21-07-2025

2001CMD303001250007 MD

PHYSICS

1) Let E,G and N represents the magnitude of electromagnetic, gravitational and nuclear forces
between two protons at a given separation (1 fermi meter) . Then

(1) N < E < G

(2) E > N > G
(3) G > N > E
(4) N > E > G

2) A particle is in moving a straight line motion with uniform velocity. A force is not required :-

(1) To increase the speed

(2) To decrease the speed
(3) To maintain the same speed
(4) To change the direction

3) A force produces acceleration of in a body. Calculate the mass of

the body :-

(1) 10 kg
(2) 8 kg
(3) 12 kg
(4) 9 kg

4) When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform :-

(1) Acceleration
(2) Velocity
(3) Speed
(4) Momentum

5) A particle is moving with a velocity and a force acts on the particle as shown in figure. Then
for the particle, its

(1) Speed increases and motion curves upward

(2) speed increases and motion curves downward
(3) speed decreases and motion curves upward
(4) speed decreases and motion curves downward
6) A book at rest is lying on a table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table
and the reaction of the table on book ?

(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 120°

7) Action reaction pair are :-

(1) equal in magnitude

(2) act in opposite direction
(3) act on different objects
(4) all above are correct

8) Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of rod of mass m at rest as shown in figure, if N is

normal reaction and T is tension in the string ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Two forces are simultaneously applied on an object. Which third force would make the resultant
of three forces to point to the left (–x direction)?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A book is at rest on a table. What is the "reaction" force according to Newton's third law to the
gravitational force by the earth on the book ?

(1) The normal force exerted by the table on the book

(2) The normal force exerted by the table on the ground
(3) The normal force exerted by the ground on the table
(4) The gravitational force exerted on the earth by the book

11) Correct F.B.D of mass m1 , if N1 ,N2 & N3 are normal reaction forces, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Two bodies are held separated by 9.8 m vertically one above the other. They are released
simultaneously to fall freely under gravity. The distance between them after 2 second is

(1) 4.9 m
(2) 19.6 m
(3) 9.8 m
(4) 39.2m

13) A lift whose floor to ceiling distance is 3.2 m, starts ascending with constant acceleration 0.2
m/s2. After 2 seconds of start a bolt begins to fall from ceiling. The time duration in which bolt will
strike floor of lift :- (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.8 s
(2) 0.32 s
(3) 0.64 s
(4) 1 s

14) Two trains each 50m long are travelling in opposite directions with speeds 10 ms–1 and 15 ms–1.
The time of crossing each other is

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3)
(4)

15) A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin vertically upwards. If the coin falls behind him, the
train must be moving with

(1) an acceleration in direction of its velocity

(2) retardation
(3) a uniform velocity
(4) any of the above

16) Four particles A, B, C & D are moving with same speed v as shown in figure. The velocity of A

with respect to B, C & D at the moment shown in the figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Car A has an acceleration of 2 m/s2 due east and car B, 4 m/s2 due north what is the acceleration
of car B with respect to car A?

(1)
10 ms–2 east of south
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Motion of a projectile as observed from other projectile is :-

(1) parabolic
(2) circular
(3) straight line
(4) Eliptical

19) A ship is travelling with velocity (i + 4j) m/s and a plane if flying with velocity m/s
w.r.t ground then the speed of plane as seen from ship is

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

20) Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m/s. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10 m/s.
What is the direction from vertical in which she should hold her umbrella to protect herself from
rain?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable
of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in the shortest time ; he should
swim :

(1) due north

(2) due north-east
(3) due north-east with double the speed of river
(4) none of the above

22) A flag is mounted on a car moving due North with velocity of 20 km/hr. Strong winds are
blowing due East with velocity of 20 km/hr. The flag will point in direction x along :

(1) East
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) South-West

23) A body of mass 80 g is moving with a constant Velocity of 4 cm/s on a horizontal frictionless
table. The net force on the body (in dynes) is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 39200
(3) 78400
(4) 8000

24) If force F = 50 – 20t, then impulse in interval [0, t] :-

(1) 50t – 10t2

(2) 50t – 10
(3) 50 –t2
(4) 25t2

25) A uniform rod of mass M and length L lies flat on a frictionless horizontal surface. Two forces F
and 2F are applied along the length of the rod as shown. The tension in the rod at point P is

(1) F
(2) 3F

(3)

(4)

26) A monkey of mass 20 kg is climbing on a rope. If breaking strength of rope is 250 N. Find

maximum acceleration with which monkey can climb on rope :-

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 2.5 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

27) n bullet strike per second on a wall with speed V and bounce back with same speed V in
direction opposite to initial velocity. The force exerted on the wall by the bullets, if the mass of each
bullet is 'm', is :-

(1) mnv
(2) 4mnv
(3) 2mnv

(4)

28) Three blocks of masses 2kg, 3kg and 5 kg are connected to each other with light strings and are
then placed on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The system is pulled by a force F = 10N,

then tension T1 is :

(1) 1 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 10 N

29) The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a function of t is given by v(t) = . The momentum
and the force acting on it, at time t = 2s respectively are.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The change in the linear momentum of ball moving horizontally before and after collision (kg-

m/sec.) with the wall with velocities shown below is

(1) 40
(2) 80
(3) 120
(4) 160
31) The graph below shows the variation of linear momentum of a praticle with time. External force

acting on it is

(1) 1 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 4 N

32) Which of the following is false about linear momentum of a point particle ?

(1) Change in velocity changes the linear momentum.

(2) To change the linear momentum of the particle an external force is needed.
(3) Linear momentum is independent of frame of reference.
The total change in the linear momentum is equal to the impulse of external forces on the
(4)
particle.

33) The magnitudes of acceleration blocks of 10 kg and 15 kg respectively are, Take g = 10 ms-1.

(1) 1 ms-2, 2 ms-2

(2) 1 ms-2, 2 ms-1
(3) 2 ms-2, 2 ms-2
(4) 1 ms-1, 1 ms-2

34) Engine of a train is pulling 60 wagons with a force F. The tension in the coupling between 10th
and 11th wagon from the engine is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Find out tension in string and acceleration of blocks.

