20-07-2025

1001CMD303001250021 MD

PHYSICS

1) Four particles A, B, C and D are moving with constant speed v each. At the instant shown relative

velocity of A with respect to B, C and D are in directions :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Two cars A and B are moving in same direction with velocities 15 m/s and 5 m/s. When car A is at
a distance d behind the car B, the driver of the car A applies brakes producing uniform retardation
of 2.5 m/s2. There will be no collision when:-

(1) d < 2 m
(2) d > 2 m
(3) d > 20 m
(4) d < 80 m

3) Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of 35 m/s. Wind starts blowing after some time
with a speed of 12 m/s in East to West direction. The direction in which a boy standing at the place
should hold his umbrella is:

(1)
w.r.t. wind

(2)
w.r.t. rain

(3)
w.r.t. wind

(4)
w.r.t. rain
4) Two cars A and B are moving with same speed of 45 km/hr along same direction. If a third car C
coming from the opposite direction with a speed of 36 km/hr meets two cars in an interval of 5
minutes, the distance of separation of two cars A and B should be (in km) :-

(1) 6.75
(2) 7.25
(3) 5.55
(4) 8.35

5) A train 100 m long travelling at 40 m/s overtakes another train 200 m long travelling at 30 m/s.
The time taken by the first train to pass the second train is:-

(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

6) A ball is dropped from top of a building. Simultaneously another ball is thrown up. The graph
between the relative velocity of balls and time will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A lift whose floor to ceiling distance is 2.7 m, starts ascending with constant acceleration 0.2 m/s2.
After 2 seconds of start a bolt begins to fall from ceiling. The time in which bolt will strike floor of lift
:- (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1)
(2) 6 s
(3) 0.7 s
(4) 1 s
8) Two bodies are held separated by 9.8 m vertically one above the other. They are released
simultaneously to fall freely under gravity. After 2 s distance between them is :-

(1) 4.9 m
(2) 19.6 m
(3) 9.8 m
(4) 39.2m

9) A bus begins to move with an acceleration of 1 ms–2 and at the same time, a man who is 48 m
behind the bus starts running at 10 ms–1 to catch the bus. The man will be able to catch the bus after
:-

(1) 6 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 3 s
(4) 8 s

10) Two bodies are thrown simultaneously from a tower with same initial velocity v0, one vertically
upwards, the other vertically downwards. The distance between the two bodies after time t is :

(1)

(2) 2v0t

(3)

(4) v0t

11) Rain is falling at angle 37o with vertical with speed 20 m/s find the speed with which a person
holding an umbrella vertically should move horizontally to avoid rain :-

(1) 16 m/s
(2) 12 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

12) A circular ring of mass 6 kg and radius a is placed such that its centre lies at the origin. Two
particles of mass 2 kg each are placed at the intersecting points of the circle with + ve x-axis and
+ve y-axis. Then the angle made by the position vector of centre of mass of entire system with x-axis
is :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) tan–1(4/5)
(4) 30°

13) A quarter sector of a uniform disc of radius R is shown in figure. The coordinates of center of
mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In the figure shown find out the distance of centre of mass of a system of a uniform circular plate
of radius 3 R from O in which a hole of radius R is cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of

large circular plate :-

(1) R/4
(2) R/5
(3) R/2
(4) none of these

15) For the system shown in the figure the acceleration of centre of mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides the distance between them
(1) In inverse ratio of square of masses of particles
(2) In direct ratio of square of masses of particles
(3) In inverse ratio of masses of particles
(4) In direct ratio of masses of particles

17) The position of centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend on :

(1) masses of the particles

(2) Internal forces on the partices
(3) position of the particles
(4) relative distance between the particles

18) Two particles of equal masses have velocities and . The first particle
has an acceleration , while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The
centre of mass of the two particles moves in a :

(1) Circle
(2) Parabola
(3) Straight line
(4) Ellipse

19) Initially two stable particles x and y start moving towards each other under mutual attraction. If
at one time the velocities of x and y are 3V and 4V respectively, what will be the velocity of centre of
mass of the system ?

(1) V
(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

20) Blocks A and B kept on a smooth horizontal surface are given equal speeds of 2 m/s in opposite

sense as shown in the figure. At t = 0 the position of blocks are

shown, then the coordinates of Centre of mass of system of two blocks, at t = 3s will be :-

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (3, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) (2.25, 0)

21) A ball of mass m falls vertically to the ground from a height h1 and rebound to a height h2. The
change in momentum of the ball on striking the ground is :-

(1) mg(h1 – h2)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) A balloon of mass M with a light rope and monkey of mass m are at rest in mid air. If the monkey
climbs up the rope and reaches the top of the rope, the distance by which the balloon descends will
be :-

(The length of the rope = L )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle of mass 2kg moves in free space such that its position vector varies with time as

where t is in seconds. Net force acting on the particle is

(1) zero
(2) parallel to x-axis
(3) parallel to y-axis
(4) time dependent

24) A string of mass m is placed on smooth horizontal surface as

shown in figure. Find tension at mid point :-

(1)

(2)

(3) F1 + F2
(4) Zero

25)
A block of mass 'm' is kept on top of an inclined plane. The whole system is kept inside an elevator.
The block is released from top of the inclined. Find out the time taken by the block to reach the
bottom of inclined plane if the elevator is going upwards with acceleration a0 as shown in figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A 60 kg monkey, climbs on a rope which can withstand a maximum tension of 900 N. The case in
which the rope will break if the monkey

(1) Climbs up with acceleration of 6 m/s2

(2) Climbs down with acceleration of 4 m/s2
(3) Climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s
(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity

27) Find out the reading of spring balance in the system shown in figure.

(1) Zero
(2) 30 kg
(3) 15 kg
(4) 7.5 kg

28) Two bodies of mass 4kg and 6kg are attached to the ends of a string passing over a pulley. The 4
kg mass is attached to the table top by another string. The tension in this string T1 is equal to ; Take
g = 10 m/s2 ?

(1) 20 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 10.6 N
(4) 10 N

29) A block of mass 10 kg is suspended through two light spring balances as shown in the figure.

(1) Both the scales will read 10 kg.

(2) Both the scales will read 5 kg.
(3) The upper scale will read 10 kg and the lower zero.
(4) The reading may be anything but their sum will be 10 kg.

30) A sphere of mass 'm' is kept in equilibrium with the help of several springs as shown in the
figure. Measurements show that the spring 1 applies a force on the sphere. With what
acceleration sphere with immediately after this particular spring '1' is cut ?

