.

Which of the following best describes the concept of "learning" in adult

education?

A) A passive process where information is absorbed without application

B) A dynamic process involving experience, reflection, and application
C) A process of memorizing large amounts of factual knowledge
D) A one-time event that occurs only in formal educational settings

2. According to Bloom’s Taxonomy, which of the following represents the highest

level of learning?

A) Understanding
B) Applying
C) Evaluating
D) Creating

3. Which of the following is the best example of skill-based learning?

A) Memorizing the names of all cranial nerves

B) Practicing patient assessment techniques in a clinical lab
C) Reading a textbook on medical ethics
D) Discussing theories of rehabilitation with peers

4. Attitude in professional learning is best demonstrated by which of the

following behaviors?

A) Answering questions correctly on an exam

B) Applying research-based techniques in clinical practice
C) Respecting patients’ autonomy and demonstrating empathy
D) Recalling the steps of a clinical procedure

5. Which of the following best differentiates skills from knowledge?

A) Skills are acquired through memorization, whereas knowledge is gained through practice
B) Knowledge is theoretical, while skills require practical application
C) Skills are unchangeable, while knowledge evolves with new research
D) Knowledge is based on physical abilities, whereas skills are based on mental capacity
6. In experiential learning theory, which of the following is the most critical stage
for transforming knowledge into skill?

A) Reflective observation
B) Abstract conceptualization
C) Active experimentation
D) Passive listening

7. A physical therapist who adapts their treatment approach based on patient

feedback is demonstrating which level of learning?

A) Memorization
B) Conceptual understanding
C) Critical thinking and application
D) Rote learning

8. Which of the following teaching strategies best promotes skill development in

physical therapy students?

A) Lectures and note-taking

B) Role-playing and hands-on patient interaction
C) Reading peer-reviewed articles
D) Watching educational videos

9. Which statement best describes the role of attitude in professional

development?

A) It only affects how an individual interacts with patients

B) It is unrelated to learning and clinical performance
C) It shapes ethical decision-making, communication, and professional behavior
D) It is less important than technical knowledge and skills

10. A student who struggles with clinical decision-making but excels in

theoretical knowledge most likely needs improvement in which area?
A) Knowledge
B) Attitude
C) Skills
D) Memory retention

1️⃣ B ✅ – Learning is a dynamic process involving experience, reflection, and application.

2️⃣ C ✅ – Evaluating is a higher-order cognitive skill in Bloom’s Taxonomy, requiring
critical analysis.
3️⃣ B ✅ – Practicing patient assessment techniques develops practical skills rather than just
theoretical knowledge.
4️⃣ C ✅ – Attitude includes professional behavior, empathy, and ethical decision-making.
5️⃣ B ✅ – Knowledge is theoretical, while skills require practical application and experience.
6️⃣ C ✅ – Active experimentation helps transform knowledge into skill by applying learned
concepts.
7️⃣ C ✅ – Critical thinking and application involve modifying treatment based on patient
feedback.
8️⃣ B ✅ – Hands-on learning, role-playing, and patient interaction develop practical skills.
9️⃣ C ✅ – Attitude influences ethics, professionalism, and communication in clinical
practice.
🔟 C ❌ – (Correct Answer: C - Skills)

 If a student struggles with clinical decision-making but knows the theory well, it
indicates a gap in skills development, not just attitude.

. Which of the following best describes the difference between pedagogy and
andragogy?

A) Pedagogy focuses on self-directed learning, whereas andragogy relies on instructor-led teaching.

B) Andragogy emphasizes experience-based learning, whereas pedagogy is more structured and
teacher-centered.
C) Pedagogy is problem-solving oriented, whereas andragogy is focused on memorization.
D) Andragogy is primarily used in schools, whereas pedagogy is used in professional training.

2. According to Malcolm Knowles, which of the following is a key principle of

adult learning (andragogy)?

A) Adults learn best when they have no prior experience.

B) Adults rely on external motivation such as grades and rewards.
C) Adults prefer to be passive recipients of knowledge.
D) Adults learn best when learning is problem-centered and applicable to real life.
3. In a physical therapy workshop where professionals analyze real patient cases
and apply treatment strategies, which learning approach is being used?

A) Pedagogy
B) Andragogy
C) Behaviorism
D) Cognitive Learning

4. Which factor is the primary motivation for adult learners in andragogy?

A) Fear of punishment or failure

B) Internal motivation, such as career growth and self-improvement
C) Parental or teacher pressure
D) Rewards like certificates and prizes

5. A university professor asks students to reflect on their previous clinical

experiences and apply new concepts to their practice. This is an example of:

A) Pedagogical learning
B) Behaviorist learning
C) Andragogical learning
D) Passive learning

6. Which of the following teaching methods best supports adult learning

principles?

A) Rote memorization and repetition

B) Lecture-based delivery with minimal discussion
C) Group discussions, case studies, and hands-on activities
D) Strictly following a rigid syllabus with no flexibility

7. Why is andragogy considered more effective for professional training in

healthcare?

A) It requires adults to follow instructions without questioning.

B) It encourages self-directed learning and application of knowledge in real-life situations.
C) It relies heavily on memorization and standardized testing.
D) It focuses only on theoretical concepts rather than practical skills.

8. In pedagogy, the role of the teacher is best described as:

A) Facilitator and mentor

B) Guide for self-exploration
C) Authority figure and knowledge provider
D) Observer and silent participant

9. An instructor designing a professional ethics course for physical therapy

students decides to use real ethical dilemmas for discussion and decision-making.
Which learning theory does this approach align with?

A) Pedagogy
B) Andragogy
C) Constructivism
D) Behaviorism

10. In an adult learning environment, which of the following strategies would be

least effective?

A) Encouraging learners to connect new information with prior experiences

B) Allowing flexibility in learning and problem-solving approaches
C) Using rigid, standardized lectures without real-life applications
D) Incorporating hands-on practice and peer discussions

1 b 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 c 6 c 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 c

1. According to Knowles' andragogy, which of the following best describes the

reason adults engage in learning?

A) They are required to do so by an external authority.

B) They seek knowledge that is immediately relevant to their personal or professional lives.
C) They enjoy memorizing theoretical concepts.
D) They prefer structured learning without flexibility.

2. Which of the following principles of adult learning suggests that prior

knowledge and experiences influence how adults understand new information?

A) Readiness to learn
B) Problem-centered learning
C) Experience-based learning
D) Self-directed learning

3. A physical therapy student is more engaged in learning when they realize that
manual therapy techniques will improve their clinical practice. This reflects
which adult learning principle?

