13-07-2025

1803CMD303029250044 MD

PHYSICS

1) In a vessel of 21 cm depth, upto what height should water be filled, so that it appears to be 20%

filled if viewed from the top :-

(1) 4.25 cm
(2) 5.25 cm
(3) 6.25 cm
(4) 4.00 cm

2) A man sees his elongated face in a mirror. The mirror is :-

(1) Plane
(2) Convex
(3) Concave
(4) Cylindrical

3) A point source of light is kept at a depth of h in water of refractive index 4/3. The radius of the
circle at the surface of water through which light emits is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A point object at 15 cm from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is made to oscillate

along the principal axis with amplitude 2 mm. The amplitude of its image will be

(1) 2 mm
(2) 4 mm
(3) 8 mm
(4) 16 mm

5) Given that, velocity of light in quartz = 1.5 × 108 m/s and velocity of light in glycerine =

m/s. Now a slab made of quartz is placed in glycerine as shown. The shift of the object
produced by slab is :

(1) 6 cm
(2) 3.55 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 2 cm

6) The critical angle of light going medium A to medium B is θ. The speed of light medium in A is v.
The speed of light in medium B is :

(1)

(2) v sinθ
(3) v cotθ
(4) v tanθ

7) A ray incident on a concave mirror of focal length f as shown a figure. Find out angle of deviation

produced by mirror in a light ray.

(1) 30°
(2) 120°
(3) 100°
(4) None

8) A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm and a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm are placed
facing each other 40 cm apart. A point object is placed between the mirrors, on their common axis
and 15 cm from the concave mirror. Find the position and nature of the image produced by
successive reflections, first at the concave mirror and then at the convex mirror.

(1) 12 cm behind convex mirror, real

(2) 9 cm behind convex mirror, real
(3) 6 cm behind convex mirror, virtual
(4) 3 cm behind convex mirror, virtual

9) An object is placed in front of a convex mirror at a distance of 50 cm. A plane mirror is introduced
covering the lower half of the convex mirror. If the distance between the object and the plane mirror
is 30 cm, it is found that there is no parallax between the images formed by the two mirrors. What is
the radius of curvature of the convex mirror ?

(1) 25 cm
(2) 7 cm
(3) 18 cm
(4) 27 cm

10) When the distance of an object from a concave mirror is decreased from 15 cm to 9 cm, the
image gets magnified 3 times than that in first case. Calculate the focal length of the mirror.

(1) 3 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 7.2 cm

11) Object is placed as shown. Area of image will be (cm2) :-

(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 9
(4) 15

12) Velocity of image will be :-

(1) 36 cm/sec
(2) 70 cm/sec
(3) 80 cm/sec
(4) 74 cm/sec

13) If co-ordinates of position of object are (–60 cm, 6 cm) then co-ordinates of image will be :-

(1) (–120 cm, 12 cm)

(2) (–120 cm, –12 cm)
(3) (–60 cm, –12 cm)
(4) None of these

14) A object is placed 30 cm from concave mirror. If the image is real and 2 times magnified, then
find the another location of object such that image is 2 times magnified :-

(1) +30 cm
(2) –30 cm
(3) –10 cm
(4) +10 cm

15) A 4.5 cm object is placed 12cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. Position &
magnification of image is :-

(1) 6.7cm & +5/9

(2) –6.7cm & +5/9
(3) 6.7cm & –5/9
(4) –6.75cm & –5/9

16) A dentist uses a concave mirror. If he wants to see 4 times magnified & virtual image of an
object placed at 0.60 cm from mirror, then find radius of curvature of concave mirror :-

(1) 1.60 cm
(2) 0.80 cm
(3) 1.20 cm
(4) 0.60 cm

17) A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principle axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is :-

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 2 cm2
(4) 9 cm2

18) A concave mirror forms a real image 5 times the size of the object placed at a distance of 20 cm
from it. The radius of curvature of the mirror is:-

(1)
cm

(2)
cm
(3) 100 cm
(4) 50 cm
19) An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm at a distance equal to focal
length. Find position of image.

(1) 30 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 10 cm

20) A glass slab of refractive index 3/2 placed in such a way that its one side is in air and other side
is in water (μ = 4/3). An air bubble is situated in glass slab. When this bubble is seen through air it
appear at 4 cm and when seen through water, it appears at a distance 8 cm. Find length of slab.

