Meteorology Test – Full course

Name:____________________ Date of test:_________________c. Stratosphere.

1. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in NH?
a) It decreases from South to North
b) It increases from South to North
c) It remains constant throughout the year

2. What approximately is the height of tropopause over the equator?

a) 8km
b) 16km
c) 11km

[Link] ISA the decrease in temperature with height below 11km is:
a) 0.5*C / 100 m
b) 0.6*C / 100 m
(c) 0.65*C / 100 m

[Link] temperature at 300 hpa is - 54*C & according to the significant Wx chart the
Tropopause is at FL330. What is the most likely temperature at FL350?
a) -48*C
b ) - 60*C
c) -56.5*C

[Link] is the boundary between Troposphere & Stratosphere called?

M

a) lonosphere
O

b) Atmosphere
C

c) Tropopause
T.
LO

[Link] OAT at FL200 is -30*C. Find ISA deviation at this level.

PI

a) 5*C colder than ISA

b) 5*C warmer than ISA
ZY

c) 10*C colder than ISA

A
.E

[Link] is the composition of dry air by volume in Troposhere?

W

a) 88% Oxygen, 9% Nitrogen & rest other gases

W

b) 50% Oxygen, 40% Nitrogen & rest other gases

(0) 21% Oxygen, 78% Nitrogen & rest other gases
W

[Link] are flying at FL300. OAT 15*C warmer than ISA temperature. What is the likely
OAT?
a) -15*C
b) -30*C
c) -45*C

[Link] is the most important constituent for Weather in the atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Water vapours

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[Link] pressure of the atmosphere:
a) Decreases at an increasing rate as the height increases
b) Decreases at a constant rate as the height increases
e ) Decreases at a decreasing rate as the height increases

[Link] Tropopause in mid latitudes is:

a) Lower in summer with lower temperature
b) Lower in winter with higher temperature
c) Lower in summer with higher temperature

[Link] the ELR is 0.65*C / 100m:

a) Atmosphere is stable
b) Atmosphere is unstable
c ) Atmosphere is stable when dry

[Link] combination will give the lowest air density?

a) Low pressure, low humidity, low temperature
b) High pressure, low temperature, low humidity
c) Low pressure, high humidity, high temperature

15. A steep pressure gradient is characterized by:

val Isobars close together, strengthened winds
b) Isobars far apart, decreased winds
c) Isobars close together, temperature increasing

16. QNH at an airfield 200 m AMSL is 1009 hpa; OAT is 10*C lower than standard.
What is the QFF?
a) Less than 1009 hpa
M

b) 1009 hpa
O

c) More than 1009 hpa

C
T.

[Link] at place A is 1015hpa. Airfield elevation is 200m amsl. What will be QFE
LO

value? (Assume 1 hpa = 8 m)

PI

a) 1000hpa
b) 990hpa
ZY

c) 1020hpa
A
.E

[Link] is the vertical movement of air relating to trough?

W

a) Ascending & diverging

W

b) Descending & converging

c) Ascending & converging
W

[Link] is subsidence ?
a) Horizontal motion of air
b) Vertical down draught of air
c) Vertical up draught of air

[Link] at MSL. QNH is 1022 hpa. What will be QFF?

a) Greater than 1022 hpa
b) Less than 1022 hpa
c) Same QNH

2
[Link] purpose of Stevenson screen is to:
a) Prevent thermometer mercury freezing in winters
b) Protect the thermometer from wind, Wx, direct Sun rays & is located 4 ft agl
c) Keep wet & dry bulb thermometers away from surface

[Link] surface of the Earth is heated by:

a) Conduction
b) Long wave solar radiation
c) Short wave solar radiation

[Link] method by which energy is transferred from one body to another by contact is
called:
a) Radiation
b) Convection
c) Conduction

[Link] process of change of state from gas to liquid is:

a) Evaporation in which latent heat is released
b) Condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
c) Condensation in which latent heat is released

[Link] process of change of state from liquid to gas is:

a) Evaporation in which latent heat is released
b) Condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
c) Evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed

