Chemistry MCQ (PFSA)

Compiled By: Rph. Nizam ud din

College of Pharmacy UOS

Dedicated To: Assistant Professor Dr. Tassawer e Meran

Islam College of Pharmacy (ICP) Sialkot

1. The rate of reaction of organic compounds is slow due to

A. ionic bonding

B. amphoteric nature

C. covalent bonding

D. coordinate covalent bonding

Answer. C

2. Which class of compounds shows H-bonding even more than in alcohols?

a) Phenols hydrophobic benzene ring

two electronegative O atoms which

b) Carboxylic acids can form H bonds with H atoms

c) Ethers two hydrophobic R groups

d) Aldehydes

Answer. B. two highly electronegative atoms present in it

3. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because which of the following reasons?

a) It decomposes on increasing temperature

b) It has less degree of ionisation weak acid is that ionises to a lesser

extent and produces less H ions
c) It has -COOH group

d) It has more inductive effect

Answer. Answer: b

Explanation: CH3COOH is slightly ionised than H2SO4. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid
because It has less degree of ionization.

Point to ponder
Presence of methyl group decreases the acidic character of acetic acid due to positive inductive effect
(+I). inductive effect

4. Nitrogen, fluorine and oxygen are _____ in nature.

a) electronegative

b) electropositive

c) metallic

d) semi-metallic

Answer. A

5. Which bond acts like a bridge two molecules formed by a covalent bond?

a) Covalent bond example

b) Ionic bond

c) Hydrogen bond

d) Metallic bond

Answer. C

6. In a hydrogen bond, hydrogen has a positive charge.

a) True

b) False

Answer. A

Bcz hydrogen directly attach to electronegativity atom causing slightly positive charge on it.

7. Water molecules contain _____ hydrogen bond/s.

a) intermolecular examples
aspirin?
b) intramolecular

c) both intermolecular and intramolecular

d) neither intermolecular nor intramolecular

In a water molecule, the hydrogen bonds are formed between other molecules but not within the same
molecule. The presence of hydrogen between molecules is intermolecular hydrogen bond and
presence of hydrogen bond in the molecule itself is intramolecular hydrogen bond.

8. Which of the following molecule can form a hydrogen bond with hydrogen?

a) Sodium

b) Oxygen

c) Aluminium

d) Rubidium
Ans. B
F, O, N

Most Electronegative elements can only form hydrogen bonds with hydrogen, Among Sodium,
Oxygen, Aluminium, and Rubidium, Oxygen is the electronegative element. So only oxygen can form
a hydrogen bond.

9. 1. The diameter of an atom is in the order of

A. 0.2m

B. 0.2mm 10-3

C. 0.2nm

D. 0.2pm

Ans. B

10. The mass spectrometer is used to determine the Mass number of isotopes and

A. Atomic number

B. Relative abundance

C. Electronic configuration

D. All of the above

Answer. B

The basic principle of mass spectrometry (MS) is to generate ions from either inorganic or organic
compounds by any suitable method, to separate these ions by their mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) and to
detect them qualitatively and quantitatively by their respective m/z and abundance.

here are four stages in a mass spectrometer which we need to consider, these are – ionisation,
acceleration, deflection, and detection.

11. m/z represents mass divided by charge number and the horizontal axis in a mass spectrum is
expressed in units of m/z. Since z is almost always 1 with GCMS, the m/z value is often considered to
be the mass. unipoitive ions are formed, so these ions are
deflected and separated based on teir mass

12. Molecular ions are formed by passing

A. High energy electron beam

B. – particle

C. X-rays

D. All of the above

Answer. D
13. The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows

height of the peak shows

A. Relative abundance abundance.

B. The average mass of the element

C. Number of isotopes

D. Relative isotopic mass

Ans. C

14. Which one is true about isotope?

same protons
A. Same number of neutrons same electrons
different neutrons
B. Same mass number same atomic number
different mass number
same chemical properties
C. Same physical properties different physical properties

D. Same chemical properties

coz these depend on number of electrons
Ans. D that are always equal to protons in atoms

D. Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different mass number. Hence, they have
same number of electrons. Chemical properties are related to the number of valence electrons. Thus,
isotopes have similar chemical properties.

Isotopes with an even atomic number and even mass number are abundant

15. The molecular mass of water (18g) means

A. 1-mole molecules of water

B. 1-gram molecule of water molecular mass expressed in grams

C. 3-gram atoms atomic mass expressed in grams

D. all

Answer. D

16. Size of a molecule depends upon

atomicity?
A. Atomicity

B. The shape of a molecule

C. Both a and b

D. Difficult to predict

Answer. C
17. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?

A. Sand Si-O-Si chains

B. Haemoglobin

C. Diamond

D. Maltose disaccharide

Answer. D

18. Which of the following methods is used to estimate hydrogen in an organic compound?

A. Combustion method combustion analysis

B. Dumas method

C. Kjeldahl’s method

D. All of the above methods are for different purposes

Answer. A

19. Dempster’s mass spectrometer has a number of zones/parts

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Answer. A

20 The property of a substance to absorb moisture from the air on exposure is called______?

A. Osmosis

B. Deliquescence

C. Efflorescence

D. Desiccation

Answer. B

21. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)_____?

A. Helps line up cell proteins

B. Is poisonous to tissues oxidative specie

C. Is often needed as a catalyst

D. Aids in the oxidation of glucose

Answer. B

22. The fraction of petroleum having boiling range 40-200°C is called _____?
A. Kerosene

B. Gasoline

C. Petroleum ether

D. None of the above

Answer. Gasoline

23. Which of the following metal occurs in free state ______?

A. Lead TEL...lead oxide...elemental lead

B. Iron

C. Mercury

D. Copper

Answer. A

24. Magnalium is an alloy of_____?

A. Magnesium and Lead

B. Aluminium and Zinc

C. Aluminium and Magnesium

D. Aluminium and Mercury

Answer. C

25. Which element does not occur in nature but can be produced artificially?

A. Plutonium Polonium is natural?

B. Uranium

C. Radium

D. Thorium Thalium

Answer. A

26. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of______?

A. Tin
Zn????
B. Silver

C. Zinc

D. Chromium

Answer. B

27. Mercury is also known as_____?

A. Shine Silver
B. Quick Silver

C. Slow Silver

D. Slippery Silver

Answer. C

28. Which of these is not a Metamorphic rock?

A. Quartzite Quartz/ glass

B. Slate

C. Gneiss

D. Schist

Answer. A

29. One of the following ways of expressing the concentration of a solution does not depend on
temperature. It is____?

A. Molarity

B. Molality

C. Normality

D. Formality

Ans. B

30. A substance which increases the efficiency of a catalyst is termed as______?

A. Promoter

B. Activator

C. Retarder

D. Super catalyst

Ans. b

31. Which of the following is a substance?

???
A. Sea water

B. Brass

C. Tape water

D. Graphite

E. Sand

Ans. D

32. Honey has greater viscosity due to______?

A. hydrogen bonding

B. irregular shape of the molecules

C. irregular shape of the molecules and strong inter-molecular forces

D. greater molecular size

Ans. C

33. Second ionization energy:

A. is always less than first ionization energy

B. is always greater than first ionization energy

C. is equal to the first ionization energy

D. may be greater or less than the first ionization energy depending on the nature of the element

Ans. B

34. The chemical name of Laughing Gas is_____?

A. Nitric oxide

B. Nitrogen dioxide

C. Nitrogen pentoxide

D. Nitrous oxide dinitrogen oxide

N2O
Ans. D

35. Water is a universal solvent for what reactions?

A. Chemical

B. Biochemical

C. Physical

D. Nuclear

Ans. B polar...jis ma positive aur

negative poles hon
A polar molecule is a molecule in which part of the molecule is positively charged and part of the
molecule is negatively charged. Due to polarity in charge within the water molecule, it can dissolve
salts. ... Therefore, water is considered a very good solvent in the biochemical reactions.

36. How many methods of removing the radio active impurities are there?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 3

d) 4
Ans. 2

37. The treatment of water with ___ improves the taste of water

a) Oxygen

b) Chlorine

c) KMnO4

d) Ozone

Ans. D

Because of its excellent disinfection and oxidation qualities, ozone is widely used for drinking water
treatment. Ozone can be added at several points throughout the treatment system, such as during pre-
oxidation, intermediate oxidation or final disinfection.

Chlorine is basically for purification

t also effects taste but azone is specific

38. Reacting the water with ___ removes the odour due to the phenols

a) KMnO4

b) MnO4

c) Potassium

d) Magnesium

Ans. A

39. ____ imparts peculiar odour to the water

a) Decaying organic matter

b) Detergents

c) Phenols

d) Dissolved oxygen

Ans. B Detergents

40. Dried sludge can be used as ___

a) Fertilizer

b) Pesticide

c) Reagent

d) Medicine

Ans. A

41. In the trickling filter process, the ___build up and they block the passage

a) Sludge formed
b) Dissolved impurities

c) Dissolved solids

d) Micro organisms

Ans. D

42. 1. Periodic cleaning is used to ___

a) Increase efficiency

b) Decrease efficiency

c) Increase pressure

d) Decrease dissolved oxygen

Ans. A

43. The depth of the rectangular circular tanks in the trickling filters method is having the depth of
____

a) 4m

b) 3m

c) 2m

d) 1m

Ans. C

44. Trickling filter method is _____ than the activated sludge process

a) Fast

b) Slow

c) Very fast

d) Moderate

Ans. B

45. The water after removing of sludge in the biological oxidation process is treated with ____

a) Chlorine

b) Bromine

c) Fluorine

d) Iodine

Ans. A

46. All impurities are oxidised into the ___ and _____ in the biological oxidation process

a) Oxygen and water

b) Carbon dioxide and water

c) Nitrogen and water

d) Chlorine and water

Ans.

47. In reverse osmosis, the membrane pores are smaller in size about ____

a) 0.04 to 600nm

b) 0.08 to 500nm

c) 0.1 to 600nm

d) 0.2 to 500nm

Ans. A

48. ____ co polymer can remove the chlorinated pesticides

a) Styrene di vinyl benzene

b) Styrene

c) Benzoyl peroxide

d) Phenol

Ans. A

49. By ultrafiltration aldrin can be removed by ___

a) 100%

b) 99%

c) 98%

d) 97%

Ans. B Aldrin is an organochlorine insecticide

50. The semi permeable membranes used in the reverse osmosis is ___

a) Cellulose

b) Glucose

c) Cellulose acetate

d) Glucose acetate

ans. C

51. Which of the following method is not the method of desalination?

a) Reverse osmosis
b) Multi flash distillation

c) Electro dialysis

d) Smelting

Ans. D

52.. The temperature maintained in the standard hydrogen electrode is _____

a) 22oC

b) 23oC

c) 24oC

d) 25oC

Ans.D

53. 100 parts of CaCO3 is equivalent to the ____ parts of sodium carbonate

a) 103

b) 104

c) 105

d) 106

ans. D

54. One French unit is equal to ____ ppm

a) 10

b) 20

c) 30

d) 40

Ans. A

55. One French unit is equal to ___ mg/litre

a) 5

b) 10

c) 15

d) 20

ans. B

56. Which of the following is not lost during corrosion?

a) Malleability
b) Ductility

c) Conductivity

d) Colour

ans. D

57. Iron undergoes corrosion to produce ____ coloured hydrated ferric oxide

a) Red

b) Brown

c) Green

d) Blue

Ans. B

Macromolecules
1. A polymer in which three different monomers combine called.