(1) 15 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 7.6 cm
(4) 9 cm

21) The refractive index of glass with respect to water is (9/8). Refractive index of water with
respect to air is (4/3). Find refractive index of glass with air :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

22) A flat glass slab of thickness 6 cm and index 1.5 is placed in front of a plane mirror. An observer
is standing behind the glass slab and looking at the mirror. The actual distance of the observer from
the mirror is 50 cm. The distance of his image from himself, as seen by the observer is

(1) 94 cm
(2) 96 cm
(3) 98 cm
(4) 100 cm

23) A transparent glass slab of refractive index 1.5 its one surface is silvered. Thickness of slab is 12

cm. Object is placed at 20 cm from slab final position of image from mirror.

(1) 24 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) none

24) A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index μ, falls on a surface
separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following value of μ
the ray can undergo total internal reflection?

(1) μ=1.25
(2) μ=1.33
(3) μ=1.40
(4) μ=1.50

25)

If refractive index of water is then refractive index of unknown medium is :-

(1) 1.4
(2) 1.73
(3) 1.09
(4) 1.63

26) If velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is 3 × 108 m/s then find refractive index of
medium.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25

27) The focal length of a concave mirror is 12 cm. Where should an object of length 4 cm be placed,
so that a virtual image of 8 cm length is formed ?

(1) 48 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 15 cm

28) Assertion : Critical angle is minimum for violet colour

Reason : Because critical angle θc = sin–1 and µ ∝

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive index µ. The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5µ. The apparent depth of vessel is 50% of the actual
depth. The value of µ is

(1) 1.6
(2) 1.67
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.4

14
30) The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The
refractive index of material will be :

(1) 1.33
(2) 1.40
(3) 1.50
(4) 3.00

CHEMISTRY

1) Select the correct statement :-

(a) Mn+3 act as stronger oxidising agent than Cr+3 & Fe+3
(b) MnF7, & all are known flouride
+3 +3
(c) La & Lu both are diamagnetic
(d) When K2Cr2O7 react with H2O2 in acidic medium it forms dark orange (CrO5) compound

(1) a,b,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c,d

2) KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium when alkaline KMnO4 is treated with
KI iodide is oxidised to :

(1) I2
(2) IO–
–
(3) IO3
–
(4) IO4
3)

x, y & z are respectively.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Which of the following chlorides produce chromyl chloride vapour when heated with conc. H2SO4
and K2Cr2O7 (Means chromyl chloride test).

(1) NaCl
(2) AgCl
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) PbCl4

5) Assertion: Aquated copper (I) cation undergoes disproportionation as :

2Cu+(aq.) → Cu2+(aq) + Cu
Reason: Hydration energy of Cu2+ is higher than that of Cu+ which compensates second ionisation
energy of Cu.

(1) If both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) If A is wrong but R is correct.

6) Which metal has the highest melting point?

(1) Platinum
(2) Gold
(3) Tungsten
(4) Iridium

7) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3

(2) In lanthanide series ionic radius till Lu+3 ion decreases
(3) La is actually an element of transition series rather lanthanides
(4) Atomic radius of Zn and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction

8) What is the composition of misch metal alloy?

(1) Lanthanoid metal (95%) + Iron (5%)

(2) Cu (69%) + Zn (31%)
(3) Al (20%) + Cu (80%)
(4) Cr (50%) + Zn (30%) + Cu (20%)

9) Match the column :

Column I (Compound) Column II (Properties)

(i) K2MnO4 (a) Amphoteric

(ii) KMnO4 (b) Paramagnetic & green coloured

(iii) K2Cr2O7 (c) Diamagnetic & purple coloured

(iv) V2O5 (d) Diamagnetic & orange coloured

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

10) The number of gaseous product(s) are formed on the basis of following equilibrium :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Formula of sodium Nitroprusside is?

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(2) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(3) NaFe[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]

12) The formula of the complex tris (ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate is

(1) [Co(en)2SO4]
(2) [Co(en)3SO4]
(3) [Co(en)3]SO4
(4) [Co(en)3]2(SO4)3

13) The IUPAC name for K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2)NH3] is :-

(1) Potassium amminedicyanotetraoxo chromium (III)

(2) Potassium amminedicyanodioxygendioxo chromate (IV)
(3) Potassium amminedicyanosuperoxoperoxo chromate (III)
(4) Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxo chromate (V)

14) Which of the following is correct IUPAC name of given coordination compound ?