[Link] Relative humidity is:

a) Air temperature over wet bulb temperature x 100
M

b) Air temperature over dew pt temperature x 100

O

c) The actual amount of water vapours in a sample of air over the maximum
C

amount of water vapours that the sample can contain x 100

T.
LO

[Link] is classified as Dry or Saturated as per relative humidity. If RH is 95% the air
PI

would be classified as:

a) Partially saturated
ZY

b) Saturated
A

c) Dry
.E
W

[Link] which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
W

a) Surface temperature
b) DALR
W

0) ELR

[Link] temperature at the surface is 15*C, the temperature at 1000m is 13*C. The
atmosphere is:
a) Unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Stable

[Link] happens to the stability of the atmosphere in an inversion?

a) Absolutely stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally stable
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[Link] happens to the temperature of a saturated air mass when forced to
descend?
a) It heats up more than dry because of expansion
b)It heats up less than dry because of evaporation
c) It heats up more than dry because of sublimation

[Link] DALR is:

a) Variable with time
b) Fixed value
c) Variable with latitude

[Link] is the ozone layer?

a) lonosphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Troposphere

[Link] are flying in an atmosphere which is warmer than ISA, what might you
expect?
a) True altitude be the same as indicated altitude
b) True altitude to be lower than indicated altitude
c) True altitude to be higher than indicated altitude

[Link] is 1003 hpa. At FL100 the true altitude is 10,000 ft. The atmosphere is:
a) Warmer than ISA
b) Colder than ISA
c) Same as ISA

[Link] is QNH determined from QFE?

M

a) Using temperature & elevation of the airfield

O

b) Using temperature
C

c) Using the elevation

T.
LO

37. QNH is defined as :

PI

a) Pressure at MSL obtained using actual conditions

b) QFE reduced to MSL using actual conditions
ZY

c) QFE reduced to MSL using standard atmosphere conditions

A
.E

38. QFE is 1000 hpa. Airfield elevation 200 m AMSL. What is QNH?(use 8m/hpa)
W

a) 975 hpa
W

b) 1025 hpa
c) 1008 hpa
W

39. At a coastal airfield with R/W parallel to the coast line, you are downwind over the
sea with the R/W to your right. On summer afternoon, what would you expect the
wind to be on finals?
a) Crosswind from the right
b) Headwind
c) Tailwind

59 Fohn winds are:

a) Warm katabatic winds
b) Cold katabatic winds
c) Warm descending winds
4
60. What is the difference between gradient & geostrophic winds?
a) Difference in temperature
b) Lots of friction
c) Curved isobars & straight isobars

61. For the same pressure gradient at 50*N, 60*N & 40*N, the geostrophic wind speed
is;
a) Greatest at 60*N
b) Least at 50*N
c) Greatest at 40*N

62. Where are easterly & westerly jet streams found?

a) Northern Hemisphere only
b) Southern Hemisphere only
c) Northern & Southern Hemispheres

63. Which of the following is an example of Fohn winds ?

a) Bora
b) Harmattan
c) Chinook

64. Winds at altitude is given as:

a) True, m/s
b) Magnetic, m/s
c) True, knots

65. If you fly with Left drift in NH, what happens to the surface pressure?
a) Increases
M

b) Decreases
O

c) Stays the same

C
T.

66. How do you recognise high level jet streams & associated turbulence?
LO

a) High pressure centre at high level

PI

b) Streaks of Cirrus clouds

c) High level dust
A ZY

67. What type of jet streams blow constantly through NH?

.E

a) Arctic
W

b) Equatorial
W

c) Subtropical
W

68. The Arctic jet core is at:

a) 20,000ft
b) 30,000ft
c) 40,000ft

69. When & where does an easterly jet stream occur?

a) All through the equator
b) In summer from SE Asia through S. India to central Africa
c) In winter in Arctic Russia

70. Where are easterly & westerly jet streams found?

a) Northern hemisphere only
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b) Southern hemisphere only
c) In Northern & southern hemispheres

71. From which cloud the snow is most likely to fall?

a) Ns
b) Ci
c) Cs

72. The Cb cloud in summer contains:

a) Water droplets
b) Ice crystals
c) Water droplets, ice crystals & super cooled water droplets

73. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all the three cloud levels?
a) St
b) Ac
c ) cb

74. A layer of air cooling at SALR compared to DALR would give which type of cloud?
a) Status if saturated
b) Cumulus if saturated
c) Convective type of cloud