(1) zero

(2)

(3)
(4) insufficient information

31) Three equal masses P, Q and R are pulled with a constant force F. They are connected to each

other with strings. The ratio of the tension between PQ and QR is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 3 : 1

32)

A man, of mass 60 kg, is riding in a lift. The ratio of the apparent weights of the man when the lift
is accelerating upwards and downwards at 2 m/s2 is:-(Taking g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) none of these

33) If force Then impulse as a function of time will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) Rocket propulsion is associated with

(1) The conservation of the angular momentum

(2) The conservation of the mass
(3) The conservationof the mechanical energy
(4) Newton’s III law of motion

35) A block of metal weighing 2kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing
water at a rate of 1 kg/s with a speed of 5 m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will be :

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) None of these

36) In the given diagram, the tension in string C is:-

(Take = 1.41)

(1) 100 N
(2) 70.7 N
(3) 141 N
(4) 200 N

37) The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force-time graphs shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :

(1) 24 Ns
(2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns
(4) 8 Ns

38) Whole system shown is at rest. Pulley and string are massless. Net force on the pulley by the

string is

(1) 200 N
(2)
(3) 0
(4) 220 N

39) Find the time in which 2kg mass will strike the pulley after being released from rest :
(1) 10 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 5 sec
(4) 4 sec

40) If α = sin βt, find dimensions of α/β.

(Here, V = velocity, F = force, t = time)

(1) [M–1LT]
(2) [MLT–1]
(3) [M–1L–1T]
(4) [ML–1T]

41) Density of a material in CGS system is 8 gm/cm3. In a system of a unit in which unit of length is 5
cm and unit of mass is 20 gm. The density of a material is :-

(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 50
(4) 80

42) If P = A sin bt + C cos dt, where P is pressure then choose correct option :

(1)
dimensions of are same as
(2) A & b have same dimensions

(3)
& have different dimensions
(4) All are correct

43) Match the column –

Column-I Column-II
0
(a) Planck constant (p) [M1L T–2]
0 0
(b) Gravitation constant (q) [M L T–1]

(c) Spring force constant (r) [M1L2T–1]

(d) Velocity gradient (s) [M–1L3T–2]

(1) (a) – q, (b) – p, (c) – s, (d) – r
(2) (a) – p, (b) – r, (c) – q, (d) – s
(3) (a) – s, (b) – r, (c) – p, (d) – q
(4) (a) – r, (b) – s, (c) – p, (d) – q
44) If vibration frequency f of the star is given by the following equation : f = KRa ρb Gc where R is
the radius of star, ρ is the density of star, G is the universal gravitational constant and K is a
dimensionless constant, then (b + c) is equal to -

(1) 2
(2) 2.5
(3) 1
(4) 1.5

45) If we change unit of a physical quantity then :-

(1) Its dimension changes

(2) Its dimension remain same
(3) It may change or may not change
(4) Its magnitude changes

CHEMISTRY

1) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C,
38.71% and H, 9.67% and O, 51.62%. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

2)

What mass of methanol can be produced by reacting 1120 L of H2(g) at STP with excess of CO(g) ?
2H2(g) + CO(g) → CH3OH (ℓ)

(1) 200 g
(2) 400 g
(3) 600 g
(4) 800 g

3) In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3, what will be the number of moles of product formed,
starting from one mole of A, 0.6 mole of B and 0.72 mole of C ?

(1) 0.24
(2) 2.32
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.3

4) Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume. The ratio by volume of oxygen to air at STP required
for compute combustion of 20 g benzene :-
(1) 5
(2) 1.5
(3) 2
(4) 0.2

5) 500 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of O2 gave 2.5 L of CO2 and 3.0 L of water
vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C4H8
(2) C4H10
(3) C5H10
(4) C5H12

6) Find volume of CO2(g) produced at STP on combustion of 3 g of C2H6 :-

(1) 4.48 litre

(2) 89.6 litre
(3) 44.8 litre
(4) None

7) The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 gram of CaC2 with water:-
CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2(g)

(1) 70 litre
(2) 35 litre
(3) 90 litre
(4) 22.4 litre

8) A mixture of 100 g of H2 and 100 g O2 is ignited so that water is formed. How much amount of
water is formed by this mixture?

(1) 100 g
(2) 112.5 g
(3) 200 g
(4) 50 g

9) Find moles of CO2 that can be produced by dissociation of 20 g 50% pure CaCO3 sample.

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.01
(4) 0.02

10) If 50 mL of 0.2 M KOH is added to 40 mL of 0.5 M HCOOH, the pH of the resulting solution is (Ka
= 1.8 × 10–4) :-
(1) 3.75
(2) 5.6
(3) 7.5
(4) 3.4

11) 40 mL of 0·1 M ammonia solution is mixed with 20 mL of 0·1 M HCl. What is the pH of the
mixture
(pKb of ammonia solution is 4·74) :-

(1) 4·74
(2) 2·26
(3) 9·26
(4) 5·00

12) Assertion :- On mixing equal volumes of 1 M HCl and 2 M CH3COONa, an acidic buffer solution
is formed
Reason :- The resultant mixture contains CH3COOH and CH3COONa which are parts of acidic
buffer.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

13) Actual mass of an oxygen molecule is –

(1) 32g
(2) 5.31 × 10–23g
(3) 1.67 × 10–24g
(4) 4.3 × 10–23g

14) Gram atomic weight of nitrogen is.

(1) 14 amu
(2) 14 g
(3) 28 amu
(4) 28 g

15) Which of the following has highest mass :

(1) 1 g molecule of CO2

(2) 0.5 mole of CH4
(3) 1 mole of H2O
(4) 6.023 × 1023 atoms of oxygen

16) Degree of Hydrolysis of the following pair of salts will not be affected by dilution
(1) Na2S, BaCl2
(2) CH3COONH4, (NH4)2 SO4
(3) NH4CN, CH3COONH4
(4) Na2SO4, CH3COONH4

17) The pH of 10–8 M solution of HCl in water is :-

(1) 8
(2) –8
(3) Between 7 and 8
(4) Between 6 and 7.

18) Assertion (A) :- Weak acids have very strong conjugate bases while strong acids have weak
conjugate bases.
Reason (R) :- Conjugate acid-base pair differ only by one proton.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

19) What is the pH of a saturated solution of Cu(OH)2? (Ksp = 32 × 10–18) :-

(1) 6.1
(2) 7.30
(3) 8.20
(4) 8.60

20) The pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid which is 1% ionised
is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 11

21) How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?

(1) 0.1 L
(2) 0.9 L
(3) 2.0 L
(4) 9.0 L

22) A weak base MOH of 0.1 N concentration shows a pH value of 9. What is the percentage degree
of ionization of the base:-
(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.001%
(3) 0.1%
(4) 0.02%

23) On addition of ammonium chloride to a solution of ammonium hydroxide :

(1) dissociation of NH4OH increases

(2) concentration of OH– increases
(3) concentration of OH– decreases
+ –
(4) concentration of NH4 and OH decreases

24) The pH of a solution at 90°C is 6.89. The solution would be:-

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Can't predict

25) Choose the wrong statement :-

For a neutral solution :

(1)
[H+] = [OH–] =
For an acidic solution :
(2)
[H+] > and [OH–] <
For a basic solution :
(3)
[H+] < and [OH–] >
For a neutral solution at all temperatures :
(4)
[H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M

26)

The pH of netural water at 25°C is 7.0. As the temperature increases, however, the concentration of
H+ ions and OH– ions are equal. What will be the pH of pure water at 60°C?