A. Copolymer

B. Terpolymer

C. Homopolymer

D. Biopolymer

Ans. B

2. The important monomers of acrylic resins are

A. Vinyl chloride

B. Styrene

C. Methyl methacrylate

D. Hexamethylenediamine

Ans. C

3. Polyester resins are the product of the reaction of

A. Dihydric alcohol and dicarboxylic aromatic acids

B. Polyamines with aliphatic dicarboxylic acids

C. Styrene in the presence of a catalyst

D. Epichlorohydrin with diphenol propane

Ans. A. Dihydric alcohol and dicarboxylic aromatic acids

4. Industrial materials and thermal power stations are coated with

A. Polyester resins

B. Epoxy paints

C. Polyamide resins

D. Polyvinyl chloride

Ans. B

5. Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy compounds of

A. Glucose

B. Glyceraldehydes

C. Oligosaccharides

D. Aldehydes and ketones

Ans. D

6. Nylon is obtained by heating

A. Acrylic acid

B. Epichlorohydrin

C. Vinyl chloride

D. Adipic acid with hexamethylene diamine

Ans. D

7. Amylose is

A. Soluble in water

B. Insoluble in water

C. Soluble in alcohol

D. Partially soluble in alcohol

Ans. A

8. The process of polymerization was classified by

A. Strecker

B. Sabatier

C. Runge

D. W. H. Carothers

Ans. D

9. Protein attached to some non-protein group is called

A. Derived protein

B. Sample protein

C. Proteases

D. Conjugated protein

Ans. D

10. Regular coiling or zigzagging of the polypeptide through hydrogen bonding is its.

A. Quantum structure

B. Secondary structure

C. Tertiary structure

D. Primary structure

Ans. A

11. Ergosterol is

A. Ergocalciferol

B. Vitamin D2

C. Sterol

D. All of the above

Ans. C

12. Lipids are soluble in

A. Organic solvents

B. Organic and inorganic solvents

C. Inorganic solvents

D. Solubility has nothing to do with lipids

Ans. A. Organic solvents

13. Animal and vegetable fats are

A. Glycerols

B. Fatty acids

C. Tri esters formed from glycerol and fatty acids

D. Tetra esters formed from glycerol and fatty acids

Ans. C

14. Lipopolysaccharides are examples of

A. Derived lipids
B. Simple lipids

C. Compound lipids

D. Not a type of lipids

Ans. C

15. Triglycerides are easily hydrolyzed by enzymes called

A. Lyases

B. Ligases

C. Lipases

D. Hydrolases

Ans. C

16. Saponification is the hydrolysis of fat or oil with an

A. Acid

B. Alkali

C. Enzyme and alkali

D. Enzyme and acid

Ans. B

17. Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of groups within a molecule are called

A. Isomerases

B. Lyases

C. Transferases

D. Ligases

Ans. C

18. The rate of enzymatic reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of

A. Enzyme

B. Substrate

C. Enzyme and substrate

D. Enzyme and product

Ans. B

19. Enzyme proved useful in cancer treatment is

A. Lactic dehydrogenase

B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. L-asparaginase

D. Cellulase

Ans. C

20. Nucleic acids were first demonstrated in

A. Pus cells

B. Sperm heads

C. 1872

D. All of the above

Ans. A

21. The mechanism by which the genetic information can be duplicated is called

A. Duplication

B. Transcription

C. Replication

D. Mutation

Ans. C

22. The nitrogenous base different in RNA as compared to DNA is

A. Cytosine

B. Thymine

C. Adenine

D. Guanine

Ans. B

Chapter. 1 Basic concepts in chemistry

1. Molarity, Molality, normality, mole fraction

2. Types of bonds

3. Concepts of acids and bases

4. Atomic number, mass

1............ is the expression of the number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of solution.

A. Molarity

B. Molality

C. Normality

D. Mole fraction

Ans. A

2. It is defined in terms of

equivalents rather than moles.

A. Molality

B. Normality

C. Molarity

Ans. B

3....... of a solution is the number of gram-equivalent weights (equivalents) of

solute per liter of solution

A. Normality

B. Molality

C. Formality

Ans. A

4. Tell the term

The moles of solute dissolved per kilogram of solvent. Molality

5......... is the ratio of the number of moles of one component to the total moles of a mixture or
solution

A. Molality

B. Mole fraction

C. Solution

Ans. B

[Link] type of bond is formed by an overlap of p orbitals

A. Pi (π)

B. Sigma(Σ)

C. Both

D. Neither

Ans. B

6. The complete transfer of one or more electrons between atoms constitutes informing

A. ionic bond
B. covalent bond
C. coordinate covalent bond
D. dative bond

Ans. A

7. A covalent bond is the sharing of

A. protons
B. electrons
C. neutrons
D. none of above

Ans. B

8. Ionic and covalent bonds requires a lot of energy to break them because they are very

A. strong
B. volatile
C. weak
D. efficient
Ans. Strong

10........... is an amide type of covalent chemical bond linking two consecutive alpha-amino acids from
C1 of one alpha-amino acid and N2 of another, along a peptide or protein chain.

Tell the bond Peptide Bond

11. Is a type of covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate (sugar) molecule to another group, which may
or may not be another carbohydrate.

Tell the bond Glycosidic Bond

12. A coordinate bond (also called a dative covalent bond) is a covalent bond (a shared pair of
electrons) in which both electrons come from the same atom. True/False

13. ....... is a primarily electrostatic force of attraction between a hydrogen (H) atom which is
covalently bound to a more electronegative atom or group, particularly the second-row elements
nitrogen (N), oxygen (O), or fluorine (F)—the hydrogen bond donor (Dn)—and another.

Tell the bond Hydrogen Bond

14. When an acid reacts with metal carbonate, the products are

salt

water

carbon dioxide

all of above

Ans. A

15. Phenolphthalein in acidic solution is

colorless

pink colored

yellow colored

orange colored

Ans. A

16. The process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
neutralization

hydrogenation

halogenation

sublimation

Ans. A

17. A substance that donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent bond is called

Lewis acid

Lewis base

Bronsted-Lowry acid

Bronsted-Lowry base

Ans.

18. What type of bond does acetic acid have?

A. Covalent bond

B. Ionic bond

Ans. A

19. How many functional groups are in aspirin?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

Ans. 3

20. How many functional groups are in paracetamol?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

Ans. 3

21. how many groups are in urea?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

Ans. A

22. How many double bonds does palmitic acid have?

A. Zero

B. One

C. Three

Ans. A

23....... of a chemical element is the number of protons found in the nucleus of every atom of that
element.

Tell the term Atomic number

24. is a weighted average of all of the isotopes of that element

Tell the term. Atomic mass

2. Chemistry Diagnostic test

Topics

1. Distillation, types

2. Filtration

3. Sublimation

4. Potentiometry

1. Crude oil can be fractionally distilled to produce

A. diesel
B. petrol

C. paraffin

D. all of above

2 Distillate formed after distillation is a/an

A. diluted solution

B. impure solution

C. condensed solution

D. concentrated solution

3 In vacuum distillation, substance boils at a/an

A. exact temperature

B. temperature slightly above its boiling point

C. temperature below its boiling point

D. high pressures

4. In the fractionating column of fractional distillation, as we go higher in the column the

A. temperature becomes lower

B. temperature becomes higher

C. minimum absorption is carried out

D. risks of sublimation exists

5. If a substance decomposes when heated to its boiling point, the suitable method is

A. simple distillation

B. fractional distillation

C. vacuum distillation

D. crystallization

6. The distillate is a liquid that

A. mixes together
B. condenses after distillation

C. does not sink due to very fine particles

D. a substance that will not dissolve

7. In Liebig condenser, the

A. coldest part of the condenser is at the top

B water enters in the jacket from the top

C. coldest part of the condenser is at the bottom

D. water enters in the jacket from the middle tubules

8. In fractional distillation, a large surface area for condensation is provided through a

A. thermometer

B. water bath

C. fractionating column

D. reflux condenser

9. What is the pore size of the filtration membrane to remove bacteria?

a) 0.25 µm

b) 0.22 µm

c) 0.27 µm

d) 0.26 µm

10. Which of the following is not the application of filtration?

a) Sterilization of media

b) Removal of debris

c) Plasma clarification

d) Off-gas analysis

11. Which of the following filters are ideal for vitamin sterilization?

a) Bottle top filters

b) Cellulose Nitrate filters

c) Cellulose Acetate filters

d) PES membrane filters

12. Which of the following filter is used in the filtration of bacteria?

a) Bottle top filters

b) Oxalate filters

c) Cellulose Acetate filters

d) PES membrane filters

13. The process used to separate insoluble particles from liquids is

A drying

B. filtration

C. sieving

D. extraction

14. If the tip of the funnel touches side of beaker it avoids

A. splashing

B. bubbling

C. bumping

D. backflow

15. To cover one-fourth of filter paper with precipitate filter paper should be

large

small

medium

light

16. The funnel should be at top of circumference of the paper by

3-4cm

1-2cm

4-5cm

5-6cm

17. The filter paper must be folded

five times
four times

thrice

twice

18. a change directly from the solid to the gaseous state without becoming liquid

Tell the term

19. Tell the term

when a gas or vapor changes directly into a solid without first changing to a liquid (ex. frost)

20. The use of electrodes to measure voltages that provide chemical information and Based on the
measurement the potential of electrochemical cells without drawing appreciable current.

Tell the term

21. Eref | Ej | Analyte Solution | Eind is

A. Typical cell for potentiometric analysis

B. Non-Typical cell for potentiometric analysis

Indicator electrode (Eind)

Reference electrode (Eref)

22. Prevents the components of the analyte solution for mixing with those of the reference electrode

A. Salt bridge

B. Indicator electrode

C. Reference electrode (Eref)

Answer Key

1. D
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. C
 6. B
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. Large
15. 1-2 cm
16. 4-times
17. Sublimation
18. Deposition
19. Potentiometry
20. A
21. A

Chapter. 3 Basic Concepts in Chemistry

Topics
A. Titration
B. Paper chromatography
B. Column chromatography

1. Which of the following way in used for classification of chromatography?

A. Shape

B. Phase

C. Mechanism

D. All

2. The fluted filter paper is used to

A. Filter hot solution

B. Avoid premature crystallization

C. Increase the rate of filtration

D. Decrease the area

3. Safe and the most reliable method of drying crystals is through

A. Filter paper

B. Vacuum desiccators

C. Oven

D. None of these

4. A substance having a very high vapour pressure at its melting point on heating will show

A. Melting

B. Sublimation

C. Decomposition

D. Condensation

5.A process controlled by Distributive law is

A. Crystallization

B. Sublimation

C. Solvent extraction

D. Filtration

6.A technique of partition chromatography in which the solvent is in a pool at the bottom of container

A. Adsorption chromatography

B. Ascending chromatography

C. Radial chromatography

D. Descending chromatography

7. Different components of a mixture have different Rf values due to

A. Polar solvent used

B. Combination of solvents used

C. Their different distribution coefficients in the solvent

D. Distributive law

[Link] of the components of a sample is

A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative analysis

C. Stoichiometry

D. Physical chemistry

[Link] of amounts of different components in a sample is

A. Quantitative analysis

B. Qualitative analysis

C. Stoichiometry

D. Physical chemistry

[Link] solid which is left over the filter paper as a result of filtration

A. Insoluble Particles

B. Residue

C. Crystals

D. Mud

[Link] of filter paper is selected according to the amount of

A. Solution

B. Amount of insoluble solute

C. Amount of soluble solute

D. Amount of solvent

[Link] Crucibles are made up of

A. Plastic

B. Fibre

C. Porcelain

D. Steel

[Link] of a solid from its hot saturated solution by cooling is called

A. Vapourization

B. Solvent extraction

C. Filtration

D. Crystallization

[Link] of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of iodine with hypo?

(a) Methyl red

(b) Methyl orange

(c) Starch

(d) Potassium ferricyanide

[Link] will be the pH at the equivalence point in the titration of a weak acid and a strong base?