(1) 20N, 10 m/s2

(2) 20N, 5 m/s2
(3) 30N, 10 m/s2
(4) 30N, 5 m/s2

36) Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are placed in contact with each other on a frictionless
horizontal surface. If we apply a push of 5 N on the heavier mass, the force on the lighter mass will
be

(1) 5 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) None of the above

37) Two blocks of 7 kg & 5 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. An upward force of 200N
is applied as shown in the diagram. The tension at the top of heavy rope at point P is (g = 10ms–2) :-

(1) 2.27 N
(2) 112.5 N
(3) 87.5 N
(4) 360 N

38) Linear momentum of a particle at an instant is p = t3. The acceleration of particle at t = 2 second
is (mass of particle = 3kg)

(1) 12 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 16 m/s2
(4) zero

39) A block A of mass 7 kg is placed on a frictionless table. A thread tied to it passes over a
frictionless pulley and carries a body B of mass 3 kg at the other end. The acceleration of the system
is (given g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 100 ms–2

(2) 3 ms–2
(3) 10 ms–2
(4) 30 ms–2

40) A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by :-

(1) The engine of the car

(2) The driver of the car
(3) The gravity of earth
(4) The road

41) A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90 sec. He is carried in 60s, when standing on the same
escalator which is now moving. The time he would take to walk up the moving escalator will be :–

(1) 27 s
(2) 72 s
(3) 18 s
(4) 36 s

42) A motorcycle is moving with a velocity of 80 km/h and a car is moving with a velocity of 65 km/h
in the opposite direction. The relative velocity of the motorcycle with respect to the car is

(1) 15 km/h
(2) 20 km/h
(3) 25 km/h
(4) 145 km/h

43) A river flows at the rate of 2km/h. A boatman who can row a boat at a speed of 4km/h in still
water, goes a distance of 2km upstream and then comes back. The time taken by him to complete his
journey is

(1) 60min
(2) 70min
(3) 80min
(4) 90min

44) A boat is sailing at a velocity with respect to ground and water in river is flowing with a
velocity . Relative velocity of the boat with respect to water is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) Two men who can swim with a speed v1 in still water start from the middle of a river of width d
and move in opposite directions always swimming at an angle θ with the banks. What is the distance
between them along the river when they reach the opposite banks, if the velocity of the river is v2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) d cot θ

CHEMISTRY

1) Give the correct order of strength of H-bond

(a) O – H ----- O (b) F – H ------ F
(c) Cl – H ----- Cl (d) N – H ----- N

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) b > a > c = d

2) In which of following molecular species magnetic behaviour does not change by removal of one
electron.
(1) Li2
(2) N2
(3) C2
(4) B2

3) The correct order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is :

(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

(2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(3) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe
(4) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe

4) Total no. of Antibonding electrons present in O2 will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

5) Which of the following has zero dipole moment

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

6) Alcohol is miscible in water in all proportions because

(1) It forms intermolecular H-bond among themselves

(2) It forms intramolecular H-bond
(3) It forms H-bond with water
(4) It is very reactive & catches fire easily

7) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(1) O2
(2) B2
(3) NO
(4) All

8) How many π-bonds does C2 have ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) 3

9) Which of the following have minimum dipole moment :

(1) NH3
(2) PH3
(3) NF3
(4) BF3

10) Intermolecular forces in solid hydrogen are :-

(1) Covalent forces

(2) Vanderwaal forces
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) All

11) In which of the following, maximum number of hydrogen bonds are present

(1) HF
(2) NH3
(3) H2O
(4) HCN

12) Which of the following is a polar molecule ?

(1) XeF4
(2) BF3
(3) SF4
(4) SiF4

13) Maximum bond order among the following is of

(1) O2
(2)
(3)
(4)
14) Decreasing order of dipole moment of NH3, BF3 and NF3

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The paramagnetic behaviour of B2 is due to the presence of :-

(1) 2 unpaired electrons in πbmo mo

(2) 2 unpaired electrons in π* mo
(3) 2 unpaired electrons in σ* mo
(4) 2 unpaired electrons in σbmo mo

16) Bond order of which among the following molecule is zero.

(1) F2
(2) O2
(3) Be2
(4) Li2

17) Which substance has the strongest London dispersion forces?

(1) CH4
(2) SiH4
(3) GeH4
(4) SnH4

18) Identify the paramagnetic ion amongest the following

+2
(1) O2
–2
(2) C2
+
(3) N2
–2
(4) O2

19) Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment ?

(1) CH3F
(2) CH3Cl
(3) CH3Br
(4) CH3I

20) Assertion (A) :- B2 molecule is diamagnetic.

Reason (R) :- The highest occupied molecular orbital is of π-type.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

21) Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is

(1) H2Se because of lower molecular weight

(2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
(3) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
(4) H2O because of hydrogen bonding

22)

What type of bonding is present between SO2 and CCl4 ?

(1) Dipole-dipole interaction

(2) London forces
(3) Dipole-Induced dipole
(4) Ion-dipole

23) In which of the following molecule sp mixing is not operative ?

(1) O2
(2) C2
(3) N2
(4) B2

24) Which of the following is planar and polar ? (E = lone pairs)

(1) AB4E
(2) AB3E
(3) AB4E2
(4) AB2E

25) The ion that is isoelectronic with CO and having same bond order is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) If dipole moment of Hl is 0.38D and bond length of Hl is 1.6 then percentage covalent
character in Hl bond is
(1) 4.95%
(2) 5.9%
(3) 95.05%
(4) 47.5%

27) Correct representation of PF2Cl3 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Resonance structure can be written for

(1) O3
(2) NH3
(3) CH4
(4) H2O

30) Correct set of species with zero dipole moment is:

(i) CO2 (ii) COCl2 (iii) CH2Cl2 (iv) BCl3

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv)

31) Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) The bonding molecular orbitals posses lower energy than the isolated atoms
(2) Both Be2 and He2 does not exist
(3) B2 molecule is paramagnetic
– +
(4) O2 and N2 have same bond order

32) In which of the following back bonding is not possible ?

(1) BF3
(2) B3N3H6
(3) C6H6
(4) Both 2 & 3

33) The weakest Cl – O bond is found in

–
(1) ClO4
–
(2) ClO3
–
(3) ClO2
(4) ClO–

34) Ions furnished by TℓF3 in solution are:-

(1) Tℓ3+ & 3F–

+ –
(2) Tℓ & F3
+ –
(3) Tℓ , F and F2
(4) Tℓ+ & F–

35) Most stable among the following is :

(1) Sn+2
(2) Ge+2
(3) Si+2
(4) Pb+2
36) Dipole moment of is 2 D. The dipole moment of is :

(1) 1.5 D
(2) 1 D
(3) 2 D
(4) 2.5 D

37) Which halide is unknown ?