A) Need to know
B) External motivation
C) Passive learning
D) Behaviorism

4. Self-directed learning in adults means that:

A) The teacher should take complete control of the learning process.

B) The learner takes responsibility for their own learning and seeks out resources.
C) Learning should always follow a strict syllabus.
D) The instructor provides all the answers without discussion.

5. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates problem-centered learning?

A) A student memorizes a list of muscle origins and insertions.

B) A physical therapy intern analyzes a real patient case and applies treatment techniques.
C) A teacher gives a lecture while students passively listen.
D) A student studies anatomy without considering its clinical application.
6. What is the primary motivation for adult learners in professional education?

A) Fear of punishment
B) Desire for immediate application and problem-solving
C) Pressure from parents and teachers
D) Memorization of facts for exams

7. An instructor encourages students to reflect on their past clinical experiences

before teaching new treatment techniques. Which principle of adult learning is
being applied?

A) Readiness to learn
B) Internal motivation
C) Experience-based learning
D) Rote learning

8. Why is internal motivation more effective for adult learning than external
rewards?

A) Adults learn better when they are forced to study.

B) External rewards, like grades, are the strongest motivators for adults.
C) Adults are driven by personal goals, self-improvement, and career growth.
D) Adults learn best when they are given strict deadlines and punishments.

9. A rehabilitation therapist attending a seminar on new pain management

techniques is more likely to engage in learning because:

A) The instructor forces them to participate.

B) The topic is relevant to their professional work and helps solve patient issues.
C) They are required to memorize theories without application.
D) They have no interest in practical implementation.

10. According to adult learning principles, what is the best way to teach clinical
decision-making?
A) Providing students with step-by-step solutions without allowing independent thinking.
B) Encouraging students to apply theoretical knowledge to real-life patient cases.
C) Using only multiple-choice exams to test memorization.
D) Relying solely on teacher-directed lectures without student interaction.

1 b 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 b 6 b 7 c 8 c 9 b 10 b

MCQs on the Seven Principles to Guide Teaching Practice

1. Which of the following best describes the role of the learner in adult
education?

A) A passive recipient of information

B) An active contributor to the learning process
C) Completely dependent on the teacher for guidance
D) Required to follow a rigid, standardized curriculum

2. Why is it important to relate learning to real-life problem-solving?

A) It helps learners memorize facts better

B) It increases engagement and relevance for learners
C) It allows instructors to control the learning process
D) It makes assessments easier for educators

3. A physical therapy student is given a real patient case to analyze and develop a
treatment plan. This approach aligns best with which principle?

A) Learning should be teacher-directed

B) Learning should relate to real-life problem-solving
C) Learning should avoid using prior knowledge
D) Learning should be passive and observation-based

4. Why should educators consider learners’ prior knowledge and experiences?

A) Adults can only learn new knowledge if they forget past experiences
B) Prior knowledge does not impact new learning
C) Learning is more effective when new concepts build on existing knowledge
D) Educators should assume all learners have the same background

5. Which of the following best promotes self-directed learning?

A) Providing students with a list of facts to memorize

B) Encouraging learners to explore topics of interest and seek solutions independently
C) Ensuring that students follow a strict syllabus with no flexibility
D) Giving students no choice in learning activities

6. An instructor allows students to practice their clinical skills on each other

before working with actual patients. This reflects which principle?

A) The learner should remain passive in education

B) Learning should involve self-reflection only
C) Learners should have opportunities for practice and feedback
D) Teaching should focus only on theory, not practice

7. Why is self-assessment important in adult learning?

A) It helps learners identify strengths and areas for improvement

B) It ensures that all learners receive the same grades
C) It removes the need for instructor feedback
D) It discourages independent learning

8. A student reflects on their clinical decision-making after treating a patient.

This approach supports which principle?

A) Learners should focus only on external feedback

B) Reflection helps analyze and improve learning outcomes
C) Learning should be structured with no flexibility
D) The teacher should provide all solutions without discussion

9. How do role models influence adult learners?

A) Learners imitate professional behaviors and skills from experienced individuals
B) Role models have little impact on learning outcomes
C) Only written materials and lectures contribute to adult learning
D) Role models should always dictate learning without discussion

10. Which of the following strategies aligns with all seven principles of adult
learning?

A) Memorization and repetition-based learning

B) Lecture-heavy teaching with minimal interaction
C) Problem-based learning, active participation, and reflection
D) Rigid, standardized instruction without flexibility

1b 2 b 3 b 4 c 5 b 6 c 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 c

1. Which of the following is the correct first step in Gibbs' Reflective Cycle?

A) Evaluation
B) Feelings
C) Description
D) Analysis

2. The ‘Feelings’ stage of Gibbs' Cycle focuses on:

A) Describing only positive emotions

B) Suppressing emotional reactions
C) Reflecting on your thoughts and emotional responses
D) Analyzing other people's emotions

3. What is the main goal of the 'Evaluation' step in Gibbs' model?

A) To assign blame
B) To reflect on emotions
C) To determine what was good or bad about the experience
D) To make an action plan
4. During which stage do you identify what else you could have done?

A) Description
B) Conclusion
C) Feelings
D) Analysis

5. The 'Analysis' stage helps in:

A) Listing tasks only

B) Understanding why things happened the way they did
C) Deciding punishment for mistakes
D) Planning future courses

6. Which step focuses on applying your learning to future experiences?

A) Evaluation
B) Action Plan
C) Description
D) Conclusion

7. Reflecting through Gibbs' cycle encourages:

A) Memorization of experiences
B) Repeating the same behaviors
C) Critical thinking and self-awareness
D) Avoiding past failures

8. In the context of physiotherapy, Gibbs' cycle helps you:

A) Perform random treatments

B) Improve practice through structured reflection
C) Focus only on patient emotions
D) Skip clinical supervision
9. What is a common error in the ‘Conclusion’ stage?

A) Reflecting too deeply

B) Not identifying clear learning points
C) Creating too many future plans
D) Including emotions again

10. Which of the following best describes the overall purpose of Gibbs' Reflective
Cycle?

A) To criticize others
B) To avoid emotional responses
C) To promote continuous improvement through reflection
D) To memorize theoretical concepts only

Let me know when you're ready to check the answers or need explanations! 😊

4o
You said:
1c 2c 3c 4b 5b 6b 7c 8b 9b 10c

ChatGPT said:

🌟 Great job! You scored 10/10 – Excellent understanding! 🌟

Here are the correct answers with quick explanations:

1️⃣ C – Description ✅
🔹 The first step is to objectively describe what happened.