(a) 0

(b) >7

(c) 7

(d) <7

16. The pH range of methyl orange as an indicator is

(a) 3-5

(b) 8-9

(c) 2-4

(d) 6-8

[Link] chromatography is based on the principle of _____

a) Ion-exchange

b) Exclusion principle

c) Differential adsorption

d) Absorption

18. Arrange the following compounds in order of their increasing adsorption tendencies.
a) Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> alumina

b) Cellulose >> starch >> alumina >> charcoal

c) Charcoal >> cellulose >> alumina >> starch

d) Calcium carbonate >>; alumina >> starch >> cellulose

[Link] is the factor responsible for the separation in column chromatography?

a) Polarity differences between the solvent

b) Polarity differences between the solute

c) Polarity indifference between the solvent

d) Polarity indifference between the solute

20. Select the correct statement from the following options.

a) The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

b) The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

c) The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface

d) All of the mentioned option

Answer Key

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. A
 19. B
20. C

Key points from today's mcqs

1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of differential adsorption . It means

different compounds have different tendencies to get adsorb on a particular surface.
2. 2. Polarity differences between the solute molecules are responsible for the separation in
column chromatography
3. 3. The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
4. 4. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of increasing
polarity and increasing distribution ratio
5. 5. The elution power of a solvent is determined by its overall polarity, the polarity of the
stationary phase and the nature of the sample components

A. Spectroscopy
1. UV-Visible Spectroscopy
1 What is the wavelength range for vacuum UV spectrum of light?

a) 400 nm – 700 nm

b) 700 nm to 1 mm

c) 0.01 nm to 10 nm

d) 10 nm to 200 nm

Answer- D

2 The intensity of an absorption band is always proportional to which of the following factor?

a) Atomic population

b) Molecular population of the initial state

c) Molecular population of the final state

d) Temperature

Answer-B

3 In which unit Force constant is not expressed?

a) Dynes cm-1

b) dyne Å-1

c) Nm-1

d) kp

Answer-D

(All of the above units are correct for force constant except kp, i.e. kilogram force or kilopond, which
is the unit of force.)

4 The vibrations, without a center of symmetry are active in which of the following region?

a) Infrared but inactive in Raman

b) Raman but inactive in IR

c) Raman and IR

d) Inactive in both Raman and IR

Answer: c

Explanation: If a molecule has COS, then its vibrational mode will either IR active or Raman Active

5 Which of the following compounds does not absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum?

a) Aspirin

b) Paracetamol

c) Chloral hydrate

d) Phenobarbitone

Answer-C.

In order to absorb light in the UV/visible spectrum, a molecule must possess a chromophore e.g. a
benzene ring or conjugated double bonds. Chloral hydrate does not possess a chromophore.

6 : Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of the following?

a) Reflected radiation and concentration

b) Scattered radiation and concentration

c) Energy absorption and concentration

d) Energy absorption and reflected radiation

Answer-C

7 In which of the following ways, absorption is related to transmittance?

a) Absorption is the logarithm of transmittance

b) Absorption is the reciprocal of transmittance

c) Absorption is the negative logarithm of transmittance

d) Absorption is a multiple of transmittance

Answer-C

Transmittance is the ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power
incident on the sample. Absorption is the negative logarithm of transmittance.

8 Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with respect to _____

a) Concentration

b) Distance

c) Composition

d) Volume

Answer-A

9 Lambert’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with respect to ____

a) Concentration

b) Distance

c) Composition

d) Volume

Answer-B

10 The representation of Beer Lambert’s law is given as A = abc. If ‘b’ represents distance, ‘c’
represents concentration and ‘A’ represents absorption, what does ‘a’ represent?

a) Intensity

b) Transmittance
c) Absorptivity

d) Admittance

Answer-C

‘a’ represents the absorption constant. It is also known as absorptivity.

11 Which of the following is not true about Absorption spectroscopy?

a) It involves transmission

b) Scattering is kept minimum

c) Reflection is kept maximum

d) Intensity of radiation leaving the substance is an indication of concentration

Answer: c

Explanation: In Absorption spectroscopy, reflection must also be kept minimum along with
scattering. Amount of absorption depends on the number of molecules in the material.

12 Transmittance is given as T = P/Po. If Po is the power incident on the sample, what does P
represent?

a) Radiant power transmitted by the sample

b) Radiant power absorbed by the sample

c) Sum of powers absorbed and scattered

d) Sum of powers transmitted and reflected

Answer-P represents radiant power transmitted by the sample. Transmittance is the ratio of radiant
power transmitted by the sample to the radiant power that is incident on it.

13 What is the unit of absorbance which can be derived from Beer Lambert’s law?

a) L mol-1 cm-1

b) L gm-1 cm-1

c) Cm

d) No unit

Answer-D Absorbance has no unit.

What is the unit of molar absorptivity or absorptivity which is used to determine absorbance A in
Beer Lambert’s formula?

a) L mol-1 cm-1

b) L gm-1 cm-1

c) Cm

d) No unit

Answer-A.

The unit of absorptivity is L mol-1 cm-1. If the concentration is represented as gm per litre it
becomes L gm-1 cm-1.

14 Which one of the following arrangements for the sequence of the main components of

a Uv/visible spectrophotometer is Correct?

(a) Light source Monochromator Sample cell Detector Readout

(b) Light source Detector Sample cell Monochromator Readout

(c) Light source Sample cell Detector Monochromator Readout

(d) Light source Readout Sample cell Detector Monochromator

Answer-A

15 Narrow line spectra are emitted by

(a) hot solids

(b) excited polyatomic molecules

(c) molecules in the ground molecular state

(d) excited atoms

Answer-D

2. NMR Spectroscopy
1. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?

a) Radioactive materials

b) Insoluble chemical compounds

c) Liquids

d) Gases

2. NMR is the study of absorption of ____ by nuclei in a magnetic field?

a) Radioactive radiation

b) IR radiation

c) Radio frequency radiation

d) Microwaves

3. NMR spectrometer provides ____ and _____ method of determining structure in soluble chemical
compounds.

a) Accurate, destructive

b) Accurate, non-destructive

c) Inaccurate, destructive

d) Inaccurate, non-destructive

4. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the ____ and spatial positions of

___

a) Electrons, Protons

b) Neutrons, electrons

c) Nuclei, electrons

d) Nuclei, neighbouring nuclei

5. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in strong magnetic field must be irradiated by which of
the following?

a) Perpendicular and stronger field

b) Perpendicular and weaker field

c) Parallel and stronger field

d) Parallel and weaker field

6. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting a substance
to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?

a) Both fields should be stationary

b) Both fields should be varying

c) One field should be stationary and the other should be varying

d) It must be subjected to only one field

7. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in signal
developed by which of the following components?

a) Amplifier

b) Photodetector

c) GM counter

d) Radiofrequency detector

8. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation?

a) IR radiation

b) Micro waves

c) UV radiation

d) Radio waves

9. The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for which of the
following?

a) Excite an atom

b) Vibrate an atom

c) Vibrate a molecule

d) Affect the nuclear spin of an atom

10. Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have ___ spin.

a) Integral spin

b) Half integral spin

c) Zero spin

d) Positive spin

11. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be which of the
following?

a) Integral spin

b) Half integral spin

c) Zero spin

d) Positive spin

12. The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some arbitrary
chosen compound is which of the following?

a) Field shift

b) Matrix effects

c) Chemical shift

d) Resonance shift

14. Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.

a) True

b) False

15. The approximate value of methyl proton in NMR is

(A) 1.3

(B) 1.5

(C) 0.9

(D) 2.5

16. Boltzmann distribution indicates

(A) The relative no. of protons present in the excited state and ground state

(B) Relative no. of neutrons present in the excited state and ground state
(C) Relative no. of nucleus present in the excited state and ground state

(D) All of the above

17. In NMR spectrum the nuclei in up field resonate at

(A) High frequency

(B) Low frequency

(C) It is constant throughout the spectrum

(D) It doesn’t depends on chemical shift

18. The nuclei that doesn’t give NMR signal is

(A) 15N

(B) 11B

(C) 19F

(D) 31P

19. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

(A) Shielding effect

(B) Spin-spin decoupling

(C) Spin-spin coupling

(D) Deshielding effect

[Link] unit for magnetic moment is

(A) Tesla

(B) Gauss

(C) Joule/gauss

Answer Key NMR Spectroscopy

1. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?

a) Radioactive materials

b) Insoluble chemical compounds

c) Liquids

d) Gases

Answer: c

2. NMR is the study of absorption of ____ by nuclei in a magnetic field?

a) Radioactive radiation

b) IR radiation

c) Radio frequency radiation

d) Microwaves

Answer: c

3. NMR spectrometer provides ____ and _____ method of determining structure in soluble chemical
compounds.

a) Accurate, destructive

b) Accurate, non-destructive

c) Inaccurate, destructive

d) Inaccurate, non-destructive
Answer: b

4. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the ____ and spatial positions of

___

a) Electrons, Protons

b) Neutrons, electrons

c) Nuclei, electrons

d) Nuclei, neighbouring nuclei

Answer: d

Explanation: NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the nuclei and spatial positions of
neighbouring nuclei. It is one of most powerful techniques for chemical analysis.

5. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in strong magnetic field must be irradiated by which of
the following?

a) Perpendicular and stronger field

b) Perpendicular and weaker field

c) Parallel and stronger field

d) Parallel and weaker field

Answer: b

Explanation: In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in strong magnetic field must be irradiated by
a weaker field which is perpendicular to it. This permits the identification of atomic configurations in
molecules.

6. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting a substance
to magnetic fields in which of the following manner?

a) Both fields should be stationary

b) Both fields should be varying

c) One field should be stationary and the other should be varying

d) It must be subjected to only one field

Answer: c

Explanation: Interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting
a substance to two magnetic fields. One magnetic field must be stationary and the other field must be
varying at some radio frequency.

7. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in signal
developed by which of the following components?

a) Amplifier

b) Photodetector

c) GM counter

d) Radiofrequency detector

Answer: d

Explanation: When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption can be observed as a change in
signal developed by radiofrequency detector. It is then given to an amplifier.

8. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation?

a) IR radiation

b) Micro waves

c) UV radiation

d) Radio waves

Answer: d
Explanation: Radio waves are considered to be the lowest form of Electromagnetic radiation. NMR
uses radio frequency radiation for detection of structure of substances.

9. The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for which of the
following?

a) Excite an atom

b) Vibrate an atom

c) Vibrate a molecule

d) Affect the nuclear spin of an atom

Answer: d

Explanation: The amount of energy available in radio frequency radiation is sufficient for affecting
the nuclear spin of an atom. It constitute the most fundamental part of spectroscopy.

10. Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have ___ spin.

a) Integral spin

b) Half integral spin

c) Zero spin

d) Positive spin

Answer: b

Explanation: Nuclei having either the number of protons or neutrons as odd have half-integral spin.
Examples are H1 and B11.

11. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be which of the
following?

a) Integral spin

b) Half integral spin

c) Zero spin

d) Positive spin

Answer: c

Explanation: If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin of the nucleus will be zero.
Examples are C12 and O16.

12. The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some arbitrary
chosen compound is which of the following?

a) Field shift

b) Matrix effects

c) Chemical shift

d) Resonance shift

Answer: c

Explanation: The difference between the field necessary for resonance in the sample and in some
arbitrary chosen compound is called as chemical shift. Chemical shift is expressed in parts per
million.

13. Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined together.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of how atoms are joined together. It is
also possible to know the number of particular atoms present in a molecule.

14. Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin.
a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus have the property of spin. They are
known to behave as if they rotate about an axis.