[Link] conditions favourable for formation of Thunderstorms:

a) A trigger action, plenty of moister supply & stable atmosphere
b) A steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere & plenty moister supply
c) Plenty moister supply, steep lapse rate through large vertical extent & trigger
action
M
O

76. Cloudy nights are:

C

a ) Warmer than clear nights

T.

b) Warmer than clear days

LO

c) Cooler than clear nights

PI

77. How long approximately a Cb cell takes to complete full cycle from Cumulus to
ZY

dissipating stage?
A

a) 2-3hrs
.E

b) 1-2hrs
W

c) 4-5hrs
W

78. When flying through a Cb cloud, the lightning strike is most likely?
W

a) Above 5000ft & under the Anvil

b) In clear air below the cloud
c) In the temperature band between +10*C & - 10*C

79. A station equipped with RVR, reports are given:

a) Every ½ hour
by When normal visibility is 1500m or less
c) When there is mist

80. Clear ice forms as result of:

a) Large super cooled water droplets freeze on spreading
b) Small super cooled water droplets freezing over the aircraft
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c) Water vapours freezing on the aircraft

81. Near the equator upper winds tend to be:

a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Calm

82. When a TREND is included at the end of METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:
a) 1hr after t h e time of observation
b) 2hrs after the time of observation
c) 2hrs after it was issued

83. A TAF is reported as given below:

33017 kts Few 030 Tempo 0609 31024G32kts BECCMG 1315 31006kts. What time
are you likely to experience strongest winds?
a) 0600 - 0900
b) 1300 - 1500
c) 000 - 2400

[Link] is the cloud amount & cloud base in the above TAF?
a) 1 Octa 30m
b) 1 - 2 Octa 3000ft
c) 1 -2 Octa 3000m

85. In METAR, cloud types are indicated

a) For all types of clouds
b) Only for cumulonimbus clouds
c ) For significant convective clouds cumulus & cumulonimbus
M
O

86. Which feature is associated with tropopause ?

C

a) Absence of wind & turbulent conditions

T.

b) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation

LO

c) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate

PI

87. In which of the following circumstances SIGMET is issued?

ZY

a)Marked mountain waves

A

b) Fog or thunderstorm at an aerodrome

.E

c) Clear ice on the runways

W
W

88. What is the wind speed based on in a METAR report?

a) The average speed of previous 30 min
W

b) The actual speed at the time of recording

c ) The average speed of the previous 10 min

89. Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:

a) usually better than meteorological reported visibility
b) Reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
c) Measured with ceilometers along the R/W

90. When will a gust factor be reported in METAR?

a) With gusts of at least 25kts
b) With gusts of at least of 35kts
c) When gusts are at least 10kts above the mean wind speed
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91. Wind direction in METAR is measured with reference to:
a) Magnetic North
b) Grid North
c) True North

92. The validity of TAF is:

a) 2hrs
b) Between 6 - 9 h r s
c) Stated in the TAF itself

93. In METAR the pressure group represents the:

a) QFE rounded to the nearest hpa
bY QNH rounded down to the nearest hpa
c) QNH rounded up to the nearest hpa

94. Rime ice forms on the a/c because of:

a) Slow freezing process of super cooled water droplets
b) Instant freezing of small water droplets on the a/c airframe
c) The flights of aircraft in glaciated clouds

95. A VOLMET is defined as:

a) A radio broadcast of selected aerodrome forecast
b ) A continuous radio broadcast of selected aerodrome observations & forecast
c) A teleprinter message of selected aerodrome TAF & METAR

96. VOLMETS are:

a) Air to ground radio transmissions on HF & SHF
b) Ground to air radio transmissions on LF & VHF
M

c) Ground to air radio transmissions on HF & VHF

O
C

97. What are the conditions under which advection fog will be formed?
T.

a) Warm moist air moving over cold surface

LO

b) Cold dry air moving over warm surface

PI

c) Warm dry air moving over cold surface

ZY

98. Relative humidity is dependent upon:

A

a) Moisture content & temperature of the air

.E

b) Temperature of the air

W

c) Temperature & pressure of the air

W

[Link] of the following factors have greatest effect on ac icing?

W

a) A/c speed & curvature of the airfoil

b ) Cloud temp & droplet size
c) RH inside the cloud

100. Where do squall lines most often develop?

a) In an occluded front
b) In cold air mass
c) Ahead of cold front