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The document contains a series of physics and chemistry questions, including problems related to trigonometric functions, calculus, and stoichiometry. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, covering topics such as derivatives, motion equations, combustion reactions, and molarity calculations. The questions are designed to test knowledge in physics and chemistry concepts, with a focus on problem-solving skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
122 views65 pages

Solution

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry questions, including problems related to trigonometric functions, calculus, and stoichiometry. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, covering topics such as derivatives, motion equations, combustion reactions, and molarity calculations. The questions are designed to test knowledge in physics and chemistry concepts, with a focus on problem-solving skills.

Uploaded by

kanchand560
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

29-06-2025

7650CMD303033250001 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Find the maximum and minimum value of y = 3sinx + 4cosx

(1) 7, –1
(2) 7, 1
(3) 5, –5
(4) 5, –1

2) Convert 18° degree into radians

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Range of cos x function is

(1) [-1, 1]
(2)
(3)
(4) [–2, 2]

4) 1 + cot2θ is equal to :

(1) tan2θ
(2) sec2θ
(3) cos2θ
(4) cosec2θ

5) Sin(+2°) is equal to = ..............

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) 1
6) Select incorrect alternative

(1)
sin37° =

(2)
sin53° =
tan37° =
(3)

cos30° =
(4)

7) Which term of the sequence 3, 8, 13, 18, ..... is 498?

(1) 95th
(2) 100th
(3) 102th
(4) 101th

8) If x = 5 sinθ + 2 then find minimum and maximum value of x ?

(1) –5, 5
(2) –7, 7
(3) –3, 3
(4) –3, 7

9) sin(–30°) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Value of sin 120° is equal to :-

(1) cos(– 30°)


(2) sin 30°
(3) cos 60°
(4) cos 120°

11)

Value of cos 120° + sin 120° is :-


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

12) For the circle shown in figure, the length of arc AB is:-

(1) 7 m
(2) 11 m
(3) 14 m
(4) m

13) If y = logex + sin x + ex then is :-

(1)
+ sin x + ex

(2)
– cos x + ex

(3)
+ cos x + ex

(4)
– sin x

14) If derivative of is , what is numerical value of constant k ?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

15) Differentiation of cos with respect to x is

– sin
(1)
(2)
– sin

(3) – sin

(4)
– sin

16) A car moves along a straight line whose equation of motion is given by s = 12t + 3t2 – 2t3 where
s is in metres and t is in seconds. The velocity of the car at start will be :–

(1) 7 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 16 m/s

17) If the distance covered by a particle is given by the relation x = at2. The particle is moving with :
(where a is constant)

(1) constant acceleration


(2) zero acceleration
(3) variable acceleration
(4) none of these

18) If y = x2cosx then is :-

(1) x(2cox – xsinx)


(2) x(cosx – 2sinx)
(3) x(2cosx + sinx)
(4) x(cosx + 2sinx)

19) If y = 4x3 – 3x2 + 2x + 5 then value of at x = 2 is:

(1) 43
(2) 38
(3) 33
(4) 36

20) The position of a particle is given as x = (t2 + 1)m. Find the average velocity for the interval 3s to
5s :-

(1) 8 ms–1
(2) 4 ms–1
(3) 2 ms–1
(4) 6 ms–1
21) y = ℓn(x2) then will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) x

(4)

22) If y = sin2x + cos2x then is :-

(1) 4 sin cos x


(2) 2 sin x + 2 cos x
(3) zero
(4) 1

23) A ball is projected with speed u at an angle θ to the horizontal. The range R of projectile is given
by

for which value of θ will the range be maximum (u and g are fixed)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A quantity Q varies with time(t) as Q = 10 sint find rate of change of Q w.r.t time at

(1) 5

(2)

(3)
(4) 0

25) Evaluate
Where KQ1Q2 is a constant.
(1)
KQ1Q2

(2)
KQ1Q2

(3)
KQ1Q2

(4)
KQ1Q2

26)

Find value of :-

(1)

(2) 100 e(100t +6) + C


(3) e100 + C
(4) None of these

27) The value of is :-

(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 27

28) ______

(1) –4 cos 4x + c
(2) –4 sin 4x + c

(3)

(4)

29)

Evaluate the integral =

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) –2
(4) None of these

30) If the distance between two points (–8, 4) and (–2,a) is 10. Then possible values of a will be (all
values are in same units) :-

(1) 4 and 12
(2) – 4 and 12
(3) – 4 and – 12
(4) 4 and – 12

31) =

(1) 0.9978
(2) 0.9965
(3) 0.9975
(4) None

32) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the x-axis. What is
magnitude their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

33) 12 coplanar non collinear forces (all of equal magnitude) maintain a body in equilibrium, then
the angle between any two adjacent forces is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 15°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

34) The resultant of and is perpendicular to . What is the angle between and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35)

A vector of length ℓ is turned through the angle θ about its tail. What is the change in the position
vector of its head ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) If a particle moves from point P(2,3,5) to point Q (3,4,5) its displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) Vectors and are shown in figure, Then diagram of is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

38) If the angle between and is


(1) 60°
(2) 0°
(3) 120°
(4) 90°

39) If magnitude of two vectors & are 8 and 6 then find if they are at right angle to each
other

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 8
(4) 12

40) Find the angle between the vectors and :-

(1) 35°
(2) 15°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

41) are two vectors given by and . The magnitude of the component of
along is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find unit vector perpendicular to the plane of and

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The angle between and is :

(1) Zero
(2) π

(3)

(4)

44)

If then calculate angle between & .

(1) cos–1(2)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of q is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) What mass of oxygen is required in the complete combustion of 450 g of ethane (C2H6)?

(1) 3 kg
(2) 1.68 kg
(3) 1.12 kg
(4) 3.36 kg

2) Calculate weight of oxygen produced by decomposition of 72 gm of water ?


2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)

(1) 64 gm
(2) 16 gm
(3) 32 gm
(4) 80 gm

3) What quantity of limestone (CaCO3) on heating will give 56 kg of CaO?


CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(1) 1000 kg
(2) 56 kg
(3) 44 kg
(4) 100 kg

4) The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8gm of NH3 :-

(1) 5
(2) 2.5
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

5) The volume of CO2 obtained at STP by heating 5 gm CaCO3 is–

(1) 1.12 litre


(2) 5 litre
(3) 22 litre
(4) 11.2 litre

6) The volume of O2 at STP required for the complete combustion of 4g CH4 is

(1) 5.6 litre


(2) 2.88 litre
(3) 22.4 liter
(4) 11.2 litre

7) The volume of CO2 produced by the complete combustion of 7 litre C4H10(g) at STP is

(1) 14 litre
(2) 9 litre
(3) 28 litre
(4) 20 litre

8) For a gaseous reaction . If 20 mL N2(g) completely react with H2(g) then


find out volume of NH3(g) produced

(1) 40 mL
(2) 60 mL
(3) 20 mL
(4) 90 mL

9) If 4.0 moles of hydrogen gas and 1.1 moles of nitrogen gas are brought together to react
according to the following equation, which will be the limiting reaction?
3H2 + N2 → 2NH3

(1) H2
(2) N2
(3) NH3
(4) There is no limiting reactant in this reaction

10) The following diagram represents the reaction of A2 (unshaded spheres) with B (shaded spheres).
What is the balanced chemical equation for this reaction, and what is the limiting reactant?