15. The unit for magnetic moment is

(A) Tesla

(B) Gauss

(C) Joule/gauss

16. The approximate value of methyl proton in NMR is

(A) 1.3

(B) 1.5

(C) 0.9

(D) 2.5

17. Boltzmann distribution indicates

(A) The relative no. of protons present in the excited state and ground state

(B) Relative no. of neutrons present in the excited state and ground state

(C) Relative no. of nucleus present in the excited state and ground state

(D) All of the above

18. In NMR spectrum the nuclei in up field resonate at

(A) High frequency

(B) Low frequency

19. The nuclei that doesn’t give NMR signal is

(A) 15N

(B) 11B

20. Signal splitting in NMR arises from

(A) Shielding effect

(B) Spin-spin decoupling

(C) Spin-spin coupling

(D) Deshielding effect

3. Mass Spectroscopy
1. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?

a) Composition in sample

b) Concentration of elements in sample

c) Relative mass of atoms

d) Properties of sample

2. Who invented mass spectrometers?

a) J.J Thompson

b) Goldstein

c) Nikola Tesla

d) Aston
3. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be analysed is bombarded with which of the
following?

a) Protons

b) Electrons

c) Neutrons

d) Alpha particles

4. Mass spectrometer separates ions on the basis of which of the following?

a) Mass

b) Charge

c) Molecular weight

d) Mass to charge ratio

5. In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which of the following ways?

a) By accelerating them through electric field

b) By accelerating them through magnetic field

c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field

d) By applying a high voltage

6. No two molecules will be fragmented and ionized in exactly the same manner.

a) True

b) False

7. The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with which of the following processes?

a) The sample is bombarded by electron beam

b) The ions are separated by passing them into electric and magnetic field

c) The sample is converted into gaseous state

d) The ions are detected

8. In mass spectrometer, the ion currents are measured using which of the following?
a) Scintillation counter

b) Ion counter

c) Electrometer tube

d) Electric fields

9. Which of the following ions pass through the slit and reach the collecting plate?

a) Negative ions of all masses

b) Positive ions of all masses

c) Negative ions of specific mass

d) Positive ions of specific mass

10. Which of the following statements is not true about mass spectrometry?

a) Impurities of masses different from the one being analysed interferes with the result

b) It has great sensitivity

c) It is suitable for data storage

d) It is suitable for library retrival

11. In mass spectrometer, the sample gas is introduced into the highly evacuated spectrometer tube
and it is ionised by electron beam.

a) True

b) False

12. Which of the following is not a component of mass spectrometer?

a) Inlet system

b) Sweep generator

c) Ion transducer

d) Mass analyser

13. Which of the following can be introduced into the ionization chamber directly?
a) Solid samples with low vapour pressure

b) Solid samples with high vapour pressure

c) Liquid samples with low density

d) Liquid samples with high density

14. Inlet system is also known as which of the following?

a) Initial system

b) Sample reservoir

c) Sample handling system

d) Element injection system

15. Which of the following is normally done to convert the sample into gaseous state?

a) Sample is pressurized

b) Chemical reactions are made to occur

c) Sample is heated

d) Sample is cooled

16. Which of the following probes are used for the introduction of the sample?

a) Silica

b) Quartz

c) Graphite

d) Silver

17. Which of the following is not a type of ionisation?

a) Field ionisation

b) Spontaneous ionisation

c) Spark ionisation

d) Chemical ionisation

18. Mass analyser is similar to which of the following in optical spectrometer?

a) Source

b) Monochromator

c) Detector

d) Sample

[Link] of the following is not one of the types of mass analyser?

a) Magnetic sector analyser

b) Frequency sweep analyser

c) Double focussing spectrometer

d) Time of flight analyser

20. Which of the following is not a type of ion detector used in mass spectrometers?

a) Electron multiplier

b) Flame emission detector

c) Faraday cup collector

d) Photographic plates

21. Which of the following is used to inject liquid samples?

a) Hypodermic needle

b) Glass bulb

c) Capillary tube

d) Curvette

Answer Key Mass Spectroscopy

1. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?

a) Composition in sample

b) Concentration of elements in sample

c) Relative mass of atoms

d) Properties of sample
Answer: c

Explanation: Mass spectrometers are used to determine the relative mass of atoms and molecules.
Aston made the instrument more accurate.

2. Who invented mass spectrometers?

a) J.J Thompson

b) Goldstein

c) Nikola Tesla

d) Aston

Answer: a

Explanation: J.J Thompson introduced mass spectrometers. Aston modified the instrument to make it
more accurate.

3. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be analysed is bombarded with which of the
following?

a) Protons

b) Electrons

c) Neutrons

d) Alpha particles

Answer: b

Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the sample which is to be analysed is bombarded with electrons.
As a result, ions are produced.

4. Mass spectrometer separates ions on the basis of which of the following?

a) Mass

b) Charge

c) Molecular weight

d) Mass to charge ratio

Answer: d

Explanation: Mass spectrometer separates ions on the basis of mass to charge ratio. Most of the ions
are singly charged. Hence, the mass to charge ratio is equal to the mass.

5. In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which of the following ways?

a) By accelerating them through electric field

b) By accelerating them through magnetic field

c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field

d) By applying a high voltage

Answer: c

Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out by accelerating them through electric and
magnetic field. A record of number of different kinds of ions is called mass spectrum.

6. No two molecules will be fragmented and ionized in exactly the same manner.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: No two molecules will be fragmented and ionized in exactly the same manner. This is
how different molecules are identified in a complex mixture.
7. The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with which of the following processes?

a) The sample is bombarded by electron beam

b) The ions are separated by passing them into electric and magnetic field

c) The sample is converted into gaseous state

d) The ions are detected

Answer: c

Explanation: The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with converting the sample into gaseous
state. This is done by chemical processes.

8. In mass spectrometer, the ion currents are measured using which of the following?

a) Scintillation counter

b) Ion counter

c) Electrometer tube

d) Electric fields

Answer: c

Explanation: The ion currents are measured using sensitive electrometer tube. The ions reaching the
collecting plate are measured.

9. Which of the following ions pass through the slit and reach the collecting plate?

a) Negative ions of all masses

b) Positive ions of all masses

c) Negative ions of specific mass

d) Positive ions of specific mass

Answer: d

Explanation: Positive ions of specific mass pass through the slit and reach the collecting plate. These
ions are measured.

10. Which of the following statements is not true about mass spectrometry?

a) Impurities of masses different from the one being analysed interferes with the result

b) It has great sensitivity

c) It is suitable for data storage

d) It is suitable for library retrival

Answer: a

Explanation: Impurities of masses different from the one being analysed does not interfere with the
result in mass spectroscopy. This is a major advantage of this technique.

11. In mass spectrometer, the sample gas is introduced into the highly evacuated spectrometer tube
and it is ionised by electron beam.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: The sample gas is introduced into the highly evacuated spectrometer tube and it is
ionised by electron beam. The sample has to be in gaseous state.

12. Which of the following is not a component of mass spectrometer?

a) Inlet system

b) Sweep generator

c) Ion transducer
d) Mass analyser

Answer: b

Explanation: Sweep generator is not a component of mass spectrometer. It is a component of NMR

spectrometer.

13. Which of the following can be introduced into the ionization chamber directly?

a) Solid samples with low vapour pressure

b) Solid samples with high vapour pressure

c) Liquid samples with low density

d) Liquid samples with high density

Answer: a

Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour pressure can be introduced into the ionization chamber
directly.

14. Inlet system is also known as which of the following?

a) Initial system

b) Sample reservoir

c) Sample handling system

d) Element injection system

Answer: c

Explanation: Inlet system introduces the sample into the ion source. Hence, it is called sample
handling system.

15. Which of the following is normally done to convert the sample into gaseous state?
a) Sample is pressurized

b) Chemical reactions are made to occur

c) Sample is heated

d) Sample is cooled

Answer: c

Explanation: The sample must always be in gaseous state. Hence, liquid sample must be heated before
introducing them into the ionization chamber.

16. Which of the following probes are used for the introduction of the sample?

a) Silica

b) Quartz

c) Graphite

d) Silver

Answer: a

Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour pressure are introduced into the entrance of the chamber.
They are introduced using silica or platinum probe.

17. Which of the following is not a type of ionisation?

a) Field ionisation

b) Spontaneous ionisation

c) Spark ionisation

d) Chemical ionisation

Answer: b
Explanation: Spontaneous ionisation is not a type of ionisation. In mass spectrometer, ionisation is
brought about by thermal or electrical energy.

18. Mass analyser is similar to which of the following in optical spectrometer?

a) Source

b) Monochromator

c) Detector

d) Sample

Answer: b

Explanation: Mass analyser is similar to monochromator in optical spectrometer. It separates ions

according to their mass/charge ratio.

19. Which of the following is not one of the types of mass analyser?

a) Magnetic sector analyser

b) Frequency sweep analyser

c) Double focussing spectrometer

d) Time of flight analyser

Answer: b

Explanation: Frequency sweep analyser is not a type of mass analyser. There are many devices
available for mass analysis.

20. Which of the following is not a type of ion detector used in mass spectrometers?

a) Electron multiplier

b) Flame emission detector

c) Faraday cup collector

d) Photographic plates

Answer: b

Explanation: Flame emission detector is not a type of ion detector used in mass spectrometers. Ion
detectors produce current on the output side when there are ions on the input side.

21. Which of the following is used to inject liquid samples?

a) Hypodermic needle

b) Glass bulb

c) Capillary tube

d) Curvette

Answer: a

Explanation: Liquid samples are injected through hypodermic needles. It is vaporized at low pressure.

4. IR Spectroscopy
1 Which of the following statements is true concerning infrared spectroscopy?

Possible Answers, Find the best one :

A. Functional groups can be identified by looking in the fingerprint region of the spectrum.

B. IR spectroscopy is useful in determining the size and shape of a compound's carbon skeleton.

C. An IR spectrometer shines infrared light on a compound and records the positions where the light
is blocked by the compound. This results in the spectrum's peaks.
D. When the infrared light frequency matches the frequency of bond vibration in a molecule, a peak
is recorded on the spectrum.

2 Which of the following statements is true concerning infrared (IR) spectroscopy?

Possible Answers:

A. IR spectroscopy is used to determine the shape of the carbon backbone

B. IR spectroscopy can be used to easily determine molecular mass

C. The fingerprint region is most easily used to determine the functional groups in the molecule

D. IR spectroscopy is used to determine the frequency of vibrations between atoms

3 In IR spectroscopy, the vibration between atoms is caused by which of the following?

Possible Answers:

A. The overall molecular weight of the molecule

B. The number of protons in a nucleus

C. The movement of electrons to higher energy levels

D. Dipole moments between atoms

4 Which of the following functional groups exhibits the highest frequency in an infrared (IR)
spectrum?

Possible Answers:

A. Aldehyde
B. Ester

C. Ketone

D. Alcohol

E. Nitrile

5 An alcohol group in a compound would result in a broad dip around what part of the
infrared (IR) spectrum?

Possible Answers:

A. 2800cm-1

B. 1200cm-1

C. 1700cm-1

D. 3400cm-1

6 : Approximately where would a carbonyl peak be found on an IR spectrum?

Possible Answers:

A. The peak location will vary depending on the compound being analyzed.

B. 1000cm-1

C. 2800cm-1
D. 1700cm-1

6 mid-IR region mainly consists of

(A) 4000 – 100 cm -1

(B) 14000 – 4000 cm -1

(C) 400 – 100 cm -1

(D) 4000 – 400 cm-1

7 Over tones are mainly observed in

(A) mid IR

(B) far IR

(C) Not in IR region

(D) near IR

8 The IR region most widely used for qualitative analysis is

(A) mid IR

(B) Far IR

(C) Close IR

(D) Near IR

9 Which of the following absorb IR radiation

(A) Homonuclear diatomic molecule

(B) Diatomic molecules will not absorb IR

(D) Both A & B

(D) Heteronuclear diatomic molecule

10 The solid samples are analysed in IR spectroscopic analysis by

(A) Preparing a solution of analyte

(B) Using a mulling agent

(C) Pyrrolysis

(D) All of the above

11 In FTIR , initially spectra is recorded as

(A) Absorbance vs time

(B) % Transmittance vs concentration

(C) Absorbance vs Concentration

(D) Volts vs time

12 Which of the following is a non-dispersive type of spectrophotometer

(A) Spectrofluorometer

(B) Spectrophotometer

(C) Flame photometer

(D) FTIR

13 The wave numbers correspond to the wavelength 2.5µm is

(A) 14,000 cm -1

(B) 4,00 cm-1

(C) 3,600 cm -1

(D) 4,000 cm-1

14 The possible number of vibrational bands for CO 2 is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 4

15 Which of the following bending vibration takes place in different planes.

(A) Asymmetric stretching

(B) Rocking

(C) Scissoring

(D) Twisting

16 Non-dispersive IR spectrophotometer will not have

(A) Source
(B) Detector

(C) Cell

(D) Monochromator

17 : Which of the following transitions mainly occur in IR?

