1.​ Under which section of BNS has “Child” been defined?

​
A. Section 2(1)​
B. Section 2(3)​
C. Section 3​
D. Section 82​
Answer: B. Section 2(3)
2.​ Which Act in India first defined a “Child”?​
A. Child Labour (Prohibition) Act​
B. Child Marriage Restraint Act​
C. Juvenile Justice Act​
D. Indian Majority Act​
Answer: D. Indian Majority Act
3.​ “Doli Incapax” is a legal maxim which has been given effect under which section of
IPC?​
A. Section 83​
B. Section 82​
C. Section 84​
D. Section 80​
Answer: B. Section 82
4.​ Which popular phrase is used to describe discrimination against women?​
A. From Dust to Dawn​
B. Womb to Tomb​
C. Glass Ceiling​
D. Birth to Earth​
Answer: B. Womb to Tomb
5.​ How many classifications of offences are there in the JJ Act?​
A. 2​
B. 3​
C. 4​
D. 5​
Answer: B. 3
6.​ What is the full form of CEDAW?​
A. Convention on Eradication of Discrimination Against Women​
B. Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women​
C. Committee for Equal Distribution Among Women​
D. Charter for Equality and Development Among Women​
Answer: B. Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against
Women
7.​ In which year was CEDAW passed by the UN?​
A. 1985​
B. 1975​
C. 1979​
D. 1981​
Answer: C. 1979
8.​ Which Act in India was brought in to implement CEDAW?​
A. Child Marriage Restraint Act​
B. Dowry Prohibition Act​
C. Domestic Violence Act, 2005​
D. Equal Remuneration Act​
Answer: C. Domestic Violence Act, 2005
9.​ What is the significance of the 106th Amendment of India?​
A. Introduction of GST​
B. Right to Education​
C. Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam – 1/3rd representation for women​
D. Right to Privacy​
Answer: C. Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam – 1/3rd representation for women
10.​Which Article empowers Parliament to enact laws for the welfare of women and
children?​
A. Article 14​
B. Article 16​
C. Article 15(3)​
 D. Article 39(a)​
Answer: C. Article 15(3)
11.​Which Article of CEDAW defines discrimination against women?​
A. Article 1​
B. Article 2​
C. Article 3​
D. Article 12​
Answer: A. Article 1
12.​What is ICJ?​
A. International Criminal Jury​
B. International Court of Justice​
C. Indian Court of Judiciary​
D. International Council for Jurists​
Answer: B. International Court of Justice
13.​Which body did ICJ replace?​
A. United Nations Commission​
B. League of Nations​
C. Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ)​
D. World Court​
Answer: C. Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ)
14.​When did India ratify CEDAW?​
A. 15th August 1992​
B. 9th July 1993​
C. 1st January 1995​
D. 26th January 1990​
Answer: B. 9th July 1993
15.​What is CMRA?​
A. Child Medical Rehabilitation Act​
B. Child Marriage Restraint Act​
C. Child Mental Reform Act​
 D. Central Marriage Registration Authority​
Answer: B. Child Marriage Restraint Act
16.​Which Act replaced CMRA?​
A. Juvenile Justice Act​
B. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act​
C. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006​
D. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act​
Answer: C. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
17.​Which Article provides for equal opportunity in public employment?​
A. Article 15​
B. Article 16​
C. Article 17​
D. Article 18​
Answer: B. Article 16
18.​Which Articles were reserved by India while signing CEDAW?​
A. Article 2 and 3​
B. Article 5(a) and Article 16(1)​
C. Article 10 and 11​
D. Article 12 and 14​
Answer: B. Article 5(a) and Article 16(1)
19.​Right to Education is a fundamental right under which Article of COI?​
A. Article 21​
B. Article 45​
C. Article 21A​
D. Article 39(e)​
Answer: C. Article 21A
20.​How many Articles are enshrined in CEDAW?​
A. 25​
B. 30​
C. 35​
 D. 20​
Answer: B. 30
21.​Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives power to Parliament to make laws to
implement international agreements?​
A. Article 253​
B. Article 245​
C. Article 248​
D. Article 368​
Answer: A. Article 253
22.​What are the two categories of human rights?​
A. National & International​
B. Social & Political​
C. Individual Rights & Collective Rights​
D. Legal & Moral​
Answer: C. Individual Rights & Collective Rights
23.​What is given under Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India?​
A. Reservation policy​
B. Union Territories​
C. Distribution of Legislative Powers​
D. Citizenship​
Answer: C. Distribution of Legislative Powers
24.​When was the Convention on the Rights of the Child adopted?​
A. 10th December 1948​
B. 20th November 1989​
C. 25th September 1995​
D. 9th July 1993​
Answer: B. 20th November 1989
25.​Which of the following countries have not ratified CEDAW?​
A. India and China​
B. USA, Sudan, Palau, Tonga, Vatican City​
C. Canada and Brazil​
 D. UK and France​
Answer: B. USA, Sudan, Palau, Tonga, Vatican City
26.​CEDAW is also known as the:​
A. Women’s Peace Accord​
B. International Covenant on Civil Rights​
C. International Bill of Women’s Rights​
D. Geneva Agreement for Women​
Answer: C. International Bill of Women’s Rights
27.​Which case reiterated the idea of eradicating discrimination against women in
workplaces?​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. Air India v. Nargis Mirza​
C. Gita Hariharan v. RBI​
D. Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India​
Answer: B. Air India v. Nargis Mirza
28.​Equal pay for equal work is supported by which Article of CEDAW?​
A. Article 12​
B. Article 16​
C. Article 5​
D. Article 11​
Answer: A. Article 12
29.​Which Article of the Constitution allows the state to promote international peace
and security?​
A. Article 253​
B. Article 14​
C. Article 51​
D. Article 368​
Answer: C. Article 51
30.​Which case supported equal opportunities for women in the Indian Army?​
A. Indira Jaising v. Union of India​
B. Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya​
 C. Bhanwari Devi v. State of Rajasthan​
D. Union of India v. Gita Hariharan​
Answer: B. Ministry of Defence v. Babita Puniya
31.​When was the first UN Convention held?​
A. 26th January 1950​
B. 10th December 1948​
C. 24th October 1945​
D. 1st January 1946​
Answer: C. 24th October 1945
32.​Which was the first international document on human rights?​
A. UN Charter​
B. Magna Carta, 1215​
C. UDHR​
D. Geneva Convention​
Answer: B. Magna Carta, 1215
33.​Which Article of the Constitution recognises maternity benefit?​
A. Article 14​
B. Article 39​
C. Article 42​
D. Article 45​
Answer: C. Article 42
34.​In which case was the right to internet declared a fundamental right?​
A. PUCL v. Union of India​
B. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
C. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India​
D. K.S. Puttaswamy v. UOI​
Answer: C. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
35.​Right to sleep as a fundamental right arose from which incident?​
A. Shaheen Bagh protests​
B. Ramila Maidan Incident​
C. Nirbhaya case​
 D. AFSPA protests​
Answer: B. Ramila Maidan Incident
36.​Right to education was made a fundamental right in which year?​
A. 1995​
B. 2002​
C. 2010​
D. 2005​
Answer: B. 2002
37.​“All humans are born free and equal in dignity and rights” is part of which
international convention?​
A. CEDAW​
B. ICCPR​
C. UDHR​
D. Geneva Convention​
Answer: C. UDHR
38.​Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is also known as:​
A. 74th Amendment​
B. 105th Amendment​
C. 106th Amendment​
D. 108th Amendment​
Answer: C. 106th Amendment
39.​Which document is called the International Bill of Human Rights?​
A. Geneva Convention​
B. UN Charter​
C. UDHR​
D. CEDAW​
Answer: C. UDHR
40.​Which convention protects women during wartime?​
A. UDHR​
B. CEDAW​
C. Geneva Conventions​
 D. Vienna Convention​
Answer: C. Geneva Conventions
41.​Who drafts General Recommendations under CEDAW?​
A. UN Human Rights Council​
B. UN General Assembly​
C. CEDAW Committee​
D. UN Women​
Answer: C. CEDAW Committee
42.​What is the main principle behind the UDHR?​
A. Gender Parity​
B. Rule of Law​
C. Human Dignity​
D. Cultural Integrity​
Answer: C. Human Dignity
43.​Which UN body drafts human rights treaties?​
A. UNHRC​
B. UN Women​
C. UN General Assembly​
D. ICJ​
Answer: C. UN General Assembly
44.​What reporting mechanism under CEDAW requires states to submit periodic
reports?​
A. Universal Periodic Review​
B. Shadow Reporting Mechanism​
C. State Reporting Procedure​
D. NGO Monitoring​
Answer: C. State Reporting Procedure
45.​What does the principle of “intersectionality” mean in the context of women’s
rights?​
A. Gender equality through laws​
B. Equal opportunity in education​
 C. Multiple forms of discrimination​
D. Political empowerment​
Answer: C. Multiple forms of discrimination
46.​Which UN Declaration explicitly addresses violence against women?​
A. UDHR​
B. Geneva Convention​
C. CEDAW​
D. Declaration on the Elimination of Violence against Women (1993)​
Answer: D. Declaration on the Elimination of Violence against Women (1993)
47.​Which case expanded the meaning of sexual harassment using CEDAW in India?​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. Air India v. Nargis​
C. Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India​
D. Joseph Shine v. Union of India​
Answer: C. Medha Kotwal Lele v. Union of India
48.​Which Directive Principle relates to securing equal pay for equal work?​
A. Article 15​
B. Article 39(d)​
C. Article 42​
D. Article 45​
Answer: B. Article 39(d)
49.​Which constitutional Article obligates the State to promote international peace and
security?​
A. Article 51​
B. Article 14​
C. Article 16​
D. Article 253​
Answer: A. Article 51
50.​Which constitutional provision enables Parliament to implement international
treaties like CEDAW?​
A. Article 14​
 B. Article 15​
C. Article 253​
D. Article 368​
Answer: C. Article 253
51.​Which Directive Principle asks the State to ensure maternity relief?​
A. Article 39​
B. Article 45​
C. Article 42​
D. Article 41​
Answer: C. Article 42
52.​Which convention first legally recognised women’s political rights internationally?​
A. CEDAW​
B. Convention on Consent to Marriage​
C. Convention on the Political Rights of Women (1952)​
D. Geneva Convention​
Answer: C. Convention on the Political Rights of Women (1952)
53.​What does the principle of ‘Due Diligence’ under CEDAW require of States?​
A. Enforce equality only in public institutions​
B. Prevent, Protect, and Remedy violations​
C. Maintain traditional roles of women​
D. Provide subsidies for child care​
Answer: B. Prevent, Protect, and Remedy violations
54.​Which principle in Indian constitutional law allows courts to interpret domestic law
harmoniously with international law?​
A. Doctrine of Eclipse​
B. Doctrine of Harmonious Construction​
C. Doctrine of Pith and Substance​
D. Doctrine of Prospective Overruling​
Answer: B. Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
55.​Which convention addresses forced marriage and sets the minimum age for
marriage?​
 A. Convention on the Rights of the Child​
B. CEDAW​
C. Convention on Consent to Marriage (1962)​
D. UDHR​
Answer: C. Convention on Consent to Marriage (1962)
56.​Which landmark Indian case recognised sexual orientation as part of Article 21’s
privacy right?​
A. K.S. Puttaswamy v. UOI​
B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
C. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India​
D. Shreya Singhal v. UOI​
Answer: C. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
57.​Which principle requires states to repeal discriminatory customary laws?​
A. Principle of Rule of Law​
B. Doctrine of Basic Structure​
C. Obligation to Modify Customary Practices​
D. Principle of Harmonisation​
Answer: C. Obligation to Modify Customary Practices
58.​Which Indian Act punishes trafficking of women?​
A. Child Labour Act​
B. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act​
C. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956​
D. POCSO Act​
Answer: C. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
59.​Which fundamental right is violated by dowry-related harassment?​
A. Right to Education​
B. Right to Equality​
C. Right to Life and Dignity​
D. Right to Religion​
Answer: C. Right to Life and Dignity
60.​Which principle states that no human right is more important than another?​
A. Universality​
B. Non-derogability​
C. Indivisibility​
D. Subsidiarity​
Answer: C. Indivisibility