(1) A2 + 2B → AB; A2 is the limiting reactant


(2) A2 + 2B → 2AB; B is the limiting reactant
(3) 4A2 + 6B → 6AB; A2 is the limiting reactant
(4) 4A2 + 6B → 6AB; B is the limiting reactant

11)
If above reaction is started with 5 moles each of A and B the number of moles of D that will be
formed is–

(1) 3.33
(2) 2.33
(3) 5
(4) 4.33

12) Assertion : The mass of products formed in a reaction depends upon the limiting reagent.
Reason : Limiting reactant is the substance present in smallest mass in reactants.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

13) A mixture of 1 mole of Al and 3 mole of Cl2 are allowed to react as follows :

Calculate the number of moles of AlCl3 formed?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) How many litres of CO2(g) will be produced when 5 mol Na2CO3(s) will react with 12 mol HCl at
NTP ?
Na2CO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
(1) 112.0 L
(2) 224 L
(3) 134.4 L
(4) 56 L

15) 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of oxygen in a closed vessel. Which reactant is the left in
excess and how much ? (At. weight of Mg = 24, O = 16) [Mg + O2 → MgO]

(1) Mg, 0.16 g


(2) O2, 0.16 g
(3) Mg, 0.44 g
(4) O2, 0.28 g

16) When 10 g of 90% pure lime stone is heated completely the volume (in litres) of CO2 is liberated
at STP is :

(1) 22.4
(2) 2.24
(3) 20.16
(4) 2.016

17) 100 ml of PH3 when completely decomposed produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in
volume of the gas is -
PH3(g) —→ P(s) + 3/2 H2(g)

(1) 50 ml increase
(2) 500 ml decrease
(3) 900 ml decrease
(4) Nil

18) Which of the following is not temperature dependent concentration term?

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) Volume percent
(4) %(w/V)

19) 3.01×1022 urea molecules are dissolved in water to form 1L solution. Calculate molarity of the
solution ?

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 0.5 M

20) The mass of sucrose in 10 g of 20% (w/w) aqueous sucrose solution is ?


(1) 20 g
(2) 10 g
(3) 2 g
(4) 0.2 g

21) Calculate the mass of NaOH required to prepare 200 g, 40%(w/w) aqueous NaOH solution ?

(1) 80 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 40 g
(4) 60 g

22) 1 mole glucose is dissolved in 540 ml water. The mole fraction of glucose in the solution is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The mass of NaOH present in 500 g, aqueous NaOH solution is ?


(dsolution = 1.2 gml–1)

(1) 12g
(2) 6g
(3) 48g
(4) 8.33g

24) 180g urea is mixed with 1800g water to form a solution at 25°C. On heating the solution to 50°C
the mole fraction of urea becomes

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) no change
(4) decreases

25) 3.65g HCl is dissolved in 100g water. Calculate molality of the solution ?

(1) 0.1m
(2) 0.01m
(3) 1m
(4) 0.001m
26) When two moles of S8 is treated with excess of O2 then following reaction takes place.
S8 + 8O2 → 8SO2
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
The moles of SO3 formed is ?

(1) 2 mol
(2) 16 mol
(3) 8 mol
(4) 4 mol

27) 1 mol glucose is present in 2M aqueous glucose solution. Calculate the volume of the solution ?

(1) 0.5 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 500 L
(4) 500 ml

28) 2 mole N2 reacts with 6 mole H2 to form ammonia. If 2 mol NH3 is formed then % yield of the
reaction is ?

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 12.5%

29) Concentration of glucose in normal blood is approximately 90 mg per 100 ml. What is the
molarity of glucose solution in blood ?

(1) 5 M
(2) 0.005 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 1M

30) Volume of CO2 gas produced (at STP) on heating 2 mole of Na2CO3 is ?

(1) 44.8 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 4.48 L
(4) Zero

31) 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Ca(OH)2. The moles of CaSO4 formed is -

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.5
32) The mass of NaOH required to prepare 100ml, 2M aq. NaOH solution will be :–

(1) 0.8g
(2) 8g
(3) 12g
(4) 1.2g

33) The number of electrons in one molecule of CO2 are :-

(1) 22
(2) 44
(3) 66
(4) 88

34) One mole atoms of an element contains 4.2 × 1024 electrons. What is the atomic no. of the
element :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 8

35) 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 6 litres of volume at STP the gas is

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

36) 6.02 × 1022 molecules of N2 at NTP will occupy a volume of :-

(1) 22.4 litres


(2) 2.24 litres
(3) 6.02 litres
(4) 6.02 mL

37) The vapour density of a gas is [Link] volume occupied by 11.2g of the gas at STP will be

(1) 11.2 L
(2) 22.4 L
(3) 1 L
(4) 44.8 L

38) The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of
number of their molecule is :-
(1) 1 : 8
(2) 3 : 16
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 7 : 32

39) Calculate percentage by mass of oxygen present in CaCO3 :

(1) 40% by mass


(2) 48% by mass
(3) 12% by mass
(4) 16% by mass

40) How many moles of magnesium phosphate [Mg3(PO4)2] will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1) 3.125 × 10–2


(2) 1.25 × 10–2
(3) 2.5 × 10–2
(4) 0.05

41) Empirical formula of glucose is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) Assertion : A compound contains 3.2% oxygen by mass, then minimum molecular mass of the
compound is 500.
Reason : For minimum molecular mass of the compound, it must have one atom of that element.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

43) The empirical formula of compound is 'CH', one mole of this compound has a mass of 26 gm. Its
molecular formula is :

(1) CH2
(2) C2H2
(3) C2H6
(4) C3H6

44) Molecular weight of SO2 is :

(1) 64 g
(2) 64 u
(3) 32 g
(4) 32 u

45) Percetage of Se ([Link] = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5% by weight, then
minimum molecular mass of peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is

(1)
(2)
(3) 15.76
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

Cell Golgi
(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall complex

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

Cell
(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall

Cell
(4) Mitochondria SER Nucleus Vacuole Peroxisome
wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) (A) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence


(B) Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms
(C) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(D) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells
Option :-

(1) Statement A,C and D are wrong


(2) Statement A, B and D are not correct
(3) Statement A, B and C are not wrong
(4) Statement B, C and D are not correct

3) Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other through :

(1) Cytoplasmic dense bodies


(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Torus
(4) Pit membrane

4) Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) ER
(4) Ribosome

5) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Schleiden, a German Botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed that all plants
are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a German Zoologist studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a
thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e-cellula"
(d) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final
shape.
Options :

(1) Statements (a) and (b) only


(2) Statements (b) and (c) only
(3) Statements (c) and (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

6) Cell theory is not applicable to:

(1) Algae
(2) Fungus
(3) Viruses
(4) Bryophytes

7) Animal cell has a thin outer layer which is now known as "Plasma membrane". Who reported this?

