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Bhartiya Aviation (CSA &

Housekeeping) Exam - English-3

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Bhartiya Aviation (CSA & Housekeeping)

Exam - English-3
Paper Questions

SUBJECT: Science and Aviation Knowledge

Question 1 : Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have

(A) low permeability and high hysterisis loss

(B) high permeability and low hysterisis loss

(C) high permeability and high hysterisis loss

(D) low permeability and low hysterisis loss

Question 2 : According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is

(A) same in all the medium

(B) lesser in rarer medium

(C) lesser in denser medium

(D) independent of the medium

Question 3 : The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating
the alcohol with

(A) PCI5

(B) PCI3

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(C) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine

(D) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2

Question 4 : The carbon bond length in benzene is

(A) in between C2H6 and C2H4

(B) same as in C2H4

(C) in between C2H6 and C2H2

(D) in between C2H4 and C2H2

Question 5 : Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones
directly?

(A) Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat

(B) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus

(C) shrew, bat, kiwi, car

(D) Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

SUBJECT: English

Question 6 : They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

(A) The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.

(B) The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them

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(C) The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.

(D) The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Passage : Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 7 : Deep-seated

(A) Chronic

(B) Temporary

(C) inbred

(D) Subconscious

Passage : ​Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word
which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Question 8 : Vibrant

(A) Drab

(B) Gaudy

(C) Jazzy

(D) Vivid

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button
corresponding to it.

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Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the
value of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 9 : And has ended up ……… a simple question- what is the value of uniformity?

(A) holding

(B) positioning

(C) posturing

(D) posing

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button
corresponding to it.
Passage
…………. Nearly eight decades, the women’s movement ……….. and debated the desirability and
feasibility of a Uniform Civil Code, and has ended up ………… a simple question – what is the
value of uniformity? Is it for the “integrity of the nation” that uniformity in laws is required, as some
judicial pronouncements …………? If so, who exactly is the beneficiary? Which section of people
benefit from “Integrity of the nation”, that abstract entity which is not exactly …………. The top of
your mind as your husband throws you out on the street?

Question 10 : As some judicial pronouncements …………?

(A) have suggested

(B) had been suggesting

(C) suggest

(D) suggested

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Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button
corresponding to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special
room or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in
one year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford
candle or oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and
with no outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 11 : How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar?

(A) One year

(B) Six months

(C) Two years

(D) Ten months

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button
corresponding to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special
room or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in
one year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford
candle or oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and
with no outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 12 : What is the occupation of the writer?

(A) Teacher

(B) Soldier

(C) Artist

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(D) Clerk

Passage : Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button
corresponding to it.
Passage
A Knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged.
Studying grammar means hard work: it be learned as a whole, with no part omitted, and it demand
must thought and patience. But, once acquired, it study requires no physical hardship, no special
room or expenses. If people spent only they leisure time studying grammar they could master it in
one year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford
candle or oil, he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and
with no outside encouragement, ten any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Question 13 : The learning of grammar should be

(A) Patient, thoughtful and holistic

(B) Thoughtful, patient and piecemeal

(C) Holistic, thoughtful and rapid

(D) Thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal

Question 14 : The professor said to the students, 'Work hard if you want to pass the test.'

(A) The professor said to the students work hard if they wanted to pass the test.

(B) The professor said to the students work hard if you want to pass the test.

(C) The professor advised the students work hard if they wanted to pass the test.

(D) The professor informed the students to work hard if you want to pass the test.

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Question 15 : Fuel suppliers will.....the national oil shortage by raising prices to increase their
bottom lines

(A) use

(B) misuse

(C) venture

(D) Exploit

Question 16 : The------with which she manages the task is remarkable

(A) calm

(B) comfort

(C) ease

(D) satisfaction

Passage : Directions: In of the question, four alternatives are given or the Idioms/Phrases. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idioms/Phrases and button corresponding to
it.

Question 17 : Dry run

(A) A party without drinks

(B) A rehearsal of a performance before the real one

(C) Doing a fruitless task

(D) escaping from an unpleasant situation

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Passage : Directions: In of the question, four alternatives are given or the Idioms/Phrases. Choose
the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idioms/Phrases and button corresponding to
it.

Question 18 : To drive someone up the wall?

(A) To make someone very irritated

(B) It break the barriers of misunderstanding between two persons

(C) To encourage someone

(D) To be the cause of someone’s success

Passage : Direction : A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to
the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the
button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No
improvement”.

Question 19 : His condition has only deteriorated, his life (hangs with threads).