61.​Who monitors state compliance with the Convention on the Elimination of All
Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?​
A. UN Human Rights Council​
B. ICJ​
C. CEDAW Committee​
D. UN General Assembly​
Answer: C. CEDAW Committee
62.​The phrase “Women’s rights are human rights” was popularised during which
event?​
A. CEDAW adoption​
B. First World Conference on Women​
C. Beijing Conference 1995​
D. UN Charter signing​
Answer: C. Beijing Conference 1995
63.​Which case created binding guidelines for sexual harassment at workplace in India?​
A. Air India v. Nargis​
B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
C. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
D. Anuradha Bhasin v. UOI​
Answer: B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
64.​The Due Diligence obligation under CEDAW requires states to:​
A. Punish only public officials​
B. Promote education only​
C. Prevent, investigate, and punish acts of violence​
 D. Modify only laws​
Answer: C. Prevent, investigate, and punish acts of violence
65.​Which article of CEDAW mandates states to eliminate gender stereotypes?​
A. Article 1​
B. Article 3​
C. Article 5(a)​
D. Article 16​
Answer: C. Article 5(a)
66.​In which year was the UDHR adopted by the UN General Assembly?​
A. 1945​
B. 1952​
C. 1948​
D. 1950​
Answer: C. 1948
67.​The CEDAW Committee consists of how many experts?​
A. 15​
B. 20​
C. 23​
D. 30​
Answer: C. 23
68.​Who assumed the charge of Chairperson, National Commission for Women on
August 7, 2018?​
A. Maneka Gandhi​
B. Rekha Sharma​
C. Indira Jaising​
D. Vrinda Grover​
Answer: B. Rekha Sharma
69.​Who nominates the members of the National Commission for Women?​
A. Parliament​
B. Supreme Court​
C. Union Government​
 D. State Governments​
Answer: C. Union Government
70.​When was the National Commission for Women (NCW) established?​
A. 1990​
B. 31 January 1992​
C. 1995​
D. 1989​
Answer: B. 31 January 1992
71.​What is a key reason for crimes against women in India?​
A. Caste​
B. Poverty​
C. Patriarchy / Gender Inequality​
D. Illiteracy​
Answer: C. Patriarchy / Gender Inequality
72.​How is sexual harassment defined?​
A. Any violence against women​
B. Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical
conduct​
C. Stalking​
D. Eve teasing only​
Answer: B. Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other
verbal or physical conduct
73.​Which section of IPC deals with rape by public servants?​
A. Section 375​
B. Section 376​
C. Section 354​
D. Section 509​
Answer: B. Section 376
74.​Sections 326A and 326B of IPC deal with:​
A. Theft​
B. Sexual harassment​
 C. Grievous hurt and acid attacks​
D. Trafficking​
Answer: C. Grievous hurt and acid attacks
75.​Sections 372 and 373 of IPC relate to:​
A. Dowry​
B. Domestic violence​
C. Trafficking​
D. Rape​
Answer: C. Trafficking
76.​What does the POSH Act aim to protect?​
A. Children from abuse​
B. Women from trafficking​
C. Women from sexual harassment at workplace​
D. Prisoners from mistreatment​
Answer: C. Women from sexual harassment at workplace
77.​An Internal Complaints Committee must be formed in offices with how many or
more employees?​
A. 5​
B. 10​
C. 15​
D. 20​
Answer: B. 10
78.​Can the government inspect workplace records related to sexual harassment?​
A. No​
B. Yes​
C. Only on request​
D. Only in private companies​
Answer: B. Yes
79.​The Magna Carta (1215) is seen as a milestone in:​
A. Women’s empowerment​
B. British political history​
 C. History of human rights​
D. International law​
Answer: C. History of human rights
80.​Article 42 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to provide:​
A. Free education​
B. Free housing​
C. Maternity relief​
D. Reservation in jobs​
Answer: C. Maternity relief
81.​What does the Basic Structure Doctrine protect?​
A. Right to vote​
B. Power of Parliament​
C. Fundamental framework of the Constitution​
D. State powers​
Answer: C. Fundamental framework of the Constitution
82.​What is the Universal Periodic Review (UPR)?​
A. Review of treaties​
B. Monitoring military aid​
C. Review of human rights records of UN member states​
D. Monitoring child rights​
Answer: C. Review of human rights records of UN member states
83.​What does the principle of Non-Derogable Rights mean?​
A. Rights given by Parliament​
B. Rights that can be denied in emergencies​
C. Rights that cannot be suspended even during emergencies​
D. State-specific rights​
Answer: C. Rights that cannot be suspended even during emergencies
84.​Has India ratified the Optional Protocol to CEDAW?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Partially​
 D. With reservations​
Answer: B. No
85.​Can private acts of domestic violence attract state responsibility under CEDAW?​
A. No​
B. Yes​
C. Only in severe cases​
D. Only if reported​
Answer: B. Yes
86.​Is the Universal Declaration of Human Rights legally binding?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only in Europe​
D. Only when signed​
Answer: B. No
87.​Does Article 15(3) of the Constitution permit affirmative action for women?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only for SC/ST​
D. Not mentioned​
Answer: A. Yes
88.​Was the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act enacted before India
ratified CEDAW?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Same year​
D. Not related​
Answer: B. No
89.​Can India enact laws implementing CEDAW under Article 253 of the Constitution?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only in Union Territories​
 D. With State consent​
Answer: A. Yes
90.​Is the Right to Privacy a recognised fundamental right under Article 21?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only in digital matters​
D. Only for men​
Answer: A. Yes
91.​Is intersectionality addressed explicitly in CEDAW’s text?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only in Optional Protocol​
D. In General Recommendation 19​
Answer: B. No
92.​Does the ICCPR mention equal political rights for women?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only for signatory states​
D. In optional clauses​
Answer: A. Yes
93.​ Was the Vishaka Guidelines case based partly on India’s international obligations?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only on Indian law​
D. Based on Preamble​
Answer: A. Yes
94.​ Did the Supreme Court uphold permanent commission for women in the Navy
before the Army?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Simultaneously​
 D. Not applicable​
Answer: B. No
95.​Does the Maputo Protocol apply to South Asian countries?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only in India​
D. In SAARC states​
Answer: B. No
96.​Are reservation quotas for women in Parliament mandatory under the Indian
Constitution?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. In Lok Sabha only​
D. In Rajya Sabha only​
Answer: B. No
97.​Is the Convention on Consent to Marriage relevant to eliminating child marriage?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only to dowry​
D. Related to education​
Answer: A. Yes
98.​Was the Magna Carta the first legally binding international human rights treaty?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. It was a constitution​
D. It was a UN Charter​
Answer: B. No
99.​The right to maternity relief is part of Fundamental Rights under the Indian
Constitution.​
A. True​
B. False​
 C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: B. False
100.​ India has no reservations to CEDAW.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: B. False
101.​ The ICCPR and ICESCR together form the International Bill of Human Rights.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: A. True
102.​ The Convention on Political Rights of Women is monitored by the ICJ.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: B. False
103.​ Article 21 of the Constitution protects the right to safe abortion in India.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: A. True
104.​ The Basic Structure Doctrine limits Parliament’s power to amend fundamental
rights.​
A. True​
B. False​
 C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: A. True
105.​ The Maputo Protocol was drafted by the African Union.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Partly False​
Answer: A. True
106.​ In which case was it held that registration of marriage is mandatory?​
A. D. Velusamy v. Pachaiammal​
B. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar (2006)​
C. Supriyo v. Union of India​
D. Joseph Shine v. Union of India​
Answer: B. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar (2006)
107.​ Which case discussed the status of a second wife in a live-in relationship?​
A. Bhanwari Devi case​
B. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
C. D. Velusamy v. Pachaiammal​
D. Shafin Jahan v. Asokan​
Answer: C. D. Velusamy v. Pachaiammal
108.​ Supriyo @ Supriya Chakraborty v. Union of India (2023) is related to:​
A. Right to education​
B. Female genital mutilation​
C. Recognition of same-sex marriage​
D. Polygamy rights​
Answer: C. Recognition of same-sex marriage
109.​ Which Act was enacted in pursuance of the Navtej Singh Johar case?​
A. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act​
B. POSH Act​
C. ITPA​
 D. Juvenile Justice Act​
Answer: A. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act
110.​ Who founded the #MeToo movement?​
A. Malala Yousafzai​
B. Kamla Bhasin​
C. Tarana Burke​
D. Vandana Shiva​
Answer: C. Tarana Burke
111.​ Which committee addressed sexual harassment in the Kerala film industry?​
A. Malimath Committee​
B. Hema Committee​
C. Verma Committee​
D. Justice Krishna Iyer Committee​
Answer: B. Hema Committee
112.​ In which case was it held that the right to strike is not a fundamental right?​
A. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation​
B. T.K. Rangarajan v. State of Tamil Nadu​
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India​
D. Air India v. Nargis Mirza​
Answer: B. T.K. Rangarajan v. State of Tamil Nadu
113.​ What are the first ten amendments of the U.S. Constitution collectively called?​
A. Charter of Freedom​
B. Fundamental Rights​
C. Bill of Rights​
D. Amendatory Acts​
Answer: C. Bill of Rights
114.​ Which was the first legal international instrument to recognise child rights?​
A. CRC​
B. Geneva Convention​
C. Declaration of the Rights of the Child​
 D. UDHR​
Answer: C. Declaration of the Rights of the Child
115.​ Who founded Arya Samaj and gave the slogan "Go Back to Vedas"?​
A. Swami Vivekananda​
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy​
C. Swami Dayanand Saraswati​
D. Swami Shraddhanand​
Answer: C. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
116.​ Which legislation abolished the practice of Sati?​
A. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act​
B. Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829​
C. Sati (Prevention) Act​
D. Widow Protection Act​
Answer: B. Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829
117.​ Which Act abolished slavery in British India?​
A. Indian Penal Code, 1860​
B. Bengal Regulation Act, 1829​
C. The Charter Act, 1833​
D. Slavery Abolition Act, 1843​
Answer: C. The Charter Act, 1833
118.​ What does the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 prohibit?​
A. Demand for dowry before marriage only​
B. Demand of dowry only after marriage​
C. Giving or taking of dowry at any time​
D. Only gifts over ₹5,000​
Answer: C. Giving or taking of dowry at any time
119.​ For maternity benefit eligibility, how long must a woman be employed in the
past year?​
A. 60 days​
B. 100 days​
C. 80 days​
 D. 120 days​
Answer: C. 80 days
120.​ Sexual harassment includes which of the following?​
A. Only physical contact​
B. Only verbal abuse​
C. Physical contact and implied requests for sexual favours​
D. Casual flirting​
Answer: C. Physical contact and implied requests for sexual favours
121.​ What did the Supreme Court explain in Bantu v. State of U.P. (2008)?​
A. Definition of domestic violence​
B. Definition of rape as forceful carnal knowledge​
C. Right to education​
D. Right to privacy​
Answer: B. Definition of rape as forceful carnal knowledge
122.​ Under which section is intercourse with the wife during separation punishable?​
A. 375​
B. 376B​
C. 376A​
D. 497​
Answer: C. 376A
123.​ What did the court recommend in Delhi Domestic Working Women’s Forum v.