(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 : Iron hexacyanidoferrate(II)

(2) H2[Pt(CN)6] : Hydrogen hexacyanidoplatinate(IV)
(3) [CoBr(NH3)5]Br2 : Pentaamminebromidocobalt(III) dibromide
2+
(4) [Ir(SCN)(H2O)(en)2] : Aquabis (ethylenediamine) thiocyanato-S-irridium(III) ion

15) IUPAC nomenclature of the complex compound Na3[Cr(O)2(O2)(O2)2(NH3)] where half of the
coordination number are occupied by neutral ligands with magnetic moment m = B.M. must be

(1) Sodium amminedioxodioxygensuperoxochromate (III)

(2) Sodium amminedioxygendioxodisuperoxochromate (III)
(3) Sodium amminebisdioxygendioxoperoxochromate (III)
(4) Sodium amminebisdioxygendioxoperochromium (II)

16) Consider the following statements and arrange in the order of true/false as given in the codes.
S1 : Both [Co(ox)3]3- and [CoF6]3- are paramagnetic.
S2 : CoCl3 3NH3 complex is non-conducting
S3 : The number of possible isomers for the complex [Pt(NO2) (py) (OH) (NH3)] is six.
S4 : The oxidation state of iron in brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO] SO4 is + II where NO is NO+

(1) F T T T
(2) T T T T
(3) F T T F
(4) T T T F

17) CO bond length is longest in :

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6 ]
–
(2) [V(CO)6]
(3) Cr(CO)6
2–
(4) [Ti(CO)6]

18) An octahedral complex having d4 configuration is a low spin complex then crystal field
stabilization energy (CFSE) of the complex will be-
(1) –0.6 Δ0
(2) –1.6 Δ0 + P
(3) –1.2 Δ0
(4) –2.4 Δ0

19) Which of the following is not correctly matched :

Complex Shape

(A) [Co(NH3)6]+3 Octaheadral

(B) [Ni(CO)4] Square planar

(C) [PtCl4]-2 Tetrahedral

(1) C
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B

20) Which of the following is true about metal-EDTA complex (if it is a 3d metal)

(1) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:6

(2) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 6:1
(3) The ratio of moles of metal & EDTA in complex is 1:1
(4) 3d metal ion cannot bonded with EDTA

21) Which of the following is most likely formula of platinum complex, if of total chlorine of the
compound is precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution

(1) PtCl4.6H2O
(2) PtCl4.5H2O
(3) PtCl2.2H2O
(4) PtCl4.3H2O

22) Which of the following does not follow EAN rule ?

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
(4) [Mn(CO)5]

23) In the complex ion [FeF6]–3, according to valence bond theory, the magnetic properties of the
complex ion corresponds to how many unpaired electrons ?

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 3

24) Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(Cl)4]2– :

2– 2–
(1) [Ni(CO)4] and [NiCl4] are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4] is paramagnetic
2– 2–
(2) [NiCl4] and [Ni(CN)4] are diamagnetic and [Ni(CO)4] is paramagnetic
2– 2–
(3) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4] are diamagnetic and [NiCl4] is paramagnetic
2– 2–
(4) [Ni(CO4)] is diamagnetic and [NiCl4] and [Ni(CN)4] are paramagnetic

25) Choose the set containing incorrect statement only.

(I) [Fe(CN)6]–3 has magnetic moment is equal to 1.73 BM while [FeF6]–3 has a magnetic moment is
equal to 5.9 BM.
(II) [CoF6]–3 is paramagnetic with three unpaired electrons while [Mn(CN)6]–3 has two unpaired
electrons
(III) [Co(H2O)6]+3 & [Co(C2O4)3]–3 are inner orbital complexes.
(IV) [Mn(H2O)6]+3, [Cr(H2O)6]+3 & [V(H2O)6]+3 are outer orbital complexes with four, three and two
unpaired electrons respectively

(1) I, II & III

(2) II & IV
(3) I & III
(4) II, III & IV

26) Which pair of complexes has inner orbital complexes ?

–3 –3
(1) [Fe(CN)6] & [FeF6]
–3 –3
(2) [CoF6] & [CoCl6]
+2 +2
(3) [Zn(NH3)6] & [Zn(H2O)6]
–3 –4
(4) [Fe(CN)6] & [Fe(CN)6]

27)

Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?

(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

28) Which is correct :-

Complex No. of Chilate rings
(1) [Co(ox)2Cl2]–3 4
(2) [Ni(dmg)2] 4
(3) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 6
(4) Brown ring complex 1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29)

Which of the following is correct statement regarding biological importance of coordination

compounds ?

(1) Chlorophyll is a coordination compound of Fe

(2) Vitamin B12 , cyanocobalamine is a coordination compound of Mg
(3) Haemogolobin is a coordination compound of Co
(4) Carboxypeptidase is a coordination compound of Zn

30) The complex [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] can exhibit.