(A) is hanging on threads

(B) hangs by a thread

(C) hangs on a thread

(D) No improvement

Passage : Direction : A sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to
the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the
button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No
improvement”.

Question 20 : Ravi (hadn’t ought to) have done that to Shaina

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(A) ought not

(B) ought not to

(C) have not ought to

(D) No improvement

Question 21 : To take someone here suddenly and quickly-

(A) Rush

(B) Whisk

(C) Fly

(D) Flit

Question 22 : To sweep over something so as to surround it completely-

(A) Engulf

(B) Imbibe

(C) Drown

(D) Plunge

Passage : Direction: in these question, the 1st and the last sentences of the passage are numbered as
1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P,Q,R and S. These four parts are
not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is
correct. Then find the correct answer:

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Question 23 : Ironically, in spite of a decline in poverty,

P the proportion of
Q the population receiving welfare
R benefits has risen sharply

(A) Options:
QRP

(B) PQR

(C) RPQ

(D) QPR

Passage : Direction: in these question, the 1st and the last sentences of the passage are numbered as
1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P,Q,R and S. These four parts are
not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is
correct. Then find the correct answer:

Question 24 : This alone

P should alert us to what
Q is actually about
R the demand for a Uniform Civil Code

(A) Options:
PRQ

(B) PQR

(C) QPR

(D) RPQ

Question 25 : Out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word

(A) Genatics

(B) Sterage

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(C) Grossest

(D) Granaite

Question 26 : out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word

(A) Scuries

(B) Snached

(C) Cavortted

(D) Hispanic

Question 27 : Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to
it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

(A) Soon as he

(B) saw the policeman

(C) he ran away

(D) No error.

Question 28 : Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to
it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

(A) each boy was given

(B)

a toy as a parting gift,

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(C)

which made them happy

(D) No error.

Passage : Direction :In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

Question 29 : To lash

(A) To endear

(B) To fondle

(C) To Chastise

(D) To snuggle

Passage : Direction : in the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which
is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

Question 30 : To sub some

(A) To bate

(B) To obvitae

(C) To preclude

(D) To incorporate

SUBJECT: Reasoning

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Question 31 : How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Passage : The question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should comes
after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Question 32 : Problem Figure :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

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Passage : Direction : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
Below :

J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden. They are wearing clothes of colours
black, Blue, white, green, pink, yellow and brown. Out of the seven, three are girls. No girls wearing
either black yellow or brown. M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing
blue while his sister K is not green. N is wearing yellow low while his best friend P is a boy.

Question 33 : Which is group denoting only girls?

(A) KLN

(B) KNO

(C) KLO

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Passage : Direction : These of the question below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Question 34 : K is towards which direction of D?

I. D is towards North of N.
II. D is towards South of T which is towards West of K.

(A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
Ialone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(D) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

(E) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

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Passage : Direction :study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below
W15EJR2MA9TKUN4BI8DH3F6PZ7Q

Question 35 : How many such consonants are there , each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and immediately followed by a vowel ?

(A) None

(B) one

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More then three

Question 36 : Harihar starts walking straight facing South. After walking 30 metres he turned to his
right, walked 25 metres and turned to his left. Again after walking a distance of 10 metres he turned
to his left. Which direction is he facing now ?

(A) West

(B) East

(C) North- East

(D) South - West

(E) None of these

Passage : Direction : In these queslion, symbols @, #, $, % and © are used with different meanings
as follows ,
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’

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‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ is
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true?
Give Answer (1): if only Conclusion I is true
Give Answer (2) : if Conclusion II is true
Give Answer (3) : if either Conclusion I or Conclusion II is true
Give Answer (4) : if neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II is true
Given Answer (5): if both Conclusions I and II are true.

Question 37 : Statements :
K $ H, H % I, I © F
Conclusions:
I. K $ I I. H % F

(A) P @ Q -> P < Q

(B) P # Q -> P Q

(C) P $ Q -> P < Q

(D) P % Q->P Q

(E) P © Q -> P = Q

Passage : Direction : Read the following information carefully and answer the question, which
follow :
If ‘A - B’ means ‘A is father of B’.
If ‘ A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B'
If ‘A B’ means ‘A is son of B’
If ‘A x B' means ‘A is wife of B'

Question 38 : In the expression ‘P Q - T’ how is T related to P ?

(A) Mother

(B) Sister

(C) Brother

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(D) Either brother or sister

(E) None of these

Passage : DIRECTION:Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below:
The number 0 to 9 are coded in
following manner considering
the exceptions given below :
9 0 8 5 1 3 4 2 7 6
F C I B A G E J D H
Exception1:if a number starts and ends with non-zero odd number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as P and Q respectively
Exception2: if a number starts and ends with non-zero even number then the first and the last
digits should be codded as X and Y respectively

Question 39 : What is the code for 1538428 ?