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Robert Hooke
8) "Bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and product of cells" hypothesis proposed by
:-

(1) Rudolf virchow


(2) Schwann
(3) Schleiden
(4) Flemming

9) Which of the following structures is similar in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

(1) Cell wall


(2) Mitochondria
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Nuclear membrane

10) ............... is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various
chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the living state.

(1) Nucelus
(2) Cell membrane
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Deutoplasm

11) Statement-1 : Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelop.
Statement-2 : In Eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through
the presence of membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct


(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

12) Animal cell differs from plant cell in possessing:-

(1) Golgi body


(2) Centrosome
(3) Vacuole
(4) Plastid

13) Which one option is not related with Eukaryotic cell?

(1) Cells have a veriety of complex locomotory and cytoskeltal structures.


(2) All Eukaryotic cells are not identical.
(3) Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and purple green photosynthetic Bacteria.
(4) Animal cells have centrioles.

14) Facilitated diffusion involves :-


(1) Protein and energy.
(2) Glucose and energy.
(3) Lipid and energy.
(4) Participation of protein not energy.

15) Movement of polar molecules against the concentration gradient across plasma membrane is
possible through :-

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Carrier pump proteins
(4) All of above

16) Consider the following statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) Depending on the ease of extraction, membrane proteins can be classified as extrinsic and
intrinsic.
(B) The lipids are arranged within the membrane with the non-polar head towards outer sides and
hydrophilic tail towards the innerside.
(C) Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in monolayer.
(D) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consist of phosphoglycerides

(1) A & C
(2) A & D
(3) A, B & D
(4) B & C

17) Depending upon the ............ , membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral :-

(1) Size
(2) Sedimentation rate
(3) Ease of extraction
(4) Molecular weight

18) According to fluid mosaic model quasi fluid nature of lipids help in :-

(1) Lateral movement of protein in membrane


(2) Flip–flop movement of protein
(3) Arrangement of lipid in mosaic form
(4) All of the above

19) Identify A,B,C and D in following diagram :-


1. A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Lipid D=Protein bilayer

2. A=Sugar B=Cholesterol C=Protein D=Lipid bilayer

3. A=Sugar B=Protein C=Cholesterol D=Lipid bilayer

4. A=Cholesterol B=Sugar C=Lipid D=Protein bilayer


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which molecule can not pass through given pathway?

(1) Ions
(2) Steroid hormone
(3) Hydrophilic
(4) Both (1) and (3)

21) Above diagram represents the biochemistry of cell membrane


structure. Amount of which biochemical indicated by D
(1) Proteins
(2) Oligosaccharides
(3) Enzymes
(4) Phospholipids

22) What is the correct arrangement of Lipid molecules in the cell membrane

(1) Polar head → Outside, non - polar tails → Inner part


(2) Non - polar head → Outside, Polar tail → Inner side
(3) Polar tail → Outside, non - polar head → Inner side
(4) Polar tail → inner side, non - polar head → outer side

23) The approximate percentage of lipids and proteins in the membrane of erythrocytes of humans is

(1) 52 and 40
(2) 40 and 52
(3) 52 and 52
(4) 40 and 40

24) Given below are two statements :


Statement - I : The quasi-fluid nature of proteins enables lateral movement of lipids within the
overall bilayer.
Statement - II : The polar molecules can pass through the non-polar lipid bilayer via carrier
protein.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct


(2) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are correct
(3) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are incorrect
(4) Statement - I is correct but Statement - II is incorrect

25) Assertion (A) : Fluid mosaic model is most widely accepted model of plasma membrane.
Reason (R) : It states that protein icebergs are present in mosaic pattern in the sea of glycolipid.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

26) Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The cell wall in bacteria determines the shape of the cell and provides a strong
structural support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing.
Statement II: The mesosome is a special membranous structure in eukaryotes that is formed by the
extensions of plasma membrane into the cell.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.


(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.'

27) Given below are two statements:


Statement I: The extensions such as vesicles, tubules, and lamellae in cells help in processes like cell
wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells.
Statement II: In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, chromatophores are membranous extensions that
help in motility.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.


(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

28) Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Algae have cell walls made of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins, and proteins.
Statement II: The middle lamella, mainly composed of calcium pectate, holds or glues different
neighbouring plant cells together.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.


(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

29) The cell wall of algae is made up of:


(a) Cellulose
(b) Galactans
(c) CaCO3 (Calcium carbonate)
(d) Lignin
(e) Suberin
(f) Mannans Choose the correct combination:

(1) a, e, d, f
(2) a, b, c, e
(3) a, b, d, e
(4) a, b, c, f

30) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following in an ascending order of their size.
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBC
(iv) Bacteria

(1) i, ii, iii, iv


(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iii, ii, i, iv

31) Match the following :-

(a) Red blood cells (i) Long and narrow

(b) Columnar epithelial cells (ii) Round and oval

(c) Tracheid (iii) Round and biconcave

(d) Mesophyll cells (iv) Elongated


(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

32) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

May be capsule or
(1) Glycocalyx –
slime layer
(2) Pili – Reproduction
Protective,
determines shape,
(3) Cell wall –
does not prevents
from bursting
Flagella,
Surface structures of
(4) pilli and –
bacterial cell
fimbriae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Correct sequence of layers of bacterial cell envelope from outward to inward is :-

(1) Cell wall → Glycocalyx → Cell membrane


(2) Cell membrane → Glycocalyx → Cell wall
(3) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Cell membrane
(4) Glycocalyx → Cell membrane → Cell wall

34) Given below are two statements:


Statement I: In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with the plasma membrane of the cell and are
composed of 50S and 30S subunits, which together form the 70S prokaryotic ribosomes.
Statement II: Inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells are membrane-bound structures that store reserve
materials such as phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules, and glycogen granules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

35) Given below are two statements:


Statement I: Bacterial flagellum is composed of three parts – filament, hook, and basal body, with
the filament being the shortest portion.
Statement II: Pili and Fimbriae are surface structures of the bacteria that play a role in motility.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.


(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

36) Small bristle-like structures that sprout out of bacterial cell


a. Are flagella.
b. Are made of Tubulin protein.
c. Help bacteria to attach to the rocks in streams.
Mark the correct one.

(1) a and b
(2) Only c
(3) a and c
(4) All a, b and c

37) The subunits of ribosomes of a prokaryotic cell are:

(1) 60S and 40S


(2) 20S and 90S
(3) 50S and 30S
(4) 30S and 60S

38) Which of the following is not a structure of prokaryotic flagella?