2️⃣ C – Reflecting on your thoughts and emotional responses ✅

🔹 This stage helps you understand how your feelings influenced the experience.

3️⃣ C – To determine what was good or bad about the experience ✅

🔹 The evaluation stage weighs both positive and negative aspects.
4️⃣ B – Conclusion ✅
🔹 In this step, you reflect on what you could have done differently.

5️⃣ B – Understanding why things happened the way they did ✅

🔹 Analysis digs deeper into the reasons behind the outcome.

6️⃣ B – Action Plan ✅

🔹 This stage helps create a strategy to improve future practice.

7️⃣ C – Critical thinking and self-awareness ✅

🔹 Reflection boosts insight and promotes lifelong learning.

8️⃣ B – Improve practice through structured reflection ✅

🔹 Helps clinicians enhance patient care based on past experiences.

9️⃣ B – Not identifying clear learning points ✅

🔹 A common mistake is failing to extract useful takeaways.

🔟 C – To promote continuous improvement through reflection ✅

🔹 The goal is to refine practice and grow professionally.

MCQs – Skinner vs. Chomsky (Learning Theories)

1. According to Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning, which element plays a central role in
strengthening behavior?
A. Observation
B. Reinforcement
C. Cognition
D. Motivation

2. Noam Chomsky challenged Skinner's behaviorist model of language learning by proposing:

A. Language is learned purely through repetition
B. Language is acquired through trial and error
C. Humans are biologically equipped to learn language
D. Learning depends solely on environmental exposure

3. Which of the following best describes the difference between Skinner’s and Chomsky’s theories of
learning?
A. Skinner focused on intrinsic motivation, while Chomsky focused on reinforcement
B. Skinner emphasized cognitive development, Chomsky emphasized behavior
C. Skinner viewed learning as stimulus-response, Chomsky viewed learning as biologically pre-
programmed
D. Both agreed that language is acquired through reinforcement

Let me know your answers when you're ready!

4o
You said:
1b 2c 3c

ChatGPT said:

Perfect! Let’s check your answers:

1. B – Reinforcement ✅
Correct! Skinner emphasized reinforcement as a key factor in learning behavior.

2. C – Humans are biologically equipped to learn language ✅

Absolutely right! Chomsky believed in a natural, inborn capacity for language acquisition.

3. C – Skinner viewed learning as stimulus-response, Chomsky viewed learning as biologically pre-

programmed ✅
Spot on! This is the core contrast between the two theorists.

1. According to William Perry’s theory, a student in the "Dualism" stage is most

likely to:

a) Accept that multiple solutions can exist for one problem

b) Believe that knowledge is relative and contextual
c) Think there is always one right answer, often provided by the teacher
d) Feel confident making decisions independently

Correct Answer: c)

2. The “Zone of Proximal Development” refers to:

a) What a learner cannot do, even with help

b) What a learner can do completely independently
c) What a learner can do with guidance from a knowledgeable person
d) The learner’s physical and cognitive limitations

Correct Answer: c)

3. Which of the following best represents “scaffolding” in a clinical setting?

a) Giving a student a research paper and asking them to present it

b) Asking a student to treat a patient independently with no supervision
c) Gradually guiding a student through a new skill with feedback and support
d) Letting the student figure things out on their own completely

Correct Answer: c)

4. In Perry’s theory, the transition from Dualism to Multiplicity means the

student:

a) Begins to memorize facts better

b) Shifts from seeing teachers as all-knowing to becoming open to multiple viewpoints
c) Stops needing any guidance
d) Rejects all knowledge

Correct Answer: b)

5. A student is struggling with a manual therapy technique. The teacher first

demonstrates it, then lets the student try while giving feedback. This teaching
method is an example of:

a) Repetition
b) Passive learning
c) Scaffolding in the Zone of Proximal Development
d) Behaviorism

Correct Answer: c)

Behaviorism and Learning Theories Quiz

1. Which of the following is a key principle of behaviorism?

 o A) The focus is on observable behavior
o B) Learning occurs in the mind without external influence
o C) Behavior is shaped by cognitive processes
o D) Learning is based on social interaction
2. What does "reinforcement" in behaviorism refer to?
o A) Ignoring undesired behavior
o B) Strengthening the connection between a stimulus and a behavior
o C) Discouraging behavior through punishment
o D) Teaching new behaviors through observation
3. What is an example of positive reinforcement?
o A) Giving a child a treat for doing their homework
o B) Taking away a child’s video game time when they misbehave
o C) Ignoring a child’s tantrum
o D) Giving extra chores for poor behavior
4. In the context of behaviorism, what does "contiguity" refer to?
o A) Learning through observation
o B) The sequence of behaviors that leads to reinforcement
o C) The immediate connection between the stimulus and the response
o D) Giving rewards intermittently
5. Which of the following is true regarding repetition in behaviorism?
o A) Repetition makes learning less effective
o B) More repetition leads to stronger behavior learning
o C) Repetition should be avoided to keep behavior fresh
o D) Only one repetition is needed for learning to occur
6. What is meant by "intermittent reinforcement"?
o A) Rewarding every correct behavior
o B) Rewarding some, but not all, correct behaviors
o C) Never rewarding correct behaviors
o D) Reinforcing a behavior once a day
7. Which of these would be an example of extinction in behaviorism?
o A) A child stops cleaning their room after parents stop giving rewards
o B) A child starts cleaning their room after receiving a reward
o C) A child cleans their room regardless of the reward
o D) A child gets praised every time they clean their room
8. What does behaviorism primarily focus on?
o A) Internal thoughts and emotions
o B) Observable behavior and actions
o C) Social interactions and collaboration
o D) Cognitive development
9. Who is most closely associated with the theory of behaviorism?
o A) Jean Piaget
o B) B.F. Skinner
o C) Lev Vygotsky
o D) Jerome Bruner
10. Which of the following is an example of classical conditioning?

 A) A dog salivating when it hears a bell after repeated association with food
 B) A student solving a math problem correctly after reinforcement
 C) A person choosing to exercise because of personal satisfaction
 D) A child learning to speak by mimicking parents

11. In operant conditioning, which of the following would be considered a "positive

reinforcement"?