UOI (1995)?​
A. Right to marry by choice​
B. Reservation in services​
C. Legal, medical, psychological help to sexual assault victims​
D. Banning live-in relationships​
Answer: C. Legal, medical, psychological help to sexual assault victims
124.​ What does the phrase “Womb to Tomb” refer to?​
A. Women’s education​
B. Cultural beliefs​
C. Discrimination against women throughout life​
 D. Ancient medical practices​
Answer: C. Discrimination against women throughout life
125.​ What is SEWA known for?​
A. Religious reforms​
B. Women’s employment and rights​
C. Health campaigns​
D. Educational training only​
Answer: B. Women’s employment and rights
126.​ In which year did the Government of India declare the Year of Women’s
Empowerment (Swashakti)?​
A. 1995​
B. 2001​
C. 2015​
D. 1989​
Answer: B. 2001
127.​ What is domestic violence?​
A. Crime in public places​
B. Harassment by employer​
C. Abuse by one partner against another in intimate relationships​
D. Political discrimination​
Answer: C. Abuse by one partner against another in intimate relationships
128.​ What is female infanticide?​
A. Neglect of a girl child​
B. Elective killing of a newborn female or abortion of female fetus​
C. Malnutrition in girls​
D. Early marriage of girls​
Answer: B. Elective killing of a newborn female or abortion of female fetus
129.​ How often is a woman raped in India according to NCRB?​
A. Every hour​
B. Every 30 minutes​
C. Every 20 minutes​
 D. Every day​
Answer: C. Every 20 minutes
130.​ What is the objective of the POSH Act?​
A. Prevent domestic violence​
B. Protect women from dowry​
C. Prevent sexual harassment of women at the workplace​
D. Promote girl education​
Answer: C. Prevent sexual harassment of women at the workplace
131.​ What is the function of the National Database on Sexual Offenders (NDSO)?​
A. List child criminals​
B. Track dowry offenders​
C. Investigate and track sexual offenders​
D. Create a victim help database​
Answer: C. Investigate and track sexual offenders
132.​ What is the One-Stop Centre Scheme?​
A. Online career counselling for women​
B. Legal aid for poor​
C. Support and assistance to women affected by violence under one roof​
D. Scheme for girl child education​
Answer: C. Support and assistance to women affected by violence under one roof
133.​ What impact does female literacy have?​
A. No effect on society​
B. Better sex ratio and economic health​
C. Increases unemployment​
D. Delays marriage age only​
Answer: B. Better sex ratio and economic health
134.​ What did the Kothari Commission (1968) recommend?​
A. Free travel for girls​
B. Caste-based reservation​
C. Use of education to uplift women​
 D. Only primary education for girls​
Answer: C. Use of education to uplift women
135.​ What is the aim of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme?​
A. Stop early marriage​
B. Promote girl employment​
C. Address declining child sex ratio​
D. Prevent child labour​
Answer: C. Address declining child sex ratio
136.​ What are some interventions of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan for girls?​
A. Free textbooks​
B. Vocational training​
C. Women teachers, girl toilets, awareness​
D. Cycle distribution​
Answer: C. Women teachers, girl toilets, awareness
137.​ What is the objective of RMSA (Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan)?​
A. Promote Sanskrit​
B. Eliminate co-education​
C. Improve secondary education and remove gender barriers​
D. Build more universities​
Answer: C. Improve secondary education and remove gender barriers
138.​ What is rape by a police officer called?​
A. Custodial rape​
B. Aggravated rape​
C. Forcible intercourse​
D. Statutory rape​
Answer: B. Aggravated rape
139.​ What is the minimum punishment for gang rape under Indian law?​
A. 7 years​
B. 10 years​
C. 20 years​
 D. Life imprisonment only​
Answer: C. 20 years
140.​ According to Section 304B IPC, dowry death must occur within how many years
of marriage?​
A. 3 years​
B. 5 years​
C. 7 years​
D. 10 years​
Answer: C. 7 years
141.​ Legally, what is meant by ‘dowry’?​
A. Cash only​
B. Gift to husband’s parents​
C. Property/valuable given in marriage​
D. Alimony after divorce​
Answer: C. Property/valuable given in marriage
142.​ Is dowry a cognizable offence?​
A. No​
B. Yes​
C. Only in some states​
D. Only after FIR​
Answer: B. Yes
143.​ Which section of IPC deals with cruelty by husband or in-laws?​
A. Section 304B​
B. Section 498A​
C. Section 375​
D. Section 306​
Answer: B. Section 498A
144.​ Presumption of dowry death is found under which section of the Evidence Act?​
A. Section 112​
B. Section 113A​
C. Section 113B​
 D. Section 114​
Answer: C. Section 113B
145.​ What does PWDVA stand for?​
A. Public Women’s Defence and Vigilance Act​
B. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act​
C. Prohibition of Women’s Dowry Violence Act​
D. Prevention of Widow Discrimination and Violence Act​
Answer: B. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
146.​ What is the link between female literacy and sex ratio?​
A. Higher literacy → worse sex ratio​
B. Higher literacy → better sex ratio​
C. No correlation​
D. Higher literacy → increase in female foeticide​
Answer: B. Higher literacy → better sex ratio
147.​ An Internal Complaints Committee is mandatory for workplaces with:​
A. More than 5 employees​
B. More than 15 employees​
C. More than 10 employees​
D. Any size of organisation​
Answer: C. More than 10 employees
148.​ Under which Act is running a brothel illegal?​
A. POSH Act, 2013​
B. POCSO Act, 2012​
C. ITPA, 1956​
D. IPC Section 294​
Answer: C. ITPA, 1956
149.​ Which scheme deals with rehabilitation of sex workers?​
A. Swadhar Greh​
B. SABLA​
C. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao​
 D. Ujjawala Scheme​
Answer: D. Ujjawala Scheme
150.​ Which body ensures protection of women’s rights in India?​
A. NCERT​
B. NHRC​
C. NCW​
D. NITI Aayog​
Answer: C. NCW
151.​ In which year was the Indecent Representation of Women Act passed?​
A. 1993​
B. 1986​
C. 2001​
D. 2013​
Answer: B. 1986
152.​ In which case did the court state that Right to Life includes the right against
rape?​
A. Nirbhaya Case​
B. Bodhisattwa Gautam v. Subhra Chakraborty​
C. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
D. State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar Narayan​
Answer: B. Bodhisattwa Gautam v. Subhra Chakraborty
153.​ Which case led to the formation of the Justice Verma Committee?​
A. Mathura rape case​
B. Bhanwari Devi case​
C. Nirbhaya gang rape case​
D. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy​
Answer: C. Nirbhaya gang rape case
154.​ One of the primary reasons women are pushed into prostitution is:​
A. Lack of education​
B. Poverty​
C. Lack of protection laws​
 D. Urbanisation​
Answer: B. Poverty
155.​ Who usually conducts rescue operations for prostitutes?​
A. NHRC​
B. NGOs and police​
C. Local corporations​
D. Judiciary​
Answer: B. NGOs and police
156.​ Which Act penalises sex-selective abortion?​
A. POSH Act​
B. ITPA​
C. PNDT Act​
D. CEDAW​
Answer: C. PNDT Act
157.​ What is female foeticide?​
A. Killing of a girl child after birth​
B. Abortion of a male foetus​
C. Termination of a female foetus due to sex detection​
D. Gender-neutral abortion​
Answer: C. Termination of a female foetus due to sex detection
158.​ The main cause of female foeticide is:​
A. Financial burden​
B. Urbanisation​
C. Patriarchal mindset​
D. Illiteracy​
Answer: C. Patriarchal mindset
159.​ Domestic violence in rural India is often triggered by:​
A. Cultural festivities​
B. Demands of dowry or a male child​
C. Lack of education​
 D. Employment issues​
Answer: B. Demands of dowry or a male child
160.​ Which of the following is a form of physical abuse?​
A. Gaslighting​
B. Slapping or hitting​
C. Ignoring messages​
D. Name-calling​
Answer: B. Slapping or hitting
161.​ Which section defines domestic violence in Indian law?​
A. IPC 498A​
B. Section 3, PWDVA, 2005​
C. IPC 304B​
D. Section 2, Dowry Prohibition Act​
Answer: B. Section 3, PWDVA, 2005
162.​ What is the nature of the offence under Section 304B of IPC?​
A. Non-cognizable and bailable​
B. Cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable, triable by Court of Session​
C. Bailable and compoundable​
D. Civil wrong​
Answer: B. Cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable, triable by Court of
Session
163.​ Which case first recognised workplace sexual harassment in India?​
A. Nirbhaya v. UOI​
B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
C. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
D. Medha Kotwal Lele v. UOI​
Answer: B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
164.​ Workplace sexual harassment violates which Articles of the Constitution?​
A. 19 and 32​
B. 14, 15, and 21​
C. 39 and 41​
 D. 12 and 20​
Answer: B. 14, 15, and 21
165.​ The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 added which offence?​
A. Dowry​
B. Marital rape​
C. Acid attack​
D. Sati​
Answer: C. Acid attack
166.​ Which section was inserted to presume acid attack in favour of the victim?​
A. Section 113A of Evidence Act​
B. Section 114B of Evidence Act​
C. Section 304B of IPC​
D. Section 498A of IPC​
Answer: B. Section 114B of Evidence Act
167.​ Where is the meaning of "dowry" defined legally?​
A. Section 2, Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961​
B. Section 4, Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961​
C. Section 3, Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961​
D. Section 498A, IPC​
Answer: A. Section 2, Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961
168.​ Who is the current Minister of Women and Child Development (as of 2025)?​
A. Smriti Zubin Irani​
B. Nirmala Sitharaman​
C. Menaka Gandhi​
D. Meenakshi Lekhi​
Answer: A. Smriti Zubin Irani
169.​ Section 376 of IPC deals with:​
A. Cruelty to women​
B. Sexual harassment​
C. Punishment for rape​
 D. Trafficking​
Answer: C. Punishment for rape
170.​ The POSH Act, 2013 applies to:​
A. Only government sector​
B. Only organised sector​
C. Only corporate companies​
D. Both organised and unorganised sectors​
Answer: D. Both organised and unorganised sectors
171.​ What is the name of the committee formed in every organisation to redress
sexual harassment complaints?​
A. Complaints Resolution Panel​
B. Internal Complaints Committee​
C. Women’s Grievance Forum​
D. Sexual Offence Board​
Answer: B. Internal Complaints Committee
172.​ Marital rape is not recognised in India when a man:​
A. Has sex with his wife with consent​
B. Has sex with wife without consent​
C. Has sex with wife, consensually or not​
D. Is living separately​
Answer: C. Has sex with wife, consensually or not
173.​ What is the punishment for raping a woman who has never been his wife?​
A. 1 to 3 years​
B. 5 years to life​
C. Minimum 7 years, maximum death​
D. Fine only​
Answer: C. Minimum 7 years, maximum death
174.​ What is the punishment for first-time voyeurism offence under IPC?​
A. 3 months​
B. 6 months to 1 year​
C. 1 to 3 years​
 D. 5 years​
Answer: C. 1 to 3 years
175.​ As per the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, a rape victim's statement
must be recorded by:​
A. Any officer​
B. Female social worker​
C. Female police officer only​
D. Magistrate​
Answer: C. Female police officer only
176.​ In which case did the court rule that cruelty can be a ground for divorce and
maintenance?​
A. T. Sareetha v. T. Venkata Subbaiah​
B. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy​
C. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
D. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
Answer: B. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy
177.​ A demand or request for sexual favour is punishable under which section?​
A. 354B​
B. 354A​
C. 375​
D. 509​
Answer: B. 354A
178.​ Section 498A of IPC includes cruelty in the form of:​
A. Physical harassment only​
B. Mental harassment only​
C. Both physical and mental harassment​
D. Social boycott​
Answer: C. Both physical and mental harassment
179.​ Which case is infamously known as the " Vismaya Dowry Death Case" in
Kerala?​
A. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy​
 B. Kiran Kumar v. State of Kerala​
C. State of Punjab v. Gurmit Singh​
D. T.K. Ranga Rajan v. Tamil Nadu​
Answer: B. Kiran Kumar v. State of Kerala
180.​ Section 354 of IPC was amended by which Act?​
A. POSH Act, 2013​
B. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013​
C. Protection of Women Act, 2005​
D. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961​
Answer: B. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
181.​ The Shakti Criminal Law Amendment Bill, 2020 was passed by which
government?​
A. Uttar Pradesh​
B. Kerala​
C. Maharashtra​
D. Delhi​
Answer: C. Maharashtra
182.​ The case that deals with marital rape in India is:​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
C. Independent Thought v. Union of India​
D. Supriyo v. UOI​
Answer: C. Independent Thought v. Union of India
183.​ Stalking is defined under which section of the IPC?​
A. 354A​