(A) Electronic transitions only

(B) All the electronic, rotational, vibrational transitions

(C) Rotational transitions only

(D) Rotational and vibrational transitions

18 Variable path length cells can be produced by filling the space material

(A) KBr

(B) Quartz

(C) Fused silica

(D) Teflon

19 The Fourier transformation is a mathematical conversion of Time domain to frequency

domain. True/False

20 : The signal to noise ratio is high in

(A) UV-visible spectrophotometer

(B) Dispersive IR

(C) A @ B

(D) FTIR

Answer Key IR Spectroscopy

Key for all the questions of IR spectroscopy

All the questions have D option. D is right option of all

B. Chromatography
5. Paper Chromatography
1 What is paper chromatography?

A. A technique used to identify mixtures in solution

B. It is widely used for the separation and identification of compounds of biochemical interest.

C. Both

D. None

Answer- C

2 Why does the paper chromatography technique work?

A. It works because of differences in the polarity and solubility of amino

acids.
 B. It works because of differences in the polarity and molality of amino
acids.

C. It works because of differences in the polarity and normality of amino

acids.

D. None of these

Answer A

3 : How does the solution in paper chromatography move up the

paper?

A. By capillary action

B. By heat

C. By energy

D. By cooling

Answer A

4 : In paper chromatography, The organic components of the solvent

have a lower affinity for the paper and so they move up faster. They form the mobile
phase. True /False

[Link]

5 The distance the solute travels is relative to the distance the solvent
moves is called the

Tell the term

Answer-Rf value

6 What is the formula for calculating the Rf value?

A. Rf= distance traveled by the solute from the origin/distance traveled by

the solvent from the origin.
 B. Rf= distance traveled by the solvent from the origin/distance traveled by
the solute from the origin.

C. Both

D. None

Answer-A

7 This is the part of the process that doesn't move. In paper

chromatography it is the paper

Answer-Stationary phase

Tell the term

8 What will a pure compound produce?

A. This will not produce a single spot in all solvents

B. This will produce a single spot in all solvents

Answer-B

9 What will a compound in a mixture produce?

A. This will produce different spots depending on the solvent

B. This will not produce different spots depending on the solvent

Answer-A

10 ____ means color writing.

Answer. Chromatoghraphy

11 In chromatography , a mixture of solute in a ____ phase pass

through or over a selective absorbing medium, the ____ phase.

As the ____ phase migrates through the ____ phase, separation occurs
because the solutes have different affinities for the two-phased system.
 A. Mobile, Stationary, Mobile, Stationary

A. Mobile, Stationary, stationary , mobile

C. A. Mobile, mobile, Mobile, Stationary

D. None of these

Answer -A

12 In this lab, the paper used is made of ____ which has a surface
covered in polar -OH groups.

A. Copper

B. Cellulose

C. Tin

D. Sucrose

Answer C

13 The Rf stands for ____ or ____ ____.

A. Retention, non Retardation factor

B. Retention, isolation factor

C. Retention, Retardation factor

D. Non-Retention, Retardation factor

Answer-C

14 Factors that can affect the Rf :

A. Large temperature changes

 B. Variations in the paper itself

C. Overlapping paper edges

D. The developing solvent used

E. All of these

Answer-E

15 Resolution is the degree to which a species is separated. True/False

Ans-True

16 A paper chromatography variant, two-dimensional chromatography

involves using two solvents and rotating the paper...... in between.

A. 60°

B. 90°

C. 100°

D. 180°

Answer-B

17 If Rƒ value of a solution is zero, the solute remains in the stationary

phase and thus it is immobile. True/False

Answer-True

18 If Rƒ value = 1 then the solute has no affinity for the stationary phase
and travels with the solvent front.

Answer-True

19 Which is not a type of paper chromatography?

Ascending chromatography

Ascending-Descending Chromatography

Radial paper Chromatography

Three -dimensional chromatography

Answer-D
6. Thin Layer Chromatography

1. Arrange the steps in sequence involved in performing a thin-layer

chromatography analysis?

a. Development of spots (Sorbed and Desorbed)

b. Place in a chamber with solvent

c. Rf values help determine what active ingredient in solute

d. Spot the solute onto the plate (stationary phase)

e. Measure Rf

f. Mobile phase rises with capillary action

Possible Answers

i. a, b, c, d, e, f

II.c, b, a, d, f, e

III.d, b, f, a, e, c

IV. e, b, f, a, e, c

2: The travelling distance of mobile phase in TLC is

(A) 5cm

(B) 2cm

(C) 1cm

(D) 10cm
 3. In TLC, initially the sample is

(A) In contact with mobile phase

(B) Not in contact with mobile phase

(C) Coated at the level of mobile phase

(D) Coated below the level of mobile phase

4. The sample introduction in HPTLC is carried by

A. Platinium-iridium capillary

B. Micropipette

C. Both

D. None

5. Identification of spots on the TLC plate is done by all of the following

EXCEPT

(A) Spraying with reagents

(B) Under microscope

(C) Fluorescence

(D) fluorescent adsorbent

6. All of the following are used as spraying reagent in TLC, EXCEPT

(A) Calcium sulfate

(B) Iodine

(C) Sulfuric acid

(D) Ninhydrin

7 : A new student is planning to use thin layer chromatography (TLC) for his
research project. After setting up the apparatus the student forgets to place a lid on
the TLC jar. He obtains poor results after running the TLC experiment. Which of the
following can best explain his bad results?

Possible Answers:
 A. The open system evaporates the solvent in the solution

B. The open system prevents the evaporation of the solvent on the TLC plate

C. The open system evaporates the solvent on the TLC plate

D. The open system prevents the evaporation of the solvent in the solution

8. Which of the following can be determined from thin layer

chromatography results?

I. Number of components in the mixture

II. The identity of the components

III. Polarity of components

Possible Answers:

II only

I, II, and III

I and III

II and III

9. Which of the following types of chromatography involves the separation

of substances in a mixture over a 0.2mm thick layer of an adsorbent?

a) Gas liquid
 b) Column

c) Thin layer

d) Paper

10. In Thin layer chromatography, the stationary phase is made of ___ and
the mobile phase is made of ___

a) Solid, liquid

b) Liquid, liquid

c) Liquid, gas

d) Solid, gas

11. Who discovered thin layer chromatography?

A. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1838 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

B. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1738 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

[Link] was developed by Izmailov in the year 1938 considering Mikhail Tswett's
description on column chromatography.

D. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1638 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

12. Higher the Rf value lesser the polarity of the substance. True/false

13. What is the principle of TLC?

A. TCL is based on the principle of separation through adsorption type.

B. The separation relies on the relative empathy of compounds towards the

mobile phase and stationary phase.

C. Both

D. None

14. Silica is
 A. polar adsorbant

B. nonpolar adsorbant

15. Thin layer chromatography, or TLC, is a method for analyzing mixtures

by separating the compounds in the mixture. True /False

16. Thin-layer chromatography is performed on a sheet of an inert

substrate such as glass, plastic, or aluminium foil, which is coated with a thin layer of
adsorbent material, usually silica gel, aluminium oxide, or cellulose. True/False

17. Spots are applied to the plate using very thin metallic pipettes. True
/False

18. All are methods of visualization for thin-layer chromatography except

a. Spraying or pouring-use agents such as KIPt, Fast Blue 2B, H2SO4, KMnO4
to react with analytes. Spots appear on the plate.

b. Use radio waves to visualize spots

c. Use slit scanning densitometers or flame ionization

D. Use UV visible light to visualize spots

19. Where does the TLC plate need to be placed to run it?

A. In a sealed developing tank

B. In a ambered bottle

C. In an oven

D. In an incubator

20. Where do the spots of sample need to be ?

A. above the level of the solvent

B. Below the level of the solvent

C. Equal the level of the solvent

 21. What will this addition of acetic acid do to help the TLC process?

A. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing solvent

B. The acetic acid increases the polarity of the developing solvent

C. The acetic acid does not effect the polarity of the developing solvent

D. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing acid

22. Silica gel is a form of silicon dioxide (silica). The silicon atoms are joined
via oxygen atoms in a giant covalent structure. However, at the surface of the silica
gel, the silicon atoms are attached to -OH groups. True/False

23. As the temperature is increased, Volatile solvents evaporate more .....,

solvents run faster, and Rƒ values generally decrease slightly.

A. Slowly

B. quickly

C. No effect

D. All

24. Thickness of layer, Standard plates approximately ...... is the preferable

thickness of layer.

A. 250 micrometer

B. 500 micrometer

C. 120 micrometer

D. 300 micrometer

25. TLC has been used for the isolation and determination of alkaloids in
toxicology where the ....... runs give a great advantage in comparison to the 12-24
hours required for paper chromatography.

A. 10-15 minute

B. 10-20 minute
 C. 30-60 minute

D. 60-80 minute

Answers Key Thin Layer Chromatography

1. The travelling distance of mobile phase in TLC is

(A) 5cm

(B) 2cm

(C) 1cm

(D) 10cm

2 Arrange the steps in sequence involved in performing a thin-layer

chromatography analysis?

a. Development of spots (Sorbed and Desorbed)

b. Place in a chamber with solvent

c. Rf values help determine what active ingredient in solute

d. Spot the solute onto the plate (stationary phase)

e. Measure Rf

f. Mobile phase rises with capillary action

Possible Answers

i. a, b, c, d, e, f

II.c, b, a, d, f, e

III.d, b, f, a, e, c
 IV. e, b, f, a, e, c

3 In TLC, initially the sample is

(A) In contact with mobile phase

(B) Not in contact with mobile phase

(C) Coated at the level of mobile phase

(D) Coated below the level of mobile phase

4 The sample introduction in HPTLC is carried by

A. Platinium-iridium capillary

B. Micropipette

C. Both

D. None

5 Identification of spots on the TLC plate is done by all of the following

EXCEPT

(A) Spraying with reagents

(B) Under microscope

(C) Fluorescence

(D) fluorescent adsorbent

6 All of the following are used as spraying reagent in TLC, EXCEPT

(A) Calcium sulfate

(B) Iodine

(C) Sulfuric acid

(D) Ninhydrin

7 As the temperature is increased, Volatile solvents evaporate more .....,

solvents run faster, and Rƒ values generally decrease slightly.
 A. Slowly

B. quickly

C. No effect

D. All

8 Thickness of layer, Standard plates approximately ...... is the preferable

thickness of layer.

A. 250 micrometer

B. 500 micrometer

C. 120 micrometer

D. 300 micrometer

9 TLC has been used for the isolation and determination of alkaloids in
toxicology where the ....... runs give a great advantage in comparison to the 12-24
hours required for paper chromatography.