(A) ABGEIJI

(B) ABIGEJI

(C) ABGIEJI

(D) ABGEJII

(E) None of these

Question 40 : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which
one of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A) 12

(B) 24

(C) 84

(D) 48

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(E) 36

Question 41 : ‘Cub’ is related to ‘Tiger’ in the same way as ‘Kitten’ is related to …….

(A) DOG

(B) CAT

(C) DUCK

(D) SWAN

(E) None of these

Question 42 : Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) in the alpha order
given below?
AB ABC BC BCD CD CD?

(A) D

(B) E

(C) C

(D) F

(E) None of these

Passage : Direction : these question are based on the following information:

‘A@B’ means ‘A is added to B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is divided By B ’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘B is subtracted from A’.

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In which question, some information is given. You have to find out which expression correctly
represents the statement.

Question 43 : Marks obtained by Sujit in History (H) are 85% of his marks obtained in Science (M).

(A)

(B)

(C) H= 85 # 100 # M

(D)

(E) None of these

Passage : Direction : In these of the question below are given two statements followed by the
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disergarting commonly known facts

Question 44 : Statements:
Some buses are trains.
Some trains are boats.
Conclusions:
I. Some trains are buses.
II. Some boats are buses

(A) if only conclusion I follows

(B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows

(D) if neither I nor II follows, and

(E) if both I and II follow.

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Passage : Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given
below: When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers,
it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)

Input : 18 42 guidance 83 important for 91 decision making 65

StepI : decision 42 guidance 43 important for 91 making 65 18

Step II : 42 decision guidance 83 important 91 making 65 18 for

Step III : guidance 42 decision 83 important 91 making . 18 for 65

Step IV. : 83 guidance 42 decision 91 making 18 for 65 important

Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input : balance 87 34 of payment 15 is a 21 must 59 62

Question 45 : What is the position of ‘is’ from the right end in the second last step of the
arrangement based on the given input?

(A) Fifth

(B) Second

(C) Tenth

(D) Eighth

(E) Seventh

SUBJECT: Social Studies

Question 46 : What is ‘Common Era'?

(A) A new era developed by amalgamation of Hindu Era and Islamic Era

(B) A new era to study historical events

(C) Christian Era which is now accepted in major parts of the world

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(D) Indian Era accepted by the government to issue notices

Question 47 : The year ‘2012 can also be written as

(A) AD 2012

(B) AP 2012

(C) BC 2012

(D) EC 2012

Question 48 : The division of the period of Indian History into ‘Ancient’, ‘Medieval’ and ‘Modern’
also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it?

(A) Tripartite division reflects gradual growth of the Indian state

(B) Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History

(C) The concept has been borrowed from the West where modem period was associated with
science, reason, democracy, liberty and equality

(D) Indian history seems to have diear lines of distinction between ‘Ancient and Medieval’ and
‘Medieval and Modern’ period

Question 49 : Why would you ask question on historical imagination? Choose the most appropriate
option from the following.

(A) It encourages comparison of the present with the past

(B) It evaluates a student’s ability to identify sources

(C) It is fun-way to remember dates and events

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(D) It shows how historians fill gaps in history with their imagination

Question 50 : A number of industries locate close to each other and share the benefits of then-
closeness. We may study all the factors responsible for this, under

(A) Physical geography

(B) Environmental geography​

(C) Economic geography

(D) Human geography

Question 51 : Why is the study of social science ‘scientific’?

(A) It uses scientific terms in its content

(B) It fulfills the demand for calling social studies as science

(C) It comprises systematically acquired verified knowledge

(D) It helps its reader to study the scientific society

Question 52 : Universe is composed of

(A) millions of galaxies

(B) group of stars

(C) group of constellations

(D) clouds of dust and gases

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Question 53 : Which one of the following is the head of our solar family?

(A) The Moon

(B) The Earth

(C) The Sun

(D) The Jupiter

Question 54 : Anti discrimination can be defined as

(A) treating all people fairly and equally regardless of their circumstances and situation

(B) making judgement about a person based on their race, religion and gender

(C) treating all people from one culture the same to ensure equality at work place

(D) the use of person’s cultural background, religion, gender or sexually to determine what job they
are suitable for

Question 55 : What is a resource?

