, and it has not occasioned a
failure of justice
441009576751. it has benefitted the other party as a result of the fault
441009576752. it has resulted in minimum three years of imprisonment to accused

Question Number : 73 Question Id : 441009145202 Question Type : MCQ

Section 270 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with:
Options :
441009576773. prisoner to be brought to Court in custody
441009576774. prisoner to be brought to Court by police only
441009576775. prisoner to be brought to Court by police only under guidance of Court
441009576776. prisoner to be brought to Court by magistrate only

Question Number : 74 Question Id : 44100970138 Question Type : MCQ

Section 82 of The Indian Penal Code, 1860, envisages that children under seven years of age cannot be
held criminally responsible, which is based on a famous principle known as _________.
Options :
441009279173. Res Judicata
441009279174. Res Ipsa Loquitor
441009279175. Doli incapax
441009279176. Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium

Question Number : 75 Question Id : 44100970144 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 141 of The Indian Penal Code, 1860, an unlawful assembly constitutes a minimum of how
many number of people?
Options :
441009279197. Three
441009279198. Five
441009279199. Two
441009279200. Four
Question Number : 76 Question Id : 44100970166 Question Type : MCQ
X cuts down a beautiful plant on C's ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking the plant out of C's
possession without C's consent. Here, as soon as X has severed the plant in order to such taking, she has
committed which of the following offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
Options :
441009279285. Dacoity
441009279286. Theft
441009279287. Robbery
441009279288. Cheating

Question Number : 77 Question Id : 44100977884 Question Type : MCQ

Under Section 3 of the IPC, how is an offense committed outside India treated?
Options :
441009309534. As if it were committed outside Indian jurisdiction
441009309535. As if it were committed within India
441009309536. As if it were under international law
441009309537. As per the laws of the foreign country where it was committed

Question Number : 78 Question Id : 441009144037 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 143 of The Indian Penal Code, 1860, what is the term period of punishment given to a
member of an unlawful assembly?
Options :
441009572137. 3 months imprisonment, or fine, or both
441009572138. 6 months imprisonment, or fine, or both
441009572139. 9 months imprisonment, or fine, or both
441009572140. 12 months imprisonment, or fine, or both

Question Number : 79 Question Id : 441009144064 Question Type : MCQ

Section 295 of The Indian Penal Code, 1860, deals with which of the following?
Options :
441009572253. Negligent conduct with respect to poisonous substance
441009572254. Fraudulent use of false instrument for weighing
441009572255. Making or selling instrument for counterfeiting coin
441009572256. Injuring place of worship, to insult the religion of any class

Question Number : 80 Question Id : 441009145215 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 124 of IPC, 1860, what is the punishment prescribed for assaulting the President,
Governor, etc. with the intent to compel or restrain the exercise of any lawful power?
Options :
441009576825. 2 years
441009576826. 7 years
441009576827. 5 years
441009576828. 10 years
Question Number : 81 Question Id : 441009145225 Question Type : MCQ
According to IPC, 1860, whoever uses any false property mark shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine unless ___________.
Options :
441009576865. he proves that he acted without motive to defraud
441009576866. he proves that he acted without knowledge to defraud
441009576867. he proves that he acted without intent to defraud
441009576868. he proves that he acted with caution not to defraud

Question Number : 82 Question Id : 441009145236 Question Type : MCQ

Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, a threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the
person threatened is interested, is called __________.
Options :
441009576909. criminal intimidation
441009576910. criminal breach of trust
441009576911. sedition
441009576912. robbery

Question Number : 83 Question Id : 44100970189 Question Type : MCQ

While determining 'reasonable time' for presentment for acceptance or payment, for giving notice of
dishonour and for noting, as per Section 105 of The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which of the
following shall be EXCLUDED?
Options :
441009279377. Time of giving notice
441009279378. Saturday and Sunday
441009279379. Public Holidays
441009279380. Date of Noting

Question Number : 84 Question Id : 44100977893 Question Type : MCQ

According to the provisions of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882, what is presumed about the date on
a negotiable instrument?
Options :
441009309574. It is presumed to be the actual date on which it was made or drawn.
441009309575. The date must always be verified before acceptance of the instrument.
441009309576. A cheque is presumed to be invalid if the date is not mentioned in it.
441009309577. A negotiable instrument is valid only if the date is handwritten.
Question Number : 85 Question Id : 441009144072 Question Type : MCQ
When does an acceptance and payment of bill of exchange without protest become possible under the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
Options :
441009572285. When a drawee in case of need is involved
441009572286. Anytime as per drawee's wish
441009572287. After the death of the drawee
441009572288. Only when the drawee remains a minor