(1) Tl(III) iodide

(2) In(III) bromide
(3) Ga(III) fluoride
(4) B(III) chloride

38) Boric acid is polymeric due to

(1) acidic nature

(2) banana bonding
(3) hydrogen bonding
(4) geometry

39) Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent?

(1) Tl3+
(2) Pb4+
(3) Bi+5
(4) All

40) Which of the following exist as dimer due to intermolecular H-bonding

(1) HF(s)
(2) CH3OCH3
(3) CH3COOH
(4) O–Nitrophenol

41) Which of the following is always change due to back bonding ?

(1) Bond angle

(2) Hybridisation of central atom
(3) Planarity
(4) Bond length

42) Back bonding is negligible in :-

(1) (SiH3)3N
(2) H3Si–N=C=O
(3) O(SiH3)2
(4) P(SiH3)3

43) Identify the group of compounds showing back bonding in the following :

–
(1) BF3, NH3, BF3, BF4
(2) BF3, N(SiH3)3, (SiH3)2O
(3) BF3, NF3, OF2
–
(4) BF4 , NF3, OF2

44) Statement – 1: CCl4 is a non polar molecule.

Statement – 2 : CCl4 has polar bonds.

(1) Statement-1 and Statement – 2 both are correct

(2) Statement-1 and Statement – 2 both are incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is correct and Statement – 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect and Statement – 2 is correct

45) BCl3 + H2O → ?

Identify the product :

(1) B(OH)3
(2) BH3
(3) HClO
(4) None

BIOLOGY

1) Gemmae are :-

(1) Asexual reproductive structure of pteridophytes

(2) Asexual reproductive structure of liverworts
(3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
(4) Asexual reproductive spores of algae

2) The development of the zygote into young embryos takes place within the female gametophyte,
this event is a precursor of the :-

(1) Seed habit

(2) Fruit habit
(3) Vascular habit
(4) Tissue habit

3) The gametophyte of pteridophytes is

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Saprophyte
(4) Partial parasite

4) Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks with appropriate words :-
In pteridophytes the main plant body is ___(A)____ which bears sporangia that are subtended by leaf-
like appendages called ___(B)___. The sporangia produce spores by ___(C)___ and after germination
of spores, they give rise to photosynthetic gametophytes called ___(D)___.
Choose the correct option :-

A B C D

(1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema

(2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte

(3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus

(4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

Ploidy of Endosperm of Gymnosperm

(1) Triploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Tetraploid
(4) Diploid

6) Find out the correct statement for pteridophytes ?

(1) Gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte.

(2) Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte.
(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are independent from each other in most of them.
(4) Sporophyte is independent but gametophyte is not.

7)
The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is differentiated from:

(1) Integument
(2) Embryosac
(3) Nucellus
(4) Endosperm

8) Reduced gametophyte in gymnosperm is called

(1) Prothallus
(2) Pollen grain
(3) Protonema
(4) Strobili

9) Bryophytes include :–

(1) Liverworts and ferns

(2) Liverworts and Mosses
(3) Hornworts and ferns
(4) Liverworts hornworts and ferns

10) In gymnosperms:

(1) Seed is formed before fertilization.

(2) Fruit is formed after fertilization.
(3) Ovary develops into fruit.
(4) Endosperm is formed before fertilization and seed is formed after fertilization.

11) Find out correct statement according to figure:-

(1) Formation of seed

(2) It is homosporous plant
(3) Aquatic fern which show heterospory
(4) Sporophylls form strobilus

12) First vascular land plant is :-

(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Thallophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

13) What is true about Bryophytes ?

(1) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent

(2) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
(3) Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes
(4) Gametophytes are dependent upon sporophytes

14) In the given figure of Equisetum, identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D :-

A B C D

(1) Internode Rhizome Node Strobilus

(2) Strobilus Node Rhizome Internode

(3) Rhizome Node Strobilus Internode

(4) Strobilus Node Internode Rhizome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Identify the following figure of a pteridophyte :-

(1) Salvinia
(2) Equisetum
(3) Pteridium
(4) Selaginella

16) Which of the following is not incorrect for red algae ?

(1) Are mostly unicellular.

(2) Sexual reproduction is oogamous, complexed with post-fertilization events.
(3) Motile structure are common.
(4) Cell wall lack polysulphate esters.

17) In pteridophytes, spore germinates to produce :-

(1) Sporophyte
(2) Sporangium
(3) Prothallus
(4) Sporocarp

18) (I) Fertilization

(II) Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus formation
(IV) Embryo formation
Correct sequence of the above events in the life cycle of Pteridophytes :-

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, IV, III, II

19) All of the following multiply by fragmentation, except-

(1) Fungi
(2) Filamentous algae
(3) Protonema of moss
(4) Unicellular algae

20) Unbranched stem is character of which gymnosperm :-

(1) Pinus
(2) Cycas
(3) Cedrus
(4) Lycopodium

21) In which group of plants both male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existence ?

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Both (1) and (2)

22) Read carefully the following statements about pteridophytes.

I. They are called vascular cryptogams.
[Link] produce spores but donot produce seed.
III. They are used for medicinal purposes.
IV. They are used as soil binders
V. They are frequently grown as ornamental plants.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) I, II and V
(2) II, IV and V
(3) II, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, III, IV and V

23) Identify the fern :-

(1) Azolla
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Adiantum
(4) Salvinia

24) Select the incorrect statement regarding pteridophytes :-

(1) All pteridophytes are homosporous

(2) Prothallus is multicellular, free-living gametophyte arise from spore
(3) Root, stem and leaf are diploid
(4) Water is required for transfer of antherozoids

25) Strobili or cones are found in :-

(1) Equisetum
(2) Salvinia
(3) Pteris
(4) Marchantia

26) Identify the diagrams A, B & C.

(1) A-Fern, B-Marchantia, C-Pinus

(2) A-Riccia, B-Equisetum, C-Fern
(3) A-Funaria, B-Equisetum, C-Selaginella
(4) A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, C-Fern

27) Evolutionary, the first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) is :

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

28) Which one of the following considered as important in the development of seeds habit?

(1) Free-living gametophyte

(2) Dependent sporophyte
(3) Haplontic life cycle
(4) Heterospory

29) Assertion :- Pteridophytes are not completely successful land plants.

Reason :- In Pteridophytes, vessels in xylem and companion cells in phloem are absent.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

30) Which of the following fern is heterosporous-

(1) Adiantum
(2) Selaginella
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Dictyota

31) In pteridophyte, the spore germinate to give rise to inconspicous, small but multicellular, free
living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid structure called :-

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Zygote

32) Which structures is/are found in pteridophytes but lack in gymnosperm :

(1) Archegonia
(2) Vascular tissue
(3) Seed
(4) Antheridia

33) Which of the following structures in Pinus are haploid ?