(1) Equal to 7.0

(2) Greater than 7.0
(3) Less than 7.0
(4) Equal to zero

27) The dissociation constants & of H2A are 3.0 × 10–4 and 1.8 × 10–5 respectively. The
overall dissociation constant of the acid will be:-

(1) 6.8 × 10–9

(2) 5.4 × 10–9
(3) 5.4 × 10–20
(4) none

28)

Consider the following salts. Which one(s) when dissolved in water will produce an acidic solution?
(I) NH4Cl (II) AgNO3

(III) NaCN (IV) KNO3

(1) II and III
(2) I and II
(3) only III
(4) II and IV

29)

Which salt does not undergo hydrolysis :-

(1) NH4NO3
(2) NH4CN
(3) NaCN
(4) NaNO3

30) Conjugate base of HSO4– ion is :-

(1) H2SO4
–2
(2) CO3
–2
(3) SO4
(4) None

31) Which of the following is most soluble ?

–70
(1) Bi2S3(Ksp = 1 × 10 )
–16
(2) MnS(Ksp = 7 × 10 )
–37
(3) CuS(Ksp = 8 × 10 )
–51
(4) Ag2S(Ksp = 6 × 10 )

32)

Calculate the solubility of silver phosphate (Ag3PO4) in 0.10M AgNO3 ?

(Ksp of Ag3PO4 = 1.1 × 10–16)

(1) 0.10 M
(2) 4.1 × 10–15 M
(3) 1.1 × 10–15 M
(4) 1.1 × 10–13 M
33) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Fe(OH)3 (i) Ksp = s2

(B) Ag2CrO4 (ii) Ksp = 27 s4

(C) CH3COOAg (iii) Ksp = 108 s

5

(D) Ca3(PO4)2
3
(iv) Ksp = 4s
(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)
(3) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
(4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii)

34) The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10. Precipitation of AgCl will occur only when equal
volumes of solutions of :

(1) 10–4 M Ag+ and 10–4 M Cl– are mixed

(2) 10–7 M Ag+ and 10–7 M Cl– are mixed
(3) 10–5 M Ag+ and 10–5 M Cl– are mixed
(4) 2 × 10–5 M Ag+ and 2 × 10–5 M Cl– are mixed

35)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

36) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

37) Which does not follow newland octave rule :-

(1) Na, Mg, Al

(2) Be, Mg, Ca
(3) C, Si
(4) F, Cl

38) Which of the following are anomalous pairs of elements in Mendeleev's periodic table?
(1) Co, Ni
(2) Ar, K
(3) Th, Pa
(4) All

39) IUPAC name of the element which discovered recently and belongs to halogen family?

(1) Uus
(2) Uuq
(3) Unu
(4) Uue

40) Which of the following set of atomic numbers represent representative elements ?

(1) 5, 13, 30, 53

(2) 5, 17, 31, 54
(3) 11, 33, 58, 84
(4) 9, 31, 53, 83

41) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table ?

(1) Z=23, Z=31

(2) Z=65, Z=66
(3) Z=52, Z=87
(4) Z=58, Z=46

42) Which group of elements follow triad rule?

(1) H, F, Cl
(2) Li, Na, K
(3) Cl, Br, I
(4) All

43) Position of noble gases in long form of periodic table according to IUPAC :-

(1) Zero group

(2) 18th group
(3) VIII A
(4) Absent in long form of periodic table

44) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic No.) (Block)

(a) 52 (p) s-block

 (b) 56 (q) p-block

(c) 57 (r) d-block

(d) 60 (s) f-block

(1) a–(q), b–(p), c–(r), d–(s)
(2) a–(r), b–(p), c–(q), d–(s)
(3) a–(p), b–(r), c–(q), d–(s)
(4) a–(q), b–(r), c–(p), d–(s)

45)

In the sixth period, the orbitals are filled as-

(1) 6s,5f,6d,6p
(2) 6s,4f,5d,6p
(3) 5s,5p,5d,6p
(4) 6s,6p,6d,6f

BIOLOGY

1) Which is commonly called "Drosophila of plant kingdom" ?

(1) Morchella
(2) Neurospora
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Claviceps

2) Clamp connections are present in :-

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Phycomycetes

3) The common members of deuteromycetes are :-

(1) Albugo, Rhizopus and Mucor

(2) Ustilago and Puccinia
(3) Trichoderma, Rhizopus and Alternaria
(4) Colletotrichum and Trichoderma

4) Which is not correct matching :

(1) Rust → Puccinia

(2) Yeast → Bread and Beer production
(3) Chrysophyte → Diatomaceous earth
(4) Penicillium → Red tide

5) Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on mustard ?

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Albugo
(3) Agaricus
(4) Neurospora

6) Deutromycetes are commonly called imperfect fungi because :

(1) Only sexual phases of these fungi are known.

(2) Both sexual and asexual phases are known.
(3) Only asexual or vegetative phases are known.
(4) They possess fruiting bodies.

7) Read the following statement (A-D).

(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin.
(B) Most fungi are heterotrophic
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association with algae as lichens and with roots of higher
plants as mycorrhiza
(D) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy
How many of the above statement are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

8) Statement-I : Asexual spore are generally absent in basidiomycetes.

Statement-II : Sex organ are absent in basidiomycetes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

9)

Septate and branched mycelium is found in :-

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) All the above
10) Select the incorrect match:

(1) Conidia — Asexual spore

(2) Sporangiospore — Asexual spore
(3) Ascospore — Asexual spore
(4) Oospore — Sexual spore

11) Match the following:

List - I List - II

(I) Viroid (A) Nucleoprotein

(II) Virus (B) Infectious protein

(III) Prion (C) Infectious RNA

(IV) Lichen (D) Algae + Fungi

(1) I - C, II - A, III - B, IV - D
(2) I - A, II - B, III - C, IV - D
(3) I - D, II - A, III - B, IV - C
(4) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D

12) Read the given statements and answer the question.

(i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(ii) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and septate.
(iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously.
(iv) Sexual spores are ascospores produced endogenously.
(v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
Identify the correct class of fungi which possess all the above given characteristics.

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Sac fungi
(3) Club fungi
(4) Fungi imperfecti

13) Which of the following is not a sexual spore

(a) Sporangiospore (b) Ascospore
(c) Basidiospore (d) Oospore
(e) Zygospore

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) only (a)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (d) and (e)

14) Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) T.O. Diener – Viroids are found to be a free DNA.

(2) W.M. Stanley – Crystallised proteins.
(3) M.W. Beijerinck – Contagium vivum fluidum.
(4) D.J. Ivanowsky – Microbes smaller than a bacteria cause mosaic disease of tobacco.

15) Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in humans occur due to :-

(1) Bacterium
(2) Virus
(3) Viroid
(4) Prion

16) Identify the A and B shown in the given figure-

(1) A-DNA, B-Capsid

(2) A-RNA, B-DNA
(3) A-Capsid, B-RNA
(4) A-RNA, B-Capsid

17) Lichens are important ecological indicator because they are :

(1) Highly sensitive to air pollution

(2) Resistance to environmental changes
(3) Adapted to extreme temperature
(4) Predatory organism

18) Which of the following is not correct :-

(1) Fungi can be parasite and saprophytes

(2) Viruses can be parasite or saprophyte
(3) Mycoplasma can survive in absence of oxygen
(4) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll "a"

19) Match the Column-A with Column-B

Column-A Column-B

a. Phycobiont p. Fungal component

b. Mycobiont q. Viroid

c. Potato spindle tuber disease r. Algal component

d. Obligate parasite s. Virus

(1) a – r; b – p; c – s; d – q
(2) a – p; b – s; c – q; d – r
(3) a – r; b – p; c – q; d – s
(4) a – s; b – p; c – q; d – r

20) Match the following columns correctly: -

Column I Column II

(a) Capsule (i) Extranuclear genetic material

(b) Flagella (ii) Attachment to host tissues

(c) Fimbriae (iii) Protect from WBC

(d) Plasmid (iv) Play role in motility

(1) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv

21) Find out the incorrect match of the following :

(1) Eubacteria - True bacteria

(2) Archaebacteria - Production of methane
(3) Cyanobacteria - Cell wall of heterocyst is thin & made up of lignin
(4) Mycoplasma - Pathogenic in animals & plants

22) Study the following statements :-

(A) Extensions of plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes which are present in the form of
vesicles, tubules and lamellae
(B) The plasmid DNA confers unique phenotypic characters to bacteria
(C) Pili is made up of flagellin protein which is a contractile protein
(D) Bacterial cell wall is formed by phospholipids and proteins
(E) Endospore is a highly resistant structure due to presence of Ca-dipicolinate
How many of the above statement are correct and incorrect ?

(1) 2-correct; 3-incorrect

(2) 4-correct ; 1-incorrect
(3) 5-correct ; 0-incorrect
(4) 3-correct ; 2-incorrect

23)

Choose the wrong statements regarding bacterial cell:-

(A) Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell are called fimbriae
(B) The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime layer
(C) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called capsule
(D) Inclusion bodies are not bound by any membrane system and lie free in the cytoplasm
(1) A & B
(2) B, C & D
(3) B & C
(4) C & D

24) Which of the following options give the correct categorisation ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Given figure is of filamentous blue green alga. Identify the parts market as A and B and select

the correct option :-

A B

(1) Heterocyst Mucilagenous sheath

(2) Vegetatiative cell Mucilagenous sheath

Mucilagenous
(3) Cell wall
sheath

Mucilagenous
(4) Heterocyst
sheath
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following statements which are not relevant to Archaebacteria?
(A) They live in some of the most harsh habitats.
(B) They are present in the gut of several ruminant animals.
(C) They are characterised by the presence of rigid cellulosic cell wall.
(D) They include Mycoplasma.
(E) They are also referred to as blue green algae.

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, E
(3) C, D, E
(4) A, C, D

27) Select the total number of disease from the following caused by bacteria:
Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

28) Bacterium divides every 20 minutes. If a culture containing 1 × 105 cells per mL is grown for 100
minutes, what will be the cell concentration per ml after 100 minutes ?

(1) 5 × 105 cells

(2) 35 × 105 cells
(3) 32 × 105 cells
(4) 174 × 105 cells

29) Study the following statements :

(I) All prokaryotic organisms were grouped together under Kingdom fungi.
(II) The unicellular eukaryotic organisms were placed in Kingdom protista.
(III) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas both have cell wall.
(IV) Paramoecium and Amoeba lack cell walls.
(V) Kingdom protista has brought
together Chlamydomonas, Chlorella with Paramoecium and Amoeba.
Which of the statements given above are correct according to Whittaker classification ?

(1) I, II, III and V only

(2) II, III, IV and V only
(3) I, II, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III, IV and V

30) Consider the following statements ?

Statement-I :- Diatomaceous earth is commonly used in the filtration of oils and syrups.
Statement-II :- Diatoms and golden algae are only found in freshwater environments.
Choose the correct answer :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

31) Assertion (A): Diatoms are chief producer in the oceans.

Reason (R): Cell wall of diatoms are embedded with silica.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but reason is True.

32) Identify the fig. A, B, C and match with their characteristic

Organism Characteristic

A-Euglena • Protein rich pellicle present

1
B-Slime moulds • Saprophyte

A-Dinoflagellate • Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates

2
C-Slime moulds • Under suitable condition form plasmodium

B-Euglena • Have Two flagella

3
C-Dinoflagellate • Have Two flagella

A -Golden algae • Indestructible cell wall

4
B-Euglena • Cellulosic cell wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Consider the following statement (A-D) :-

(A) Dinoflagellates also called armoured algae due to presence plated cell wall.
(B) Diatoms have two flagella one is transverse and other is longitudinal.
(C) Spores of slime moulds do not possess cell wall.
(D) Euglenoids show both autotophic and heterotophic nutrition.
How many of the above statements is/are NOT correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

34) The asexual spores of Deuteromycetes are _____(A)_____ and members of this fungal class are
called _____(B)____ .
Select the option which correctly fill the blanks (A) & (B) :-

(1) (A) - Zoospore, (B) - Algae fungi

(2) (A) - Basidiospore, (B) - Club fungi
(3) (A) - Conidia, (B) - Imperfect fungi
(4) (A) - Aplanospores, (B) - Sac gungi

35)

How many organisms in the list given below belong to ascomycetes ?

Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Yeast, Claviceps, Morels, Agaricus, Trichoderma, Puccinia

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

36) Statement-I :- In phycomycetes asexual reproduction takes place by zygospore formation.

Statement-II :- Zygospore is formed by fusion of two gametes.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

37) Select the correct option in respect of given diagram (a)

(b)

(1) a - Penicillium b - Agaricus

(2) a - Aspergillus b - Agaricus
(3) a - Rhizopus b - Mucor
(4) a - Aspergillus b - Penicillium

38) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about ascomycetes?

(i) Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and genetic work is a member of this class.
(ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillium.
(iii) They are saprophytic, decomposer, parasitic or coprophilous.
(iv) Mycelium is branched and septate.

(1) Both (i) and (ii)

(2) Only (ii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

39) Match the following colums.