B. 354D​
C. 509​
D. 498A​
Answer: B. 354D
184.​ The Indecent Representation of Women Act prohibits representation through:​
A. Education​
 B. Print and visual media​
C. Art only​
D. Performance only​
Answer: B. Print and visual media
185.​ What does "sex trafficking" refer to?​
A. Harassment in social media​
B. Sexual exploitation of persons for commercial gain​
C. Marriage fraud​
D. Pornography only​
Answer: B. Sexual exploitation of persons for commercial gain
186.​ What does the SABLA scheme aim to do?​
A. Train women in agriculture​
B. Empower adolescent girls through nutrition, healthcare, and life skills​
C. Provide legal aid to women​
D. Create women's SHGs​
Answer: B. Empower adolescent girls through nutrition, healthcare, and life skills
187.​ What is the focus of the Ujjawala Scheme?​
A. Widow pension​
B. Self-employment for women​
C. Prevention of trafficking and rehabilitation of victims​
D. Reservation in politics​
Answer: C. Prevention of trafficking and rehabilitation of victims
188.​ What does the General Role Theory explain?​
A. Women’s role in politics​
B. Division of labour and family dynamics​
C. Legal principles in IPC​
D. Education pattern of rural women​
Answer: B. Division of labour and family dynamics
189.​ What is the Istanbul Convention?​
A. Treaty on global warming​
B. A UN resolution on war​
 C. A binding European treaty on gender-based violence​
D. A declaration on poverty​
Answer: C. A binding European treaty on gender-based violence
190.​ What does Article 40 of the Istanbul Convention state?​
A. Right to education​
B. Sexual harassment must be criminalised or legally sanctioned​
C. Equal voting rights​
D. Women’s reservation in judiciary​
Answer: B. Sexual harassment must be criminalised or legally sanctioned
191.​ What is the maximum tenure of members of the National Commission for
Women?​
A. 5 years​
B. 2 years​
C. 4 years​
D. 3 years​
Answer: D. 3 years
192.​ Under which section of POCSO is non-reporting of child sexual abuse a
punishable offence?​
A. Section 20​
B. Section 21​
C. Section 23​
D. Section 19​
Answer: B. Section 21
193.​ Under which section of the IT Act is child pornography a punishable offence?​
A. Section 66A​
B. Section 67​
C. Section 67B​
D. Section 69A​
Answer: C. Section 67B
194.​ What is the emergency helpline number for children in distress in India?​
A. 100​
 B. 181​
C. 1098​
D. 102​
Answer: C. 1098
195.​ Where should a child’s statement be recorded according to POCSO?​
A. In court​
B. At police station​
C. At child’s home or place of comfort by a female officer​
D. At the District Collector’s office​
Answer: C. At child’s home or place of comfort by a female officer
196.​ Which section of IPC defines human trafficking?​
A. Section 370​
B. Section 354D​
C. Section 366A​
D. Section 376​
Answer: A. Section 370
197.​ What is the function of Child Welfare Committees (CWCs)?​
A. Punish child offenders​
B. Rescue street children only​
C. Care for children in need of protection, especially in abuse cases​
D. Monitor adoption agencies​
Answer: C. Care for children in need of protection, especially in abuse cases
198.​ What type of offence is covered under Section 354A of IPC?​
A. Domestic violence​
B. Sexual harassment​
C. Dowry demand​
D. Acid attack​
Answer: B. Sexual harassment
199.​ Who can file a complaint under the POSH Act?​
A. Only women​
B. Only men​
 C. Any employee​
D. Only government employees​
Answer: A. Only women
200.​ Under which Act is "female foeticide" regulated and punishable?​
A. MTP Act, 1971​
B. PNDT Act, 1994​
C. POCSO Act, 2012​
D. POSH Act, 2013​
Answer: B. PNDT Act, 1994
201.​ What is "dowry death" as per IPC?​
A. Death due to poverty​
B. Death of a bride within 7 years under unnatural circumstances and dowry suspicion​
C. Murder of groom for dowry​
D. Natural death of a bride after 5 years​
Answer: B. Death of a bride within 7 years under unnatural circumstances and
dowry suspicion
202.​ What does Section 498A IPC criminalise?​
A. Public nuisance​
B. Sexual harassment at work​
C. Cruelty by husband or in-laws​
D. Child labour​
Answer: C. Cruelty by husband or in-laws
203.​ What is the aim of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme?​
A. Fund marriage of girls​
B. Promote rural girl education​
C. Stop female foeticide and promote girl child education​
D. Build girl hostels​
Answer: C. Stop female foeticide and promote girl child education
204.​ Under the POSH Act, what happens if a complaint is found to be malicious or
false?​
A. Dismissed silently​
 B. Woman is fined​
C. Action may be taken against the complainant​
D. Organisation is fined​
Answer: C. Action may be taken against the complainant
205.​ Which committee was constituted to suggest reforms after the Nirbhaya case?​
A. Hema Committee​
B. Justice Malimath Committee​
C. Justice Verma Committee​
D. National Women’s Council​
Answer: C. Justice Verma Committee
206.​ What is the penalty for dowry under the Dowry Prohibition Act?​
A. 2 years and ₹5,000 fine​
B. 5 years and ₹15,000 or dowry amount​
C. 7 years and ₹25,000​
D. 3 years and ₹10,000​
Answer: B. 5 years and ₹15,000 or dowry amount
207.​ In domestic violence cases, who holds the burden of proof?​
A. Police​
B. Complainant​
C. Respondent​
D. Magistrate​
Answer: C. Respondent
208.​ What does ‘quid pro quo’ mean in the context of sexual harassment?​
A. Unwelcome jokes​
B. Retaliation for complaints​
C. Favour in return for sexual contact​
D. Peer pressure​
Answer: C. Favour in return for sexual contact
209.​ What does the term "female foeticide" refer to?​
A. Killing a girl child after birth​
B. Killing a female foetus in the womb​
 C. Marrying girls early​
D. Abandoning daughters​
Answer: B. Killing a female foetus in the womb
210.​ Under the MTP Act, pregnancy may be terminated up to how many weeks?​
A. 12 weeks​
B. 20 weeks​
C. 24 weeks​
D. 28 weeks​
Answer: C. 24 weeks
211.​ What was the increased minimum punishment for rape under the Criminal Law
Amendment Act?​
A. 5 to 7 years​
B. 7 to 10 years​
C. 10 to 14 years​
D. 5 to 10 years​
Answer: B. 7 to 10 years
212.​ Under Section 27(2) of POCSO, who must conduct the medical exam of a girl
child?​
A. Male doctor​
B. Nurse​
C. Female doctor​
D. Any paramedic​
Answer: C. Female doctor
213.​ Can an aggrieved woman reside in the shared household without ownership?​
A. No​
B. Only with court order​
C. Yes​
D. Only with in-laws’ permission​
Answer: C. Yes
214.​ In which case was adultery decriminalised in India?​
A. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
 B. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
C. Joseph Shine v. Union of India​
D. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy​
Answer: C. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
215.​ Which state developed the DISHA app for women’s safety?​
A. Tamil Nadu​
B. Andhra Pradesh​
C. Kerala​
D. Delhi​
Answer: B. Andhra Pradesh
216.​ What is the term for dower not fixed at the time of marriage?​
A. Mahr-i-adl​
B. Mahr-i-misl​
C. Fixed dower​
D. Optional dower​
Answer: B. Mahr-i-misl
217.​ Within how many hours should police report child sexual abuse to the CWC?​
A. 72 hours​
B. 24 hours​
C. 48 hours​
D. Immediately​
Answer: B. 24 hours
218.​ What is online sexual abuse?​
A. Bullying​
B. Using internet to sexually abuse or exploit​
C. Sending abusive texts​
D. Hacking accounts​
Answer: B. Using internet to sexually abuse or exploit
219.​ Section 509 IPC deals with:​
A. Physical violence​
B. Eve teasing​
 C. Outraging modesty by words/gestures​
D. Rape​
Answer: C. Outraging modesty by words/gestures
220.​ Which of the following is not a reason for female infanticide?​
A. Dowry​
B. Gender equality​
C. Illiteracy​
D. Male child preference​
Answer: B. Gender equality
221.​ What are the types of abuse under Domestic Violence Act?​
A. Physical only​
B. Physical and sexual​
C. All – Physical, sexual, emotional, verbal, economic​
D. Verbal only​
Answer: C. All – Physical, sexual, emotional, verbal, economic
222.​ What is prostitution legally?​
A. Illicit cohabitation​
B. Sexual activity for payment​
C. Romantic affair​
D. Harassment at work​
Answer: B. Sexual activity for payment
223.​ The Bengal Regulation Act aimed to stop:​
A. Dowry​
B. Female infanticide​
C. Child marriage​
D. Child labour​
Answer: B. Female infanticide
224.​ When was the PWDVA enacted?​
A. 2003​
B. 2005​
C. 2006​
 D. 2007​
Answer: B. 2005
225.​ What is the nature of PWDVA?​
A. Criminal​
B. Civil​
C. Constitutional​
D. Both criminal and civil​
Answer: B. Civil
226.​ Abuse under Section 3 of PWDVA includes:​
A. Only physical violence​
B. Only economic and verbal​
C. All: physical, sexual, verbal, economic​
D. Emotional only​
Answer: C. All: physical, sexual, verbal, economic
227.​ Who appoints Protection Officers under PWDVA?​
A. Centre​
B. High Court​
C. State Government​
D. Local Panchayat​
Answer: C. State Government
228.​ What is the punishment for violating protection orders (Section 31 of PWDVA)?​
A. 6 months​
B. 1 year or ₹20,000 fine or both​
C. Only fine​
D. No punishment​
Answer: B. 1 year or ₹20,000 fine or both
229.​ Who can file a case under PWDVA?​
A. Only woman​
B. Aggrieved person or Protection Officer or others on her behalf​
C. Husband​
 D. Only Protection Officer​
Answer: B. Aggrieved person or Protection Officer or others on her behalf
230.​ The offence under Section 31 PWDVA is:​
A. Non-cognizable​
B. Bailable​
C. Compoundable​
D. Cognizable and non-bailable​
Answer: D. Cognizable and non-bailable
231.​ Protection orders are enforceable:​
A. Within state only​
B. Only by local police​
C. Throughout India​
D. Only in district of filing​
Answer: C. Throughout India
232.​ Under Section 8 of PWDVA, number of Protection Officers is decided by:​
A. Parliament​
B. High Court​
C. State Government​
D. District Magistrate​
Answer: C. State Government
233.​ Who is notified about the hearing under Section 12 of PWDVA?​
A. Accused​
B. Protection Officer​
C. Victim​
D. Witness​
Answer: B. Protection Officer
234.​ Till when is a protection order under PWDVA valid?​
A. 6 months​
B. Until victim moves court for discharge​
C. Until case ends​
 D. 1 year​
Answer: B. Until victim moves court for discharge
235.​ What was the draft initiative that inspired PWDVA?​
A. SEWA​
B. Justice Verma Committee​
C. Staying Alive – LCWRI​
D. POSH Guidelines​
Answer: C. Staying Alive – LCWRI
236.​ Which courts are used under PWDVA?​
A. Civil Courts​
B. Family Courts​
C. Magistrate Courts​
D. High Court​
Answer: C. Magistrate Courts
237.​ Section 3 of PWDVA defines:​
A. Protection Order​
B. Domestic relationship​
C. Domestic violence​
D. Judicial power​
Answer: C. Domestic violence
238.​ Can a neighbour report domestic violence under PWDVA?​
A. No​
B. Yes, and can be punished​
C. Yes, and is protected from liability​
D. Only with court order​
Answer: C. Yes, and is protected from liability
239.​ In Sarswathy v. Babu (2014), the court held:​
A. Past violence is not covered​
B. Act applies if violence continued after enactment​
C. Divorce must be granted​
 D. Police can’t file complaint​
Answer: B. Act applies if violence continued after enactment
240.​ Section 2(q) defines “respondent” as:​
A. Any man in domestic relationship​
B. Any person in family​
C. Any woman in household​
D. Judge​
Answer: A. Any man in domestic relationship
241.​ Section 5 of PWDVA deals with:​
A. Penalty​
B. Duties of police and service providers​
C. Divorce​
D. Bail​
Answer: B. Duties of police and service providers
242.​ How many chapters are there in PWDVA, 2005?​
A. 4​
B. 5​
C. 6​
D. 3​
Answer: B. 5
243.​ How many sections are there in PWDVA, 2005?​
A. 25​
B. 30​
C. 37​
D. 42​
Answer: C. 37
244.​ Who enforces MTP Act amendments and rules?​
A. Ministry of Law​
B. Ministry of Health​
C. Ministry of Women & Child​
 D. Medical Board​
Answer: B. Ministry of Health
245.​ Who is eligible for MTP under amended law (2021)?​
A. Only married women​
B. Married and unmarried women​
C. Widow only​
D. None​
Answer: B. Married and unmarried women
246.​ Under which section of the MTP Act is pregnancy termination allowed up to 20
weeks with one doctor's opinion?​
A. Section 3(1)​
B. Section 3(2)(a)​
C. Section 5​
D. Section 3(4)​
Answer: B. Section 3(2)(a)
247.​ For pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks, how many medical opinions are
required under the 2021 Amendment of the MTP Act?​
A. One​
B. Two​
C. Three​
D. Four​
Answer: B. Two
248.​ Beyond 24 weeks, termination is allowed only if:​
A. The woman is married​
B. The court allows it​
C. A Medical Board confirms substantial foetal abnormality​
D. One doctor permits​
Answer: C. A Medical Board confirms substantial foetal abnormality
249.​ Which Supreme Court case upheld the right of unmarried women to seek
abortion under the MTP Act?​
A. X v. Union of India, 2022​
 B. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
C. Supriyo v. UOI​
D. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
Answer: A. X v. Union of India, 2022
250.​ Under which explanation is MTP allowed due to failure of contraception by