(1) Megaspore, integument, root

(2) Endosperm, megaspore, pollen grain
(3) Pollen grain, leaf, root
(4) Megaspore, endosperm, embryo

34) Seeds of gymnosperms are :-

(1) Covered by ovary wall

(2) Not covered by any ovary wall but after fertilization they are covered by ovary wall
(3) Covered by ovary wall before fertilization
(4) Not covered by any ovary wall before and after fertilization

35) Gemma

(1) Is an asexual bud, green and multicellular

(2) Develops in small receptacles called gemma cup
(3) Get detach from the parent body and germinate ti form new individuals
(4) All are correct

36)

Read the following statements with respects to bryophytes

(i) Sporophyte is multicellular
(ii) Sporophyte is free living
(iii) The spores germinate to produce sporophyte
(iv) Some cells of sporophyte undergoes reduction division to produce haploid spores
(v) Gametophyte is non photosynthetic structure
How many of the above statements are not incorrect?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

37) Which of the following is correct for Marchantia?

(1) The plant body is thalloid and possess gemmae.

(2) The thallus is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substrate.
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) The plant body has tiny leaves on two rows of the stem.

38) The spores of pteridophytes:

(1) Are diploid

(2) Rarely germinates
(3) Represents sporophyte
Germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small multicellular, free living, photosynthetic thalloid
(4)
gametophyte called prothallus

39) The prothallus of pteridophyte:

(1) Are Diploid

(2) Grow in cool, dry and shady places
(3) Bear antheridia and archaegonia
(4) Dependent on sporophytes

40) An aquatic fern is:

(1) Dryopteris
(2) Lycopodium
(3) Salvinia
(4) Equisetum

41) The functional megaspore of gymnosperm germinate :-

(1) Inside the megaspore mother cell

(2) Inside the megasporangium
(3) Inside the soil
(4) Into endosperm after fertilization

42) Gymnosperms include :-

(1) Medium sized trees

(2) Tall tree
(3) Shrubs
(4) All the above

43) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms

(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
(3) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus
(4) Horsetails are gymnosperms

44) Coralloid roots of Cycas are associated with :-

(1) N2-fixing cyanobacteria

(2) Root hair and root cap
(3) Food and water conduction
(4) Fungi

45) The leaves of gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind. In conifers what are the xerophytic characters?

(1) Needle like leaves

(2) Sunken stomata
(3) Thick cuticle
(4) All are correct

46) Read the following statements about the class Amphibia:

(i) A tympanum represents the ear.
(ii) The heart is three chambered with one auricle and two ventricles.
(iii) Are poikilotherms.
(iv) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called cloaca
which opens to the exterior.
(v) Respiration occurs only by lungs, gills and skin has no such role.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (iv), (v)

47) Which of the following not true for reproductive system of frog:

Vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s
(1)
canal
In the male frogs two ureters emerge from the kidneys and ureters act as urinogenital duct
(2)
which opens into the cloaca
Functional connection present between kidneys and ovaries, oviduct arising from the
(3)
ovaries opens into the cloaca with ureters
(4) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time
48) Statement I - Male frog can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs.
Statement II- Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limb is characteristic of female frog.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

49) Mark the false statement

(1) Frog is a ureotelic animal

(2) There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from brain
(3) Forebrain includes cerebellum and medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain is characterised by a pair of optic lobes

50) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Frog shows aestivation and hibernation.
Statement-II : The female frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sac
which are absent in male frogs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

51) Which of the following statements regarding frog is not correct?

(1) Fertilization is external and takes place in water.

(2) External ear and tympanum can be seen externally.
(3) In females the ureters and oviduct open separately in the cloaca.
(4) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs and vocal sac are present in male frog

52) Regarding frog :

(i) Closed blood vascular system
(ii) Heart is 3 chambered
(iii) donot have lymphatic system
(iv) Optic lobes present in mid brain
(v) Frogs have compound eyes
How many are incorrect :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
53) Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in the male frogs.

(1) Testis → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle →
(2)
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(3) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

54)

Find the incorrect statement about brain of frog

(1) Forebrain includes olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and paired diencephalon
(2) Mid brain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata
(3) The hind brain is characterized by a pair of optic lobes
(4) All of these

55)

Find incorrect statement about frog vascular system

(1) It is well-developed closed type.

(2) It involves heart, blood vessels and blood
(3) Heart is a muscular structure situated in the lower part of the body cavity
(4) The blood from the heart is carried to all parts of the body by the arteries (arterial system).

56) Male frog can be distinguished externally from female frog by all of the following features except
a. Presence of sound producing vocal sacs
b. Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs
c. Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog
d. Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidney by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) c and d only

57) Given diagram is female reproductive system of frog. Identify the structure A, B, C and D :-
(1) (A) Oviduct (B) Ureter (C) Cloaca (D) Ovary
(2) (A) Oviduct (B) Ovary (C) Ureter (D) Urinary bladder
(3) (A) Urinary bladder (B) Ureter (C) Ovary (D) Oviduct
(4) (A) Cloacal aperture (B) Ovary (C) Urinary bladder (D) Oviduct

58) In the given diagram, identify the labelled part which get reduced in length due to its

carnivorous nature.

(1) B
(2) A
(3) D
(4) C

59) Select the correct statement for given diagram:

(1) In frog one pair green conical testes present.

(2) Testes adhere to lower part of kidney by peritoneal fold called mesorchium.
(3) 20-25 vasa efferentia arise from each testes.
(4) Vasa efferentia enters into the kidney and opens into Bidder's canal.

60) A and B are organs of female frog as indicated in diagram, select the correct option:

(1) A is Bidder’s canal and carry urine only.

(2) A is urinogenital duct and carry urine and eggs both.
(3) B is rectum and store faecal matter.
(4) B is urinary bladder and store urine.

61) During aestivation and hibernation, frog respires

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Buccal mucosa
(4) All of these

62) How many digits does the forelimb and hindlimb of frog have respectively?

(1) 3, 4
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 5
(4) 4, 3

63)

Consider the following statements about frog's digestive system :-

(I) Food is captured by the bilobed tongue.
(II) Partially digested food is called chyme. It is passed from the stomach to the first part of
intestine.
(III) Bile digest carbohydrates and proteins.
(IV) Pancreas is absent.

Which of the above given statement are incorrect?