(A) Extracts from nature

(B) Man-made products

(C) Extracts from environment—technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally

acceptable

(D) Any thing from which a product can be manufactured

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SUBJECT: Mathematics

Question 56 : If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 5

Question 57 : In order that the number 1 y 3 y 6 be divisible by 11, the digit y should be

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 5

(D) 6

Question 58 : The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of the first six numbers is 10.5 and
that of the last six numbers is 11.4, then the middle number is:

(A) 11.5

(B) 11.4

(C) 11.3

(D) 11.0

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Question 59 : In what ratio should two qualities of coffee powder having rates of Rs 47 per kg
and Rs 32 per kg be mixed in order to get a mixture that would have a rate of Rs 37 per kg ?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 2 : 1

(C) 1 : 3

(D) 3 : 1

Question 60 : If the price of sugar is increased by 7%, then by how much percent should a
housewife reduce her consumption of sugar, to have no extra expenditure?

(A) 7 over 107%

(B) 107 over 100%

(C) 100 over 107%

(D) 7%

Question 61 : A shopkeepers sells an article at loss. If he sells it for Rs 92.50 more, then he
gains 6%. What is the cost price of the article ?

(A) Rs 510

(B) Rs 500

(C) Rs 575

(D) Rs 600

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Question 62 : Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at the rate of 120 per year.
Village B has a population of 4200, which is increasing at the rate of 80 per year. In how many years
will the population of the two villages will become equal ?

(A) 9

(B) 11

(C) 13

(D) 16

Question 63 : What is the least integer which when added to both terms of the ratio 5 : 9 will make a
ratio greater than 7 : 10 ?

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 5

(D) 7

Question 64 : 10 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days and 15 women can complete the
same work in 12 days. If all the 10 men and 15 women work together, in how many days will the
work get completed ?

(A) 6

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Question 65 : A can complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of
21km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.

(A) 220 km

(B) 224 km

(C) 230 km

(D) 234 km

Question 66 : How many different letter arrangements can be made from the letter of the word
EXTRA in such a way that the vowels are always together ?

(A) 48

(B) 60

(C) 40

(D) 30

Question 67 : If A and B are two independent events with P(A) = 0.6, P(B) = 0.3, then P (A’ á´– B’)
is equal to:

(A) 0.18

(B) 0.28

(C) 0.82

(D) 0.72

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Question 68 :

(A)

sin 600

(B)

cos 600

(C) tan 600

(D) sin 300

Passage : Percentage of marks obtained by six students in six subjects is –

Faculty

Institution Arts Commerce Science Engineering Management

A 125 187 216 98 74

B 96 152 198 157 147

C 144 235 110 164 127

D 165 138 245 66 36

E 215 196 287 86 66

F 184 212 195 112 97

G 225 206 182 138 89

Question 69 :

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Approximately what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Q in all the subjects ?

(A) 77

(B) 72

(C) 78

(D) 70

(E) 74

Passage : The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer :

Question 70 : What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?

(I) The interest after one year was Rs 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two
years was Rs 10.

(A) Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient

(B) Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient

(C) BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient

(D) EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 71 : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences
are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will
signify a ‘No error’ response.

(A) In science, the credit goes to a man

(B) who convinces the world

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(C) not to the man to whom the idea first occurs

(D) No error

Question 72 : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences
are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will
signify a ‘No error’ response.

(A) It is only after

(B) the match is over

(C) that people realize how exciting it is

(D) No error

Question 73 : Spot the error part of the following sentences.

(A) The water of

(B) this tank

(C) is too cold

(D) No error

Question 74 : Spot the error part of the following sentences.

(A) He

(B) ran

(C) very fastly

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(D) No error

Question 75 : Find out the error part of the following sentences.

(A) She go for

(B) a walk every

(C) morning to the park

(D) No error

Passage : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Question 76 : To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.

(A) To annul

(B) To negate

(C) To efface

(D) To undo

Passage : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Question 77 : Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.

(A) Pious

(B) Reverent

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(C) Humble

(D) Devout

Question 78 : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, will
be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.

(A) The bank may have followed

(B) an aggressive monetary tightening policy

(C) curbing information have not been achieved

(D) No error

Question 79 : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, will
be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.

(A) Neither the girl nor her parents

(B) was present

(C) to receive the award

(D) No error

Question 80 : Find the error in of the following sentences, if any, if there is no error answer is No
error.

(A) No other newspaper

(B) has so large a circulation

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(C) like this newspaper in India

(D) No error

Question 81 : Find the error in of the following sentences, if any, if there is no error answer is No
error.

(A) We can decide it

(B) only after

(C) farther investigation

(D) No error

Passage : Select the combination of numbers so that letters/words arranged accordingly will form a
meaningful word.