A. 10-15 minute

B. 10-20 minute

C. 30-60 minute

D. 60-80 minute

10 Where does the TLC plate need to be placed to run it?

A. In a sealed developing tank

B. In a ambered bottle

C. In an oven

D. In an incubator

11. Where do the spots of sample need to be ?

 A. above the level of the solvent

B. Below the level of the solvent

C. Equal the level of the solvent

12. What will this addition of acetic acid do to help the TLC process?

A. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing solvent

B. The acetic acid increases the polarity of the developing solvent

C. The acetic acid does not effect the polarity of the developing solvent

D. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing acid

13. Silica gel is a form of silicon dioxide (silica). The silicon atoms are
joined via oxygen atoms in a giant covalent structure. However, at the surface of the
silica gel, the silicon atoms are attached to -OH groups. True

14. Thin layer chromatography, or TLC, is a method for analyzing mixtures

by separating the compounds in the mixture. True

15. Thin-layer chromatography is performed on a sheet of an inert

substrate such as glass, plastic, or aluminium foil, which is coated with a thin layer of
adsorbent material, usually silica gel, aluminium oxide, or cellulose. True

16. Spots are applied to the plate using very thin metallic pipettes. False

17. All are methods of visualization for thin-layer chromatography except

a. Spraying or pouring-use agents such as KIPt, Fast Blue 2B, H2SO4, KMnO4
to react with analytes. Spots appear on the plate.
 b. Use radio waves to visualize spots

c. Use slit scanning densitometers or flame ionization

D. Use UV visible light to visualize spots

18. Who discovered thin layer chromatography?

A. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1838 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

B. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1738 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

[Link] was developed by Izmailov in the year 1938 considering Mikhail Tswett's
description on column chromatography.

D. It was developed by Izmailov in the year 1638 considering Mikhail

Tswett's description on column chromatography.

19. Where do the spots of sample need to be ?

A. above the level of the solvent

B. Below the level of the solvent

C. Equal the level of the solvent

20. What will this addition of acetic acid do to help the TLC process?

A. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing solvent

B. The acetic acid increases the polarity of the developing solvent

C. The acetic acid does not effect the polarity of the developing solvent

D. The acetic acid decreases the polarity of the developing acid.

 7. Column Chromatography
1. In which type of chromatography, the stationary phase held in a narrow
tube and the mobile phase is forced through it under pressure?

a) Column chromatography

b) Planar chromatography

c) Liquid chromatography

d) Gas chromatography

2. Which of the following cannot be used as adsorbent in Column

adsorption chromatography?

a) Magnesium oxide

b) Silica gel

c) Activated alumina

d) Potassium permanganate

3. In Column chromatography, the stationary phase is made of ___ and the mobile phase is made of
___

a) Solid, liquid

b) Liquid, liquid

c) Liquid, gas

d) Solid, gas

4. Which of the following is the distance that the solute moves while
undergoing one partition?

a) Retention distance

b) Distribution constant

c) Plate height

d) Column packing length

 5. All are Types of Column Chromatography except

A. Adsorption chromatography.

B. Non-Ion exchange chromatography.

C. Gel filtration chromatography.

D. Affinity chromatography.

6. All are methods of packing a chromatography column except

A. Wet packing method

B. Dry packing method.

C. Cooling

D. Boiling

7. Packed columns are less expensive than capillary columns. True/False

8. They have lower resolution efficiencies and larger column bleed.

A. Packed columns

B. Capillary columns

9. .........., also known as plate count, is a measure of the dispersion of a

peak.

10. Decreasing particle size thus is a useful method for improving column
efficiency and providing better separations. T/F

11. At pH 5.0, the ratio of the protonated to unprotonated forms of

morphine (a weak base containing an ionizable amine group, pKa = 7.0) would be:

a. 1:100

b. 1:10

c. 1:1
 d. 10:1

e. 100:1

12. Polar compounds will interact with the silica more strongly than
non-polar ones so will come off the column, or elute, after non-polar
compounds.T/F

13 The most common stationary phase for column chromatography is

silica gel, the next most common being alumina. T/F

Answers Key Column Chromatography

1. In which type of chromatography, the stationary phase held in a narrow

tube and the mobile phase is forced through it under pressure?

a) Column chromatography

b) Planar chromatography

c) Liquid chromatography

d) Gas chromatography

2. Which of the following cannot be used as adsorbent in Column adsorption

chromatography?

a) Magnesium oxide

b) Silica gel

c) Activated alumina

d) Potassium permanganate

3. In Column chromatography, the stationary phase is made of ___ and the

mobile phase is made of ___
 a) Solid, liquid

b) Liquid, liquid

c) Liquid, gas

d) Solid, gas

4. Which of the following is the distance that the solute moves while
undergoing one partition?

a) Retention distance

b) Distribution constant

c) Plate height

d) Column packing length

5. All are Types of Column Chromatography except

A. Adsorption chromatography.

B. Non-Ion exchange chromatography.

C. Gel filtration chromatography.

D. Affinity chromatography.

6. All are methods of packing a chromatography column except

A. Wet packing method

B. Dry packing method.

C. Cooling

D. Boiling

E. C&D

7. Packed columns are less expensive than capillary columns. True

8. They have lower resolution efficiencies and larger column bleed.

 A. Packed columns

B. Capillary columns

9. ..... column efficiency ....., also known as plate count, is a measure of the
dispersion of a peak.

10 Decreasing particle size thus is a useful method for improving

column efficiency and providing better separations. T

11. At pH 5.0, the ratio of the protonated to unprotonated forms of

morphine (a weak base containing an ionizable amine group, pKa = 7.0) would be:

a. 1:100

b. 1:10

c. 1:1

d. 10:1

e. 100:1

12 Polar compounds will interact with the silica more strongly than non-polar ones so will come
off the column, or elute, after non-polar compounds. T

13 The most common stationary phase for column chromatography is silica gel, the next most
common being alumina. True

8. HPLC
1. The main purpose of the derivitization in HPLC is

(A) To increase the resolution

(B) To increase the detectability of a compound

(C) To decrease the retention time

(D) All of the above

2. Which of the following HPLC pump has limited solvent capacity

(A) Reciprocating

(B) Displacement

(C) Reciprocating dual pumps

(D) All of the above

3. The most widely use pumps in HPLC are

(A) Syringe type pumps

(B) Constant pressure pumps

(C) Reciprocating piston type pumps

(D) All of the above

4. The derivitization reagent used for detection of alcohols, amines and phenols is

(A) 4-Nitrobenzyloxyamine hydrochloride

(B) 3,5-Dinitrobenzoyl chloride

(C) O-4-Nitrobezyl-N,N’-diisopropylisourea
(D) 4-Nitrobenzyl-n-propylamine hydrochloride

5. Which of the following is a bulk property detector used in HPLC

(A) Fluorescence detector

(B) Mass spectrometer

(C) Refractometer

(D) UV Spectrophotometer

6. The response time of a detector in HPLC is

(A) Less than one-half of peak width

(B) Less than one-tenth of peak width

7. Non aqueous solvent is used in

(A) Gel filtration

(B) Gel permeation

[Link] of the following is not true about High pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC)?

a) It requires high pressure for the separation of the specious

b) There is no need to vaporise the samples

c) It is performed in columns

d) It has high sensitivity

[Link] pressure liquid chromatography can be performed only in columns.

a) True

b) False
10. Which of the following is not an advantage of Syringe type pumps used in High pressure liquid
chromatography?

a) Independent of viscosity

b) Pulse-less flow

c) High pressure capability

d) Unlimited solvent capacity

[Link] of the following is not true about solvent programming which is done in high performance
liquid chromatography?

a) It provides unequal bandwidths

b) It provides fast overall separation

c) It provides maximum resolution

d) It provides maximum sensitivity

[Link] eluent strength is a measure of

A. solvent adsorption energy

B. solvent absorption energy

C. solvent diffusivity

D. solvent mixing index

[Link] methods include

A. liquid/liquid (partition) chromatography

B. liquid/solid (adsorption) chromatography

C. ion exchange and size exclusion chromatography

D. all of the above

[Link] efficiency is measured in terms of number of plates which is

A. inversely related to the square of the peak width

B. directly related to the square of the peak width

C. inversely related to the cube root of the peak width

D. directly related to the square of the peak width

[Link] a typical adsorbent such as silica gel, the most popular pore diameters are

A. 10 and 50 A°

B. 60 and 100 A°

C. 100 and 150 A°

D. 150 and 200 A°

[Link] isocratic elution in HPLC is one in which the composition of the solvent

A. remains constant

B. changes continuously

C. changes in a series of steps

D. none of these

17. In reversed phase HPLC, there is a

A. non polar solvent/polar column

B. polar solvent/non-polar column

C. non polar solvent/non-polar column

D. any of the above

[Link] of the following statements is true for a refractive index detector in HPLC?

A. It is more sensitive than a UV detector

B. It can only be used for isocratic elutions

C. It does not respond to many solutes

D. none of above

19.A gradient elution in HPLC is one in which the composition of the solvent

A. remains constant

B. is changed continuously or in a series of steps

C. both (a) and (b)

[Link] eluotropic series

A. ranks solvents by their relative abilities to displace solutes from a given absorbent

B. ranks column packing material by their relative abilities to retain solutes on the column

C. is a measure of the solvent adsorption energy

D. none of the above

21. Dwell volume is defined as

A. the volume of solvent contained in a liquid chromatographic column

B. the time required for the gradient to reach the column

C. the volume of the column between the point at which solvents are mixed and the beginning
of the column

22. Void volume refers to the

A. total volume of eluent in the column the remainder being taken up by the packing material

B. the volume of solvent contained in a liquid chromatographic column

C. the time required for the gradient to reach the column

23.

In normal phase HPLC, there is a

A. non polar solvent/polar column

B. polar solvent/non-polar column

C. non polar solvent/non-polar column

D. any of the above

Answers Key HPLC

1.A

2.B

3.C

4.B

5.C
6.B

7.B

8.B

9.A

10.D

11.A

12.A

13.D

14.A

15.B

16.A

17.B

18.C

19.A

20.A

21.C

22.A

23.A

Chapter. 4
Gases
1. What is the relative rate of effusion of CO and CO2?

A. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO2

B. CO is 3.75 times faster than CO2

C. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO

D. Both diffuse at the same rate

[Link] of these gases diffuse more quickly than oxygen?

A. H2S
B. NO

C. Cl2

D. N2O

3. Which of the following is not considered as an intermolecular force between molecules?

A. Coordinate covalent bonds

B. Hydrogen bonds

C. Debye forces

D. London dispersion forces

4. The weakest (in strength) of the following intermolecular forces is

A. Hydrogen bonding

B. Vander Waals force

C. Forces among the polar molecules

D. Ionic bond

5. Ideal gasses have all the following characteristics except.

A. The absence of intermolecular forces

B. Collisions among the molecules of an ideal gas are perfectly elastic

C. The molecules occupy no space

D. All of the above are correct

6. Which of the following statements is true about plasma

A. It may be the first state of matter

B. It is not a phase transition

C. It is a conductor of electricity

D. All of the above

7. Which statement is correct

A. PVmT

B. PCT

C. PMdT

D. All above

8. Under what conditions the gases deviate from the ideal behaviour?

A. High-temperature

B. Low temperature
C. High-pressure

D. B and C

9. Which one has the lowest density at room temperature?

A. Ne

B. N2

C. NH3

D. CO

10. The introduction of the Kelvin scale in thermometry is according to

A. Boyles law

B. Charles law

C. Daltons law

D. Grahams law

11. 0.5 mole of nitrogen gas and 0.5 mole of carbon monoxide gas at STP have same