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I and IV

64) Conus arteriosus is present on_____ side of heart of frog.

(1) Dorsal
(2) Lateral
(3) Ventral
(4) Dorso-lateral

65) Frog can not respire in water through :-

(1) Buccal respiration

(2) Cutaneous respiration
(3) Pulmonary respiration
(4) Both (1) and (3)

66) Blood circulation in frog is :-

(1) Incomplete single
(2) Complete double
(3) Incomplete double
(4) Complete single

67) How many ova are laid by mature female frog at a time ?

(1) 2000–5000
(2) 2500–5000
(3) 2500–3000
(4) 100–500

68) Bidder's canal in frog is found in ?

(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Testis
(4) Ovary

69) Alimentary canal of frog is short due to ?

(1) Carnivores nature

(2) Omnivores nature
(3) Herbivores nature
(4) Frugivores nature

70) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Frog–

(1) Protective coloration in frog is called mimicry.

(2) Ventral side of skin is generally olive green
(3) Final digestion takes place in the intestine
(4) Only male possess sound producing vocal sacs

71) The right atrium in frog receives the blood directly from:

(1) Conus arteriosus

(2) Pulmonary veins
(3) Vena cava
(4) Sinus venosus

72) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The body of a frog is divisible into head, neck, and trunk.
Statement II: A membranous tympanum in frogs functions as an ear and is responsible for receiving
sound signals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
['1. ', '2. ', '3. ', '4. ']
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

73) Identify ‘3’ in the pathway of food ingested by frog.

(1) Larynx
(2) Pharynx
(3) Gizzard
(4) Crop

74)

Frog is :-

(1) Uricotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) None of them

75) Where is bile stored in the body of frog?

(1) Pancreas
(2) Liver
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Bidder’s canal

76) Assertion A: Frogs have a pair of testes that are attached to the upper part of the kidneys by a
structure called mesorchium.
Reason R: The mesorchium is a double fold of peritoneum that supports the testes and is involved in
the process of hearing and balancing.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

77) Assertion A: Frogs can respire through their skin during aestivation and hibernation.
Reason R: Frogs have a well-developed closed vascular system.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

78) Assertion : Frog maintain ecological balance.

Reason : Frog serves as important link in flood web and food chain in the ecosystem.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the A
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

79) Assertion (A) : The alimentary canal is short and length of intestine is also reduced.
Reason (R) : Frogs are meat eater.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

80) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

(I) Pigments (a) Vinblastin, Curcumin

(II) Alkaloids (b) Abrin, Ricin

(III) Toxins (c) Carotenoids, Anthocyanins

(IV) Drugs (d) Morphine, Codeine

(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(3) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

81) Lipids are extracted with acid insoluble fraction because

(1) Its molecular weight is less than 800 Da

(2) It form vesicles which are not water soluble
(3) It is polymer
(4) It is not a polymer

82) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding secondary metabolites ?

(1) Plant tissues produce secondary metabolites also

(2) Vinblastine and curcumin are secondary metabolites used as a drugs
(3) Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolites used as a drugs
(4) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance
83) Which of the following compounds is used in the chemical analysis of living tissue?

(1) CH3COOH
(2) Cl3CCOOH
(3) HCHO
(4) C6H12O6

84) The acid insoluble fraction of the tissue has

(1) Amino acids, Proteins and nucleic acids

(2) Monosaccharides and polysaccharides
(3) Nucleic acids, nucleotides and nitrogen base
(4) Proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides and lipids

85) Which is/are biomolecule ?

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) All of the above

86) Rubber gums cellulose are considered as

(1) Primary metabolite

(2) Secondary metabolite
(3) Tertiary metabolite
(4) Quaternary metabolite

87) Which of the following is true w.r.t. components of average composition of cells in an ascending
order?

(1) Protein, carbohydrates, water, nucleic acid, lipid

(2) Lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acid, proteins, water
(3) Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, nucleic acid, water
(4) Water, proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipid

88) Macromolecules are

(1) Nucleic acid, proteins and polysaccharides

(2) Nucleic acids and monosaccharide
(3) Aminoacids, lipids and nucelotides
(4) Aminoacids and polysaccharides

89) Assertion :- Protein is present in true macro-molecular fraction.

Reason :- Molecular weight of protein is more than 800 dalton.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Which term can't be used for frog ?

(1) Poikilothermic
(2) Amphibian
(3) Homoiothermic
(4) Camouflage
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 4 3 1 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 1 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 1 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Experimental fact.

2) Concept :
Force is rate of change of momentum.

Formula :

F= ⇒F=

Calculation :
If ΔV = 0

If force is zero body will move with same speed in straight line. So option (3) is correct.

Final Answer : (3) To maintain the same speed.

3)

The mass of the body of10 kg

4)

option (1) Answer is Acceleration

5)

Option (4) speed decreases and motion curves downward

6) Action and reaction forces and always in opposite direction.

7) Question Explanation: To tell characteristics of the third law of motion.

Solution: According to the third law of motion every action has a reaction equal in magnitude
and opposite in direction acting on two different bodies.
Concept: Newton's third law

8) Explain: Choose the correct free body diagram (FBD) showing all external force acting on
the rod of mass m.
Concept: FBD (Free body diagram)
Formula: Weight W = mg
Calculation:
Weight (mg): Acts vertically downwards from the center of mass.
Normal reaction from the ground (N): Acts vertically upwards perpendicular to the
ground.
Tension (T): Acts along the string, which is connected from the top of the rod to the wall.
Correct FBD

Ans. (3)
Difficulty level: Easy

9)

Option (2) Answer is

10)

11) See the answer directly

12)

Both particles travels same distance in 2s. So seperation remains same (9.8 m)

13)

14) t = = 4s
 15)

Option (1) an acceleration in direction of its velocity

16)

17)

Explain : accelerations of two cars, A and B, are given find the acceleration of car B relative
to car A.

Concept : Relative acceleration.

Formula : BA = B – A

Magnitude: ∣ BA ​∣ =

Direction: θ = tan−1 ​

Calculation :

aA ​= 2 m/s² (due east)

aB ​= 4 ​ m/s² (due north)

magnitude of the relative acceleration:

= m/s2

direction of the relative acceleration:

θ = tan–1(2)
north of west
Final Answer : (2)

18)

Option (3) straight line

19)

Option (2) answer is 5 m/s

20)

Option (3) is correct

21)

Option (1) answer is due north

22)

Option is (3) South-East

23) m = 80 gm
Since velocity = constant

F=0

24)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the impulse delivered by a force that
changes over time, given by F = 50 - 20t, over the time interval from 0 to t. Impulse is related
to how much the force acts over that period.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is impulse in physics, which is the integral of
force over a time interval. Impulse represents the change in momentum caused by a force
applied over a period of time.