woman or partner?​
A. Explanation I to Section 2​
B. Explanation II to Section 3(2)​
C. Section 5​
D. Section 4​
Answer: B. Explanation II to Section 3(2)
251.​ The term "woman" under the MTP Act includes:​
A. Only married women​
B. Only widows​
C. Married and unmarried women​
D. Women above 30 years only​
Answer: C. Married and unmarried women
252.​ Consent of whom is mandatory for termination of pregnancy under MTP Act?​
A. Husband​
B. Parents​
C. Pregnant woman​
D. Police​
Answer: C. Pregnant woman
253.​ When is guardian’s consent required under the MTP Act?​
A. If the woman is below 25​
B. If she is unmarried​
C. If she is below 18 or mentally ill​
D. If she's divorced​
Answer: C. If she is below 18 or mentally ill
254.​ What section deals with confidentiality of woman’s identity under the MTP Act?​
A. Section 3​
 B. Section 5​
C. Section 5A​
D. Section 4​
Answer: C. Section 5A
255.​ MTP is permitted when continuation of pregnancy poses:​
A. Social pressure​
B. Economic hardship​
C. Grave risk to physical or mental health​
D. Family disapproval​
Answer: C. Grave risk to physical or mental health
256.​ Abortion under MTP is considered:​
A. An absolute right​
B. A religious right​
C. A legal, conditional and time-bound right​
D. A customary right​
Answer: C. A legal, conditional and time-bound right
257.​ In cases of rape or incest, the MTP Act presumes:​
A. Physical trauma​
B. Risk to public health​
C. Mental anguish​
D. Financial instability​
Answer: C. Mental anguish
258.​ Which case recognized reproductive autonomy as a part of Article 21?​
A. Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Admin.​
B. Supriyo v. UOI​
C. X v. Union of India (2022)​
D. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI​
Answer: C. X v. Union of India (2022)
259.​ Medical Board must give opinion within how many days for 24+ week
termination?​
A. 1 day​
 B. 3 days​
C. 5 days​
D. 7 days​
Answer: B. 3 days
260.​ MTPA was enacted on:​
A. August 10, 1971​
B. January 26, 1970​
C. March 5, 1972​
D. October 2, 1971​
Answer: A. August 10, 1971
261.​ Section 2(d) of MTPA defines:​
A. Doctor qualification​
B. Medical board structure​
C. Termination of pregnancy​
D. Spousal consent​
Answer: C. Termination of pregnancy
262.​ MTP is an exception to which IPC Sections?​
A. 300–304​
B. 312–316​
C. 320–326​
D. 420–423​
Answer: B. 312–316
263.​ Does the 2021 MTP Amendment include trans or non-binary individuals
explicitly?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only non-binary​
D. Only intersex​
Answer: B. No
264.​ Which section of the MTP Act affirms no spousal/parental consent is required
for adults?​
 A. Section 3(2)​
B. Section 5​
C. Section 3(4)(a)​
D. Section 4​
Answer: C. Section 3(4)(a)
265.​ The Shantilal Shah Committee was established in:​
A. 1960​
B. 1964​
C. 1971​
D. 1975​
Answer: B. 1964
266.​ The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 introduced death penalty for rape of:​
A. Woman over 18​
B. Girl below 12 years​
C. Girl between 12–16 years​
D. Pregnant woman​
Answer: B. Girl below 12 years
267.​ Minimum punishment for rape of girl under 16 after 2018 amendment is:​
A. 7 years​
B. 10 years​
C. 20 years​
D. Life imprisonment​
Answer: C. 20 years
268.​ Investigation of rape cases must be completed within:​
A. 1 month​
B. 2 months​
C. 4 months​
D. 6 months​
Answer: B. 2 months
269.​ Section 309 CrPC mandates rape trials to be completed within:​
A. 1 month​
 B. 2 months from charge sheet​
C. 6 months​
D. No time limit​
Answer: B. 2 months from charge sheet
270.​ Anticipatory bail is barred in which IPC sections after 2018 amendment?​
A. 376, 375​
B. 376AB, 376DA, 376DB​
C. 302, 304B​
D. 354, 509​
Answer: B. 376AB, 376DA, 376DB
271.​ Section 376DB deals with:​
A. Acid attack​
B. Dowry death​
C. Gang rape of girl under 12​
D. Voyeurism​
Answer: C. Gang rape of girl under 12
272.​ Medical examination of rape survivor must be conducted within:​
A. 12 hours​
B. 24 hours​
C. 48 hours​
D. 7 days​
Answer: B. 24 hours
273.​ What is Zero FIR?​
A. FIR for non-cognizable offence​
B. FIR registered without police complaint​
C. FIR regardless of jurisdiction​
D. FIR against public officer only​
Answer: C. FIR regardless of jurisdiction
274.​ Section 376DA IPC punishes:​
A. Acid attack​
B. Gang rape of woman below 16​
 C. Marital rape​
D. Abetment to suicide​
Answer: B. Gang rape of woman below 16
275.​ The 2018 Amendment was a response to which incident?​
A. Nirbhaya Case​
B. Hathras Case​
C. Kathua rape & murder​
D. Delhi Encounter​
Answer: C. Kathua rape & murder
276.​ Which section mandates rape trials to be held in camera?​
A. Section 164​
B. Section 228A IPC & 327 CrPC​
C. Section 506​
D. Section 202 CrPC​
Answer: B. Section 228A IPC & 327 CrPC
277.​ What is protected under the MTP Act regarding a woman’s identity?​
A. Public access​
B. Judicial records​
C. Confidentiality​
D. Media publication​
Answer: C. Confidentiality
278.​ Which case led to demand for civil protection from domestic violence?​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. Sabra Shamim v. Union of India​
C. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
D. Lata Singh v. State of UP​
Answer: B. Sabra Shamim v. Union of India
279.​ The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act was enacted in:​
A. 1985​
B. 1986​
C. 1987​
 D. 1990​
Answer: B. 1986
280.​ The CSWI Report “Towards Equality” was published in:​
A. 1984​
B. 1974​
C. 1971​
D. 1995​
Answer: B. 1974
281.​ The Indecent Representation of Women Act was enacted under which list of the
Constitution?​
A. State List​
B. Concurrent List​
C. Union List – Entry 60 and 97​
D. Fundamental Rights​
Answer: C. Union List – Entry 60 and 97
282.​ Which section of the Indecent Representation of Women Act defines “indecent
representation”?​
A. Section 2(a)​
B. Section 2(c)​
C. Section 3​
D. Section 6​
Answer: B. Section 2(c)
283.​ What is the punishment for the first offence under the Indecent Representation
of Women Act?​
A. 6 months and ₹500​
B. 2 years and ₹2,000​
C. 5 years and ₹5,000​
D. 1 year and ₹1,000​
Answer: B. 2 years and ₹2,000
284.​ Who is the nodal authority for implementing the Indecent Representation of
Women Act?​
 A. Ministry of Home Affairs​
B. Ministry of Law and Justice​
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development​
D. Ministry of I&B​
Answer: C. Ministry of Women and Child Development
285.​ What does Section 5 of the Indecent Representation Act provide for?​
A. Rights of advertisers​
B. Women's employment​
C. Search and seizure of objectionable material​
D. Filing of complaint​
Answer: C. Search and seizure of objectionable material
286.​ Which case dealt with the definition of "indecent representation" under the 1986
Act?​
A. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
B. Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal​
C. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
D. State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar Narayan​
Answer: B. Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal
287.​ Under the MTP Act, termination between 20–24 weeks requires:​
A. No doctor's opinion​
B. One doctor​
C. Two doctors​
D. Judicial order​
Answer: C. Two doctors
288.​ Who must confirm substantial fetal abnormalities for termination beyond 24
weeks?​
A. District Judge​
B. Police Officer​
C. Medical Board​
D. State Health Minister​
Answer: C. Medical Board
289.​ What does Section 3(2)(i) & (ii) of MTP Act permit abortion for?​
A. Failure of marriage​
B. Grave risk to physical or mental health​
C. Financial instability​
D. Dowry pressure​
Answer: B. Grave risk to physical or mental health
290.​ What is required to perform abortion if the woman is a minor or mentally ill?​
A. Spousal consent​
B. Medical certificate​
C. Guardian’s consent​
D. Magistrate’s order​
Answer: C. Guardian’s consent
291.​ Under which section is identity confidentiality of MTP patient protected?​
A. Section 5A​
B. Section 3​
C. Section 6​
D. Section 4A​
Answer: A. Section 5A
292.​ What was held in Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration (2009)?​
A. Adultery unconstitutional​
B. Marital rape is valid ground for divorce​
C. Reproductive autonomy is part of privacy under Article 21​
D. Women cannot seek abortion without court permission​
Answer: C. Reproductive autonomy is part of privacy under Article 21
293.​ The penalty for unauthorized abortion by an unqualified person under MTP Act
is:​
A. ₹5,000 fine​
B. 1 year imprisonment​
C. 7 years imprisonment​
D. No penalty​
Answer: C. 7 years imprisonment
294.​ The case X v. Principal Secretary, Health (2022) reaffirmed:​
A. Abortion is unconstitutional​
B. Marital rape is a valid ground for MTP​
C. Consent of husband is mandatory​
D. Foetal rights are supreme​
Answer: B. Marital rape is a valid ground for MTP
295.​ What does the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019
primarily address?​
A. Inheritance rights​
B. Nikah halala ban​
C. Prohibition of triple talaq​
D. Ban on polygamy​
Answer: C. Prohibition of triple talaq
296.​ When was the MTPA enacted and when did it come into force?​
A. 1971, 1972​
B. 1975, 1976​
C. 1981, 1982​
D. 1978, 1979​
Answer: A. 1971, 1972
297.​ Under MTP Act, the term “woman” includes:​
A. Only married women​
B. Married and widows​
C. Married and unmarried women​
D. Only legally wedded partners​
Answer: C. Married and unmarried women
298.​ Which international goal aligns with the PWDVA and MTP Acts?​
A. SDG Goal 3​
B. SDG Goal 5 – Gender Equality​
C. SDG Goal 6 – Water​
D. SDG Goal 1 – Poverty​
Answer: B. SDG Goal 5 – Gender Equality
299.​ Which section of the IPC was amended to introduce punishment for rape of
minors in 2018?​
A. Section 376C​
B. Section 376 AB​
C. Section 354B​
D. Section 375​
Answer: B. Section 376 AB
300.​ How long does the Medical Board have to respond to requests for abortion
beyond 24 weeks?​
A. 7 days​
B. 1 day​
C. 5 days​
D. 3 days​
Answer: D. 3 days
301.​ Which section of the MTP Act provides for termination if pregnancy results
from contraceptive failure?​
A. Section 2​
B. Section 3(2) Explanation II​
C. Section 4​
D. Section 5A​
Answer: B. Section 3(2) Explanation II
302.​ Section 2(d) of MTPA defines:​
A. Life-threatening condition​
B. Termination of pregnancy​
C. Sexual assault​
D. Medical board qualification​
Answer: B. Termination of pregnancy
303.​ Which Act criminalizes portrayal of women in indecent manner in the media ?​
A. POSH Act​
B. IT Act​
C. Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act​
 D. Women’s Safety Act​
Answer: C. Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act
304.​ What kind of law is PWDVA (2005)?​
A. Criminal law​
B. Civil law​
C. Constitutional law​
D. Customary law​
Answer: B. Civil law
305.​ What does Section 3 of PWDVA define?​
A. Procedure for marriage​
B. Domestic violence​
C. Divorce rights​
D. Maintenance procedures​
Answer: B. Domestic violence
306.​ In which case did the Supreme Court hold that women have the right to
maintenance under Sec.125 of CrPC?​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. Joseph Shine v. UOI​
C. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum​
D. Shobha Rani v. Madhukar Reddy​
Answer: C. Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
307.​ Which is the main international treaty protecting child rights?​
A. UDHR​
B. Geneva Convention​
C. Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)​
D. SAARC Child Protection Protocol​
Answer: C. Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)
308.​ In which year did India ratify the CRC?​
A. 1990​
B. 1992​
C. 1989​
 D. 1995​
Answer: B. 1992
309.​ What is the main UN agency responsible for children’s welfare?​
A. UNHRC​
B. UNICEF​
C. WHO​
D. ILO​
Answer: B. UNICEF
310.​ According to CRC, who is considered a child?​
A. Below 14 years​
B. Below 16 years​
C. Below 18 years​
D. Below 21 years​
Answer: C. Below 18 years
311.​ What do the Optional Protocols to CRC focus on?​
A. Juvenile justice and education​
B. Sale of children and child soldiers​
C. Nutrition and sanitation​
D. Refugee children​
Answer: B. Sale of children and child soldiers
312.​ Which ILO Convention prohibits the worst forms of child labour?​
A. Convention 138​
B. Convention 100​
C. Convention 182​
D. Convention 105​
Answer: C. Convention 182
313.​ Which international treaty regulates intercountry adoption?​
A. CRC​
B. Hague Convention​
C. CEDAW​
 D. Geneva Convention​
Answer: B. Hague Convention
314.​ Which principle is NOT among the guiding principles of CRC?​
A. Best interests of the child​
B. Right to privacy​
C. Participation​
D. Survival and development​
Answer: B. Right to privacy
315.​ The UN Standard Minimum Rules for the Administration of Juvenile Justice are
known as?​
A. Tokyo Rules​
B. Beijing Rules​
C. Delhi Principles​
D. Geneva Guidelines​
Answer: B. Beijing Rules
316.​ In which year was the CRC adopted by the UN General Assembly?​
A. 1985​
B. 1987​
C. 1989​
D. 1991​
Answer: C. 1989