 A) Removing an unpleasant stimulus when a behavior is performed correctly

 B) Giving a child a cookie when they finish their homework
 C) Ignoring a student’s incorrect answer
 D) Giving a time-out for bad behavior

12. What does "behavior shaping" refer to in the context of behaviorism?

 A) Rewarding an overall good behavior

 B) Reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior
 C) Ignoring undesirable behavior
 D) Teaching behaviors through observational learning

13. What is the term for a stimulus that encourages a specific response from an individual in
behaviorism?

 A) Discriminative stimulus
 B) Neutral stimulus
 C) Unconditioned stimulus
 D) Generalized stimulus

14. In behaviorism, what role does the environment play in learning?

 A) It has little influence on learning

 B) It shapes and reinforces behaviors through stimuli
 C) It only influences emotional responses
 D) It helps shape cognitive processes

15. Which of the following best describes "operant conditioning"?

 A) Learning through observation of others

 B) Learning through association of two stimuli
 C) Learning based on rewards and punishments following a behavior
 D) Learning through problem-solving and exploration

16. What is the principle of "contingency" in behaviorism?

 A) The degree to which the behavior and its outcome are connected
 B) The random nature of reinforcement schedules
 C) The use of rewards in teaching new behaviors
 D) The ability to teach complex behaviors in one step
17. Which of the following is a key aspect of behaviorism?

 A) Emphasis on cognitive development

 B) Focus on observable behaviors and external reinforcement
 C) Learning through social interaction
 D) Learning through reflective thinking

18. In behaviorism, what is the result of an unreinforced stimulus-response pair?

 A) Strengthened behavior
 B) Extinction of the behavior
 C) Conditioning of a new response
 D) Increased motivation to perform the behavior

19. What would be an example of negative reinforcement?

 A) A teacher giving a gold star for correct answers

 B) A student losing points for poor behavior
 C) A driver getting a ticket for speeding
 D) A child no longer having to do chores after finishing homework

20. How does behaviorism differ from cognitive learning theories?

 A) Behaviorism focuses on internal cognitive processes

 B) Behaviorism emphasizes observable actions and external reinforcement
 C) Cognitive theories ignore the environment and focus on behavior
 D) Behaviorism ignores reinforcement and punishment in learning

1. A) The focus is on observable behavior - ✅ Correct

2. B) Strengthening the connection between a stimulus and a behavior - ✅ Correct
3. A) Giving a child a treat for doing their homework - ✅ Correct
4. C) The immediate connection between the stimulus and the response - ✅ Correct
5. B) More repetition leads to stronger behavior learning - ✅ Correct
6. B) Rewarding some, but not all, correct behaviors - ✅ Correct
7. A) A child stops cleaning their room after parents stop giving rewards - ✅ Correct
8. B) Observable behavior and actions - ✅ Correct
9. B) B.F. Skinner - ✅ Correct
10. A) A dog salivating when it hears a bell after repeated association with food - ✅ Correct
11. B) Giving a child a cookie when they finish their homework - ✅ Correct
12. B) Reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior - ✅ Correct
13. A) Discriminative stimulus - ✅ Correct
14. B) It shapes and reinforces behaviors through stimuli - ✅ Correct
15. C) Learning based on rewards and punishments following a behavior - ✅ Correct
16. A) The degree to which the behavior and its outcome are connected - ✅ Correct
17. B) Focus on observable behaviors and external reinforcement - ✅ Correct
 18. B) Extinction of the behavior - ✅ Correct
19. B) A student losing points for poor behavior - ❌ This is incorrect. The correct answer is A) A
teacher giving a gold star for correct answers, as negative reinforcement is when you remove
an unpleasant stimulus (e.g., stopping a timeout for good behavior).
20. B) Behaviorism emphasizes observable actions and external reinforcement - ✅ Correct

Behaviorism and Reinforcement Quiz

1. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?

o A) A student gets extra homework for being late to class.
o B) A dog is given a treat for sitting on command.
o C) A child loses TV time for misbehaving.
o D) A teenager is grounded for breaking curfew.
2. Which of the following describes negative reinforcement?
o A) Giving a student a gold star for correct answers.
o B) A child cleans their room to avoid being punished.
o C) A teacher gives a time-out for misbehaving.
o D) A driver receives a ticket for speeding.
3. What is an example of positive punishment?
o A) A teenager loses phone privileges for breaking curfew.
o B) A dog is scolded for chewing shoes.
o C) A student receives praise for good behavior.
o D) A child is given extra playtime for cleaning their room.
4. Which of the following is an example of negative punishment?
o A) A child gets a cookie for completing their homework.
o B) A student is sent to detention for talking in class.
o C) A dog receives a treat for rolling over.
o D) A teenager’s gaming privileges are taken away for not doing chores.
5. What is the main goal of negative punishment in behaviorism?
o A) To increase the likelihood of a behavior happening again
o B) To add a pleasant stimulus to reinforce behavior
o C) To remove a pleasant stimulus to decrease behavior
o D) To add an aversive stimulus to discourage a behavior

Let me know your answers, and I can help you review them!

4o mini
You said:
1b 2b 3b 4d 5c

ChatGPT said:

Let’s check your answers:

1. B) A dog is given a treat for sitting on command. - ✅ Correct

(This is positive reinforcement because a pleasant stimulus—treat—is added to encourage
behavior.)
 2. B) A child cleans their room to avoid being punished. - ✅ Correct
(This is negative reinforcement because an unpleasant stimulus—punishment—is removed by
cleaning the room.)
3. B) A dog is scolded for chewing shoes. - ✅ Correct
(This is positive punishment because an aversive stimulus—a scolding—is added to decrease the
undesirable behavior.)
4. D) A teenager’s gaming privileges are taken away for not doing chores. - ✅ Correct
(This is negative punishment because a pleasant stimulus—gaming—is removed to decrease the
undesirable behavior.)
5. C) To remove a pleasant stimulus to decrease behavior. - ❌ This is incorrect. The correct answer
is C, but the phrasing is a bit confusing in your response. The correct explanation for negative
punishment is that it removes something desirable to decrease behavior. In your case, removing
gaming privileges is the correct example of negative punishment.

1. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of behaviorist theory?