Relevant Formulas: Impulse I is calculated as the integral of the force F(t) over time:

where - is the impulse, - is the force as a function of time, - is the time

variable.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Substitute the given force expression:

2. Use a dummy variable of integration (say x) to avoid confusion with the upper limit:

3. Integrate term by term:

4. Evaluate the definite integral:

So the impulse over the interval [0,t] is .

Tips and Tricks: Remember to change the integration variable to a dummy variable when
integrating functions with limits involving the variable itself, to avoid confusion.

Common Mistakes: 1. Treating the force as constant instead of variable and simply
multiplying force by time. 2. Forgetting to change the integration variable resulting in
incorrect integration. 3. Incorrect integration of the term , missing the factor of 1/2 when
integrating .

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options like '50t - 10' miss the squared term from
integrating . '50 - t^2' does not accumulate the contribution of force over time correctly.
'25t^2' misses the linear term and incorrectly integrates the force.

25) 2F – F = Ma

2F – T = ⇒ 2F – T = ∴ T=

26) T = M (g + a)
a = 2.5 m/s2

27)

28) Question:
Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3kg, and 5 kg are connected to each other with light strings and
are placed on a frictionless surface as shown.
The system is pulled by a force F = 10 N.
Find the tension T₁ in the string between the 2 kg and 3 kg blocks.
 Solution:
1. Asking About:
Tension T₁ between the 2 kg and 3 kg blocks.

2. Concept:
Apply Newton's Second Law (F = ma) and consider the forces on the 3 kg and 5 kg blocks
together.

3. Formula:

A. Acceleration:
B. Tension: T₁ = (m₂ + m₃) x a

4. Calculation / Explanation:

A. Total mass = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 kg
B. Acceleration a = 10 / 10 = 1 m/s²
C. Tension T₁ pulls the 3 kg and 5 kg blocks:

T₁ = (3 + 5) x 1 = 8 N
5. Final Answer: Option (3) 8 N

29)

Option (1)

30) Explanation: find the change in momentum of a ball that collides with a wall and
rebounds.

Concept charge in : Momentum (P):

Formula:

Calculation:

Final Answer : (4)

31)

option (1) answer is 1 N

32)

option (3) Linear momentum is independent of frame of reference.

33) Option (3) answer is 2 ms-2, 2 ms-2

34)

T = 50 m × =

35)
Consider 4 & 6 kg as system
Net force along x = 50 N

Tension, , T = 4a = 4(5) = 20 N

36)

37)

= 90 + 22.5
= 112.5 N
38) Question Explanation:
The linear momentum of a particle is given as p = t3. We need to find the acceleration at t = 2
seconds, given that mass m = 3 kg.
Concept :
Newton's Second Law and Momentum-Derivative Relation
Formula Used:
- Force is the time derivative of momentum:

- Newton's second law:

F = ma

Calculation:
- Given p = t3, differentiate:

- At t = 2 :

- Using F = m a :

Final Answer: (2)

39)
Solve (1) & (2)

40)

Text will only accelerate the body the body.

41) speed of man (vm) =

speed of escalator

t= = = sec

42)
 vrel = 80 + 65 = 145 km/hr

43)

Use

44) =

45)

distance = drift 2 - drift 1

= d cot θ

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explanation - The question asks to arrange the given hydrogen bonds (O-H, F-H, Cl-H, N-H)
in the correct order of their bond strength.

Concept - (Bond Strength Order)

A. F-H----F (b) has the strongest H-bond due to fluorine's high electronegativity.
B. O-H----O (a) is strong, but less than F-H----F.
C. N-H----N (d) is weaker than O-H----O.
D. Cl-H----Cl (c) has the weakest H-bond due to chlorine's lower electronegativity.

Final Answer - Option (3)

47)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 48)

VWF α [Link].

49)
(ABMO e-s = 6)

50)

Explanation -
The question asks which of the given para-substituted benzene molecules has a zero net dipole
moment due to its symmetry.

Concept - (Para substituted benzene molecule dipole moment)

A. In the case of 1,4-dichlorobenzene, the para arrangement generally leads to cancellation of

dipoles.
B. -OH and -SH are angular so have net dipole

Final Answer - Option (2)

51)

R-OH + H2O → H-bonding

52)

Explanation:

A. Para-magnetism arises from the presence of unpaired electrons in a molecule.

B. We use Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) to determine the number of unpaired electrons.

Concept:

A. O₂ (16 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (σ2pz)² (π2px)² (π2py)² (π2px)¹ (π*2py)¹

Two unpaired electrons (paramagnetic).

 B. B₂ (10 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ*2s)² (π2px)¹ (π2py)¹

Two unpaired electrons (paramagnetic).

C. NO (15 electrons): (σ2s)² (σ2s)² (σ2pz)² (π2px)² (π2py)² (π2px)¹

One unpaired electron (paramagnetic).

Answer option 4, (All).

53)

54) Explanation -
The question asks you to identify the molecule from the given options that has the smallest or
minimum dipole moment.

Concept - (Dipole moment to identify molecule)

BF3 has a zero net dipole moment due to symmetrical arrangement of the fluorine atoms, the
bond dipoles cancel each other out.

55)

56)

H2O has maximum

4 H-bonds per molecule

57)

Asking for:

Identify the polar molecule from the given options: XeF₄, BF₃, SF₄, and SiF₄.

Concept:

A. Polar Molecule: A molecule with a net dipole moment due to an uneven distribution of
electron density.
B. Dipole Moment: A measure of the polarity of a molecule.
C. Molecular Geometry: The spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, which affects the
overall dipole moment.
D. Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons.

Formula:

A. Dipole moment (μ) is a vector quantity.

Solution/Explanation:

A. XeF₄ (Xenon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Square planar

B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
xenon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
B. BF₃ (Boron Trifluoride):

A. Shape: Trigonal planar

B. Arrangement: The three fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
boron atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
C. SF₄ (Sulfur Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: See-saw
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms and one lone pair are arranged around the central
sulfur atom in a see-saw shape.
C. Polarity: The lone pair creates an uneven distribution of electron density, resulting in a
polar molecule.
D. SiF₄ (Silicon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Tetrahedral
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
silicon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.

Therefore, SF₄ is the only polar molecule among the given options.