(a) linkage isomerism
(b) Coordination isomerism
(c) Ionisation isomerism
(d) Optical isomerism
The correct answer is :-

(1) Only 'a' 'b' and 'c'

(2) Only 'a'
(3) Only 'a' and 'd'
(4) Only 'b'

BOTANY

1) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

Options :-

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Which of the following compounds are pyrimidines ?

(1) Adenine, Guanine, Thymine

(2) Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil
(3) Adenine, Uracil, Guanine
(4) Thymine, Uracil, Adenine

3) DNA in nuclei of eukaryotic cells is :-

(1) Double-stranded, circular and naked

(2) Double-stranded, circular and non-naked
(3) Double-stranded, linear and naked
(4) Double-stranded, linear and non-naked

4) Assertion: DNA acts as the genetic material with some exception.

Reason: RNA acts as genetic material in all viruses.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

5) Which of the following features provides stability to helical structure of DNA ?

(1) Presence of hydrogen bonds between two strands.

(2) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix.
(3) Parallel polarity of two strands.
(4) Both 1 and 2

6) Which statement is not true for base ratio of DNA?

(1) Base ratio is constant for given species.

(2) Base ratio is variable for different species.
(3) Base ratio does not depend on age of organism.
(4) Base ratio is different for different tissues of organism.

7) On an average, how many purines N2 bases are present in single coil of DNA :-

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Ten
(4) Uncertain
8)

In a ds DNA 30% Adenine is present. Find out percentage of Guanine ?

(1) 30%
(2) 15%
(3) 20%
(4) 40%

9)

DNA acts as a template for synthesis of :-

(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Both '1' and '2'
(4) Protein

10) Which type of bond is not present in DNA :-

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Disulphide bond

11) Which one of the following is not applicable to ss RNA ?

(1) Sugar with five carbon

(2) Hetrocyclic nitrogen base
(3) Chargaff's rule
(4) Phosphodiester bond

12) Which of the following DNA molecule melt at lowest temperature ?

(1) DNA having more N2–base

(2) DNA having more G–C content
(3) DNA having more A–T content
(4) None

13) Histone proteins found in nuclei of eukaryotes are

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Amphoteric

14)
Complete the following statement by filling gaps (a) and (b) :
Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally ___(a)___ chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is
______(b)_______ .

(1) a = active, b = active

(2) a = active, b = inactive
(3) a = inactive, b = inactive
(4) a = active, b = highly active

15) The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:-

(1) Polymerize in the 5'- to -3' direction and explain 3' - to 5' DNA replication
(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3' - to -5' direction and forms replication fork
(4) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

16) In Griffith's experiment living bacterium takes up DNA from surrounding environment through
which process

(1) Conjugation
(2) Transduction
(3) Transformation
(4) Binary fission

17) The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes:-
(A) Lipase (B) RNase
(C) DNase (D) Protease

(1) A and B only

(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A, B and D

18) A bacteriophage with radioactive DNA and protein when infects a bacterium the radioactivity
inside the bacterium will be located:-

(1) In DNA
(2) In Protein
(3) Both in DNA and protein
(4) In all parts of bacterial cell

19) Hershey and Chase used which organism to prove that DNA is genetic material ?

(1) Streptococcus
(2) TMV
(3) T2 - bacteriophage
(4) λ - bacteriophage

20) DNA is more stable than RNA. Due to presence of

(1) 5-Methyl uracil and deoxyribose sugar

(2) Ribose sugar and 5 methyl uracil
(3) Thymine and ribose sugar
(4) Uracil and Deoxy ribose sugar

21)

The okazaki fragments of discontinous strand are joined by which of the following enzyme ?

(1) DNA ligase

(2) DNA gyrase
(3) Endonuclease
(4) RNA ligase

22)

In meselson and stahl's experiment 15N was used as :-

(1) Hybrid isotope

(2) Radioactive
(3) Heavy isotope
(4) Light isotope

23) Formation of RNA primer at the time of DNA replication takes place with the help of
which enzyme ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Helicase
(4) Topoisomerase

24) Which component of RNA polymerase catalyse elongation process of transcription ?