(1) Filament
(2) Centriole
(3) Hook
(4) Basal body

39) Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Peroxisome
(4) ER

40) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column-I Column-II

a Neutral solutes 1 Facilitated diffusion

b Water 2 Passive transport

c Polar molecules 3 Aquaporins


(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

41) Major site for synthesis of lipids & steroidal hormones.

(1) Golgi complex


(2) RER
(3) SER
(4) Free ribosomes

42) Large number of RER are found in the cells actively involved in

(1) Lipid synthesis


(2) Steroidogenesis
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Starch synthesis

43) Starting from the outside of a cell and moving towards the inside of a cell, which of the following
components of a 'typical plant cell' are organised correctly ?

(1) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → Middle lamella → cytoplasm
(2) Cytoplasm → plasma membrane → Middle lamella → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall → middle lamella
(4) Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

44)

Cell wall is the outermost covering in plant cell which


A. Protects the cell from infection.
B. Shows the selectively permeable nature
C. Helps in cell-to-cell interaction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) Only C
(4) A and C

45) Read the following statements :-


(i) The shape of cell may vary with the function they perform
(ii) Nerve cells are some of the longest cells
(iii) The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an ostrich
(iv) Blue-green algae (BGA) is a eukaryote
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One

46) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

(1) a – 3 – K, b – 2 – M, c – 1 – N, d – 4 – L
(2) a – 4 – N, b – 1 – K, c – 3 – L, d – 2 – M
(3) a – 3 – N, b – 1 – M, c – 4 – L, d – 2 – K
(4) a – 3 – N, b – 1 – M, c – 4 – K, d – 2 – L

47) The epithelium of ............... of nephron in the kidney has microvilli.

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Henle's loop
(4) Collecting duct

48) Tissue organise to form ___A___ Which in turn associate to form ___B___ in ___C___ organisms :-
Find the correct match for A, B and C.

A B C
(1) Organ system Organ Unicellular
(2) Organ Organ System Multicellular
(3) Organ Organ System Unicellular
(4) Organ System Body Multicellular
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Find out the correct match from the following table:

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Single layer of
Simple columnar Secretion and
(i) tall and selender
epithelium absorption
cells

Squamous Thin layers of Fallopian


(ii)
epithelium flatenned cells tubes

Cuboidal
(iii) Cube like cells Endothelium
epithelium
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

50) Read the following properties :


(i) Flat cells
(ii) Irregular boundaries
(iii) Function-diffusion
These properties are correct for :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium


(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

51) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar glandular epithelium (PSCCGE) is found in

(1) Trachea
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Gonads
(4) Stomach

52)

How many statements are true in the following?


(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

53) Select the option of location in which the given epithelia is found :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Fallopian tubes

54)

Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells


(2) It is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

55) In which of the following simple epithelium is present :-


(A) Lining of body cavities
(B) PCT
(C) Lining of blood vessels
(D) Walls of alveoli of lungs
(E) Pancreatic duct

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, B, D and E

56) Out of following how many are the examples of simple columnar epithelium :
DCT of nephron, Acini of pancreas, uterus, cornea of eye, Bowman's capsule, Inner lining of blood
vessel, Uterus

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
57)

Which character for cell junctions are correct from given character
(i) Tight junctions help to stop substance from leaking accross the tissue
(ii) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(iii) Gap juctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other

(iv) Rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules takes place through
adhering junctions.
(1) i,ii,iii,iv
(2) ii,iii,iv
(3) i,ii,iii
(4) i,iii,iv

58) Which of the following is correct with respect to epithelial tissue ?


(a) The structure of the cells vary according to their function
(b) The cells of epithelial tissues are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix
(c) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment
and thus prodives a covering or a lining for some part of the body
(d) The cells of epithelial tissues are compactly packed with large intercellular matrix

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) b and d only

59) Read the following (A-D) statements.


A. It is made of more than one layer (multi-layered) of cells.
B. It has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
C. Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stress
D. It covers the dry surface of the skin and the moist surface of buccal cavity. How many of the
above statements are correct for compound epithelium :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

60) Select the correct statements :


(A) Human body is composed of billions of cells
(B) Tissue is group of dissimilar cell origin along with intra cellular substances
(C) All complex animals consist of only four basic type of tissues
(D) Tissues are organised in specific proportion and pattern to form organ

(1) Only C and D


(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, C and D
(4) All
61) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
Reason : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transport of ions, small
molecules and some big molecules

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Assertion :- Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Reason :- The function of microvilli is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction across the
epithelium.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

63) Find out incorrect statement :-

(1) Cells of epithelium are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(2) Compound epithelium found in skin
(3) Bronchioles and fallopian tube has ciliated epithelium.
(4) Squamous epithelium forms diffusion boundary in alveoli

64) Select the correct statement only :

(1) All the complex animals consist of only three basic types of tissues
In multicellular organisms, all functions like digestion, respiration and reproduction are
(2)
performed by a single cell
When two or more tissues perform a common function by their physical and chemical
(3)
interaction, they together form organ system
Cells, tissues, organs and organ system split up the work in a way that they exhibit division of
(4)
labour

65) The function of the gap junction is to

Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(1)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(2) Separate two cells from each other.
(3) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(4) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

66) Their function is to move particles or mucous in a specific direction over the epithelium, they are
mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs. Identify these structures and where they are
found –
(1) Cilia : Stomach and Intestine
(2) Microvilli : Bronchioles
(3) Cilia : Fallopian tubes and bronchioles
(4) Steriocilia : Epididymis

67) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct options :-
Statement-I : Compound epithelium has main role in secretion and absorption.
Statement-II : Simple epithelium main function is provide protection.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect


(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

68) Statement I : Tight junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
Statement II : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the
cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.


(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

69) Statement-I : Simple cuboidal epithelium in gonads is also called as germinal epithelium.
Statement-II : Cuboidal cells of gonads forms gametes ultimately.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.


(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

70) Assertion (A) :- Brus-border simple cuboidal epithelium present in P.C.T. of nephron
Reason (R) :- Maximum reabsorption is done in P.C.T. nephron.

(1) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) is correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is false.

71) Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion(A) : Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion.
Reason (R) : Columnar epithelium is commonly found in duct of glands and tubular part of nephron
in kidneys.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

72) Assertion :- Columnar epithelium also known as glandular epithelium, in most cases.
Reason :- Cells of columnar epithelium form the lining of the stomach.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

73) Assertion: Compound epithelium is composed of two or more layers of cells.