Column-I Column-II

Parasitic fungi
A 1 Agaricus
on mustard

Rust and Puccinia and

B 2
smut disease Ustilago

Edible Morels and

C 3
mushroom truffles

D Edible delicacies 4 Albugo

E Bread mould 5 Rhizopus

Options :-
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, E-5
(2) A-1, B-3, C-5, D-4, E-2
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4, E-5
(4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, E-5

40) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Lichens, algal component is known as mycobiont and fungal component as phycobiont.
(B) The RNA of the viroid was of high molecular weight.
(C) All viruses contain both genetic material, that should be DNA and RNA.
(D) Collectotrichum reproduce only by sexual reproduction.
Choose the correct answer :-

(1) All are correct

(2) All are incorrect
(3) A, B and C correct but D incorrect.
(4) A and C correct but B & D incorrect.
41) What is indicated by A to D in this figure ?

(1) A-Collar, B-Tail fibres, C-Head, D-Sheath

(2) A-Sheath, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibres
(3) A-Tail fibres, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Head
(4) A-Tail fibres, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Sheath

42) Three domains system are given on the basis of :-

(1) Cell wall structure

(2) r-RNA base sequencing
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) On the basis of sexual reproduction

43) Which of the following kingdom contains unicellular organisms with a true nucleus ?

(1) Monera
(2) Animalia
(3) Protista
(4) Plantae

44) How many kingdoms have only heterotrophic mode of nutrition in Whittaker's classification?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

45) Assertion: Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are member of kingdom protista.

Reason: Chlamydomonas and Chlorella are unicellular eukaryotic organism.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

46) Which of the following are not considered in five kingdom system of classification ?
(1) Lichen
(2) Virus
(3) Viroid
(4) All the above

47) Match the following-

Column-I Column-II

RNA as
T.O.
(A) (p) genetic
Diener
material

Contagium
(B) TMV (q) vivum
fluidum

R.H. Discovery of
(C) (r)
Whittaker viroids

M.W. Five Kingdom

(D) (s)
Beijerinek classification
Select the correct option
(1) A = p, B = r, C = s, D = q
(2) A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
(3) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p
(4) A = q, B = p, C = r, D = s

48)

Which of the following organism move and capture their prey by putting out pseudopodia :-

(1) Trypanosoma
(2) Lichen
(3) Amoeba
(4) Paramoecium

49) Feature of Archebacteria which is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions :-

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Cell wall structure
(3) Shape of cell
(4) (1) & (3) both

50) ______ are organisms they are smallest living cells known and can survive without oxygen.

(1) Protista
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) BGA
(4) Amoeba

51) Find out incorrect match :-

(1) Gas vacuole - Purple sulphur bacteria

(2) Heterocyst - N2 fixing cell of Cycas
(3) Mycoplasma - Cell wall absent
(4) Chromatophore - Cyanobacteria

52) Statement-I :- Bacteria are the sole members of the kingdom monera.
Statement-II :- The cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants and are photosynthetic
autotrophs.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

53) Bacteria perform a primitive type of gene transfer from one bacterial cell to other which is called
:-

(1) Crossing over

(2) Endospore formation
(3) Genetic recombination
(4) Binary fission

54) Assertion (A) : Arachaebacteria live in most harsh habitat such as extreme salty areas, hot
spring and marshy area.
Reason (R) : Archaebacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plant.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but reason is True.

55) Protist which cause paralysis in human beings :-

(1) Noctiluca and Gonyaulax

(2) Gymnodinium and Gonyaulax
(3) Ceratium and Gymnodinium
(4) Noctiluca and Ceratium

56) I. Found in fresh water as well as in marine environments.

II. Pearl of the ocean
III. Float passively on surface of water
IV. Indestructible cell wall
V. Chief producers in the ocean
Above statements are correct for :

(1) Algae
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Diatoms
(4) Euglenoids

57) Red tide in ocean is caused by rapid multiplication of ______

(1) BGA
(2) Rhodophyceae algae
(3) Diatoms
(4) Dinoflagellates

58) In oogamy, fertilization involves :-

(1) A large motile female gamete and a small non–motile male gamete
(2) A small non–motile female gamete and a large motile male gamete
(3) A large non–motile female gamete and a small motile male gamete
(4) A large non–motile female gamete and a large non–motile male gamete

59) In which of the following, the cell wall has stiff cellulose plate on the outer surface ?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Desmids
(3) Diatoms
(4) Euglenoids

60) The boundaries of which of the following kingdom is not well defined :-

(1) Fungi
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

61)

Red sea appear red due to presence of

(1) BGA - Anabaena

(2) Dinoflagellate - Gonyalux
(3) Bacteria - Red Algae
(4) BGA - Trichodesmium

62) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Gonyaulax – soap box

(2) Euglena – Pellicle
(3) Slime moulds – Plasmodium
(4) Trypanosoma – Sleeping sickness

63) In which of the following organism the cell wall is composed of two thin overlaping shells which
fit together like a soap box ?

(1) Diatoms
(2) Golden algae
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Gonyaulax

64) A disease which has a staggering effect on human population caused by -

(1) Entamoeba
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Trypanosoma
(4) Paramoecium

65) Assertion : Spores are extremely resistant and survive for many years in slime moulds.
Reason : The spores possess true walls.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false

66) Which of the following characters are true for slime moulds ?

(1) Saprophytic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by water

(2) Parasitic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by water
(3) Saprophytic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by air currents
(4) Parasitic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by insects.

67) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

68) Which is not true for reptiles?

(1) They respire by lungs

(2) All have 4 – chambered heart
(3) They are chordate animals
(4) They have closed type of circulatory system

69)

Among vertebrates which of the following do not exclusively respire through lungs ?

(1) Birds
(2) Mammals
(3) Reptiles
(4) Amphibians

70)

Tube with in tube body plan (digestive system) is absent in :

(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Earthworms
(4) Cockroach

71) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Radial symmetry – Coelenterates

(2) Coelomates – Aschelminthes
(3) Metamerism – Molluscs
(4) Triploblastic – Sponges

72) Which of the following are examples of Arthropoda ?

(1) Silver fish, Star fish and Prawn

(2) Earthworm, Apple snail and Honey bee
(3) Sea hare, Tongue worm and Scorpion
(4) Cockroach, Scorpion and Prawn

73) All are hermaphrodites animals in which of the following sets of animals ?

(1) Pheretima, Taenia, Sycon, Ascaris

(2) Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Nereis
(3) Sycon, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia, Ancylostoma
(4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

74) Which is not a sponges?

(1) Sycon
(2) Spongilla
(3) Scypha
(4) Sea anemone
75) Identify the correctly matched option:

(1) Frog - Two chambered heart

(2) Fish - Warm blooded animals
(3) Toad - Three chambered heart
(4) Hyla - Limbless amphibian

76) Identify the correct match from Column - I and Column - II :

Column - I Column - II

(a) Scoliodon (i) Saw fish

(b) Pristis (ii) Sting ray

(c) Trygon (iii) Electric ray

(d) Torpedo (iv) Dog fish

Options:
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

77) True segmentation of body is first observed in the:-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

78) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metachrosis

79) Identified the organisms A, B, C and D.