317.​ Which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) targets the elimination of child
labour by 2025?​
A. SDG 1​
B. SDG 4​
C. SDG 5​
D. SDG 8​
Answer: D. SDG 8
318.​ Child marriage is addressed by which UN convention?​
A. CRC​
B. Convention on Consent to Marriage​
 C. CEDAW​
D. Hague Adoption Convention​
Answer: B. Convention on Consent to Marriage
319.​ The Palermo Protocol is related to:​
A. Sale of organs​
B. Child pornography​
C. Trafficking in persons​
D. Refugee rights​
Answer: C. Trafficking in persons
320.​ Which Article of the CRC protects children from economic exploitation?​
A. Article 17​
B. Article 32​
C. Article 25​
D. Article 19​
Answer: B. Article 32
321.​ SDG 4 focuses on:​
A. Gender equality​
B. Clean water​
C. Inclusive and equitable education​
D. Justice and institutions​
Answer: C. Inclusive and equitable education
322.​ Which CRC Optional Protocol allows children to file international complaints?​
A. OP on Armed Conflict​
B. OP on Communications Procedure​
C. OP on Sale of Children​
D. OP on Refugee Children​
Answer: B. OP on Communications Procedure
323.​ Which body monitors CRC implementation in India under CPCR Act, 2005?​
A. NITI Aayog​
B. NCERT​
C. NCPCR​
 D. NHRC​
Answer: C. NCPCR
324.​ India is a signatory to which regional treaty addressing trafficking of women
and children?​
A. ASEAN Treaty on Child Protection​
B. SAARC Convention​
C. BIMSTEC Child Rights Pact​
D. UNESCAP Convention​
Answer: B. SAARC Convention
325.​ Which principle is the cornerstone of CRC?​
A. Best interests of the child​
B. Protection of women​
C. Presumption of innocence​
D. Right to privacy​
Answer: A. Best interests of the child
326.​ Which declaration by UNICEF addresses global child rights issues?​
A. Innocenti Declaration​
B. Geneva Declaration​
C. Beijing Declaration​
D. Cairo Declaration​
Answer: A. Innocenti Declaration
327.​ Article 19 of the UNCRC deals with:​
A. Freedom of expression​
B. Protection from abuse and neglect​
C. Education rights​
D. Environmental rights​
Answer: B. Protection from abuse and neglect
328.​ The Optional Protocol on Armed Conflict under CRC sets what age for direct
participation in hostilities?​
A. 14​
B. 15​
 C. 16​
D. 18​
Answer: D. 18
329.​ Article 21A of the Indian Constitution guarantees:​
A. Child labour prohibition​
B. Free and compulsory education (ages 6–14)​
C. Child protection from abuse​
D. Parental responsibility​
Answer: B. Free and compulsory education (ages 6–14)
330.​ Which article prohibits employment of children below 14 in hazardous
industries?​
A. Article 19​
B. Article 21A​
C. Article 24​
D. Article 38​
Answer: C. Article 24
331.​ Article 39(e) and (f) of the Constitution are:​
A. Fundamental Rights​
B. Directive Principles of State Policy​
C. Fundamental Duties​
D. Penal Provisions​
Answer: B. Directive Principles of State Policy
332.​ Article 15(3) of the Constitution allows:​
A. Reservation for SC/ST only​
B. Ban on discrimination​
C. Special provisions for women and children​
D. Freedom of expression​
Answer: C. Special provisions for women and children
333.​ Article 51A(k) of the Constitution requires:​
A. State to provide education​
B. Citizens to pay taxes​
 C. Parents to provide education to children​
D. Protection of monuments​
Answer: C. Parents to provide education to children
334.​ In which case did the Supreme Court recognize education as part of Article 21
before the 86th Amendment?​
A. Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India​
B. Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh​
C. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
D. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka​
Answer: B. Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
335.​ The Juvenile Justice Act draws constitutional support from which Article?​
A. Article 21​
B. Article 39(f)​
C. Article 15​
D. Article 24​
Answer: B. Article 39(f)
336.​ Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for violation of child
rights?​
A. Article 21​
B. Article 32​
C. Article 39​
D. Article 51A​
Answer: B. Article 32
337.​ High Courts can issue writs for protection of children’s rights under:​
A. Article 245​
B. Article 226​
C. Article 123​
D. Article 252​
Answer: B. Article 226
338.​ Which Directive Principle aims to improve nutrition and public health?​
A. Article 38​
 B. Article 47​
C. Article 45​
D. Article 24​
Answer: B. Article 47
339.​ Article 45 of the Constitution directs the State to provide:​
A. Free mid-day meals​
B. Early childhood care and education​
C. Compulsory adult literacy​
D. Tribal education rights​
Answer: B. Early childhood care and education
340.​ The 86th Constitutional Amendment inserted which Article?​
A. Article 14A​
B. Article 17A​
C. Article 21A​
D. Article 45A​
Answer: C. Article 21A
341.​ Education and juvenile justice fall under which list in the Constitution?​
A. Union List​
B. State List​
C. Concurrent List​
D. Residuary List​
Answer: C. Concurrent List
342.​ Article 253 allows Parliament to legislate for implementing:​
A. State policies​
B. Municipal laws​
C. International conventions and treaties​
D. Fundamental Duties​
Answer: C. International conventions and treaties
343.​ The right to be heard in legal proceedings is derived from:​
A. Fundamental Duties​
B. Doctrine of Double Jeopardy​
 C. Principles of Natural Justice​
D. Directive Principles​
Answer: C. Principles of Natural Justice
344.​ Child labour prohibition is connected to which Fundamental Right?​
A. Article 19​
B. Article 21​
C. Article 15​
D. Article 32​
Answer: B. Article 21
345.​ Article 51(c) directs the State to:​
A. Provide free education​
B. Ensure international peace​
C. Respect international law and treaty obligations​
D. Provide legal aid​
Answer: C. Respect international law and treaty obligations
346.​ Under which Article is the children’s right to health care supported?​
A. Article 21A​
B. Article 24​
C. Article 47​
D. Article 15(3)​
Answer: C. Article 47
347.​ Which Article protects a child's freedom of speech and expression?​
A. Article 14​
B. Article 19(1)(a)​
C. Article 21​
D. Article 32​
Answer: B. Article 19(1)(a)
348.​ The Puttaswamy Judgment reaffirmed that privacy rights under Article 21
apply to:​
A. Men only​
B. Women only​
 C. Adults only​
D. Everyone, including children​
Answer: D. Everyone, including children
349.​ Which case used Article 15(2) to address exclusion of women and children?​
A. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India​
B. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (Sabarimala Case)​
C. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
D. Githa Hariharan v. RBI​
Answer: B. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (Sabarimala Case)
350.​ The right to a healthy environment is linked to:​
A. Article 19(1)(g)​
B. Article 38​
C. Article 21 and the Precautionary Principle​
D. Article 39A​
Answer: C. Article 21 and the Precautionary Principle
351.​ The Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act was enacted under:​
A. Article 32​
B. Article 15​
C. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List​
D. Entry 97 of the Union List​
Answer: C. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List
352.​ Article 38 directs the State to promote:​
A. Judicial independence​
B. Welfare of the people, including children​
C. Religious freedom​
D. Economic liberalisation​
Answer: B. Welfare of the people, including children
353.​ Which is the primary law in India for children in conflict with law?​
A. Child Labour (Prohibition) Act​
B. Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act​
C. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015​
 D. POCSO Act, 2012​
Answer: C. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
354.​ Who is considered a juvenile under the JJ Act?​
A. A person below 14 years​
B. A person below 18 years​
C. A person between 16 and 21 years​
D. A person above 18 but not employed​
Answer: B. A person below 18 years
355.​ Which principle is central to all child-related legislation and the CRC?​
A. Right to education​
B. Non-discrimination​
C. Best Interests of the Child​
D. Freedom of religion​
Answer: C. Best Interests of the Child
356.​ Who is considered a “child in need of care and protection” under the JJ Act?​
A. A child involved in crime​
B. A school-going child​
C. Abandoned and orphaned children​
D. A child working part-time​
Answer: C. Abandoned and orphaned children
357.​ The JJ Act classifies offences committed by juveniles into:​
A. Civil and Criminal​
B. Petty, Serious, Heinous​
C. Misdemeanours and Felonies​
D. Cognizable and Non-Cognizable​
Answer: B. Petty, Serious, Heinous
358.​ Final authority to decide care and protection matters under the JJ Act lies with:​
A. District Magistrate​
B. Juvenile Justice Board​
C. Child Welfare Committee​
 D. Police​
Answer: C. Child Welfare Committee
359.​ The Juvenile Justice Board must include at least:​
A. One judge​
B. One woman member​
C. Two teachers​
D. A social worker​
Answer: B. One woman member
360.​ The POCSO Act, 2012 deals with:​
A. Food security​
B. Sexual offences against children​
C. School education​
D. Child marriage​
Answer: B. Sexual offences against children
361.​ What is the age of consent under the POCSO Act?​
A. 16 years​
B. 18 years​
C. 21 years​
D. 14 years​
Answer: B. 18 years
362.​ Aggravated penetrative sexual assault is recognised as an offence under:​
A. IPC​
B. JJ Act​
C. POCSO Act​
D. IT Act​
Answer: C. POCSO Act
363.​ Which Act replaced the Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929?​
A. Dowry Prohibition Act​
B. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006​
C. JJ Act​
 D. RTE Act​
Answer: B. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
364.​ Legal age for marriage for boys under PCMA, 2006 is:​
A. 18​
B. 20​
C. 21​
D. 22​
Answer: C. 21
365.​ The RTE Act, 2009 guarantees education for children aged:​
A. 0–6​
B. 6–14​
C. 14–18​
D. 6–16​
Answer: B. 6–14
366.​ ICPS stands for:​
A. Indian Child Protection Services​
B. Integrated Child Protection Scheme​
C. Indian Child Policy System​
D. Integrated Care Programme Scheme​
Answer: B. Integrated Child Protection Scheme
367.​ NCPCR was established under:​
A. JJ Act​
B. POCSO Act​
C. CPCR Act, 2005​
D. RTE Act​
Answer: C. CPCR Act, 2005
368.​ MWCD refers to:​
A. Ministry of Workers and Child Development​
B. Ministry of Women and Child Development​
C. Medical Welfare for Children Division​
 D. Mothers and Women’s Council Department​
Answer: B. Ministry of Women and Child Development
369.​ The 2016 Amendment prohibits employment of children below the age of:​
A. 18​
B. 12​
C. 10​
D. 14​
Answer: D. 14
370.​ The law prohibits adolescent employment in:​
A. Informal sector​
B. Family-run businesses​
C. Hazardous occupations​
D. Agriculture​
Answer: C. Hazardous occupations
371.​ ICDS primarily covers children aged:​
A. 6–12 years​
B. Below 6 years​
C. 7–14 years​
D. 1–10 years​
Answer: B. Below 6 years
372.​ The MC Mehta case gave guidelines on:​
A. Midday meals​
B. Child marriage​
C. Child labour​
D. Education​
Answer: C. Child labour
373.​ Which project rehabilitates rescued child labourers?​
A. Beti Bachao​
B. ICPS​
C. NCLP​
 D. Mid Day Meal Scheme​
Answer: C. NCLP
374.​ The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme addresses:​
A. Women’s employment​
B. Dropout rates​
C. Female foeticide and girl child education​
D. Acid attacks​
Answer: C. Female foeticide and girl child education
375.​ The Mid Day Meal Scheme promotes:​
A. Secondary education​
B. Home learning​
C. Child nutrition and school enrolment​
D. Private school education​
Answer: C. Child nutrition and school enrolment
376.​ The Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoption aims to:​
A. Ban adoptions​
B. Protect children during international adoptions​
C. Promote child marriages​
D. Prohibit overseas education​
Answer: B. Protect children during international adoptions
377.​ JJ Model Rules, 2016 were created to:​
A. Define child abuse​
B. Replace the POCSO Act​
C. Provide implementation details for the JJ Act​
D. Amend the Constitution​
Answer: C. Provide implementation details for the JJ Act
378.​ What is an “Open Shelter” under the JJ Act?​
A. Foster home​
B. Shelter for street children​
C. Adoption centre​
 D. Juvenile prison​
Answer: B. Shelter for street children
379.​ Children in conflict with law must be presented before:​
A. Family Court​
B. Women Commission​
C. Juvenile Justice Board​
D. Panchayat​
Answer: C. Juvenile Justice Board
380.​ A child victim under POCSO is entitled to:​
A. Bail​
B. Public trial​
C. Compensation​
D. No remedy​
Answer: C. Compensation
381.​ POCSO cases are tried by:​
A. Civil Court​
B. High Court​
C. Family Court​
D. Special Court​
Answer: D. Special Court
382.​ Fast Track Special Courts are meant to:​
A. Try juvenile delinquents​
B. Expedite sexual offence cases​
C. Resolve custody cases​
D. Try traffic offences​
Answer: B. Expedite sexual offence cases
383.​ What is India’s 24x7 helpline for children in distress?​
A. 108​
B. 100​
C. 1098​
 D. 112​
Answer: C. 1098