Reason: Compound epithelium provides protection against mechanical and chemical stress.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

74) Match the Column I with Column II & Column III and choose the correct option

Column I Column II Column III


(A) Unicellular gland (i) Skin (a) Mucus
(B) Multicellular gland (ii) Goblet cells (b) Protection
(C) Compound epithelium (iii) Connect cytoplasm of adjoining cells (c) Rapid transfer of ions
(D) Gap junction (iv) Salivary glands (d) Saliva
(1) A - (ii) (c), B - (iii) (d), C - (i) (b), D - (iv) (a)
(2) A - (i) (d), B - (ii) (a), C - (iv) (b), D - (iii) (c)
(3) A - (ii) (a), B - (iv) (d), C - (iii) (b), D - (i) (c)
(4) A - (ii) (a), B - (iv) (d), C - (i) (b), D - (iii) (c)

75) Recognise the figure and find out the correct lebelling :-

‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-multicellular


(1)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland
‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-multicellular glandular epithelium
(2)
like goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-unicellular glandular epithelium
(3)
like goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-unicellular
(4)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland

76)

Which statement/s is/are true about compound epithelium ?


(A) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
(B) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(C) They cover the dry surface of the skin.

(D) They cover the moist surface of buccal cavity.


(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All A, B, C and D

77) Out of following how many are not the secretion of exocrine glands :-
Mucus, Saliva, Thyroxin, Earwax, Insulin, Milk, Ptyalin, Pepsin.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

78) Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(A) Compound epithelium is made up of one layer of cells and has a role in secretion and absorption.
(B) The cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in
kidney.
(C) The main function of squamous epithelium is forming a diffusion boundary.
(D) The epithelial cells are loosly packed with intercellular matrix.
Options :-

(1) Statements (B), (C) and (D)


(2) Statements (A), (B)
(3) Statements (B), (C)
(4) Statements (A), (C) and (D)

79)

Read the following five statements [A–E] :-

(A) It forms the lining of the cavities of alveoli of lungs (B) It forms the lining of wet surface like
buccal cavity and oesophagus
(C) It occurs in duct of Nephron
(D) It forms the lining of vagina
(E) It is a loose connective tissue
Which of the above are associated with simple epithelial tissue ?
(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and A
(4) D and E

80) Mark odd one out :-

Tissue Origin Examples

(1) Epithelial Ectoderm Epidermis, Pleural membranes

(2) Connective Mesoderm Cartilage

(3) Muscular Mesoderm Heart muscles

(4) Nervous Ectoderm PNS


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Given below are two statements :–


Statement - I : Endocrine glands donot have ducts and their products are hormones and earwax.
Statement - II : Tight junctions perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are incorrect


(2) Statement - I is correct but Statement - II is incorrect
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but Statement - II is correct
(4) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are correct

82) Which of the following is correct with respect to epithelial tissue ?


(a) The structure of the cells vary according to their function
(b) The cells of epithelial tissues are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix
(c) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment
and thus prodives a covering or a lining for some part of the body
(d) The cells of epithelial tissues are compactly packed with large intercellular matrix

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) b and d only

83) __________ forms a diffusion boundary in our body

(1) Compound epithelium


(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium

84) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells


(2) It is commonly found in thick limb of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of ureter and urinary bladder

85) Match the following :-

Single layer of
Columnan
(i) flattened cells with a
epithelium
irregular boundaries

Single layer of cube Squamous


(ii) b
like cells epithelium

Single layer of tall Cuboidal


(iii) c
slender cells epithelium
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c

86)

Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)
Found in DCT

(2)
Found in Small Intestine

(3)
Bowman's capsule

(4)
Found in blood vessel

87)

Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II
Help to stop
Adhering
a. I. substances from
junctions
leaking across a tissue

Perform cementing to
Gap
b. II. keep neighbouring
junctions
cells together

Facilitate the cells to


Tight
c. III. communicate with
junctions
each other
(1) a-III, b-II, c-I
(2) a-II, b-III, c-I
(3) a-II, b-I, c-III
(4) a-I, b-III, c-II

88) Match the columns :-

Tight
(A) Unicellular gland (1)
junctions

Facilitate rapid Gap


(B) (2)
transfer of ions junctions

Stopping of
Compound
(C) leakage of (3)
epithelia
substance

Providing
Goblet
(D) protection to (4)
cell
underlying tissues

Simple
(5)
epithelia
(1) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 5
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3

89) Identify the structure 'A' given in the following figure and it can be general structure of :-

(1) Parotid gland


(2) Sub mandibular gland
(3) Goblet cell
(4) Sublingual gland

90) Compound epithelium found in following places except :-

(1) Dry surface of skin


(2) Pharynx
(3) Duct of salivary glands
(4) Stomach
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 3 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 4 2 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 4
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Y max =
Y min =

2)

18° =

3)

Range of is [–1, 1]

4)

1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ

5)

6)

tan (37°) =

7)

498 = 3 + (n – 1) × 5
495 = (n – 1) × 5
99 = n –1
n = 100

8)

[x]mas = 7
[xmin] = –3
9) sin (–30°) = – sin 30° =

10) sin 120° = sin 60° = cos 30° = cos(– 30°) =

11)

cos120º + sin120º

12)

arc = angle × radius

= 11m

13)

y = log0x + sin x + ex

14)

15)

16) s = 12t + 3t2 – 2t3


v = 12 + 6t – 6t2
[v]t=0 = 12 m/s
or

;
At t = 0
v = 12 m/s

17) x = at2, v = 2at, acceleration = 2a

18) y = x2 cosx

19) y = 4x3 – 3x2 + 2x + 5

at x = 2

20) Vavg =
= 8 ms–1

21) y = ℓn(x)2

22) y = sin2x + cos2x = 1

thus =0

23)

R = K sin 2θ

= 2K cos 2θ = 0

cos 2θ = 0 ⇒ 2θ =

θ=

24) As Q = 10 sint t

⇒ = 10 cos t
at t = π/4

⇒ = 10 cos π/4
=
25)

= K Q1 Q2

= K Q1 Q2

= K Q1 Q2

26)
or

27)

28)

29)
Area = Zero
or
Question Explanation:
We are asked to evaluate the sum of two integrals:

Both integrals involve the sine function over specific intervals, one from – π/2 to 0, and the
other from 0 το π/2.

Concept : Definite Integration


Formula Used
The integral of sin x is:
We will apply this to the limits of integration.
Calculation:
1. First integral:

Evaluating:
–cos(0) + cos(–π/2) = – 1 + 0 = – 1
2. Second Integral:

Evaluating:
–cos(π/2)+cos(0) = 0 + 1 = 1
3. Add the Results:
–1 + 1 = 0

30) = 10
4–a = ±8
a = –4 and 12

31)
=

=
= 1 – 0.0015
= 0.9975

32)
So,

33)

The angle between any two adjacent forces is 30∘.


34)

35)
Let us assume that a vector of length ℓ is along x axis as shown in figure.
After rotation of this vector by angle θ, let this vector becomes

Now
=

change in position vector

= =

36) Displacement vector


.

37)
38)

39)
= 10

40)

or
Here ,
We know that

or

Now,

or θ = 60°

41)

42)
Solution :

43)

Direction of and is opposite.