Answer : Option : 3

58)
59)

60) NCERT, Pg. # 125, 126

61)

Be2 – B.O. = 0

62) Mol mass ↑ London dispersion force ↑

63)

64) Although F is the most electronegative, it is expected to have maximum dipole moment
however, it is too smaller in size to over powers its electronegative effect (μ = e × d), hence its
dipole moment is lower than CH3Cl.

65)

B2 ⇒ σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2

66) O is most electronegative atom of this group. Thus, H2O molecules are associated by H-
bonding. Thus, maximum boiling point is of H2O.

67)

SO2 is a polar molecule and CCl4 is non-polar molecule.

68)

NCERT-XI, Part-1, Chapter-4

69)

NCERT-XI, Part-1, Chapter-4

70)

71)

72)
According to Bent's Rule:
More EN atom require less %s
Less EN atom require more %s

73)

74)

O3 has 2 resonating structures.

75)
is trigonal planar hence net polarity of both molecules is zero.

76)
 77)

C do not have vacant orbital.

78)

ClO4– → B.O = 1.75

ClO3– → B.O = 1.66
ClO2– → B.O = 1.5
ClO– → B.O = 1

79)

Explanation – The question asks which ions are produced when TlF3 dissolves in water. It
tests understanding of ionic dissociation and the initial products of the dissolution process.

Concept – (TIF3 hydrolysis & ions produced)

TlF3, an ionic compound, initially dissociates in water yielding Tl3+ and 3F– ions. While Tl3+ is
unstable and reduces to Tl+ due to the inert pair effect, the initial ions formed upon dissolution
are Tl3+ and 3F–. Subsequent reactions involving Tl3+ do occur but don't change the initial ions
furnished.

TℓF3 → Tℓ3+ & 3F–

Final Answer – Option(1)

80)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which ion among Sn^{+2}, Ge^{+2}, Si^{+2}, and
Pb^{+2} is the most stable in its +2 oxidation state.

Underlying Concept: In Group 14 elements, the stability of the +2 oxidation state increases
as we move down the group due to the inert-pair effect. This effect is the tendency of the
outermost s-electrons to remain paired and non-ionized, making the lower oxidation states
more stable in heavier elements like Pb compared to lighter ones like Si.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that as you go down a group in the periodic table, the inert-pair
effect becomes stronger, stabilizing the lower oxidation state (+2) more than the higher ones
(+4).

Common Mistakes: Assuming the stability of oxidation states increases uniformly up the
group or not accounting for the inert-pair effect can lead to incorrect conclusions.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing Si^{+2} or Ge^{+2} ignores the weaker
inert-pair effect in lighter elements, making their +2 states less stable compared to Pb^{+2}.
Similarly, Sn^{+2} is more stable than lighter elements but still less stable than Pb^{+2}.
81)
Net resultant would be same as 2D.

82)

Question Explanation – The question asks which halide compound is unknown (i.e., does not
exist or is unstable under normal conditions).

Concept – Highly unstable compound/halide.

Heavier metals (like Tl) in higher oxidation states (+3) become less stable due to the inert pair
effect.

Tl(III) iodide is particularly unstable because iodine is less electronegative and cannot stabilize
the +3 oxidation state of thallium.

Option 1: Tl(III) iodide – It is unknown because the +3 state of Tl is not stabilized by iodide
ions, making the compound unstable or nonexistent.

Final Answer : (1)

83)

Question Explanation – The question asks why boric acid (H3BO3) is polymeric.

Concept – Hydrogen bonding in polymeric form of Baric Acid.

Let's analyze why boric acid (H3BO3) is polymeric:

A. Acidic nature: While boric acid is acidic, this property alone doesn't explain its
polymeric structure.

B. Banana bonding: Banana bonds are found in electron-deficient molecules like diborane
(B2H6), not in boric acid.

C. Hydrogen bonding: Boric acid forms layers of H3BO3 molecules linked by extensive
hydrogen bonding. This network of hydrogen bonds creates the polymeric structure.

D. Geometry: The planar triangular geometry of the BO3 units in boric acid facilitates the
formation of hydrogen bonds, but the hydrogen bonding is the primary reason for the
polymer.
Therefore, the correct answer is : Option (3). hydrogen bonding

Final Answer – Option(3)

84)

Tℓ+3,Pb+4,Bi+5 all acts as O.A. (due to I.P.E.)

85)

Acetic acid form dimer due to H-bonding.

86)

Question Explanation -
The question asks which molecular property invariably changes when back bonding occurs
between a central atom and its surrounding atoms.

Concept - Back Bonding

Solution -
Back bonding involves donation of electron density, creating partial double bond character.
This increased bond order always leads to a shorter bond length between the atoms
participating in back bonding.

Final Answer - Option (4)

87) 3rd period- 3rd period

88) Conditions of back bonding satisfied.

89)
 CCl4 → M = O → N. polar
C – Cl → Polar bond

90)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 29

92) NCERT XI Page No. # 32

93) NCERT XI, pg.# 38

94) NCERT-XI Pg. # 36

95) Explanation:
Ploidy of endosperm in gymnosperms is haploid, not diploid or triploid.
Correct answer: 2
Haploid

96)

The correct answer is 3. Both gametophyte and sporophyte are independent from each
other in most of them.
Explanation: In pteridophytes, both the gametophyte and sporophyte are generally
independent of each other. The gametophyte (e.g., prothallus) is small and free-living, while
the sporophyte (the larger plant) grows independently and is not dependent on the
gametophyte for nourishment or development.

97)

NCERT - Pg. # 35

98) Seed habit is originated in some pteridophytes.

99) NCERT Pg No. # 35, para-3.2

100)

NCERT pg no. 30

101) Module Pg. # 64

102)

NCERT XI Pg.# 36

103)

Solution:

The correct answer is Option 3: Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes.

In bryophytes, the sporophyte (the diploid stage) is dependent on the gametophyte (the
haploid stage) for nutrition and support. The gametophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic
stage, while the sporophyte is smaller and relies on the gametophyte.

104) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 37, (b)

105) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 37 (a)

106)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 28

107)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 36 & 38

108)

NCERT Pg. # 36-38

109) Unicellular algae

110) Cycas

111) In gymnosperm, both male & female gametophyte are highly reduced and are dependent
on sporophyte for nutrition.

112) I, II, III, IV and V

113) Salvinia

114) Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous. Genera like salurenia and and selganella
produce 2 kinds of sporos are heterosphorous.
115) Equisetum

116) A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, C-Fern

117) Pteridophytes

118) Heterospory

119) Correct explanation of-

Reason: In Pteridophytes, water is required for fertilisation therefore not completely therefore
not completely successful land plants.