(1) σ factor
(2) core enzyme
(3) ρ factor
(4) All of these

25) Find out the incorrect match (for eukaryotic transcription) :-

(1) RNA polymerase-I → rRNA

(2) RNA polymerase-II → hnRNA
(3) RNA polymerase-III → mRNA
(4) RNA polymerase-III → tRNA

26)

For the transmission of genetic information RNA is better because :

(1) RNA is chemically less reactive

(2) RNA is unstable
(3) RNA can directly code for the synthesis of protein, hence can easily express the characters
(4) RNA is highly stable

27) Assertion : RNA not generally acts as a genetic material because it is an unstable .
Reason : 2'- OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA, is a reactive group and makes RNA labile
and easily degradable.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is Wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

28) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

29) A feature common to both DNA and RNA is :

(1) Both are polymers of nucleotides

(2) Both have similar pyrimidines
(3) Both have similar sugars
(4) Both are genetic materials

30) Successful DNA replication required all of the following enzyme except :

(1) Helicase
(2) DNA primase
(3) Endonuclease
(4) DNA ligase

ZOOLOGY

1) What does Evolutionary Biology primarily study?

(1) Chemistry of living organisms
(2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Composition of stars
(4) Human anatomy

2) To understand evolution, one must also understand the evolution of

(1) Only plants and animals

(2) The earth, stars, and the universe
(3) Human civilizations
(4) Microorganisms only

3) Why do we see stars as they were in the past?

(1) Their light travels instantly

(2) Stars are not real objects
(3) Their light takes millions of years to reach us
(4) Our eyes cannot see distant objects clearly

4) Approximately how old is the universe?

(1) 4.5 billion years

(2) 10 billion years
(3) 20 billion years
(4) 100 million years

5) Which theory explains the origin of the universe?

(1) Evolution theory

(2) Quantum theory
(3) Big Bang theory
(4) Relativity theory

6) The early atmosphere of Earth did NOT contain:

(1) Oxygen
(2) Methane
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Ammonia

7) Life appeared on Earth approximately how long after its formation?

(1) 100 million years

(2) 500 million years
(3) 2 billion years
(4) Immediately after formation
8) The idea that life came from outer space is called:

(1) Biogenesis
(2) Spontaneous generation
(3) Panspermia
(4) Abiogenesis

9) The theory that life originated from decaying and rotting matter is called:

(1) Panspermia
(2) Spontaneous generation
(3) Biogenesis
(4) Natural selection

10) In the flask that was open to air, Pasteur observed:

(1) No life formed

(2) New living organisms appeared from killed yeast
(3) Complete sterilization
(4) Instant chemical reactions only

11) Who proposed that life could have originated from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Oparin and Haldane
(4) S.L. Miller

12) Assertion (A): Miller’s experiment supported the idea that life originated from inorganic
molecules through chemical evolution.
Reason (R): Miller successfully produced amino acids by creating conditions similar to primitive
Earth using gases like CH₄, H₂, NH₃, and water vapour.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

13) In S.L. Miller’s experiment, what was the temperature maintained inside the flask?

(1) 100°C
(2) 500°C
(3) 8000°C
(4) 800°C

14) What did S.L. Miller observe after his experiment?

(1) Formation of cells
(2) Formation of amino acids
(3) Formation of DNA
(4) Formation of water

15) The first cellular forms of life originated approximately:

(1) 2000 million years ago

(2) 5000 million years ago
(3) 500 million years ago
(4) 1000 years ago

16) According to the theory of abiogenesis, the first form of life arose:

(1) Suddenly by magic

(2) From non-living molecules through evolutionary forces
(3) From pre-existing cells
(4) From God’s creation

17) Homology is based on which type of evolution?

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Mutation

18) Thorn in Bougainvillea and tendril in Cucurbita are examples of:

(1) Analogous organs

(2) Vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Fossil organs

19) Divergent evolution results in:

(1) Similar structures with similar functions

(2) Different structures with same function
(3) Same structures modified for different functions
(4) Random development of features

20) The eye of an octopus and the eye of mammals are:

(1) Vestigial
(2) Homologous
(3) Analogous
(4) Non-functional
21) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) (I) Tyrannosauras

(B) (ii) Stegosaurus

(C) (iii) Brachiosaurus

(D) (iv) Triceratops

(1) (A)– (i), (B) – (iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)

(2) (A)– (iv), (B) – (i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
(3) (A)– (ii), (B) – (i), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv)
(4) (A)– (iv), (B) – (ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)

22) When more than one adaptive radiation occurs in an isolated area, it is known as:

(1) Mutation
(2) Artificial selection
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Speciation

23) Placental mammals in Australia evolved similarly to marsupials due to:

(1) Different environmental needs

(2) Lack of resources
(3) Similar habitats leading to similar adaptations
(4) Human interference

24) The Placental wolf and the Tasmanian wolf are examples of:

(1) Homologous evolution

(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Artificial selection

25)

Examples of adaptive radiation are

(1) Darwin finches

(2) Australian marsupials
(3) Placental mammals in Australia
(4) All of these

26) The geological history of earth closely correlates with the ____ history of earth

(1) physical
(2) chemical
(3) biological
(4) mechanical

27) Assertion (A): Fossil records prove that life forms have remained unchanged over geological
time.
Reason (R): Fossils are preserved remains of organisms found in sedimentary rocks.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

28) If humans could create different breeds in hundreds of years, what does it suggest about natural
evolution?