44)

2 = tanθ

45)


⇒ 0.2 + q2 = 1
⇒ q2 = 0.8

CHEMISTRY

46)

First, write the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of ethane:2C2​H6
+7O2​→4CO2​+6H2​ONext, calculate the moles of ethane and use the stoichiometric ratio to
find the moles of oxygen required, then convert to mass. Molar mass of C2H6 =
2(12.01)+6(1.008)=30.07 g/mol Molar mass of O2 = 2(16.00)=32.00 g/molMoles of ethane =
450 g/30.07 g/mol≈14.965 mol From the balanced equation, 2 moles of ethane react with 7
moles of oxygen. Moles of O2 needed = (14.965 mol C2​H6​)×(7 mol O2​/2 mol C2​H6​)≈52.378
mol O2 Mass of oxygen = 52.378 mol×32.00 g/mol≈1676.1 gTherefore, approximately 1676.1
g of oxygen is required.

47)

A. Molar mass of H2O: 18.015 g/mol


B. Moles of H2O: 72 g/18.015 g/mol≈3.997 mol
C. Moles of O2 produced (from stoichiometry):
3.997 mol H2O×(1 mol O2/2 mol H2O)≈1.9985 mol
D. Molar mass of O2: 31.998 g/mol
E. Weight of O2: 1.9985 mol×31.998 g/mol≈63.95 g

Approximately 64 g of oxygen is produced.

48)

A. Molar mass of CaO: 56.08 g/mol


B. Molar mass of CaCO3: 100.09 g/mol
C. Moles of CaO: 56000 g/56.08 g/mol≈998.57 mol
D. Moles of CaCO3 needed (1:1 ratio): ≈998.57 mol
E. Mass of CaCO3: 998.57 mol×100.09 g/mol≈99954 g≈100 kg

Approximately 100 kg of limestone is required.

49)

here is the answer 0.5

50)

1.12 litre

51)

A. Balanced equation: CH4​+2O2​→CO2​+2H2​O


B. Moles of CH4: 4 g/16.043 g/mol≈0.249 mol
C. Moles of O2 required: 0.249 mol CH4​×(2 mol O2​/1 mol CH4​)≈0.499 mol O2​
D. Volume of O2 at STP: 0.499 mol×22.4 L/mol≈11.17 L

Approximately 11.17 L of O2​ at STP is required.

52)

The balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of butane (C4​H10​) is:2C4​H10
(g)+13O2​(g)→8CO2​(g)+10H2​O(l)From the balanced equation, 2 volumes of C4​H10​ produce 8
volumes of CO2​ (at the same temperature and pressure, which is STP in this case).So, the ratio
of C4​H10​ to CO2​ is 2:8, which simplifies to 1:[Link] 7 litres of C4​H10​:Volume of CO2​
produced = 7 litres C4​H10​×(8 litres CO2​/2 litres C4​H10​) Volume of CO2​ produced =
7 litres×4=28 litresTherefore, the volume of CO2​ produced is 28 litres.

53)

Ans. 40 mL

54)

To determine the limiting reactant, we need to compare the mole ratio of the reactants
provided with the stoichiometric mole ratio from the balanced equation.

The balanced equation is:

3H2​+N2​→2NH3​

This means that for every 3 moles of H2​, 1 mole of N2​ is required.

Given:

A. Moles of H2​=4.0 moles

B. Moles of N2​=1.1 moles

Let's determine how much of one reactant is needed to react completely with the other:

Method 1: Based on H2

If all 4.0 moles of H2​ react, the amount of N2​ needed would be:

Moles of N2​ needed = (4.0 moles H2​)×(1 mole N2​/3 moles H2​)≈1.33 moles N2​

We only have 1.1 moles of N2​, which is less than the 1.33 moles required. This means N2​ will
run out first.

Method 2: Based on N2

If all 1.1 moles of N2​ react, the amount of H2​ needed would be:

Moles of H2​ needed = (1.1 moles N2​)×(3 moles H2​/1 mole N2​)=3.3 moles H2​

We have 4.0 moles of H2​, which is more than the 3.3 moles required. This means H2​ is in
excess.

Since N2​ is completely consumed (it's the reactant that runs out first), Nitrogen gas (N2​) is
the limiting reactant.

55) Balanced Chemical Equation: A2​+2B→BA2​Limiting Reactant: B (all shaded spheres


are consumed).
56) B is the limiting reagent.

No. of moles of D formed will be

57)

Consider how the limiting reactant is identified – is it just by mass, or by moles and the
reaction's stoichiometry?

58)

2Al + 3cl2 → 2Alcl3

; Al is LR
2 mole Al form 2 mole Alcl3
1 mole Al form 1 mole Alcl3

59)

A. Balance the equation first.


B. Identify the limiting reactant using the balanced equation and given moles.
C. Use the limiting reactant to calculate moles of CO2​.
D. Convert moles of CO2​ to volume at NTP (remember 1 mole at NTP is 22.4 L).
60)

61)

A. Pure CaCO3: 10 g×0.90=9 g


B. Molar mass CaCO3: 100.09 g/mol
C. Moles CaCO3: 9 g/100.09 g/mol≈0.08992 mol
D. Reaction: CaCO3​→CaO+CO2​ (1:1 mole ratio)
E. Moles CO2 produced: ≈0.08992 mol
F. Volume CO2 at STP: 0.08992 mol×22.4 L/mol≈2.01 L

Approximately 2.01 litres of CO2​ are liberated.

62)

Initial gas volume (PH3​) = 100 ml


Final gas volume (H2​) = 100 ml×(3/2)=150 ml
Change in volume = 150 ml−100 ml=+50 ml (increase).

63) Molality is not temperature dependent because it is based on mass (moles solute/kg
solvent), which doesn't change with temperature, unlike volume-based terms.

64)

To calculate the molarity of the solution:

A. Calculate moles of urea: Moles of urea = (Number of urea molecules) / (Avogadro's number)
Moles of urea =
(3.01times1022textmolecules)/(6.022times1023textmolecules/mol)approx0.05textmol
B. Calculate molarity: Molarity = Moles of solute / Volume of solution (in Liters) Molarity =
0.05textmol/1textL=0.05textM

The molarity of the solution is 0.05 M.

65)

Divide the number of urea molecules (3.01×1022) by Avogadro's number (6.022×1023) to get
moles, then divide by the solution volume (1 L) to find the molarity: 0.05 M.

66)

67)

Assuming water density is 1 g/ml:

A. Moles of water: 540 g/18 g/mol=30 mol


B. Mole fraction of glucose: 1 mol glucose/(1 mol glucose+30 mol water)=1/31≈0.032

68)

A. Volume of solution: 500 g/1.2 g/ml=416.67 ml=0.41667 L


B. Moles of NaOH: 0.5 mol/L×0.41667 L=0.208335 mol
C. Mass of NaOH: 0.208335 mol×39.998 g/mol≈8.33 g

69)

A. Moles of urea: 180 g/60 g/mol=3 mol


B. Moles of water: 1800 g/18 g/mol=100 mol
C. Mole fraction of urea: 3/(3+100)=3/103≈0.0291

The mole fraction remains the same because moles don't change with temperature.