384.​ The principle that underlies all child-related laws is:​
A. Best Interest of the Child​
B. Parental Rights​
C. State Supervision​
D. Absolute Equality​
Answer: A. Best Interest of the Child
385.​ The National Policy for Children was adopted in the year:​
A. 2005​
B. 2011​
C. 2013​
D. 2018​
Answer: C. 2013
386.​ True or False: India ratified CRC without reservations.​
A. True​
B. False​
C. Partly True​
D. Not Applicable​
Answer: B. False
387.​ The aim of the JJ Act is:​
A. Punishment of children​
B. Trial of adults​
C. Rehabilitation and reformation​
D. Capital punishment​
Answer: C. Rehabilitation and reformation
388.​ Does CRC mention child participation rights?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Partially​
 D. Only for girls​
Answer: A. Yes
389.​ Are children’s courts separate under POCSO?​
A. No​
B. Yes​
C. Sometimes​
D. Not mandatory​
Answer: B. Yes
390.​ Can a minor be sentenced to death under the JJ Act?​
A. Yes​
B. Only in rare cases​
C. No​
D. At court’s discretion​
Answer: C. No
391.​ The POCSO Act criminalises which of the following?​
A. Child marriage​
B. Juvenile offences​
C. Child pornography​
D. Truancy​
Answer: C. Child pornography
392.​ The JJ Act recognises which of the following as alternate care?​
A. Imprisonment​
B. Hostels​
C. Foster care​
D. Child labour​
Answer: C. Foster care
393.​ What care option is available for children after they turn 18 under JJ Act?​
A. Institutionalization​
B. Police custody​
C. Aftercare programme​
 D. Adoption​
Answer: C. Aftercare programme
394.​ ILO’s programme to combat child labour is called:​
A. UNICEF​
B. IPEC​
C. SAVE​
D. PEACE​
Answer: B. IPEC
395.​ Under JJ Act, child beggars are treated as:​
A. Criminals​
B. Offenders​
C. Children in need of care and protection​
D. Adults​
Answer: C. Children in need of care and protection
396.​ Juvenile justice systems must be:​
A. Strict and punitive​
B. Police-led​
C. Child-friendly and reformative​
D. Ignored​
Answer: C. Child-friendly and reformative
397.​ What powers does NCPCR have?​
A. No authority​
B. Can arrest children​
C. Can visit observation homes and institutions​
D. Can conduct school exams​
Answer: C. Can visit observation homes and institutions
398.​ RTE Act covers:​
A. Children only in cities​
B. Only girls​
C. Disabled children too​
 D. Only private school children​
Answer: C. Disabled children too
399.​ Under POCSO, children have a right to:​
A. Media trial​
B. Privacy during trial and investigation​
C. No legal protection​
D. Public questioning​
Answer: B. Privacy during trial and investigation
400.​ Which Act governs adoption legally?​
A. Hindu Marriage Act​
B. Special Marriage Act​
C. JJ Act​
D. CRPC​
Answer: C. JJ Act
401.​ Right to Development” means:​
A. Right to work​
B. Holistic growth of child​
C. Right to protest​
D. Adult education​
Answer: B. Holistic growth of child
402.​ POCSO also criminalises:​
A. Online shopping​
B. Online sexual abuse​
C. Online school absence​
D. Online gaming​
Answer: B. Online sexual abuse
403.​ Under PCMA, child marriage is:​
A. Automatically void​
B. Legal with consent​
C. Voidable at option of parties​
 D. Enforceable​
Answer: C. Voidable at option of parties
404.​ A child labour victim is entitled to:​
A. No remedy​
B. Compensation​
C. Jail term​
D. Free education only​
Answer: B. Compensation
405.​ The child is defined in CRC as anyone under the age of:​
A. 14​
B. 15​
C. 18​
D. 21​
Answer: C. 18
406.​ In Sheela Barse v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that children in
custody are entitled to:​
A. Bail​
B. Free meals​
C. Legal aid​
D. Home visits​
Answer: C. Legal aid
407.​ In Vishal Jeet v. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed:​
A. Decriminalisation of prostitution​
B. Legalisation of trafficking​
C. Rescue and rehabilitation of minor girls in prostitution​
D. Registration of all brothels​
Answer: C. Rescue and rehabilitation of minor girls in prostitution
408.​ A child’s right to privacy during trial is protected under:​
A. IPC only​
B. POCSO Act and JJ Act​
C. CrPC​
 D. Indian Constitution​
Answer: B. POCSO Act and JJ Act
409.​ The Hague Convention on Protection of Children primarily relates to:​
A. Child marriage​
B. Juvenile crimes​
C. Inter-country adoption​
D. Child abuse​
Answer: C. Inter-country adoption
410.​ Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits:​
A. Begging​
B. Human trafficking and forced labour​
C. Bonded labour only​
D. Prostitution​
Answer: B. Human trafficking and forced labour
411.​ In Lily Thomas v. Union of India, conversion to another religion for bigamy was
held to be:​
A. Valid​
B. Legal​
C. Illegal​
D. Religious freedom​
Answer: C. Illegal
412.​ Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act defines:​
A. Rights of women​
B. Rights of minorities​
C. Human rights​
D. Children’s rights​
Answer: C. Human rights
413.​ The doctrine of 'factum valet' cures:​
A. Criminal acts​
B. Statutory violations​
C. Procedural/customary irregularities in personal law​
 D. Constitutional voids​
Answer: C. Procedural/customary irregularities in personal law
414.​ The term 'beggar' under Article 23 means:​
A. Asking alms​
B. Voluntary begging​
C. Forced or involuntary labour without payment​
D. Child on the street​
Answer: C. Forced or involuntary labour without payment
415.​ The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 was enacted in pursuance of:​
A. Article 19​
B. Article 14​
C. Article 23​
D. Article 39​
Answer: C. Article 23
416.​ Sections 370, 370A, 372 and 373 of IPC deal with:​
A. Dowry​
B. Child labour​
C. Immoral traffic and exploitation​
D. Sexual harassment at workplace​
Answer: C. Immoral traffic and exploitation
417.​ The Convention on the Rights of the Child has how many ratifications?​
A. 174​
B. 194​
C. 153​
D. 192​
Answer: B. 194
418.​ Article 28(2) of the CRC directs states to protect children from:​
A. Child labour​
B. Physical and mental violence through social and educational measures​
C. Online crimes​
 D. Orphanage neglect​
Answer: B. Physical and mental violence through social and educational measures
419.​ The World Conference on Human Rights in Vienna witnessed opposition by:​
A. India and Pakistan​
B. USA and Africa​
C. Russia and China​
D. UK and Japan​
Answer: B. USA and Africa
420.​ India ratified the UNCRC on:​
A. 2 October 1990​
B. 14 November 1995​
C. 11 December 1992​
D. 26 January 1991​
Answer: C. 11 December 1992
421.​ One international platform addressing child grooming is:​
A. CRC​
B. ICESCR​
C. International Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Women and Children​
D. UDHR​
Answer: C. International Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Women
and Children
422.​ Under the POCSO Act, if aggravated sexual assault is committed through
pornography, the punishment is:​
A. 3 years​
B. 7 years​
C. Life imprisonment and fine​
D. 10 years​
Answer: C. Life imprisonment and fine
423.​ Section 3 of the POCSO Act deals with:​
A. Aggravated assault​
B. Child pornography​
 C. Penetrative sexual assault​
D. Sexual harassment​
Answer: C. Penetrative sexual assault
424.​ UDHR stands for:​
A. United Declaration of Health Rights​
B. Universal Declaration of Human Rights​
C. Union for Democratic Human Rights​
D. Universal Development of Human Rights​
Answer: B. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
425.​ The act that provides for the constitution of the NCPCR is:​
A. Child Protection Act​
B. Human Rights Act​
C. Act of Parliament​
D. JJ Act​
Answer: C. Act of Parliament
426.​ One function of the NCPCR is to:​
A. Grant bail to juveniles​
B. Undertake investigations on child rights violations​
C. Prosecute offenders​
D. Maintain school records​
Answer: B. Undertake investigations on child rights violations
427.​ Another function of the NCPCR is to:​
A. Allocate school funds​
B. Build orphanages​
C. Train teachers and incorporate child rights in curriculum​
D. Review court orders​
Answer: C. Train teachers and incorporate child rights in curriculum
428.​ Under Section 12 of POCSO Act, punishment for sexual harassment of a child
is:​
A. 1 year​
B. 3 years and fine​
 C. 6 months​
D. Life imprisonment​
Answer: B. 3 years and fine
429.​ The POCSO Act mandates that a child’s evidence be recorded within:​
A. 60 days​
B. 15 days​
C. 30 days​
D. 90 days​
Answer: C. 30 days
430.​ Articles ensuring protection of children by the state include:​
A. 14, 15, 19​
B. 21A, 23, 24​
C. 32, 45, 46​
D. 38, 39, 51​
Answer: B. 21A, 23, 24
431.​ Who is a child as per Section 2(1)(d) of the POCSO Act?​
A. Any person under 14 years of age​
B. Any person under 21 years of age​
C. Any person below 18 years of age​
D. Any person up to 16 years of age​
Answer: C. Any person below 18 years of age
432.​ What is the punishment for custodial rape under the IPC?​
A. 3 years​
B. 7 years​
C. Not less than 5 years, may extend to 10 years, and fine​
D. Life imprisonment only​
Answer: C. Not less than 5 years, may extend to 10 years, and fine
433.​ Section 342 of IPC deals with:​
A. Criminal trespass​
B. Assault​
C. Wrongful confinement​
 D. Attempt to suicide​
Answer: C. Wrongful confinement
434.​ A synonym for intent, mens rea literally means:​
A. Guilty action​
B. Guilty mind​
C. Mental illness​
D. Criminal law​
Answer: B. Guilty mind
435.​ Which international human rights instruments has India signed or ratified?​
A. ICCPR​
B. ICESCR​
C. CEDAW​
D. All of the above​
Answer: D. All of the above
436.​ The ‘Right to Development’ includes:​
A. Right to free education only​
B. Right to participate in, contribute to, and enjoy economic, social, cultural, and political
development​
C. Right to own property​
D. Right to vote​
Answer: B. Right to participate in, contribute to, and enjoy economic, social,
cultural, and political development
437.​ A single pronouncement of divorce followed by abstinence during iddat is known
as:​
A. Talaq Hasan​
B. Talaq Ahsan​
C. Talaq Bain​
D. Talaq-ul-Biddat​
Answer: B. Talaq Ahsan
438.​ Suppressio veri by a woman who was pregnant at the time of marriage is:​
A. A ground for annulment of marriage as fraud​
 B. Permissible under law​
C. Valid marriage​
D. Not recognized in personal law​
Answer: A. A ground for annulment of marriage as fraud
439.​ Article 39A was incorporated under:​
A. 44th Amendment​
B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976​
C. 86th Amendment​
D. 74th Amendment​
Answer: B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
440.​ Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides:​
A. Rules for court procedures​
B. Criteria for legal aid​
C. Child welfare programs​
D. Bail provisions​
Answer: B. Criteria for legal aid
441.​ The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 was passed under which constitutional article?​
A. Article 21​
B. Article 16​
C. Article 42​
D. Article 45​
Answer: C. Article 42
442.​ In K. Uma Devi v. State of Tamil Nadu, the court held:​
A. Second wife has no maternity rights​
B. Child of second marriage is entitled to maternity benefits​
C. Only biological mothers can claim benefits​
D. Adopted child gets maternity leave​
Answer: B. Child of second marriage is entitled to maternity benefits
443.​ In Lt. Col. Nitisha v. Union of India, the court granted:​
A. Reservation in defence jobs​
B. Equal pay​
 C. Permanent commission to women in the Army​
D. Leave benefits to women​
Answer: C. Permanent commission to women in the Army
444.​ Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma is associated with:​
A. Women’s reservation​
B. Equal coparcenary rights to daughters in Hindu ancestral property​
C. Divorce rights​
D. Right to maintenance​
Answer: B. Equal coparcenary rights to daughters in Hindu ancestral property
445.​ The preamble of the Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) considers
which unit as fundamental?​
A. School​
B. NGO​
C. Family​
D. State​
Answer: C. Family
446.​ Article 6 of the UNCRC provides:​
A. Right to education​
B. Right to life and survival​
C. Right to privacy​
D. Right to identity​
Answer: B. Right to life and survival
447.​ The preamble of the CRC serves to:​
A. Interpret religious laws​
B. Guide foundational values and principles of child rights​
C. Restrict civil liberties​
D. Define penal codes​
Answer: B. Guide foundational values and principles of child rights
448.​ Which state was the first to implement Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?​
A. Maharashtra​
B. Tamil Nadu​
 C. Goa​
D. Kerala​
Answer: C. Goa
449.​ Article 17 of the UNCRC provides:​
A. Right to fair trial​
B. Right to access information​
C. Right to healthcare​
D. Right to religion​
Answer: B. Right to access information
450.​ What is the primary consideration in all actions under Article 3 of the UNCRC
A. Child labour is punishable​
B. Best interest of the child ​
C. Juvenile homes be established​
D. Orphans be adopted internationally​
Answer: B. Best interest of the child
451.​ Article 45 of the Indian Constitution deals with:​
A. Maternity leave​
B. Right to privacy​