A. Value of a

B. Mass

C. Atoms

D. Both B and C

12. At constant temperature the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled its density becomes

A. Half

B. Double

C. Same

D. None

13. The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will be

A. Unchanged

B. Slightly decreased

C. Slightly increased

D. Zero

14. Which of the following option is incorrect about gases?

A. All molecules move with the same speed

B. All molecules behave independently

C. PV / RT = n
D. All gases cannot be liquefied through Linds Method

15. The critical temperature for different gases is different and depends upon

A. Size of molecule

B. Shape of molecule

C. Intermolecular attractions

D. All of the above

16. In how many forms do matter exists?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Two

17. What is the simplest form of matter?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Semi-solid

18. What is the abundant form of matter on earth?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Plasma

19. Which state of matter has the lowest density?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Plasma

20. What do we call to the sudden expansion of plasma?

A. Avogadro’s law

B. Grahams law of diffusion

C. Joule Thompson effect

D. Daltons law of partial pressure

21. The solid particles only posses

A. Translational motion

B. Vibrational motion

C. Rotational motion

D. All of the above motions

Answer Key 1-10 Questions

1. What is the relative rate of effusion of CO and CO2?

A. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO2

B. CO is 3.75 times faster than CO2

C. CO is 1.25 times faster than CO

D. Both diffuse at the same rate

2. Which of these gases diffuse more quickly than oxygen?

A. H2S

B. NO

C. Cl2

D. N2O

3. Which of the following is not considered as an intermolecular force between molecules?

A. Coordinate covalent bonds

B. Hydrogen bonds

C. Debye forces

D. London dispersion forces

4. The weakest (in strength) of the following intermolecular forces is

A. Hydrogen bonding

B. Vander Waals force

C. Forces among the polar molecules

D. Ionic bond

5. Ideal gasses have all the following characteristics except.

A. The absence of intermolecular forces

B. Collisions among the molecules of an ideal gas are perfectly elastic

C. The molecules occupy no space

D. All of the above are correct

6. Which of the following statements is true about plasma

A. It may be the first state of matter

B. It is not a phase transition

C. It is a conductor of electricity

D. All of the above

7. Which statement is correct

A. PVmT

B. PCT

C. PMdT

D. All above

8. Under what conditions the gases deviate from the ideal behaviour?

A. High-temperature

B. Low temperature

C. High-pressure

D. B and C

9. Which one has the lowest density at room temperature?

A. Ne

B. N2

C. NH3

D. CO
10. The introduction of the Kelvin scale in thermometry is according to

A. Boyles law

B. Charles law

C. Daltons law

D. Grahams law

11. 0.5 mole of nitrogen gas and 0.5 mole of carbon monoxide gas at STP have same

A. Value of a

B. Mass

C. Atoms

D. Both B and C

12. At constant temperature the pressure of an ideal gas is doubled its density becomes

A. Half

B. Double

C. Same

D. None

13. The diffusion of gases at absolute zero will be

A. Unchanged

B. Slightly decreased

C. Slightly increased

D. Zero

14. Which of the following option is incorrect about gases?

A. All molecules move with the same speed

B. All molecules behave independently

C. PV / RT = n

D. All gases cannot be liquefied through Linds Method

15. The critical temperature for different gases is different and depends upon

A. Size of molecule

B. Shape of molecule
C. Intermolecular attractions

D. All of the above

16. In how many forms do matter exists?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Two

17. What is the simplest form of matter?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Semi-solid

18. What is the abundant form of matter on earth?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Plasma

19. Which state of matter has the lowest density?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Plasma

19. Which state of matter has the lowest density?

A. Gas

B. Liquid

C. Solid

D. Plasma

20. What do we call to the sudden expansion of plasma?

A. Avogadro’s law

B. Grahams law of diffusion

C. Joule Thompson effect

D. Daltons law of partial pressure

21. The solid particles only posses

A. Translational motion

B. Vibrational motion

C. Rotational motion

D. All of the above motions

Chapter no- 5
Liquids and Solids MCQs
1. Which of the following has strongest intermolecular forces of attraction?

A. Hydrogen (H2)

B. Chlorine (Cl2)

C. iodine (I2)

D. Methane (CH4)

Answer- C

2. Which has the strongest bonding in the solid state?

A. Hydrogen Chloride (HCI)

B. Chlorine (Cl2)

C. Xenon(Xe)

D. Sodium Chloride (NaCI)

Answer-D

3. When substance moves from a solid to a liquid state all of the following changes occur except

A. Molecules become more disordered

B. K.E of the molecules decreases

C. Intermolecular forces become weaker

D. Molecule become further separated

Answer-B
4. In order to mention the boiling point of water at 110?C the external pressure should be

A. Between 760 torr and 1200 torr

B. Between 200 torr and 760 torr

C. 765 torr

D. any value of pressure

Answer-A

5-In liquid state it is used as LPG fuel.

A. Butane

B. Methane

C. Hexane

Answer-A

6-In making mustard gas, in the form of anaesthesia, in oxy-ethylene flame

A. Butane

B. Ethylene

C. Methane

Answer-B

7-In making neoprene (artificial rubber)

A. Acetylene

B. Methane

C. Butane

D. Ethylene

Answer-A
8-Is used for the production of caps of bottles of acid, in making the body of the accumulator cells
etc

A. Polystyrene

B. Ethyl bromine

C. Chloroform

D. Methyl alcohol

Answer-A

9-It is for making local anaesthesia.

A. Polystyrene

B. Ethyl bromine

C. Chloroform

D. Methyl alcohol

Answer-B

10-In surgical operation as anaesthesia, in form of solvent of rubber, fat, lac etc, as insecticide etc.

A. Polystyrene

B. Ethyl bromine

C. Chloroform

D. Methyl alcohol

Answer-C

11-In making methyleted spirit, artificial colour, barnish and polish, mixing with petrol and utilised as
fuel of engines etc.

A. Polystyrene

B. Ethyl bromine
C. Chloroform

D. Methyl alcohol

Answer-D

12- In making medicine of throats in making chewing tablets.

A. Ethyl alcohol

B. Formament

C. Glycerol

Answer-B

13-In making insecticides, in fixation of gelatine film on the photographic plates, in making
waterproof cloths by mixing it with eggs exterior whitely part etc.

A. Formaldehyde

B. Acetaldehyde

C. Acetone

Answer-A

14-As laboratory’s reagent, in the form of vinegar, in making sauces and jelly

A. Formic acid

B. Acetic acid

C. Acetyl chloride

Answer-B

15-In the form of solvent, in dry cleaning, by mixing it with petrol and used as fuel of engines etc.

A. Butane

B. Benzene
C. Ether

D. Acetone

Answer-B

16-In the manufacturing of aniline, phenol etc.

A. Chloro benzene

B. Nitrobenzene

C. Aniline

Answer-A

17-Urea, is an organic compound with chemical formula CO(NH₂)₂. Find the incorrect statement

A. Also known as carbamide

B. Melting point: 133 °C

C. Molar mass: 60.06 g/mol

D. Insoluble in Water, Ethanol, Glycerol

Answer-D

18-Find the incorrect statement about Sodium bicarbonate

A. Baking soda

B. formula NaHCO3

C. Molar mass: 184.007 g/mol

D. Soluble in: Water

Answer-C

19-Find the correct statement about Sodium carbonate

A. Baking soda
B. formula NaHCO3

C. Density: 2.54 g/cm³

D. Insoluble in: Water

Answer-C

20-Which one is false for evaporation?

A. Surface phenomenon

B. Continuous

C. Exothermic

D. Cause cooling

Answer-C

Chapter No.6
Atomic Structure
1 The letters sp d and f are used to represent which quantum numbers

A. Principal

B. Azimuthal

C. Magnetic

D. Spin

2 The magnetic quantum number (QN) has its values determined directly by the value of

A. Principal (QN)

B. Azimuthal (QN)

C. Spin (QN)

D. Both a & b

3 The atomic number of an element having the maximum number of unpaired electrons in p-
subshell is

A. 7

B. 10

C. 12
D. 16

4 The maximum number of electron in a subshell with? = 3fs

A. 6

B. 10

C. 14

D. 18

5 The radius of the third shell of H-atom is

A. 5.761 A?

B. 4.761 A?

C. 6.671 A?

D. 3.716 A?

6 When an atom absorbs energy the lines in the spectrum will appear which are

A. Brighter

B. Darker

C. Colourless

D. Hard to locate

7 : Colour of fluorescence produced by cathode rays depends upon

A. Temperature

B. Pressure

C. Volume

D. Composition of glass

8 Which one is not true about cathode rays?

A. 9.11×10-31 Kg

B. Cast shadow

C. Heat up the platinum foil

D. Cannot ionize

9 Positive rays are produced

A. By burning of gas

B. By cooling of the gas

C. By the bombardment of cathode rays on gas molecules

D. From anode like cathode rays produced from a cathode

10 The relationship between the energy of a photon of light and its frequency is given by

A. de-Broglie duel nature of matter

B. Bohrs model

C. Plancks Quantum theory

D. Rutherfords atomic model

11 : Splitting of spectral lines when an atom is subjected to the magnetic field is called

A. Zeemans effect

B. Starks effect

C. Photo electric effect

D. Compton effect

12 The velocity of the photon

A. Is independent of wavelength

B. Depends upon source

C. Depends upon its frequency

D. Equals to the square of the amplitude

13 Which one of the following explain the shape of orbitals

A. Principal of quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number

C. Magnetic quantum number

D. Spin quantum number

14 : Atom cannot be divided into simple units theorized by

A. Rutherford

B. Dalton

C. Bohr

D. Schrodinger

15 Pressure in gas discharge tube was kept

A. 10 torr

B. 1 torr

C. 0.1 torr
D. 0.01 torr

16 : The number of fundamental particles in an atom of the lightest isotope carbon are

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. 20

17 Angle of deflection was studied by

A. Hitorff

B. Stoney

C. William Crookes

D. [Link]

18 Increase in atomic number is observed during

A. Alpha emission

B. Beta emission

C. Both a & b

D. Radioactivity

19 Positive rays give flash on

A. AgNO3 plate

B. AgCl plate

C. ZnO

D. ZnS

20 Free neutron changes into proton with the emission of

A. Neutrino

B. Electron

C. Both a & b

D. Meson

21 The value of e/m ratio of electron is

A. 6.02 x 1023 C/kg

B. 1.7588 x 1020 C/kg

C. 9.1095 x 10-31 C/kg

D. 1.7588 x 1011 C/kg

22 The charge of an electron was measured by

A. J.J Thomson

B. Millikan

C. Rutherford

D. Perrin

23 Rutherford bombarded ______ particles in discovery of nucleus

A. Gamma-rays

B. Alpha-rays

C. Beta-rays

D. X-rays

24 Planks theory says energy is emitted

A. In a continuous manner

B. Discontinuous manner

C. Simultaneously

D. In the form of heat

25 : 2nd orbit is ___ away from the nucleus of H-atom as compared to 1st orbit is

A. 2-times

B. 3-times

C. 4-times

D. 6 times

26 The maximum number of orbitals present in a subshell that is represented by Azimuthal

quantum number = 3 will be

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Answer Key Chapter-5

1- B

2-B
3-A

4-C

5-B

6-B

7-D

8-D

9-C

10-C

11-A

12-A

13-A

14-B

15-B

16-D

17-C

18-D

19-B

20-D

21-C

22-D

23-B

24-B

25-C

26-D

Chapter. 7
Chemical Bonding
1. The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called
A. Ionization energy