 A) Completely passive learner

 B) Emphasis on creativity
 C) Little room for higher-level learning
 D) Focus on observable behaviors

2. What is the primary focus of behaviorist theory?

 A) Internal cognitive processes

 B) Observable behaviors and external stimuli
 C) Problem-solving and abstract thinking
 D) The development of creativity

3. Which method involves providing learners with immediate feedback after each
practice session?

 A) Programmed Instruction
 B) Drill and Practice
 C) Mastery Learning
 D) Direct Instruction

4. What does Behavior Modification focus on?

 A) Providing feedback only when a task is completed

 B) Shaping behavior through reinforcement or punishment
 C) Encouraging critical thinking and problem-solving
 D) Encouraging creativity and originality

5. In Mastery Learning, what is the primary condition for a learner to move on

to the next topic?
  A) Completion of homework assignments
 B) Mastery of the current knowledge or skill
 C) Participation in class discussions
 D) Random assignment of topics

1b 2b 3b 4b 5b

Here’s a 5-question quiz based on Bloom’s Taxonomy. Choose the correct answer for each!

1. Which level of Bloom’s Taxonomy involves recalling information from

memory?

 A) Understanding
 B) Applying
 C) Remembering
 D) Analyzing

2. Which of the following is an example of a task at the Evaluating level?

 A) Create a new hypothesis to explain a scientific theory.

 B) Summarize the main points of a chapter.
 C) Justify why one solution is better than another.
 D) Recognize the difference between two concepts.

3. Which of the following actions best reflects the Analyzing level?

 A) Define the concept of photosynthesis.

 B) Calculate the area of a triangle.
 C) Compare the causes of two historical events.
 D) Memorize the steps of a process.

4. At which level of Bloom’s Taxonomy would you ask students to "design a new
experiment to test a theory"?

 A) Understanding
 B) Evaluating
 C) Creating
 D) Remembering

5. Which level of Bloom's Taxonomy is focused on using learned knowledge in

new or practical situations?

 A) Applying
 B) Analyzing
 C) Evaluating
 D) Creating
Go ahead and submit your answers!

4o mini
You said:
1 c 2c 3c 4c 5a

. Which of the following is a key principle of cognitivism?

a) Learning through reinforcement and punishment

b) Emphasis on observable behaviors
c) Focus on mental processes like memory and problem-solving
d) Learning through conditioning

2. In the context of cognitivism, which of the following is most important for

long-term memory retention?

a) Immediate feedback
b) Repetition and rehearsal
c) Reinforcement through rewards
d) External motivation

3. Which method involves providing temporary support to students, which is

gradually removed as they become more competent?

a) Concept Mapping
b) Problem Solving
c) Scaffolding
d) Case-Based Learning

4. Which strategy involves organizing information visually to show how different

concepts are related?

a) Problem Solving
b) Inquiry-Based Learning
c) Concept Mapping
d) Metacognitive Strategies
5. Which cognitive process is primarily targeted by metacognitive strategies?

a) Repetition
b) Self-regulation of learning
c) Memory recall
d) Motivation

6. Which of the following is an example of inquiry-based learning?

a) Asking students to memorize facts

b) Encouraging students to ask questions and find answers on their own
c) Providing students with a set of facts to remember
d) Using rewards and punishments to encourage learning

7. What is the goal of problem-solving in cognitivist teaching methods?

a) To memorize facts
b) To think critically and apply knowledge to new situations
c) To get immediate feedback from the teacher
d) To observe others' behavior

8. Which of the following best describes the concept of scaffolding in teaching?

a) Giving students all the answers upfront

b) Providing support and gradually reducing it as the learner becomes more independent
c) Letting students figure everything out on their own
d) Asking students to work in groups without guidance

9. In case-based learning, what is the primary focus of the students?

a) Memorizing facts from textbooks

b) Applying knowledge to real-world scenarios
c) Repeating lessons from earlier stages
d) Focusing solely on theory
10. Which strategy helps learners organize their thoughts and identify
connections between ideas?

a) Scaffolding
b) Concept Mapping
c) Inquiry-Based Learning
d) Drill and Practice

1c 2b 3c 4c 5b 6b 7b 8b 9b 10b

1. Which assessment method requires students to synthesize information and

demonstrate understanding through written responses?

a) Project-Based Assessment
b) Case-Based Assessment
c) Essay Questions
d) Performance Assessment

2. In which assessment method do students apply their learning to solve real-

world problems, often requiring critical thinking?

a) Rubrics and Analytic Assessments

b) Authentic Assessment
c) Problem Solving Tasks
d) Case-Based Assessment

3. What type of assessment involves a task that simulates real-life scenarios to

measure how students can apply their knowledge?

a) Project-Based Assessment
b) Performance Assessment
c) Case-Based Assessment
d) Authentic Assessment
4. Which assessment method uses a structured scoring guide with criteria to
evaluate specific components of student performance?

a) Essay Questions
b) Rubrics and Analytic Assessments
c) Performance Assessments
d) Project-Based Assessment

5. Which of the following is an example of a performance assessment?

a) Writing a research paper

b) Creating a marketing strategy for a company
c) Demonstrating how to conduct an experiment in front of an audience
d) Answering essay questions on a test

1c 2c 3d 4b 5c

1. Which type of learner focuses mainly on memorizing facts and concepts with
little to no effort to understand the material at a deeper level?

a) Deep Learner
b) Strategic Learner
c) Superficial Learner
d) Reflective Learner

2. A student who tries to understand the underlying concepts of the material,

connects new knowledge to existing knowledge, and enjoys exploring the subject
in depth is most likely a:

a) Superficial Learner
b) Strategic Learner
c) Deep Learner
d) Passive Learner

3. Which learner type uses study strategies aimed at achieving high grades,
focusing on the most efficient methods for studying and performing well in
assessments?
a) Deep Learner
b) Superficial Learner
c) Strategic Learner
d) Conceptual Learner

4. A learner who studies the minimum required content just to complete

assignments and pass exams, with little interest in the material itself, is a:

a) Deep Learner
b) Strategic Learner
c) Superficial Learner
d) Motivated Learner

5. A student who actively applies knowledge to real-life situations, seeks to

understand the material at a fundamental level, and enjoys intellectual
challenges is likely a:

a) Superficial Learner
b) Strategic Learner
c) Deep Learner
d) Tactical Learner

1c 2c 3c 4c 5c

Quiz:

1. What is the main focus of constructivist learning? a) Passive reception of information

b) Active creation of meaning by the learner
c) Focus on memorization of facts
d) Repetitive learning through drills
2. In Kolb’s Learning Styles, which type of learner prefers to learn by thinking and analyzing before
taking action? a) Activists
b) Reflectors
c) Theorists
d) Pragmatists
3. According to constructivism, what role does the teacher play? a) Sole provider of knowledge
b) Facilitator or mediator of learning
c) Judge of correct answers
d) Sole evaluator of student progress
 4. In the VARK model, which learning style prefers to learn by reading and writing? a) Visual
b) Auditory
c) Reading/Writing
d) Kinesthetic
5. Which of the following is a key element of cognitive learning theory? a) Focus on observable
behavior
b) Information processing and mental representations
c) Learning through reinforcement
d) Learning based on environmental stimuli
6. Problem-Based Learning (PBL) emphasizes which type of learning? a) Memorization of facts
b) Independent learning and critical thinking
c) Repetitive drills
d) Passive learning from lectures
7. Which type of learner, according to Kolb, is best at using theories to understand complex
situations? a) Activists
b) Reflectors
c) Theorists
d) Pragmatists
8. Collaborative learning in the context of constructivism focuses on: a) Individual learning without
interaction
b) Working together in small groups to solve problems
c) Passive listening to lectures
d) Memorization through repetition
9. Which learning strategy is most aligned with constructivist theory? a) Drill and practice
b) Case-based learning
c) Direct instruction
d) Passive note-taking
10. According to cognitive theory, short-term memory primarily relies on: a) Direct physical
manipulation of information
b) Immediate sensory input and attention
c) In-depth reflection on experiences
d) Repeated reinforcement of behavior

1b 2c 3b 4c 5b 6b 7c 8b 9b 10b

Quiz: Learning Objectives & Outcomes

1. Which of the following best defines a Course Learning Outcome (CLO)?

a) A broad statement outlining program goals
b) A detailed plan for teaching strategy
c) A measurable skill or knowledge a student should acquire by the end of a course
d) A general description of university-level education
2. In the ABCD model of objective writing, which component answers the question "How well must it be
done?"
a) Audience
b) Behavior
c) Condition
d) Degree

3. What distinguishes a Learning Outcome from a Learning Objective?

a) Outcomes are time-bound, objectives are not
b) Objectives are student-centered, outcomes are teacher-centered
c) Outcomes reflect end performance, objectives guide the learning process
d) Objectives cannot be measured

4. Which of the following best represents a Program Educational Objective (PEO)?

a) Students will list the parts of a neuron.
b) Graduates will contribute effectively to multidisciplinary teams in healthcare.
c) Students will complete an essay on ethics.
d) Students will understand muscle mechanics.

5. A teacher writes: "Given a stethoscope, the student will correctly identify abnormal heart sounds in 4
out of 5 cases."
Which part is the Condition in this objective?
a) Given a stethoscope
b) Identify abnormal heart sounds
c) In 4 out of 5 cases
d) The student

6. Which learning domain focuses on the development of emotional maturity and values?
a) Cognitive
b) Psychomotor
c) Affective
d) Behavioral

7. "Student will recall the names of cranial nerves." Which Bloom’s level is this?
a) Apply
b) Analyze
c) Understand
d) Remember

8. The purpose of defining specific learning objectives before a lesson is to:

a) Impress accreditation bodies
b) Guide students on what to memorize
c) Provide direction and measurable learning outcomes
d) Allow students to plan the lecture

9. Which of the following best represents a Behavior in the ABCD model?

a) The student
b) Demonstrate CPR technique
c) With proper equipment
d) With 100% accuracy

10. SLOs (Session Learning Outcomes) are:

a) Measurable skills at the end of a degree
b) Specific targets for each session aligned with CLOs
c) Broad vision goals of an institution
d) Student's personal goals for studying

11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective learning outcomes?

a) Measurable
b) Observable
c) Ambiguous
d) Aligned with course goals

12. "By the end of the degree, graduates will be able to apply evidence-based practices in clinical
settings." This is an example of:
a) CLO
b) SLO
c) PEO
d) PLO
13. In Bloom’s Taxonomy, the level just above 'Understand' is:
a) Remember
b) Apply
c) Evaluate
d) Analyze

14. Which of these verbs should be avoided when writing learning objectives due to being
unmeasurable?
a) Define
b) Appreciate
c) Demonstrate
d) Identify

15. Which domain would be emphasized in training a student to safely perform manual therapy
techniques?
a) Affective
b) Psychomotor
c) Cognitive
d) Behavioral

Let me know your answers, and I’ll evaluate them with explanations like last time 😊

4o
You said:
1c 2d 3c 4b 5c 6c 7d 8c 9b 10d 11c 12d 13b 14b 15b

ChatGPT said:

Great job! Let's check your answers one by one, with explanations so you really lock in the concepts:

✅ Your Answers & Feedback

1. c – ✅ Correct
CLOs are specific, measurable outcomes expected from students at the end of a course.
2. d – ✅ Correct
In the ABCD model, Degree refers to the performance standard or how well the learner should perform.

3. c – ✅ Correct
Learning outcomes describe the end result (what a student can do), while objectives guide the process.

4. b – ✅ Correct
PEOs describe what graduates are expected to achieve several years after graduation, like contributing
to teams.

5. c – ✅ Correct
"In 4 out of 5 cases" represents the degree, but the condition is "Given a stethoscope" → Oops! ❌
✅ Correct Answer: a (So your answer is incorrect here.)

6. c – ✅ Correct
The Affective Domain relates to attitudes, values, and emotional development.

7. d – ✅ Correct
Recalling names is a classic Remembering level activity from Bloom’s Taxonomy.

8. c – ✅ Correct
Learning objectives guide instruction and help in planning, assessing, and aligning the lesson.

9. b – ✅ Correct
Behavior is the action performed by the student—"demonstrate CPR technique" is clearly observable.
10. d – ❌ Incorrect
Correct answer is b: SLOs are specific learning outcomes for each lecture/session, aligned with CLOs.

11. c – ✅ Correct
Ambiguous outcomes are not effective. Learning outcomes must be clear and measurable.

12. d – ✅ Correct
This is a Program Learning Outcome (PLO)—applied at the end of a program, broader than CLOs.

13. b – ✅ Correct
After "Understand," comes "Apply" in Bloom’s revised taxonomy.

14. b – ✅ Correct
"Appreciate" is not measurable, so it should be avoided in objectives.

15. b – ✅ Correct
Psychomotor Domain covers physical and motor skills like manual therapy techniques.

Multiple-Choice Quiz on Gagné's Nine Events of Instruction

1. Gain Attention

Why is it important to "gain attention" in the first step of Gagné’s Nine Events of Instruction?

A) It ensures that learners are passively involved in the lesson.

B) It helps learners start thinking about the topic but does not impact long-term memory.
C) It actively engages learners, preparing them for subsequent learning.
D) It distracts learners from their previous knowledge, allowing them to focus on new content.