C. Provision for free and compulsory education for children​
D. Right to food​
Answer: C. Provision for free and compulsory education for children
452.​ Landmark case related to Article 45 is:​
A. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan​
B. JP Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh​
C. Olga Tellis v. BMC​
D. Lily Thomas v. Union of India​
Answer: B. JP Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh
453.​ A preliminary assessment under JJ Act is for:​
A. Determining school eligibility​
B. Assessing whether children aged 16–18 who commit heinous offences should be tried
as adults​
 C. Medical assessment​
D. Birth registration​
Answer: B. Assessing whether children aged 16–18 who commit heinous
454.​ What are the two types of bail given to children in conflict with the law?​
A. Anticipatory and Regular​
B. Emergency and Interim​
C. Regular and Interim​
D. Legal and Judicial​
Answer: C. Regular and Interim
455.​ Children who are abandoned should be sent to:​
A. Police lock-up​
B. Foster homes​
C. Orphanage​
D. Observation home​
Answer: C. Orphanage
456.​ Punishment under Section 33 of JJ Act is:​
A. 1 year imprisonment​
B. Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹10,000 or both​
C. 3 years imprisonment​
D. Life imprisonment​
Answer: B. Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹10,000 or both
457.​ Under what condition can a parent surrender their child?​
A. For adoption only​
B. If the child is sick​
C. When facing physical, emotional, or social factors beyond their control​
D. If the child is under 10​
Answer: C. When facing physical, emotional, or social factors beyond their control
458.​ The State Government can only pass orders for:​
A. Crimes under IPC​
B. Children in need of care and protection​
C. Juvenile delinquents​
 D. Adoption matters​
Answer: B. Children in need of care and protection
459.​ One power of the Child Welfare Committee is to:​
A. File FIRs​
B. Monitor police stations​
C. Dispose of cases for care, treatment, development and rehabilitation of children​
D. Conduct school inspections​
Answer: C. Dispose of cases for care, treatment, development and rehabilitation of
children
460.​ Composition of CWC includes:​
A. Three men and two women​
B. Only judges​
C. Chairperson and four members, with one woman and one child expert​
D. Five social workers​
Answer: C. Chairperson and four members, with one woman and one child expert
461.​ Does an illegitimate child have the same rights as a child born in wedlock?​
A. Yes​
B. No​
C. Only for maintenance​
D. Depends on religion​
Answer: B. No
462.​ Which section of the JJ Act explains powers of the Board?​
A. Section 2​
B. Section 10​
C. Section 4​
D. Section 7​
Answer: C. Section 4
463.​ Who is a child in conflict with law under Section 2(13)?​
A. Child witness​
B. Child in need of care​
C. Child who has committed an offence and is under 18 years at the time​
 D. Child adopted by foreign parent​
Answer: C. Child who has committed an offence and is under 18 years at the time
464.​ Define surrender of children.​
A. Abandoning child at hospital​
B. Voluntarily handing over child due to inability to care​
C. Relinquishing adoption rights​
D. Handing over for school admission​
Answer: B. Voluntarily handing over child due to inability to care
465.​ What are serious offences under Section 2(54) of JJ Act?​
A. Punishable with life​
B. Imprisonment between 3 to 7 years​
C. Any non-bailable offence​
D. Offences against girls only​
Answer: B. Imprisonment between 3 to 7 years
466.​ What is the principle of best interest?​
A. Best interest of the police​
B. State rights prevail over children​
C. Any act done must be in the child’s best interest​
D. Juvenile must decide​
Answer: C. Any act done must be in the child’s best interest
467.​ One power of the Children’s Court is:​
A. Granting bail to parents​
B. Evaluating child’s progress and ensuring no ill-treatment​
C. Police transfers​
D. Filing complaints​
Answer: B. Evaluating child’s progress and ensuring no ill-treatment
468.​ Time for child to fulfill bail conditions is:​
A. 3 days​
B. 7 days​
C. 15 days​
 D. 1 month​
Answer: B. 7 days
469.​ Punishment for sale of children is:​
A. 3 years​
B. Life imprisonment​
C. 5 years​
D. 2 years​
Answer: C. 5 years
470.​ Which section of the JJ Act deals with children used for begging?​
A. Section 75​
B. Section 74​
C. Section 76​
D. Section 78​
Answer: C. Section 76
471.​ What is the principle of a fresh start?​
A. Fresh investigation​
B. Erasing past records of children under JJ system​
C. Rehabilitating adults​
D. Restarting adoption process​
Answer: B. Erasing past records of children under JJ system
472.​ Article 5 of UNCRC states:​
A. Children have no privacy​
B. Respect for evolving capacity of children​
C. No protection for children​
D. Fixed capacity only​
Answer: B. Respect for evolving capacity of children
473.​ Article 43 of CRC obligates states to:​
A. Ban child labour​
B. Enforce compulsory schooling​
C. Establish a committee on rights of the child​
 D. Form orphanages​
Answer: C. Establish a committee on rights of the child
474.​ The committee on rights of the child must have:​
A. 5 experts elected for 4 years​
B. 10 experts elected for 4 years​
C. 8 experts elected for 4 years​
D. UNICEF workers​
Answer: B. 10 experts elected for 4 years
475.​ Article 44 of CRC requires that reports must be submitted:​
A. First in 3 years, then every 5 years​
B. First in 2 years, then every 5 years​
C. Every 10 years​
D. Within 6 months​
Answer: B. First in 2 years, then every 5 years
476.​ Which constitutional amendment reduced voting age to 18 years?​
A. 44th​
B. 61st​
C. 69th​
D. 73rd​
Answer: B. 61st
477.​ In-camera proceedings are dealt with in which CrPC section?​
A. Section 320​
B. Section 327​
C. Section 125​
D. Section 370​
Answer: B. Section 327
478.​ Section 4(3) of JJ Act defines qualifications for:​
A. Social worker​
B. Magistrate​
C. Lawyer​
 D. Foster parent​
Answer: A. Social worker
479.​ Induction training and sensitisation of all members under JJ Act must be
completed within:​
A. 30 days​
B. 60 days​
C. 90 days​
D. 45 days​
Answer: B. 60 days
480.​ Section 2(55) of the JJ Act defines:​
A. Juvenile Justice Board​
B. Special Juvenile Police Unit​
C. Foster Family​
D. Social Worker​
Answer: B. Special Juvenile Police Unit
481.​ Petty offences are those for which the punishment under IPC or other law is:​
A. Up to 5 years​
B. Only a fine​
C. Imprisonment up to 3 years​
D. Imprisonment over 7 years​
Answer: C. Imprisonment up to 3 years
482.​ Heinous offences by children above 16 require:​
A. Medical report​
B. Preliminary assessment by Board​
C. Transfer to jail​
D. No trial​
Answer: B. Preliminary assessment by Board
483.​ Under Section 16 of the JJ Act, pendency of Board cases is reviewed every:​
A. 1 month​
B. 6 months​
C. 3 months​
 D. 9 months​
Answer: C. 3 months
484.​ As per Section 21 of the JJ Act, a child in conflict with law cannot be:​
A. Sentenced for theft​
B. Sentenced to death or life imprisonment​
C. Released on bail​
D. Transferred to other state​
Answer: B. Sentenced to death or life imprisonment
485.​ What is the prime objective of any Child Care Institution?​
A. Adoption​
B. Education​
C. Restoration and protection of the child​
D. Employment​
Answer: C. Restoration and protection of the child
486.​ The registration period of a Child Care Institution under JJ Act is:​
A. 3 years​
B. 5 years​
C. 1 year​
D. 7 years​
Answer: B. 5 years
487.​ Inter-country adoption involves adoption of a child by:​
A. Indian citizen only​
B. Government agencies​
C. Foreigners or NRIs or Persons of Indian Origin​
D. NGOs​
Answer: C. Foreigners or NRIs or Persons of Indian Origin
488.​ A "Fit person" under JJ Act is:​
A. Government employee​
B. Lawyer​
C. Person ready to take responsibility of child for a purpose​
 D. CWC member​
Answer: C. Person ready to take responsibility of child for a purpose
489.​ Who prepares the social investigation report if the Probation Officer is
unavailable?​
A. Child Welfare Officer or Social Worker​
B. Magistrate​
C. Police Inspector​
D. Legal aid cell​
Answer: A. Child Welfare Officer or Social Worker
490.​ Time limit for submission of Social Investigation Report is:​
A. 7 days​
B. 30 days​
C. 15 days​
D. 45 days​
Answer: C. 15 days
491.​ What should the final order of the Board include for rehabilitation?​
A. Medical certificate​
B. Individual Care Plan​
C. Bail order​
D. Income statement​
Answer: B. Individual Care Plan
492.​ Who supervises JJ Act implementation at national level?​
A. Child Welfare Committee​
B. Juvenile Board​
C. Ministry of Law​
D. NCPCR (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights)​
Answer: D. NCPCR
493.​ Monthly inspection of Child Care Institutions is mandated by:​
A. Section 4​
B. Section 8(3)(i)​
C. Section 8(3)(j)​
 D. Section 12​
Answer: C. Section 8(3)(j)
494.​ Who has exclusive power to handle children in conflict with law?​
A. Police​
B. Child Court​
C. Juvenile Justice Board​
D. CWC​
Answer: C. Juvenile Justice Board
495.​ Maximum stay in a special home under Section 18 is:​
A. 1 year​
B. 5 years​
C. 3 years​
D. Until age 21​
Answer: C. 3 years
496.​ Who is responsible for follow-up in rehabilitation under Section 18?​
A. NGO​
B. Police​
C. Probation Officer​
D. Family member​
Answer: C. Probation Officer
497.​ After preliminary assessment, heinous offences may be transferred to:​
A. District Court​
B. Children’s Court​
C. Family Court​
D. Sessions Court​
Answer: B. Children’s Court
498.​ "Abandoned child" under JJ Act means:​
A. A runaway child​
B. A disabled child​
C. Child deserted by parents and declared abandoned by Committee​
 D. Child in observation home​
Answer: C. Child deserted by parents and declared abandoned by Committee
499.​ The Child Welfare Committee must meet at least:​
A. 10 days/month​
B. 15 days/month​
C. 20 days/month​
D. 25 days/month​
Answer: C. 20 days/month
500.​ Protection to women under CrPC includes:​
A. Bail exemptions​
B. Nighttime arrest restrictions, female officers, medical & legal aid​
C. Direct custody​
D. Marriage protection​
Answer: B. Nighttime arrest restrictions, female officers, medical & legal aid
501.​ Section of IPC defining 'woman':​
A. Section 8​
B. Section 11​
C. Section 10​
D. Section 14​
Answer: C. Section 10
502.​ Section of BNS, 2023 defining 'woman':​
A. Section 1(15)​
B. Section 2(35)​
C. Section 4​
D. Section 10​
Answer: B. Section 2(35)
503.​ Can a child in conflict with law be placed in a police lock-up?​
A. Yes, for heinous offences​
B. No, under no circumstance​
C. Only for 6 hours​
 D. Only in adult jail​
Answer: B. No, under no circumstance
504.​ In Sheela Barse v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held:​
A. Children must be tried with adults​
B. Juveniles may be detained in jail​
C. Children must not be confined like adult criminals​
D. Children have no right to legal aid​
Answer: C. Children must not be confined like adult criminals
505.​ In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the SC held:​
A. Only Hindus can adopt​
B. Adoption requires religious permission​
C. Right to adopt is a fundamental right irrespective of religion​
D. Muslims cannot adopt under JJ Act​
Answer: C. Right to adopt is a fundamental right irrespective of religion
506.​ In Hari Ram v. State of Rajasthan (2009), the Court ruled:​
A. JJ Act applies to 14-year-olds only​
B. JJ Act applies if the person was below 18 at the time of offence, even if they turn 18
later​
C. JJ Act doesn’t apply to serious offences​
D. JJ Act doesn’t apply to post-18 trials​
Answer: B. JJ Act applies if the person was below 18 at the time of offence, even if
they turn 18 later
507.​ For how many years can a Special Juvenile Police Unit operate once notified?​
A. 3 years​
B. Indefinitely​
C. As long as designated by State Government​
D. 1 year​
Answer: C. As long as designated by State Government
508.​ In what cases can a child be institutionalized as last resort?​
A. If abandoned​
B. Only if orphaned​
 C. When family-based care options are unavailable​
D. If poor​
Answer: C. When family-based care options are unavailable
509.​ What is the focus of rehabilitation under JJ Act?​
A. Punishment​
B. Care, protection, development, and social reintegration​
C. Work training​
D. Police custody​
Answer: B. Care, protection, development, and social reintegration
510.​ Which institution handles abandoned children under JJ Act?​
A. Shelter home​
B. District court​
C. Child Welfare Committee​
D. Juvenile Board​
Answer: C. Child Welfare Committee
511.​ Who prepares Social Background Reports for Children in Conflict with Law?​
A. CWC​
B. Police constable​
C. School principal​
D. Probation Officer or Social Worker​
Answer: D. Probation Officer or Social Worker
512.​ Under JJ Act, children alleged of heinous crimes must be assessed for:​
A. Mental illness​
B. Capacity to commit crime and understand consequences​
C. Physical health​
D. Financial status​
Answer: B. Capacity to commit crime and understand consequences