(1) Balaenoptera, Macropus, Pteropus & Ornithorhynchus
(2) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus & Balaenoptera
(3) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Balaenoptera & Pteropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus, Balaenoptera, Pteropus & Macropus

80) Tapeworm absorb nutrients from host through :-

(1) Hook
(2) Suckers
(3) Both
(4) General body surface

81) In mammals the teeth are

(i) Of different types
(ii) Embedded in the cup-like socket of the jaw.
(iii) Only two sets present throughout life
These conditions are referred respectively as :-

(1) Heterodont, Thecodont and Diphyodont

(2) Thecodont, Heterodont and Diphyodont
(3) Diphyodont, Thecodont and Heterodont
(4) Diphyodont, Thecodont and Heterodont,

82) Which of the following animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

(1) Ctenophores
(2) Cnidarians
(3) Sponges
(4) Round worms

83)

How many of the following phyla exhibit both extracellular and intracellular digestion ?

Porifera, Aschelminthes, Annelida, Hemichordata, Protozoa, Ctenophora, Cnidaria.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

84) Which of the following character is correctly matched with its general character ?

(1) Cyclostomata : cranium and vertebral column are bony

(2) Chondrichthyes : Gill slits without operculum
(3) Amphibia : they shed their scales as their skin casting
(4) Mammalia : Long bones hollow with air cavities

85) Select the correct option to identify A, B and C in given chart :-

(1) A-Pisces, B-Tetrapoda, C-Cyclostomata

(2) A-Cyclostomata, B-Pisces, C-Tetrapoda
(3) A-Tetrapoda, B-Pisces, C-Cyclostomata
(4) A-Pisces, B-Cyclostomata, C-Tetrapoda

86)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II

I Corvus a Vulture

II Columba b Ostrich

III Psittacula c Parrot

IV Struthio d Pigeon

V Neophron e Crow
(1) I-d, II-e, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d, V-e
(3) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(4) I-e, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-a

87) Assertion : Obelia show metagenesis.

Reason : Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae form polyp asexually.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

88) Assertion : Echinoderms are spiny bodied animals.

Reason : Echinoderms have an endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

89) Statement I : Cyclostomes body is devoid of scales and paired fins

Statement II : Cyclostomes are fresh water but migrate for spawning to marine water.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

90) Statement I : Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well developed muscular pharynx in
aschelminthes.
Statement II: Aschelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical pseudocoelomate animals.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (a)

(b)
(c)

2) If A attains 5 m/s before collision then they will not collide

Initial Relative velocity

ur = 15–5 = 10 m/s
to avoid collision finally vr = 0
so by 3rd Eq. of motion

0=

sr =

⇒ d > 20 m

3)

tanθ =

⇒ θ = tan–1 w.r.t rain

4)
Relative velocity of car A or car B w.r.t.
car C, Vrel. = (45 + 36) Km/hr
= 81 km/hr

Time interval, t = 5 minute hr

Sepration of car A and B = Vret × t

km
= 6.75 km

5) Srel = Vrel × t
300 = 10 t
t = 30 sec.

6) = constant

7)

8)

Both particles travels same distance in 2s. So seperation remains same (9.8 m)

9)
t = 8, 12 sec

10)

For vertically upward motion, h1 = and for vertically downward motion,

h2 =
∴ Total distance covered in t sec,
h = h1 + h2 = 2v0t
Alternative :
Use relative motion
Srel = Vrel × t = 2v0t

11)

20 sin 37o = VH

20 × = 12 m/s
12) It is clear from figure that co-ordinates of the centre of mass C,

YCM =

∴ (XCM, YCM) =

Hence,
∴ Angle made by with x-axis

13)

14)

Mass of remaining disc = 8M

Mass of removed hole = M

x × 8 M = 2R × M
x = R/4

15)
 16)

1. Explanation (30 words):

For two particles with masses m1 and m2 separated by distance d, the center of mass divides
the distance between them. We need to determine the ratio based on their masses.

2. Concept (20 words):

The center of mass divides the distance between two particles in a ratio that depends on their
masses.

3. Formula:

The position of the center of mass R is given by:

The distance from the center of mass to m1 is:

And the distance from the center of mass to m2 is:

The distances r1 and r2 are inversely proportional to the masses of the particles.

17) Explanation :
On which the position of COM does not depends
Concept :
If only internal forces acf then net force on system will be zero which will not affect the
position or motion of COM

18)

so is parallel to so path will be straight line.

19) Explanation :- Two particles are moving towards each other due to mutual attraction
means external force acting on them is zero. And the velocity of the centre of mass will be
asked in this problem.
Concept :- If the external force acting on the system of particle is zero than their is no change
in the velocity of centre of mass. In this question initially com is at rest so final velocity of
centre of mass will be zero.

20) Explain question: Two blocks, A and B, each with mass 4 kg, are moving in opposite
directions with speeds of 2 m/s. We need to find the coordinates of the center of mass at t = 3
s.
Concept The center of mass for a discrete system is calculated based on the masses and
positions of the objects in the system; It is the weighted average of their positions.
Formula: The position of the center of mass for two blocks. is:

Brief calculation :
• Position of block A at time t:
• Position of block B at time t: At t = 3s:
• XA(3) = 6 m
• Xb(3) = -1.5 m
Now, calculate the center of mass:

Answer: The coordinates of the center of mass at t = 3 s are (2.25, 0).

21)

Dp = m(v + u)

22) From m1u1 = m2u2

23) where So

24)
for part (1)

F1 – T = m1a

F1 – T =
25)

In lift's frame,

26)

900 – 600 = 60 amax

⇒ amax = 5 m/s2

27) Explain: Find the reading of the spring balance in a system where two 15 kg block are
suspended over pulleys on either side of the spring balance.
Concept: The spring balance measures the tension force acting through it.
Formula: Tension T = mg, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The
spring balance reads the magnitude of this tension.
Calculation: Since the system is in equilibrium (or considered instantaneously), the tension in
the spring on both sides of the spring balance is equal to the weight of suspended mass.
Therefore, the tension T = 15g N.

Reading of spring balance (in kg) = = = 15 kg.

Ans. (3) Difficulty level: easy

28)

T1 + 4g = T = 6g
T1 = 2g = 20 N

29)

Since spring are massless, their reading will be same.

30) Initially,
Immediately after spring '1' is cut
 31) Explain :- We have three equal masses (P, Q, and R) connected by strings and pulled by a
constant force F. We need to find the ratio of the tension between masses P and Q (TPQ) to
tension between masses Q and R (TQR).
Concept :- String pully System.
Formula :- F = ma (Newton's second law)
Calculation : TPQ = (2m)a
TQR = (m)a

Final Answer : (2)

32)

33) Impulse

34)

B. Concepts:

A. Newton's Third Law of Motion: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. Conservation of Momentum: In an isolated system, the total momentum remains constant.