Question Number : 86 Question Id : 441009144086 Question Type : MCQ

Chapter XII, Section 117 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, deal with which of the following?
Options :
441009572337. Rules as to compensation
441009572338. Right of payer for honour
441009572339. Presumption of proof of protest
441009572340. Holder is a holder in due course

Question Number : 87 Question Id : 441009145251 Question Type : MCQ

As per Section 63 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, how much time is allowed for a drawee to
consider whether he will accept bill of exchange presented?
Options :
441009576965. 48 hours
441009576966. 20 hours
441009576967. 3 days
441009576968. 5 days

Question Number : 88 Question Id : 44100977895 Question Type : MCQ

Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the Protection Officer functions
under the supervision of who among the following?
Options :
441009309582. The Police Commissioner
441009309583. The Magistrate
441009309584. The Station House Officer
441009309585. The District Collector

Question Number : 89 Question Id : 44100995968 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 21, a magistrate may, at any stage of hearing of the application for protection order
or for any other relief under the Domestic Violence Act, grant _________ of the child.
Options :
441009381878. temporary custody
441009381879. permanent custody
441009381880. ex parte order
441009381881. adequate compensation for taking care
Question Number : 90 Question Id : 441009145256 Question Type : MCQ
To which of the following courts shall an appeal lie under Section 29 of Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
Options :
441009576985. Court of Session
441009576986. High Court
441009576987. Munsif Court
441009576988. Small Causes Court

Question Number : 91 Question Id : 44100970211 Question Type : MCQ

Who is responsible for levying an excise duty on any excisable article manufactured or produced in the
State as per Section 21 of The Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968?
Options :
441009279465. The Government
441009279466. District Magistrate
441009279467. Collector
441009279468. Revenue Officer

Question Number : 92 Question Id : 44100970248 Question Type : MCQ

Chapter V of the The Andhra Pradesh Excise Act, 1968, deals with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Options :
441009279609. Excise duty
441009279610. Countervailing duty
441009279611. Additional excise duty
441009279612. Manufacture of excisable article

Question Number : 93 Question Id : 44100970260 Question Type : MCQ

Under Section 12 of The Andhra Pradesh Gaming Act, 1974, instruments of gaming etc., found in public
street or place may be ordered to be _________ upon conviction.
Options :
441009279657. destroyed
441009279658. retained
441009279659. transferred
441009279660. delivered
Question Number : 94 Question Id : 44100995975 Question Type : MCQ
A preliminary assessment in cases of heinous offences under Section 15 of the Juvenile Justice (Care &
Protection) Act, 2015, shall be disposed of by the Board within how many days from the date the child is
first produced before the Board?
Options :
441009381922. A period of three months
441009381923. A period of six months
441009381924. A period of one month
441009381925. A period of two months

Question Number : 95 Question Id : 441009144108 Question Type : MCQ

According to Section 2 (4) of The Juvenile Justice Care and Protection of Children Act, 2015, an
____________ means any district official not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the State, on whom
magisterial powers have been conferred.
Options :
441009572433. administrator
441009572434. abandoned child
441009572435. authority
441009572436. authorised agency

Question Number : 96 Question Id : 441009144118 Question Type : MCQ

Which principle, according to Section 3 of The Juvenile Justice Care and Protection of Children Act,
2015, denotes that the adversarial or accusatory words are not to be used in the processes pertaining to a
child?
Options :
441009572473. Principle of non-stigmatising semantics
441009572474. Principle of diversion
441009572475. Principle of fresh start
441009572476. Principle of natural justice

Question Number : 97 Question Id : 44100971484 Question Type : MCQ

The rules and orders applicable for the guidance of the Criminal Courts in the State of Andhra Pradesh
are found in:
Options :
441009284311. The Criminal Code OF Practice, 1990
441009284312. The Criminal Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990
441009284313. The Civil Circular Orders, 1990
441009284314. The Criminal Rules, 1990
Question Number : 98 Question Id : 44100971491 Question Type : MCQ
As per The Criminal Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, warrants should bear which of the
following?
Options :
441009284339. Facsimile stamps
441009284340. Sign manual of the registrar
441009284341. Sign manual of the Judge or Magistrate
441009284342. The copy of the complaint

Question Number : 99 Question Id : 44100995984 Question Type : MCQ

The description of the seal of the Court of Session under the Criminal Law of Practice Rules, 1990, is
provided under:
Options :
441009381958. Rule 85
441009381959. Rule 86
441009381960. Rule 87
441009381961. Rule 89

Question Number : 100 Question Id : 441009144124 Question Type : MCQ

As per Criminal Rules of Practice and Circular Orders, 1990, in the presence of who among the
following should an order for the destruction of case property be executed?
Options :
441009572497. Returning officer
441009572498. Police officer
441009572499. Presiding officer
441009572500. Polling officer

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