2. Inform Learners of Objectives

Which of the following is the most effective way to inform learners of the learning objectives in a way
that enhances motivation?
A) Providing a detailed outline of the lesson without focusing on specific goals.
B) Telling learners that they will learn “something useful.”
C) Clearly stating what learners will be able to do after the lesson, emphasizing personal relevance and
real-world application.
D) Focusing on abstract and theoretical goals without connecting them to learner interests.

3. Stimulate Recall of Prior Knowledge

In the "stimulate recall of prior knowledge" event, which of the following methods is most effective in
helping learners connect new information to their existing knowledge?

A) Asking learners to memorize all the new facts without reference to prior learning.
B) Providing a list of key terms to memorize and then proceeding with the lesson.
C) Asking open-ended questions or using concept maps to trigger related knowledge.
D) Giving a short lecture with no engagement from learners.

4. Present the Content

When presenting content, which of the following best aligns with Cognitive Load Theory to ensure
information is processed efficiently?

A) Presenting a large volume of information at once with minimal visual aids.

B) Breaking content into smaller, manageable chunks and using visual aids like diagrams or infographics.
C) Using long, uninterrupted lectures without interactive elements.
D) Overloading the learners with as much information as possible to promote deep learning.

5. Provide Learning Guidance

Which instructional strategy aligns best with Gagné’s "Provide Learning Guidance" event, based on
Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development (ZPD)?

A) Giving learners an unsolved problem and letting them figure it out on their own without any support.
B) Presenting examples, giving clear instructions, and offering hints to guide learners through
challenging tasks.
C) Asking learners to perform tasks without feedback or guidance.
D) Providing a detailed answer key at the beginning of the lesson for learners to follow.
6. Elicit Performance (Practice)

Which of the following practices aligns best with Gagné's "Elicit Performance" and ensures active
learning?

A) Asking learners to write a summary of what they learned at the end of the session.
B) Encouraging learners to complete exercises that involve applying the concepts, such as solving
problems or creating projects.
C) Reviewing all content again without engaging learners in practical application.
D) Providing a lecture with no opportunities for active involvement.

7. Provide Feedback

Which of the following is the most effective way to provide feedback that aligns with Gagné’s "Provide
Feedback" event?

A) Giving only positive feedback without addressing areas for improvement.

B) Providing feedback after learners have completed an assessment, focusing on specific errors and
areas to improve.
C) Offering feedback only after the final assessment has been graded.
D) Providing generic feedback that applies to all students without considering individual performance.

8. Assess Performance

What is the primary purpose of assessing performance in Gagné’s model?

A) To measure learners’ understanding at the end of the lesson without any further guidance.
B) To identify areas where learners may be struggling and provide them with more practice.
C) To compare learners to each other and grade them accordingly.
D) To give students a final grade that summarizes their progress.

9. Enhance Retention and Transfer

Which of the following strategies is most effective for enhancing retention and transfer of learned
material, as per Gagné’s final event?

A) Focusing on isolated facts without connecting them to real-world applications.

B) Giving learners opportunities to revisit concepts in spaced intervals and apply them in new contexts.
C) Repeating the content in the same exact form without encouraging students to apply it elsewhere.
D) Allowing learners to passively review the content without testing their application in different
situations.
Answers:

1. C – Gaining attention prepares learners for active participation and engagement in the lesson.
2. C – Clearly stating the objectives and relating them to personal or real-world relevance enhances
motivation.
3. C – Using open-ended questions or concept maps helps activate prior knowledge and makes
connections easier.
4. B – Breaking information into smaller chunks with visual aids ensures cognitive load is managed
effectively.
5. B – Providing examples, instructions, and hints ensures learners can complete tasks within their
ZPD, gradually increasing difficulty.
6. B – Encouraging learners to actively apply concepts in exercises is key to practice and skill
development.
7. B – Providing specific feedback after learners have completed tasks helps them understand
where they can improve.
8. B – Assessing performance helps identify learner struggles and provides data for further
learning.
9. B – Spaced repetition and application in varied contexts are crucial for transferring knowledge
beyond the learning environment.

MCQ Quiz on Assessment Principles, Types, and Tools

1. What is the primary purpose of formative assessment?

 A) To assign grades
 B) To measure final learning outcomes
 C) To monitor ongoing student progress and provide feedback
 D) To compare students against each other

2. Which of the following is an example of criterion-referenced assessment?

 A) SAT
 B) GRE
 C) A final exam in a biology course measuring mastery of the subject
 D) IQ test

3. What does the term "reliability" in assessment refer to?

 A) Whether the assessment measures what it is intended to measure

 B) The consistency of the assessment results over time
 C) The cost-effectiveness of the assessment
 D) The feedback provided to the learner
4. Which of the following is a key characteristic of norm-referenced assessments?

 A) Students are compared against a set standard

 B) Results are compared with peers to determine relative performance
 C) The goal is to assess mastery of learning outcomes
 D) The focus is on individual improvement, not comparison

5. What does "validity" in assessment measure?

 A) The ability of an assessment to give the same result every time

 B) The fairness of the assessment process
 C) The degree to which an assessment measures what it is supposed to measure
 D) The ease of administration of the test

6. In which type of assessment is feedback provided continuously throughout the learning

process?

 A) Summative assessment
 B) Diagnostic assessment
 C) Formative assessment
 D) Criterion-referenced assessment

7. Which of the following is an example of a summative assessment?

 A) A quiz at the end of each week

 B) A comprehensive final exam
 C) Continuous observations throughout a semester
 D) Peer evaluations during a group project

8. What is the purpose of diagnostic assessment?

 A) To evaluate overall performance at the end of a course

 B) To identify areas of strength and weakness before starting a learning program
 C) To compare students' performance to that of their peers
 D) To grade students based on set criteria

9. Which of the following is a characteristic of programmatic assessment?

 A) It only uses one assessment tool at the end of the course

 B) It includes continuous, ongoing assessments with feedback
 C) It evaluates learners’ final exam performance exclusively
 D) It relies on subjective opinions of the instructor

10. In which type of assessment are results used to rank learners relative to each other?

 A) Criterion-referenced assessment
  B) Diagnostic assessment
 C) Norm-referenced assessment
 D) Formative assessment

11. Which of the following is an example of an authentic assessment tool?

 A) Multiple-choice exam
 B) Group project presentation
 C) Standardized test
 D) Short-answer quiz

12. Which of the following is a tool typically used for formative assessment?

 A) Final exam
 B) Peer assessment
 C) Entrance exam
 D) Graded essay

13. What does "feasibility" in an assessment refer to?

 A) Whether the assessment measures the right skills

 B) The practicality of administering the assessment given time and resources
 C) Whether the assessment results in valid outcomes
 D) The reliability of feedback

14. What is an example of a norm-referenced assessment tool?

 A) A licensing exam in which all candidates must achieve a minimum score

 B) A university entrance exam where students are ranked by score
 C) A test of basic skills designed to assess student competency
 D) A portfolio review where students' work is assessed against a rubric

15. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a portfolio as an assessment

tool?