(1) Nature cannot change species

(2) Evolution is not possible
(3) Evolution is possible
(4) Evolution is faster than artificial selection

29) Biochemical evidence of evolution points towards:

(1) No relation among species

(2) Sudden appearance of species
(3) A common ancestor
(4) Random development of life

30) Mesozoic era is divided into ______.

(1) Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary

(2) Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous
(3) Permian, Carboniferous, Devonian
(4) Ordovician, Cambrian, Silurian
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 2 3
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 2

BOTANY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 1
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 1 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

∴ 21 – h = ∴h= = 5.25 cm

2) Plane mirror → Same size

Convex mirror → diminished
Concave mirror → enlarged
(between F and P)

3)

r=

r=

4)

use
u = – 15 cm, f = – 10 cm, v = 30 cm

⇒ dv = 8 mm

5) = =

S =t = 6 cm

6)
sin θ = sin θ = ⇒ v' =

7)

8)

v = 6 cm v = –30 cm
(virtual)

9) =
f = 12.5 cm

10) ;

m2 = 3m1 ⇒
f = – 6 cm

11)

⇒
⇒ v1 = = – 28 cm
and magnification

m=–

= – 4 cm
Area of image

(4 + 3) × 4 = 14 cm2

12)

u = –45 cm f = –30 cm

VI – 2 =

VI =
⇒ VI = 2 – 72 = – 70 cm/s

13) m= =
V = –120 cm hi = – 12 cm

14)

m= m=

–2= 2=+
2f + 60 = –f +40 + 2u = +20

f = –20 cm u= = –10 cm

15)

m=

hi =
16) m =
⇒ f = 4f – 4u
⇒ 3f = 4u

f= = (– 0.60) cm
f = – 0.8 cm
Radius of curvature R = |2f| = 1.60 cm

17)

AI = m2 A0

where

= –3
A1 = (–3)2 × 1 cm2
= 9cm2

18)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the radius of curvature of a concave mirror.
We are given that the image formed is real and magnified 5 times compared to the object, and
the object is placed 20 cm from the mirror.

Underlying Concept: For concave mirrors, the relationship between object distance (u),
image distance (v), focal length (f), and magnification (m) is governed by the mirror formula
and magnification formula. A real image formed by a concave mirror is inverted, which affects
the sign conventions in calculations. The radius of curvature (R) is related to the focal length
by the formula R = 2f.

Relevant Formulas: where - is magnification, - is object

distance, - is image distance, - is focal length, - is radius of curvature.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given: - Object distance, (negative as per sign

convention for real objects in front of mirror), - Magnification, (negative because real
image is inverted).

Using magnification formula:

Using mirror formula:

So,

Radius of curvature relation:

Therefore, the radius of curvature is .

Tips and Tricks: Use the sign conventions carefully: object distance is negative if the object
is in front of the mirror, image distance is negative for real images formed on the same side as
the object, and magnification is negative for real, inverted images.

Common Mistakes: A frequent mistake is neglecting the negative signs for object and image
distances or magnification, leading to incorrect calculations of focal length and radius of
curvature.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like 'rac{{50}}{3} cm', '100 cm', and '50 cm'
arise if the sign conventions or formulas are applied incorrectly. For example, ignoring the
image being real and inverted may cause the focal length to be taken as positive, which is
incorrect for a concave mirror forming a real image.

19) ⇒ ⇒

20)
ℓ = dac1 + dac2

ℓ = μg × dap1 + × dap2

ℓ=

21) Given ωmg = , amω =

mg = amω × ωmg =
a
22)

Shift = 6 = 2 cm
Object distance = 50 – = 48
Image distance = 48 cm
Total = 48 + 48 = 96 cm

23)

Shift = 12 = 4 cm
Object distance = 20 + 12 – 4 = 28 cm
Image distance = 28 cm
Actual distance = 28 – 4 = 24 cm

24)

For TIR

25) snell's law

μsin 60° = sin 45°

μ = 1.09

26) Here vmedium = 3 × 108

⇒µ= = =1

27) m = ;m= ;
24 + 24 = 12
 u = –6 cm

28) QUESTION EXPLANATION:

We need to determine if both are true and if the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
CONCEPT:

Relationship between Critical Angle and Refractive Index:

Dispersion: The phenomenon where the refractive index of a medium is slightly different for
different wavelengths of light.
SOLUTION
FORMULA:

CALCULATION:
1. Assertion: "Critical angle is minimum for violet colour." This is true. Since violet light has a
higher refractive index, its critical
angle will be smaller.