120) Selaginella

121) Prothallus

122)

Antheridia

123) Endosperm, megaspore, pollen grain

124) Not covered by any ovary wall before and after fertilization

125)

NCERT-XI; Page # 29

126)

NCERT-XI; Page # 29

127)

NCERT-XI; Page # 29

128)

NCERT-XI; Page # 30

129)
NCERT-XI; Page # 30

130)

NCERT-XI; Page # 32

131)

Answer: Inside the megasporangium

Explanation:

In gymnosperms, the megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspores.
One of these megaspores develops into a functional megaspore. This germination process
occurs within the megasporangium, which is located within the ovule. The functional
megaspore then develops into a female gametophyte, which contains the egg cell.

132)

NCERT-XI; Page # 32

133)

NCERT-XI; Page # 32

134) NCERT XIth Page no. # 38

135)

NCERT - XI, Page No. 38

136) NCERT Page 50.

137)

NCERT-XI; Page # 83

138)

NCERT-XI; Page # 81

139)

NCERT-XI; Page # 83
140)

Ncert page 116.

141) New NCERT XI Page # 81,83,84

142)

NCERT-XI; Page # 82,83

143) NCERT Page no.119

144)

NCERT-XI; Page # 83

145)

NCERT-XI; Page # 82

146)

NCERT Pg.116

147) NCERT XI Pg. # 119

148) NCERT Page No. # 117

149) Old NCERT Pg. # 119 - Edition 2022-23

150) NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 83

151)

NCERT-XI; Page # 82

152)

NCERT-XI; Page # 80,81

153) NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 82

154) NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 82

155) NCERT Pg. # 117,118

156) Module Pg. # 159

157) NCERT Pg. # 120

158) NCERT Pg. # 119

159) NCERT Pg. # 116

160) NEW NCERT Page # 80

161)

NCERT-XI; Page # 82

162) Statement I: Incorrect. The body of a frog is divisible into head and trunk only; a neck
and tail are absent, which contradicts the statement.
Statement II: Correct. The membranous tympanum located on either side of a frog's eyes
functions as an ear and is responsible for receiving sound signals.

163)

NCERT-XI; Page # 81,82

164)

NCERT-XI; Page # 83

165) 3. Gall bladder

In frogs, bile, which is produced by the liver, is stored in the gallbladder. When food enters the
small intestine, the gallbladder contracts, releasing bile into the duodenum. Bile helps in the
emulsification of fats, breaking them down into smaller droplets for easier digestion by
enzymes.
Answer - 3

166) The assertion is true as frogs do have a pair of testes that are attached to the upper part
of the kidneys by the mesorchium. However, the reason is false because the mesorchium is not
involved in the process of hearing and balancing; it is simply a supportive structure for the
testes. The ear is the organ responsible for hearing and balancing, not the mesorchium.
 167) The assertion is true as frogs can respire through their skin during aestivation and
hibernation, which is known as cutaneous respiration. However, the reason is not the correct
explanation for the assertion. While frogs do have a well-developed closed vascular system,
this is not directly related to their ability to respire through their skin. The skin respiration is
facilitated by the skin being thin, moist, and highly vascularized, which allows gas exchange,
but this is not a function of the closed vascular system. Therefore, both A and R are true, but R
is not the correct explanation of A.

168)

NCERT-XI; Page # 84

169) All alimentary canal is short because frogs are carnivores and hence the length of
intestine is reduced.

170)

Concept

A. Pigments: Substances that impart color.

B. Alkaloids: Nitrogen-containing organic compounds with physiological effects.
C. Toxins: Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
D. Drugs: Substances used to treat or prevent disease.

Explanation

A. (I) Pigments: Carotenoids and anthocyanins are well-known plant pigments. So, I matches
with (c).
B. (II) Alkaloids: Morphine and codeine are alkaloids derived from the opium poppy. So, II
matches with (d).
C. (III) Toxins: Abrin and ricin are potent toxins produced by plants. So, III matches with (b).
D. (IV) Drugs: Vinblastin and curcumin are used as drugs, vinblastin for cancer treatment and
curcumin for its anti-inflammatory properties. So, IV matches with (a).

Final Answer
Therefore, the correct option is 3. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a.

171)

A. Lipids are hydrophobic (water-repelling) molecules.

B. When living tissue is homogenized and treated with acid, lipids tend to aggregate and
form vesicles or micelles. These structures are not water-soluble and are therefore found
in the acid-insoluble fraction.

C. While some lipids have molecular weights less than 800 Da, this is not the primary
reason they are found in the acid-insoluble fraction.
 D. Lipids are not polymers.

The correct answer is 2. It forms vesicles which are not water soluble.

172)

Concept:

A. Secondary Metabolites: Organic compounds produced by plants, fungi, or bacteria that are
not directly involved in normal growth, development, or reproduction of the organism.

Explanation:

A. Statement 3 is incorrect: While abrin and ricin are indeed secondary metabolites, they are not
used as drugs. They are potent toxins.

Final Answer: 3. Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolites used as a drugs

173)

NCERT-XI; Page # 104

174)

NCERT XI Pg.# 146

175)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 146

176)

Concept:

A. Secondary metabolites: Not directly involved in growth; often used for defense,
signaling, or other specialized functions.

Explanation:

A. Rubber: this is a polymer of isoprene, and is used in defense, and is therefore a

secondary metabolite.

177)
Question Explanation: The correct order should be from the least to the most abundant.

Explanation: Water is the most abundant component in cells, followed by proteins, nucleic
acids, carbohydrates, and lipids.

Correct Answer: Option (2) (Lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acid, proteins, water)

178)

Concept:
Macromolecules are large molecules typically composed of smaller units, such as nucleic
acids, proteins, and polysaccharides, which are polymers of their respective monomers
(nucleotides, amino acids, sugars).

Explanation:
Nucleic acids, proteins, and polysaccharides are all examples of macromolecules. They are
large molecules that play key roles in the structure and function of cells.

Final Answer option 1: Nucleic acid, proteins, and polysaccharides

179) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Proteins are macromolecules because they are large, complex polymers made of
amino acids with high molecular weight, typically >10,000 daltons. Even small proteins have
molecular weights much greater than 800 Da. So this statement is correct. Being above 800
Daltons classifies proteins as macromolecules, hence justifying their presence in the acid-
insoluble fraction during biochemical analysis.
Answer :- 1

180) NCERT-XI; Page # 80