70)

71)

A. From the first reaction (S8​+8O2​→8SO2​): 2 moles of S8​ will produce 2×8=16 moles of SO2
.
B. From the second reaction (2SO2​+O2​→2SO3​): Since 2 moles of SO2​ produce
2 moles of SO3​ (a 1:1 ratio), 16 moles of SO2​ will produce 16 moles of SO3​.

The moles of SO3​ formed is 16 moles.

72) Volume = Moles / Molarity


Volume = 1 mol/2 M=0.5 L
The volume of the solution is 0.5 L.

73)

A. Balanced Reaction: N2​+3H2​→2NH3​


B. Limiting Reactant: 2 mol N2​ needs 6 mol H2​ (2×3). Since 6 mol H2​ is available, both
reactants are consumed, and there's no single limiting reactant; they are in stoichiometric
proportion.
C. Theoretical Yield: From 2 mol N2​, 2×2=4 mol NH3​ can be formed.
D. Percentage Yield: (2 mol (actual)/4 mol (theoretical))×100%=50%.

74)

75) Reaction: Na2​CO3​(s)→Na2​O(s)+CO2​(g)

A. Moles of CO2​ produced: From the balanced equation, 1 mole of Na2​CO3​ yields
1 mole of CO2​. Therefore, 2 moles of Na2​CO3​ will yield 2 moles of CO2​.
B. Volume of CO2​ at STP: At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L. So, 2 moles of CO2​ will
occupy 2 mol×22.4 L/mol=44.8 L.

76) Balanced Reaction: H2​SO4​+Ca(OH)2​→CaSO4​+2H2​O

A. Limiting Reactant: Since H2​SO4​ and Ca(OH)2​ react in a 1:1 molar ratio, and we have
0.5 mol H2​SO4​ but only 0.2 mol Ca(OH)2​, Ca(OH)2​ is the limiting reactant.
B. Moles of CaSO4​ formed: From the 1:1 stoichiometric ratio between Ca(OH)2​ and CaSO4​,
0.2 mol of Ca(OH)2​ will produce 0.2 mol of CaSO4​.

77)

To prepare 100 ml of a 2 M aqueous NaOH solution:

A. Moles of NaOH needed: 2 mol/L×0.100 L=0.2 mol


B. Mass of NaOH: 0.2 mol×39.998 g/mol≈8.00 g

78)

Total electrons in one CO2​ molecule = Electrons from Carbon + Electrons from Oxygen Total
electrons = 6+16=22 electrons.
79)

A. Electrons per atom = (Total electrons in 1 mole) / (Avogadro's number) Electrons per atom =
(4.2×1024)/(6.022×1023)≈6.974≈7
B. Atomic Number = Number of electrons per atom

The atomic number of the element is 7.

80)
= 28 (molar mass of CO).

81)

A. Moles of N2: (6.02×1022 molecules)/(6.022×1023 molecules/mol)≈0.1 mol


B. Volume at NTP: 0.1 mol×22.4 L/mol=2.24 L

82)

A. Molar Mass: Vapour Density ×2=11.2×2=22.4 g/mol


B. Moles of gas: 11.2 g/22.4 g/mol=0.5 mol
C. Volume at STP: 0.5 mol×22.4 L/mol=11.2 L

83)

A. Assume masses: Let mass of O2​=1 unit, mass of N2​=4 units.


B. Molar masses: O2​=32 g/mol, N2​=28 g/mol.
C. Calculate moles:
A. Moles of O2​=1/32
B. Moles of N2​=4/28=1/7
D. Ratio of molecules (same as moles): (1/32):(1/7)
E. Simplify ratio: Multiply by 32×7=224 to clear fractions: (1/32)×224:(1/7)×224=7:32

The ratio of the number of their molecules is 7 : 32.

84)

A. Molar mass of CaCO3​:


A. Ca=40.08 g/mol
B. C=12.01 g/mol
C. O=3×16.00=48.00 g/mol
D. Total Molar mass of CaCO3​=40.08+12.01+48.00=100.09 g/mol
B. Mass of oxygen in one mole of CaCO3​:
A. Mass of oxygen = 3×16.00=48.00 g
C. Percentage by mass of oxygen: Percentage = (Mass of oxygen/Molar mass of CaCO3
)×100% Percentage = (48.00 g/100.09 g)×100%≈47.96%

The percentage by mass of oxygen in CaCO3​ is approximately 47.96%.

85) 1 mole of megnesium phosphate contains 8 moles of oxygen atoms.


86)

The empirical formula of glucose (C6​H12​O6​) is the simplest whole-number ratio of its atoms,
which is found by dividing all subscripts by their greatest common divisor (6).
Answer: CH2​O

87)

% of O =
Atomicity = 1 for minimum molecular mass of compound.

3.2 =

M · Mass = = 500.

88)

A. Empirical Formula Mass (CH): 12+1=13 g/mol


B. Ratio (n): Molecular Mass / Empirical Formula Mass = 26 g/mol/13 g/mol=2
C. Molecular Formula: (CH)2​=C2​H2​

89) Answer: The molecular weight of SO2​ is 64 u (atomic mass units).

A. S: 32 u
B. O: 16 u
C. SO2​: 32+(2×16)=64 u

90) The enzyme must contain at least one atom of Se. 0.5g of Se is present in 100 g of enzyme
78.4 g of Se will be present in

gr of enzymes

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XIth Page No. 92

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 126, Para–2

93)

Concept:

A. Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels that pass through the cell walls of adjacent
plant cells, allowing direct communication and transport of materials between their
cytoplasms.

Solution:

A. Plasmodesmata are the specialized structures that create cytoplasmic continuity


between plant cells.

94)

The correct answer is 4) Ribosome.

Explanation: A ribosome is often considered an "organelle within an organelle" because


Ribosomes are organelles that are found within other organelles, such as mitochondria and
chloroplasts.

95) The correct statement are -


(a) Schleiden, a German Botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed that all
plants are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a British Zoologist studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells
had a thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e-cellula"
(d) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a
final shape.

96)

Allen module.

97) NCERT XI Pg. # 126, Para 1 line 1,2

98) NCERT, Pg#126, para-8.2

99)

NCERT Page No. 90

100) NCERT Pg#126

101) NCERT XI Pg. # 129

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91
103) NCERT Pg. # 129 ; V, VI and VII Para.

104) Facilitated diffusion involves participation of protein not energy.