2. Reason: "Because critical angle θc= sin-1 and

ANSWER:
Option (1)
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

29)
µ = 1.67

30) v = λ × υ and v =

5000 × 10–10 × 2 × 1014 =

⇒µ=3

CHEMISTRY

31)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223 & 236

32)

33)

Fact base in NCERT

 34)

Asking for:

A. Which of the given chlorides produces chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂) vapor when heated
with concentrated H₂SO₄ and K₂Cr₂O 7

Concept:

A. Reaction: The reaction involves the oxidation of chloride ions by dichromate in the
presence of sulfuric acid.

Solution/Explanation:

A. The reaction is:

A. K₂Cr₂O7 + 4 NaCl + 6 H₂SO₄ → 2 CrO₂Cl₂ + 6 NaHSO₄ + 2 KHSO₄ + 3 H₂O

A. The chromyl chloride test is a specific reaction that occurs with chloride ions (Cl⁻) in the
presence of dichromate and sulfuric acid.

B. The reaction produces chromyl chloride (CrO₂Cl₂), a reddish-brown volatile liquid that
fumes in air.

C. NaCl (Sodium Chloride) is the most common chloride salt that gives a positive chromyl
chloride test.

​Note: Insoluble (AgCl, Hg2Cl2, PbCl2) chlorides do not respond to chromyl chloride.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

35)

Fact based in NCERT

36)

Fact based in NCERT

37) La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3. In lanthanides the basic character of hydroxides
decreases as the ionic radius decreases.
38)

Misch Metal alloy is a mixture of Lanthanoid metal (95%) + Iron (5%).

39)

(i) K2MnO4 → Mn+6 (3d1) Paramagnetic and green coloured

0
(ii) KMnO4 → Mn+7 (3d ) Purple colour due to charge transfer
0
(iii) K2Cr2O7 → Cr+6 (3d ) orange colour
(iv) V2O5 → Amphoteric (reacts with both acids & bases)

40)

Ln react with acid & water to give H2 gas.

41)

Fact based in NCERT

42)

43)

K2[Cr(CN)2 O2 (O2) NH3]

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
di Cynido dioxygen dioxo Ammine
(–1) (O2 = 0) (O–2)

44)

45)
 46)
Diamagnetic

47)

COBL in metal carbonyl

α "–ve" charge on complex

48)

d4 → low spin → S.F.L

↓

211 00

t2g eg
CFSE = (–0.4 × 1) +P
= – 1.6 +P

49)

[Ni(CO)4] → tetrahedral
[PtCl4]2– → square planar

50)

EDTA is hexadentate ligand,

So, metal & EDTA ratio is 1 : 1
For eg. [Ca(EDTA)]–2

51)

Pt+4 → C.N = 6 ; Pt+2 → CN = 2

(1) [Pt(H2O)6]Cl4 100% chloride ionisable
(2) [Pt(H2O)4Cl]Cl3 75% chloride ionisable
(3) [Pt(H2O)2Cl2] 0% chloride ionisable
(4) [Pt(H2O)3Cl3]Cl 25% chloride ionisable

52)

Question Asking About:

In this question we have to check the complex which does not follow EAN rule.

Concept:

(4) [Mn(CO)5]

Solution/Explanation:

EAN = Atomic number – oxidation state + (2x coordination number)

= 25 – 0 2 × 5 Þ 35 # 36

So it does not follow EAN rule.

53) Explain : No. of unpaired e¯ asked in [FeF6]–3

Concept : VBT
Calculation :
[FeF6]–3
x – 6 = –3
x = –3 + 6
x = +3
0

+3 5
Fe = [Ar] 3d 4s
F¯ is WFL no pairing occurs no. of unpaired e = 5.