C. Explanation:
Rocket propulsion works on the principle of Newton's Third Law of Motion. The rocket engine burns
fuel, producing hot gases that are expelled at high speed from the rear. According to Newton's Third
Law, the expelled gases exert an equal and opposite force on the rocket, propelling it forward.
D. Formula:

A. Newton's Third Law: F12 = –F21Where F12 is the force exerted by object 1 on object 2, and F21 is
the force exerted by object 2 on object 1.
B. Conservation of Momentum:Initial momentum of the system = Final momentum of the
system
A. m1v1 + m2v2 = m1v1' + m2v2'
A. Where m1, m2 are the masses of the objects, v1, v2 are their initial velocities, and
v1', v2' are their final velocities.

E. Final Answer:
A. Newton's III law of motion

35)
5×1 = 2×a

⇒a= = 2.5 m/s2

36) Since TC cos 45° = TB sin 45° ⇒ TC = TB ...(1)

TC sin 45° + TB cos 45° = 20g

⇒ 2TC × = 200
TC = = 141 N

37)

ΔP = (2)(6) – (2×3) + (4×3)

= 6 – 6 + 12 = 12 N-s

38)

39)

⇒ t2 = 25 ⇒ t = 5s

40)

Dimension of

⇒ β = [T–1]

dimensions of
= [M1 L–1 T1]
= [M L–1 T]

41) n1u1 = n2u2

n2 = 50
Hence Ans(3) is correct

42) [P] = [A] = [C]

[bt] = M°L°T° & [dt] = M°L°T°

= M°L°T° & = M°L°T°

43) Planck constant (h) → joule × sec → [M1L2T–1]

Gravitation constant (G) → Nm2/kg2 → [M–1L3T–2]
0
Spring force constant (K) → N/m → [M1L T–2]
0 0

Velocity gradient → → [M L T–1]

44) Given : f = KRa ρbGc ...(i)

Where,
[T–1] = f = vibration frequency
[L] = R is the radius of star,
[ML–3] = ρ is the density of star,

is the universal gravitational constant,

k is a constant.
by putting all the dimensions in equation (i) we get
0
[M L0 T–1] = [L]a [ML–3]b [M–1 L3 T–2]c
By comparing both sides equation we get,
b –c = 0
a – 3b + 3c = 0
–2c = – 1

; ;a=0

Then

45) When unit of physical quantity is changed its dimension & magnitude remain same
eg : Magnitude = 1 m = 100 cm
Both have same dimension i.e. [L]
CHEMISTRY

46)

C H O

Simplest ratio
1 : 3 : 1
CH3O

47)

2H2(g) + CO → CH3OH(ℓ)
1120 L 2 mol H2 → 1 mol CH3OH

1 mol H2 → mol CH3OH

50 mol H2 →
= 25 mol
Mass of CH3OH = 25 × 32 = 800g

48)

Find limiting reagent and apply stoichiometry

49)

C6H6(ℓ) + O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

50)

Apply Stoichiometry

51)

C2H6(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

52)

Apply Stoichiometry

53)
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(ℓ)

54)

CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

55)

Apply Henderson Equation

56)

Apply Henderson Equation

57)

It's a fact

58)

Convert amu into 'g'

59)

Nitrogen → N

60)

Check mass of each option

61)

Both salts are of weak acid and weak base, so there degree of hydrolysis will be independent
of concentration (dilution).

62)

Add [H+] from water

63)

The stability and ability of the base to stabilise the negative charge determine whether a
substance is a strong base.
64)

Ksp = 4s3

65) Explanation - pH Calculation

Concept - Dissociation of weak Acid.
Solution - Given Data [Acid] = 1.0M
& ∝ = 1 % or 0.01
We Know [H+] = C ∝
= 1 × .01
= 10–2 or pH = 2

Final Answer - (2)

66)

[H+]1 = 10–1 M
V1 = 1L
[H+]2 = 10–2 M

M1V1 = M2V2

= 10

67)

Kb = Cα2

68)

Common ion effect

69)

Effect of temperature

70)

Explanation of water

71) Effect of temperature on pure water

72)
Ka = .

73)

Check for SAWB type salt.

74)

SASB type salt does not undergo Hydrolysis.

75)

Conjugate base mean gap of one 'H+'.

76) For Bi2S3 2Bi+3 + 3S–2

Ksp = (2S)2 × (3S)3 = 108 × S5

S= =
For MnS ⇌ Mn + S–2
+2

Ksp = S2 ⇒ S = =
+ –2
for Ag2S 2Ag + S
Ksp = (2S) × S = 4S3
2

S= =

77)

Ksp = 27s4

78)

Solubility product of each

79) (a) (b)

(c) (d) [kip = 10–10 < ksp]

pptn occurs when IP > ksp

80)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

81)

Group no.: - (n–1)d e– + nse–

6+2=8

82)

Element must belong to same group with difference of at. no. 8

83) Question Explanation :

question is asking about anomalous pair of elements of mendeleev periodic table
Concept : Mendeleev's periodic table.
Explanation & Solution : Anomalous elements in the periodic table, particularly in
Mendeleev's version, are those where the order of atomic masses is not strictly followed.

Answer : Option 4

84)

Z = 117, Uus (Ununseptium) is the recently added element of the halogen family.

85) Only s & p-block elements except noble gas, d-block, f-block.

86) 65, 66 (Lanthanides)

period = 6, group = III B

87)

All follow Triad rule

88)

18th group

89)

Explanation -
The question asks to match elements (given by atomic numbers) with the corresponding block
in the periodic table.

Concept - Identification of blocks.

Solution -

A. Atomic number 52 (Tellurium) has its last electron in the p subshell, placing it in the p-
block (q).
 B. Atomic number 56 (Barium) has its last electron in the s subshell, placing it in the s-
block (p).

C. Atomic number 57 (Lanthanum) has its last electron in the d subshell, placing it in the d-
block (r).

D. Atomic number 60 (Neodymium) has its last electron in the f subshell, placing it in the f-
block (s).

Final Answer - Option (1)

90)

According to (n + ℓ) energy level diagram.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 18

92)

Nurture Module-1, Pg. # 50

93)

Solution:

The Correct answer is :

4. Colletotrichum and Trichoderma
Deuteromycetes (Fungi Imperfecti) are fungi with no known sexual stage.
Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are common examples under this group.