B. Electron affinity

C. Electronegativity

D. None of the above

2. The ionization energy

A. Generally increases from left to right in a period

B. Does not change in a period

C. Increase from top to bottom in a group

D. Does not change in a group

3. Which of the following will have the highest value of electron affinity

A. F

B. Cl

C. Br

D. I

4. Which type of bond is formed by an overlap of p orbitals

A. Pi (π)

B. Sigma(Σ)

C. Both

D. Neither

5. The octet rule does not always hold for which of the following elements

A. C

B. O

C. F

D. P

6. Which of the solid does not contain a covalent bond

A. Copper

B. Ice

C. Diamond

D. Graphite

7. Which of the following is the best explanation that CO2 is a non-polar molecule

A. Linear geometry

B. The dipole moment is zero

C. Sp hybridization

D. None

8. Shielding effect across the period

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Constant

D. None

9. Which one is not the absolute term of the element?

A. Ionization energy

B. Electron affinity

C. Electronegativity

D. Atomic size

10. Which one has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

A. 6X

B. 7Y

C. 9Z

D. 13W

11. The molecule having a covalent bond

A. H2O

B. C2H6

C. O2

D. NH3

12. When 2 lone pairs and 2 bond pair are around the central atom reduction in the bond angle is up
to.

A. 109.5°

B. 104.5°

C. 107.5°

D. 102°

13. In O2 each oxygen atom is hybridized

A. sp3

B. sp2

C. sp

D. All

14. Molecular orbitals are filled according to

A. Auf bau principle

B. Hund’s rule

C. Paulis Exclusion principle

D. All these

15. Measurement of the degree of polarity is

A. Electron affinity

B. Ionic character

C. Ionization energy

D. Dipole moment
16. Which one shows high %age of the ionic character?

A. H2O

B. HF

C. HCI

D. HBr

17. A species with the maximum number of unpaired electrons.

A. F

B. H2O

C. HF

D. NH-2

18. Which of the following have their outer most shell complete in atomic form?

A. Noble gases

B. Alkali metals

C. Coinage metals

D. Gunmetal

19. Force responsible to hold atoms together in a compound is called

A. Bond

B. Attractive force

C. Interaction

D. All of above represent the same entity

20. The energy of an atom in a compound is

A. Higher than individual

B. Lesser than individual

C. No change

D. Impossible to predict
21. In a period the atomic radii

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain the same

D. First decreases then increase

22. An atom loses or gains electrons to

A. Gain stability

B. Form a bond

C. Complete its outermost shell

D. all are accurate justifications

23. In a group ionic radii

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. No change

D. Variable trend

24. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom

A. Ionization potential

B. Electronegativity

C. Electron affinity

D. Activation energy

25. Ionization energy in a period generally

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. No change

D. Variable trend
Answers Key chapter-6

1. The relative attraction of the nucleus for the electrons in a chemical bond is called

A. Ionization energy

B. Electron affinity

C. Electronegativity

D. None of the above

2. The ionization energy

A. Generally increases from left to right in a period

B. Does not change in a period

C. Increase from top to bottom in a group

D. Does not change in a group

3. Which of the following will have the highest value of electron affinity

A. F

B. Cl

C. Br

D. I

4. Which type of bond is formed by an overlap of p orbitals

A. Pi (π)

B. Sigma(Σ)

C. Both

D. Neither
5. The octet rule does not always hold for which of the following elements

A. C

B. O

C. F

D. P

6. Which of the solid does not contain a covalent bond

A. Copper

B. Ice

C. Diamond

D. Graphite

7. Which of the following is the best explanation that CO2 is a non-polar molecule

A. Linear geometry

B. The dipole moment is zero

C. Sp hybridization

D. None

8. Shielding effect across the period

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Constant

D. None

9. Which one is not the absolute term of the element?

A. Ionization energy

B. Electron affinity

C. Electronegativity
D. Atomic size

10. Which one has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

A. 6X

B. 7Y

C. 9Z

D. 13W

11. The molecule having a covalent bond

A. H2O

B. C2H6

C. O2

D. NH3

12. When 2 lone pairs and 2 bond pair are around the central atom reduction in the bond angle is up
to.

A. 109.5°

B. 104.5°

13. In O2 each oxygen atom is hybridized

A. sp3

B. sp2

C. sp

D. All

14. Molecular orbitals are filled according to

A. Auf bau principle

B. Hund’s rule

C. Paulis Exclusion principle

D. All these
15. Measurement of the degree of polarity is

A. Electron affinity

B. Ionic character

C. Ionization energy

D. Dipole moment

16. Which one shows high %age of the ionic character?

A. H2O

B. HF

C. HCI

D. HBr

17. A species with the maximum number of unpaired electrons.

A. F

B. H2O

C. HF

D. NH-2

18. Which of the following have their outer most shell complete in atomic form?

A. Noble gases

B. Alkali metals

C. Coinage metals

D. Gunmetal

19. Force responsible to hold atoms together in a compound is called

A. Bond

B. Attractive force

C. Interaction

D. All of above represent the same entity

20. The energy of an atom in a compound is

A. Higher than individual

B. Lesser than individual

C. No change

D. Impossible to predict.

21. In a period the atomic radii

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain the same

D. First decreases then increase

22. An atom loses or gains electrons to

A. Gain stability

B. Form a bond

C. Complete its outermost shell

D. all are accurate justifications

23. In a group ionic radii

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. No change

D. Variable trend

24. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom

A. Ionization potential

B. Electronegativity

C. Electron affinity
D. Activation energy

25. Ionization energy in a period generally

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. No change

D. Variable trend

Chapter No. 8
Thermochemistry
1. If the ΔH value is less than zero than reaction will be

A. Exothermic

B. Endothermic

C. May or may not be Exothermic or Endothermic

D. None of these

2. If the internal energy of the system is increased

A. Change in state of the system is increased

B. The temperature of the system may rise

C. The chemical reaction may take place

D. All

3. ______ is study about energy of a chemical system

A. Thermochemistry

B. Thermodynamics

C. Chemical kinetics

D. Stoichiometry

4. The environment in which a system is studied is

A. State function

B. Phase

C. Surrounding

D. State
5. Anything which depends upon the initial and final state of a system is

A. Environment

B. Surrounding

C. State function

D. Enthalpy

6. The total energy of a system is

A. P.E + K.E

B. P.E + heat energy

C. K.E + heat energy

D. P.E + mechanical energy

7. Mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics is

A. ΔH=qp

B. ΔE = q + W

C. ΔE = q x v

D. All of the above

8. Reaction in which heat evolves is called

A. Endothermic

B. Spontaneous

C. Non-spontaneous

D. Exothermic

9. CuSO4 + Zn>>ZnSO4+Cu is

A. Spontaneous reaction

B. Non-spontaneous reaction

C. Endothermic

D. Exothermic

10. Pumping of water uphill is

A. Spontaneous process

B. Non-spontaneous process

C. Irreversible process

D. Reversible process

11. Which one of the following is a state function?

A. Pressure

B. Temperature

C. Enthalpy

D. All of the above

12. When enthalpy of reactants is higher than the product then the reaction will be

A. Endothermic

B. Spontaneous

C. Non-spontaneous

D. Exothermic

13. Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by

A. Glass calorimeter

B. Manometer

C. Barometer

14. The lattice energy of NaCl is

A. +787 KJ/mole

B. 787 J/mole

C. 780 KJ/mole

D. 790 KJ/mole

15. paracetamol melting point is

A. 169 °C

B. 420 °C

16. Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are

A. Pressure and temperature

B. Pressure and volume

C. Heat and work

D. Heat and volume

17. Enthalpy change can be

A. Calculated by Hess law

B. Can be measured by a calorimeter

C. Both a and b
D. None

Answer Key Chapter No.7

1. A

2. D

3. A

4. C

5. C

6. A

7. B

8. D

9. A

10. B

11. D

12. D

13. A

14. D

15. A

16. C

17. C

Chapter. 9
Chemical Equilibrium
1. If a buffer solution of higher pH than seven is to be made we use

A. Strong acid and strong base

B. Weak acid and strong base

C. Weak acid and strong base

D. Weak acid and its salt with the strong base

2. Which of the following will not change the concentration of ammonia at the equilibrium?

A. Increase of pressure

B. Increase of volume
C. Addition of catalyst

D. Decrease in temperature

3. pH of an aqueous solution is 5.5. The hydroxyl ion concentration in the solution would be

A. 5.5

B. 8.5

C. 10-8.5

D. 10

4. Which of following is not a base

A. KOH

B. NH3

C. PH3

D. BF3

5. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will be basic?

A. NaCI

B. Na2SO4

C. Na2CO3

D. FeCl3

6. The reaction which proceeds in both directions is called

A. Reversible

B. Irreversible

C. Spontaneous

D. Non-spontaneous

7. The chemical equilibrium state is

A. Dynamic state

B. Static state

C. Free state

D. Unidirectional state

Answer Key; Chapter 9

1. D
2. C
 3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A

Chapter.10
Solutions
1 A ....... is a homogeneous system in which a solute is molecularly dispersed, or dissolved, in a
solvent

A. Solution

B. Colloidal solution

C. Solute

D. Solvent

2 are solutions that, at a given temperature and pressure, contain the maximum amount of solute
that can be accommodated by the solvent. If the saturation, or solubility, limit is exceeded, a fraction
of the solute can separate

from the solution and exist in equilibrium with it

A. Unsaturated solutions

B. Saturated solutions

C. Non ideal solutions

D. Emulsions

3 Solutes can be

A. Gases

B. Liquids or solids

C. nonelectrolytes or electrolytes

4. Glycerin

A. Electrolyte

B. Non electrolyte
5. Weak electrolytes are partially ionized in water

A. Aspirin

B. Nacl

C. Atropine

D. Both a and c

E. None of these

6. The colligative properties of a solution depend on the total number of ionic and nonionic solute
molecules in the solution. True/False

7. These properties depend on ionization but are dependent of other chemical properties of the
solute. True/False

8. Raoult’s law deals

A. Solutions

B. Emulsions

C. Suspensions

9. Osmosis is the process by which solvent molecules pass through a semipermeable membrane (a
barrier through which only solvent molecules may pass) from a region of dilute solution to one of
more concentrated solution. True/False

10. When common salt is dissolved in water?

A. The boiling point of water decreases

B. The boiling point of water increases

C. The boiling point of water remains the same

D. None of the above

11. Which of the following are the conditions of colligative properties

A. Non-electrolyte solute

B. Non-volatile solute

C. Dilute solution

D. All of the above

12. Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution?

A. Opals
B. Dust particles in smoke

C. Paints

D. Fog

13. Which of the following unit of concentration is independent of temperature?

A. Molarity

B. Molality

C. Mole fraction

D. All

14. 10ml of alcohol dissolve in 90ml of water unit of concentration used is

A. % w/w

B. % w/v

C. % v/v

D. % v/w

15. Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called

A. Normality

B. Molarity

C. Molality

D. Mole fraction

16. 58.5g of NaCl per 1 dm3 of the solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be

A. 0.1 M

B. 1 m

C. 1 M

D. 0.1 N

17. In partially miscible liquids the two layers are

A. Saturated solutions of each liquid

B. Unsaturated solutions of each liquid

C. Normal solution of each liquid

D. No layer formation takes place

18. If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution

A. Will be an ideal solution

B. Will be the non-ideal solution

C. Will show deviations from Raoult’s law

D. Both B & C

19. The solution which distils over with change in composition

A. Ideal solution

B. Zeotropic solution

C. Azeotropic solution

D. Non-ideal solution

20. Mixtures which distill over without change in composition called

A. Zeotropic mixture

B. Azeotropic mixture

C. Amphoteric mixture

D. Ideal solution

21. The concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with a solid substance at a
particular temperature is called

A. Saturated solution

B. Solubility

C. Unsaturated solution

D. Supersaturated solution

22. The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoult’s law is applicable to

A. A volatile solute in dilute solution

B. A non-electrolyte & non-volatile solute in concentrated solution

C. A non-electrolyte & non-volatile solute in the concentrated solute

D. Non-volatile solute in a dilute solution

23. Boiling point elevations can be measured by

A. Beckmann method

B. Landsberger method

C. Linds method

D. None of the above

24. Beckmann apparatus is used to measure

A. Boiling point elevation

B. Depression in freezing point

C. Lowering of vapour pressure

D. Lowering of osmotic pressure

25. The compounds in which water molecules are added are called

A. Hydrated Ions

B. Double salts

C. Hydrates

D. Complexes

26. PPM means

A. Parts of solute in 1000 parts of solvent

B. Parts of solvent in 1000 parts of solute

C. Parts of solute in one million parts of the solution

D. Parts of solvent in one million parts of solute

27. 1 molar solution of glucose in water contains the weight of glucose

A. 180g/dm3

B. 170g/dm3

C. 190g/dm3

D. 195g/dm3

28. Water of crystallization can be removed by

A. Drying

B. Heating

C. Evaporation

D. All of the above

Answer Key; Chapter. no.9

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. B
5. D

[Link]

7. False independent

8. A

9. True

10. B

11. D

12. D

13. B

14. C

15. C

16. C

17. A

18. A

19. B

20. B

21. B

22. D

23. B

24. B

25. C

26. C

27. A

28. B