54) 1. Explain the Question: The question asks us to determine the magnetic properties
(diamagnetic or paramagnetic) of three nickel complexes: [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2-, and [NiCI4]2-.
Magnetic properties are determined by the presence of unpaired electrons in the complex.
2. Concept:
• Diamagnetic: No unpaired electrons, repelled by a magnetic field.
• Paramagnetic: Unpaired electrons, attracted to a magnetic field.
• Crystal Field Theory (CFT): This theory helps explain the electronic structure of transition
metal complexes. Ligands influence the d-orbital energy levels, leading to splitting.
• Strong Field Ligands: Cause significant splitting, favoring pairing of electrons.
Weak Field Ligands: Cause smaller splitting, allowing for unpaired electrons.
• [Ni(CO)4]: CO is a strong field ligand. All 8 d-electrons of Ni(II) pair up, making it
diamagnetic.
• [Ni(CN)4]2-: CN- is also a strong field ligand. Similar to CO, all 8 d-electrons pair up, making
it diamagnetic.
• [NiCl4]2-: Cl- is a weak field ligand. This results in a high-spin complex with 2 unpaired
electrons, making it paramagnetic.
Therefore, the correct answer is: [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic and
[NiCI4]2- is paramagnetic.

55) Answer → (2)

Explanation → In this question we have to check incorrect statements.
Concept →
(I)
(CN− strong field ligand so 3d electrons paired up)

Unpaired e− = 1
magnetic moment = Bm

(F− WFL So 3d electrons no paired up)

Unpaired e− = 5
magnetic moment =
Bm
(II)

Unpaired e−s = 4
paramagnetic complex

with behave like strong field ligand so 3d electrons paired up.

Unpaired e− = 0
(III) &
with & C2O4−2 ligand behave like SFL so 3d electrons paired up and complex
become inner orbital complex.
(IV)
H2O is WFL so 3d electrons not paired up.
So Unpaired e−s = 4
and complex become outer orbital complex

H2O is WFL So 3d electrons not paired up,.

So Unpaired e−s = 3
and complex become inner orbital complex

is WFL so 3d electrons not paired up,.

So Unpaired e−r = 2
and complex become inner orbital complex

56) Answer → (4)

 Explanation → In this question we have to identify the pair of complexes that have an inner
orbital complex.
Concept →
(4)

CN- SFL, So 3d electrons paired up.

So complex become inner orbital complex.

CN- SFL, So 3d electrons paired up.

So complex become inner orbital complex.

57) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

58)

[Ni(dmg)2] having 4 rings

59)

Ncert , Class12th , Part-I, Article no. 5.7

[Link] , Edition-2023-2024.

60) Explaining the question : The question asks which type(s) of isomerism the coordination
compound [Ag(NH3​)2​][Ag(CN)2​] can exhibit.
Concept : Types of isomerism Solution : The complex can exhibit linkage isomerism due to
the ambidentate CN− ligand, which can bind through either carbon or nitrogen to the silver
ion.

BOTANY

61)

Correct Answer: (3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

Explanation: The molecule shown is adenine, which is a purine base found in both DNA and
RNA.

62)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

63)

Answer is "Double-stranded, linear and non-naked"

64) A nucleotide of DNA

65)

Answer is "Both 1 and 2"

66)

Answer is "Base ratio is different for different tissues of organism."

67)

Answer is "Ten"

68)

Answer is "20%"

69)

Answer is "Both '1' and '2'"

70)

Answer is "Disulphide bond"

71)

Answer is "Chargaff's rule"

72)

Answer is "DNA having more A–T content"

73)

Answer is "Basic"

74)

Answer is "a = active, b = inactive"

75)

Answer is "Polymerize in the 5'- to -3' direction and explain 3' - to 5' DNA replication"
76)

In Griffith's experiment (1928), the process by which a living bacterium takes up DNA from the
surrounding environment is called transformation.
Griffith showed that harmless (R-strain) bacteria could be transformed into harmful (S-strain)
bacteria by taking up genetic material from dead S-strain bacteria.
This experiment provided evidence that DNA carries genetic information and is capable of
transforming bacteria.

77) NCERT XII, Pg. # 101

78)

Answer is "In DNA"

79)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 102

80)

Answer is "5-Methyl uracil and deoxyribose sugar"

81)

Answer is "DNA ligase"

82)

Answer is "Heavy isotope "

83)

Answer is "RNA polymerase"

84)

Answer is "core enzyme"

85)

Answer is "RNA polymerase-III → mRNA"

86)

Answer is "RNA can directly code for the synthesis of protein, hence can easily express the
 characters"

87)

Answer is "Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of
assertion."

88)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

89) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 103

90)

Answer is "Endonuclease"

ZOOLOGY

91) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

92) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

93) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

94) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

95) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

96) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

97) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06, 6.1

98) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

99) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

100) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

101) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

102) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

103) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

104) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

105) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

106) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

107) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

108) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

109) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

110) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

111) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , Pg # 114

112) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.4

113) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.4

114)

Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.4

115) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.4

116) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.2

117) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

118) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

119) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.3

120) NEW NCERT XII Pg # 122