105) Explaining the Question – Question asking about the function of plasma membranes.
Concept – This Question is based on Cell membrane Solution - As the polar molecules
cannot pass through the nonpolar lipid bilayer, they require a carrier protein of the membrane
to facilitate their transport across the membrane. A few ions or molecules are transported
across the membrane against their concentration gradient, i.e., from lower to the higher
concentration. Such a transport is an energy dependent process, in which ATP is utilised and
is called active transport, e.g., Na+/K+ Pump.
Final Answer - 3

106)

(A) Membrane proteins are classified based on how easily they can be extracted — extrinsic
(peripheral) and intrinsic (integral) proteins.
(B) In membranes, the hydrophilic heads face outward (toward water), and hydrophobic tails
face inward, not the other way around.
(C) The membrane lipids are arranged in a bilayer, not a monolayer.
(D) The main lipids in membranes are phosphoglycerides (a type of phospholipid).

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 131, 8.5.1

108) NCERT Pg. # 132, Para # 8.5.1

109) NCERT Pg.# 131, Fig. # 8.4

110)

Ncert Page 97.

111)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which biochemical component is represented by


the section labeled 'D' in a pie chart diagram of the cell membrane structure.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is the biochemical composition of the cell membrane.
The cell membrane is primarily made up of phospholipids, proteins, enzymes, and
oligosaccharides. Phospholipids form the basic structure of the membrane, creating a bilayer
that provides fluidity and barrier functions.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the mnemonic 'P-E-P-O' for the common components: Proteins,
Enzymes, Phospholipids, and Oligosaccharides. Phospholipids usually make up the biggest
section.

Common Mistakes: Confusing proteins or enzymes as the largest component instead of


phospholipids; or misunderstanding the labeling in the diagram segments.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Proteins and enzymes are important cell membrane
components but usually appear in smaller quantities compared to phospholipids, so options
corresponding to these would be incorrect for the largest segment labeled 'D'.
Oligosaccharides are typically present in smaller amounts attached to proteins or lipids.

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

113) NCERT Page 93.

114) NCERT Pg. No. 94

115) NCERT Page no. 131

116) Statement I: Correct. The cell wall in bacteria does indeed determine the shape of the cell
and provides structural support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing.
Statement II: Incorrect. The mesosome is a structure found in prokaryotes, not eukaryotes,
and is formed by the invagination of the plasma membrane into the cell.

117) Statement I: Correct. The extensions such as vesicles, tubules, and lamellae in cells
indeed help in various cellular processes including cell wall formation, DNA replication, and
distribution to daughter cells.
Statement II: Incorrect. Chromatophores are membranous extensions found in some
prokaryotes like cyanobacteria that contain pigments and are involved in photosynthesis, not
in motility.

118) Statement I: Incorrect. Algae have cell walls made of cellulose, galactans, mannans, and
minerals like calcium carbonate, not hemicellulose, pectins, and proteins as mentioned in the
statement.
Statement II: Correct. The middle lamella, which is mainly composed of calcium pectate,
indeed holds or glues different neighbouring plant cells together.

119)

This question is about the composition of the cell wall of algae.

Explanation:
The cell wall of algae is primarily composed of cellulose, galactans, calcium carbonate
(CaCO3), and mannans.

Correct Answer is (4) a, b, c, f


120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

121) NCERT, Pg#127, figure-8.1

122)

Asking about: Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Concept: Understanding the structure and function of bacterial cell components.

Solution:
The cell wall does prevent bursting, so this pair is mismatched.

Final Answer: (3)

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128, para-2

124) Statement I: Correct. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are indeed associated with the plasma
membrane and are composed of 50S and 30S subunits, which together form the 70S
prokaryotic ribosomes.
Statement II: Incorrect. Inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells are not bound by any membrane
system and lie free in the cytoplasm, contrary to the statement which incorrectly suggests that
they are membrane-bound.

125) Statement I: Incorrect. The filament is the longest portion of the bacterial flagellum, not
the shortest. It extends from the cell surface to the outside.
Statement II: Incorrect. Pili and Fimbriae are indeed surface structures of bacteria, but they
do not play a role in motility. Pili are elongated tubular structures, and fimbriae are small
bristle-like fibers; they can help in attachment to surfaces and host tissues but are not involved
in movement.

126) NCERT page no.129

127)

128) Centriole is not present in a prokaryotic flagella.


129) NCERT Pg. # 133- 6th Line

130)

Ncert Page 94.

131)

Ncert Page 95.

132) Ncert Page 96.


RER - Protein synthesis.

133) NCERT XI, (Eng.), Page # 130

134)

NCERT Pg. # 132

135) Explanation:

A. Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.


B. (iv) is incorrect because Blue-green algae (BGA) are prokaryotes, not eukaryotes.

So, only one statement is incorrect.

Final Answer : option (4). One

136)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

138) NCERT-XI Pg.# 106

139) NCERT Pg.# 101

140)

NCERT Pg 101
Simple squamous epithelium is made up of single thin layer of flattened cell and involve in
fuctions like forming diffusion boundaries.

141) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101, 102

142)

Only (i) statement correct

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

144)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

145)

NCERT Pg. # 101

146)

Liver, Uterus

147) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

149) Concept :
Compound epithelium
Formula : Solution/Explanation :
Factual

150) NCERT Pg # 100

151) NCERT Pg # 103

152) R : In NCERT 'over' is given in place of "across" hence meaning is changed and reason is
wrong.

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 100

155)

NCERT Page no 102.

156)

Explanation:
Cilia are hair-like structures on the surface of some epithelial cells that help move particles or
mucus in a specific direction. They are present in various locations, including the fallopian
tubes, where they help move the egg towards the uterus, and in the bronchioles, where they
help move mucus and trapped particles out of the respiratory tract.

Correct Answer:
Option (3) Cilia : Fallopian tubes and bronchioles

157) NCERT Pg. # 102

158) NCERT Pg # 102

159)

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

A. Statement-I is correct: the outer covering of the gonads (testes and ovaries) is made of
simple cuboidal epithelium, referred to as the germinal epithelium.
Statement-II is correct: in gonads cuboidal cells form gametes and is also called
germinal epithelium
160) NCERT, Pg. # 83

161) Old NCERT – XI – Page no. 101, 102

162)

NCERT Pg. # 101

163)

OLD NCERT-11, Pg. # 102

164) NCERT PAGE : 101, 102

165) NCERT Pg. # 102

166)

NCERT Pg # 102
All (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true about compound epithelium

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

168) NCERT XI Pg.# 101, 103

169) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 101

170) NCERT, Pg. # 101

171) NCERT XI, Pg. # 100/102

172) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Solution:
Epithelial Tissue - Epothelium cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
Because of very little intercellular spaces blood capillaries and lymph capillaries are absent.
Epithelial tissue has a free surface that faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
The structure of the cells vary according to their function. Therefore, the tissues are different
and are broadly classified into four types:
(i) Epithelial, (ii) Connective, (iii) Muscular and (iv) Neural

173)
NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

174) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

176) NCERT Pg. # 101

177) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 102

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

179)

The structure labeled 'A' in the image is a Goblet cell.

Goblet cells are specialized epithelial cells that produce and secrete mucus.

180) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, IIIrd Para

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