 A) It allows for a single test at the end of the course

 B) It provides a comprehensive view of a learner’s progress over time
 C) It compares students’ abilities to a standard scale
 D) It gives standardized results across different groups of students

16. Which of the following would be an example of criterion-referenced assessment?

 A) A student's final grade based on the percentage of correct answers

 B) An assessment that compares students' results to the performance of others
 C) A written test determining if a student has mastered a set of learning objectives
 D) A comparative ranking of students from highest to lowest performing
17. Which of the following is a valid reason for using peer assessment as an evaluation tool?

 A) To compare individual students' performance against each other

 B) To allow students to assess their peers’ progress and give feedback
 C) To test how well students perform on a standardized exam
 D) To minimize the need for instructors to assess students

18. In standard setting, which of the following is a key goal?

 A) To rank students based on relative performance

 B) To determine the minimum passing score or competency level
 C) To assess students only through written exams
 D) To ensure the highest scoring students are the only ones selected

19. Which of the following best describes the concept of reproducibility in assessment?

 A) The ability to produce consistent results across different examiners or testing times
 B) The ability to align assessments with specific learning outcomes
 C) The ability to have different assessment methods to choose from
 D) The clarity of the assessment instructions for students

20. What is the main advantage of task-based assessment?

 A) It is easy to administer to a large group of students

 B) It tests specific skills or knowledge by having students complete real-world tasks
 C) It measures how much content students can memorize
 D) It compares students' results against a standard test

Answers:

1. C) To monitor ongoing student progress and provide feedback

2. C) A final exam in a biology course measuring mastery of the subject
3. B) The consistency of the assessment results over time
4. B) Results are compared with peers to determine relative performance
5. C) The degree to which an assessment measures what it is supposed to measure
6. C) Formative assessment
7. B) A comprehensive final exam
8. B) To identify areas of strength and weakness before starting a learning program
9. B) It includes continuous, ongoing assessments with feedback
10. C) Norm-referenced assessment
11. B) Group project presentation
12. B) Peer assessment
13. B) The practicality of administering the assessment given time and resources
14. B) A university entrance exam where students are ranked by score
 15. B) It provides a comprehensive view of a learner’s progress over time
16. C) A written test determining if a student has mastered a set of learning objectives
17. B) To allow students to assess their peers’ progress and give feedback
18. B) To determine the minimum passing score or competency level
19. A) The ability to produce consistent results across different examiners or testing times
20. B) It tests specific skills or knowledge by having students complete real-world tasks

🧠 Advanced MCQs on Miller’s Pyramid & Feedback in Clinical Education

1. A clinical instructor observes a student effectively managing a patient with congestive heart failure
during a real hospital shift, adjusting the treatment plan based on evolving symptoms. According to
Miller’s Pyramid, which level of clinical competence is being demonstrated?

A) Knows
B) Knows How
C) Shows How
D) Does

2. A student performs a history and physical exam, interprets diagnostic data, and proposes a
management plan during a simulated case in an OSCE. According to Miller’s framework, what level of
competence is this?

A) Knows
B) Knows How
C) Shows How
D) Does

3. A resident is told: “You clearly explained the treatment options to the patient, but you missed
asking about allergies, which is crucial. Next time, start your history with a standard checklist
including allergies.” This is an example of:

A) Norm-referenced assessment
B) Feedback based on Miller's 'Does' level
C) A feedback sandwich
D) Criterion-referenced judgment
4. Which of the following best reflects the difference between the "Knows How" and "Shows How"
levels of Miller's Pyramid?

A) "Knows How" reflects factual recall; "Shows How" is application in real patients
B) "Knows How" involves cognitive application; "Shows How" involves skill demonstration in simulations
or observed settings
C) Both involve real-time clinical performance
D) "Shows How" is only assessed via multiple-choice questions

5. A preceptor uses this strategy: First asks the learner to reflect on their clinical performance, then
shares their own observations, and finally works with the learner to create an improvement plan. This
feedback approach is best described as:

A) Feedback by sandwich technique

B) Reflective self-assessment model
C) Learner-centered feedback strategy
D) Miller’s "Knows How" level application

Would you like me to check your answers afterward? 😊

4o
You said:
1d 2 c 3c 4b 5a

ChatGPT said:

Awesome—let’s check how you did! 🧐

✅ Correct Answers & Explanations

1. A clinical instructor observes a student effectively managing a patient with congestive heart failure
during a real hospital shift, adjusting the treatment plan based on evolving symptoms. According to
Miller’s Pyramid, which level of clinical competence is being demonstrated?
Your Answer: D) Does ✅ Correct!
👉 This reflects real-world, unsupervised clinical practice—“Does” is about routine clinical performance.
2. A student performs a history and physical exam, interprets diagnostic data, and proposes a
management plan during a simulated case in an OSCE.
Your Answer: C) Shows How ✅ Correct!
👉 This is a demonstration in a controlled/simulated setting—clearly “Shows How”.

3. A resident is told: “You clearly explained the treatment options to the patient, but you missed
asking about allergies... Next time... use a checklist.”
Your Answer: C) A feedback sandwich ✅ Correct!
👉 Positive comment ➕ area to improve ➕ constructive advice = textbook feedback sandwich 🥪.

4. Which of the following best reflects the difference between the "Knows How" and "Shows How"
levels of Miller's Pyramid?
Your Answer: B) "Knows How" involves cognitive application; "Shows How" involves skill
demonstration in simulations or observed settings ✅ Correct!
👉 Beautifully put—this is the conceptual vs. demonstrative difference.

5. A preceptor uses this strategy: First asks the learner to reflect... shares feedback... creates a plan.
This is best described as:
Your Answer: A) Feedback by sandwich technique ❌ Incorrect

❗Correct Answer: C) Learner-centered feedback strategy

👉 While it has elements of the sandwich, the described process (starting with learner’s reflection, then
instructor's input, then co-developing a plan) matches the 3-step learner-centered feedback model.