94) NCERT XI Pg. # 20,21,22,23

95) NCERT Pg. # 23

96)

NCERT Pg. # 18

97)
 NCERT XI, Pg # 22

98) NCERT-XI Pg#24

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17, 18

100)

Nurture Module-1, Pg. # 45, 46

101) Explain Question: given biological terms in List-l and asked to correctly match them
with their descriptions in List-II.
Concept : This question is based on Viroid, Virus, Prion, Lichen
Explanation:
I Viroid: C. Infectious RNA molecules without protein coat.
II Virus: A Composed of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) and a protein coat → nucleoprotein.
III Prion: B. Infectious agent made purely of protein.
IV Lichen: D. Symbiotic association between algae and fungi.
Final answer: 1
I-C, II-A, III - B, IV - D

102)

Explaining: The question asks you to identify the class of fungi that exhibits all the following
characteristics.
Concept: This question is based on Fungal Classification
Solution:
Ascomycota (Sac Fungi):
A phylum of fungi characterized by the formation of a sac-like structure called an ascus, which
contains sexual spores known as ascospores.

103)

The correct answer is: 2. Only (a)

Explanation: 1. Sporangiospores:

A. Not a sexual spore. It is an asexual spore produced inside a sporangium, typically found in
fungi like Rhizopus (phycomycetes).

2. Ascospore:

A. A sexual spore produced inside an ascus, characteristic of Ascomycetes.

3. Basidiospore:

A. A sexual spore formed on a basidium, characteristic of Basidiomycetes.

4. Oospore:

A. A sexual spore formed through the fertilization of an oogonium by an antheridium, seen in

some lower fungi like oomycetes.

5. Zygospore:

A. A sexual spore formed by the fusion of two gametangia, found in Zygomycetes.

104)

The incorrect match is:

T.O. Diener - Viroids are found to be a free DNA.
Explanation:
T.O. Diener discovered viroids, but they are not DNA, they are small RNA molecules that can
cause diseases in plants. So, the statement "Viroids are found to be a free DNA" is wrong.
The correct answer is:(1)

105) Module Pg no 147

106)

NCERT Pg # 26

107)

NCERT - XI Pg. No. - 27

108)

NCERT XI Page No. # 22,26,20,19

109) NCERT Page No. 26 and 27

110) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 128, 129

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

112) NCERT (XI) Pg # 128, 129

113) NCERT XI(E)/(H) Page No. # 128, 129

114)

NCERT XI Pg # 12

115) NCERT (XI) (E & H) Pg. # 19, Para-2.2

116)

The correct answer is: 3. C, D, E

(A) They include Mycoplasma. → False
Mycoplasma are bacteria without a cell wall, but they do not belong to Archaebacteria;
they are part of Eubacteria.
(B) They are also referred to as blue-green algae. → False
Blue-green algae are actually Cyanobacteria, which belong to Eubacteria, not
Archaebacteria.
The incorrect (not relevant) statements are C, D, and E. Thus, the correct answer is 3. C, D, E.

117)

Solution:

The correct answer is: 2. 4

Total bacterial diseases: 4

A. Citrus canker

B. Cholera

C. Typhoid

D. Tetanus

118)

Each bacteria divide once in 20 minute then in 100 minute they will divide 5 times. So, after 5
generation the total no. of cells will be 32 × 105 cell/ml.

119)

Statement-I is incorrect because all prokaryotic organism are included under kingdom monera.

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

 121)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 21

122)

XI NCERT Pg. No. # 21

123) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 20, 21

124) NCERT, Pg. # 18

125) Aspergillus, Yeast, Claviceps, morels are

Ascomycetes

126) NCERT, Pg. # 17

127) NCERT Pg No. 23

128)

The correct answer is: 3. (i), (iii), and (iv)

Explanation: 1. (i) Neurospora is a member of this class:

A. Correct. Neurospora (used in genetics research) belongs to Ascomycetes.

2. (ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillium:

A. Incorrect.

■ Yeast is unicellular, not multicellular.

■ Penicillium is multicellular, not unicellular.
Hence, this statement is flawed.
3. (iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic, or coprophilous:

A. Correct. Ascomycetes exhibit diverse modes of nutrition, including saprophytic and parasitic.

4. (iv) Examples include Aspergillus, Claviceps, and Neurospora:

A. Correct. These are well-known members of Ascomycetes.

129)

NCERT, Pg. # 17,18

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17, 18, 20, 21

131) NCERT XI Pg. # 26

132) NCERT, Pg. # 11, Module

133) NCERT Pg. # 11

134)

Concept :- Fungi and Animalia.

Solution :- Fungi- Only heterotrophic (mainly saprophytic)
Animalia - Only heterotrophic (Ingestion food)
Answer :- 3

135)

NCERT-XI, Page # 18, 20

136)

NCERT Pg. # 19

137)

NCERT Pg. # 11, 20

138)

NCERT Pg. # 16

139) NCERT, Pg. # 13

140) NCERT Pg. # 14

141) NCERT Pg. # 13

142) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12 & 13

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 14

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 19

145)

NCERT Pg. # 15

146) NCERT- Pg. # 20

147) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 15

148)

Module-1, Pg. # 37

149) NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 21

150)

NCERT Pg. # 14

151)

Module-1, Pg. # 31

152) NCERT Pg. # 15

153) NCERT Pg. # 14

154)

NCERT Pg. # 16

155) NCERT Pg. # 15

156)

NCERT Pg. # 15

157) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

158) NCERT (XI) Pg# 58 Para: 4.2.11.5

159)
 Explaining Question:
Amos vertebrates, which of the following do nor Exclusively Respire through lungs?
Concept: This question is based on Respiratory organs in organism
Solution: Amphibians do rot Exclusively Respire through lungs. Some lite frogs can respire
through their mast skin also.

160) Pg. No. 47 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

161) NCERT XI Pg. # 41

162) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

163) Explanation:

A. Hermaphrodites have both male and female reproductive organs.

B. Spongilla (Sponge), Pleurobrachia (Ctenophore), Fasciola (Liver Fluke), and
Hirudinaria (Leech) are all hermaphrodites.
C. Other options contain Ascaris, Nereis, Wuchereria, or Ancylostoma, which are dioecious
(separate sexes) and incorrect.

Correct Answer:
Option (4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

164)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 52

165)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 118

166)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 57

167)

NCERT Pg. # 48

168) NCERT Pg. # 48

169) Explanation
The given organisms belong to different orders of Class Mammalia:
1. Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) → Order Monotremata

A. Egg-laying mammal (Prototheria).

2. Macropus (Kangaroo) → Order Marsupialia

A. Marsupial (Metatheria).

3. Pteropus (Flying Fox/Bat) → Order Chiroptera

A. Placental mammal (Eutheria).

4. Balaenoptera (Blue Whale) → Order Cetacea

A. Largest marine mammal on Earth.

B. Completely aquatic with a streamlined body.

Correct Answer:
(2) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus & Balaenoptera

170) NCERT Pg. # 51

171)

NCERT Pg. # 60

172)

NCERT Pg. # 47

173)

Cnidaria and cternophora show both types of digestion.

174) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 57

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 56

176) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 59

177) NCERT Pg 41

178) NCERT Pg 45

179) NCERT Pg. # 47

180) NCERT XI Page # 43