Question 82 : E T C K O P
12 34 56

(A) 3 1 4 5 6 2

(B) 6 5 3 4 1 2

(C) 2 1 6 5 3 4

(D) 4 1 2 8 5 6

Passage : Select the combination of numbers so that letters/words arranged accordingly will form a
meaningful word.

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Question 83 : E L G N I M
12 3456

(A) 6 5 4 3 2 1

(B) 3 1 2 6 5 4

(C) 6 5 3 2 1 4

(D) 3 5 6 8 1 4

Question 84 : In these questions read sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentences. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the
answer is (D) or (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

(A) I would appreciate if readers

(B) would write to me

(C) about how they mediate

(D) No error

Question 85 : In these questions read sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentences. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the
answer is (D) or (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

(A) He walks

(B) as if the earth

(C) belong to him

(D) No error

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Question 86 : What does the acronym "ATC" stand for?

(A) Air Traffic Control

(B) Aircraft Traffic Communication

(C) Air Transportation Command

(D) Aeronautical Traffic Control

Question 87 : Which of the following is a type of cloud often associated with thunderstorms?

(A) Cirrus

(B) Stratus

(C) Cumulonimbus

(D) Altocumulus

Question 88 : What is the function of an aircraft's black box?

(A) Record flight data and cockpit voice

(B) Enhance radar detection

(C) Store navigation charts

(D) Control aircraft systems

Question 89 : What is the primary purpose of a NOTAM?

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(A) Provide weather updates

(B) Alert pilots to important information

(C) Report maintenance issues

(D) Record flight plans

Question 90 : What is the maximum allowable airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?

(A) 200 knots

(B) 250 knots

(C) 300 knots

(D) 350 knots

SUBJECT: Current Affairs

Question 91 : Who has been appointed as the new MD of the National Housing Bank ?

(A) Sanjay Shukla

(B) Rajeev Kumar

(C) Ashwini Kumar

(D) Sunil Kumar

Question 92 : Which Indian shooter won the bronze medal at the Paris Olympics ?

(A) Abhinav Bindra

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(B) Swapnil Kusale

(C) Vijayveer Sidhu

(D) Manu Bhaker

Question 93 : Which Indian company's executive has joined the Board of Directors of the US India
Strategic and Partnership Forum (USISPF) ?

(A) Reliance Industries

(B) Tata Sons

(C) Infosys

(D) Adani Group

Question 94 : Who is the first woman Director General of Medical Services (Army) ?

(A) Lt Gen Eliza Fernandez

(B) Lt Gen Madhuri Kanitkar

(C) Lt Gen Priyanka Kochhar

(D) Lt Gen Renuka Chatterjee

Question 95 : Which Indian city is known as the "City of Joy" ?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Delhi

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(C) Kolkata

(D) Chennai

Question 96 : The Great Barrier Reef is the largest coral reef system in the world. In which country
is it located ?

(A) Australia

(B) Indonesia

(C) Philippines

(D) Malaysia

Question 97 : Which Indian state is known as the "Land of Five Rivers" ?

(A) Punjab

(B) Haryana

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 98 : Who is the author of the Indian national anthem, "Jana Gana Mana" ?

(A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

(B) Rabindranath Tagore

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

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(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 99 : Who has been elected as the President of the Indian Newspaper Society for?

(A) Vivek Gupta

(B) Shreyams Kumar

(C) Rakesh Sharma

(D) Karan Verma

Question 100 : Which export restriction was lifted by the Central Government?

(A) Wheat

(B) Sugar

(C) Non-basmati white rice

(D) Pulses

Solutions & Answers

Question 1 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 2 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 3 :

Correct Answer:B

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Question 4 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 5 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 6 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 7 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 8 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 9 :

Correct Answer:D

Question 10 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 11 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 12 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 13 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 14 :

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Correct Answer:C

Question 15 :

Correct Answer:D

Question 16 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 17 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 18 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 19 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 20 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 21 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 22 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 23 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 24 :

Correct Answer:A

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Question 25 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 26 :

Correct Answer:D

Question 27 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 28 :

Correct Answer:D

Question 29 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 30 :

Correct Answer:D

Question 31 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:C

Question 32 :

Solution : In the subsequent figures the designs moves downward stepwise and ascends in one step.
From Problem Figure (1) to (2) the right most design is replaced by a new design, and other designs
move to the right while the third design from left moves to the left most position. From Problem
Figure (2) to (3) the left most design is replaced by a new design and other designs move to the right
and the right most design move to the third position from the right. Similar changes occur in the
subsequent figures.

Correct Answer:E

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Question 33 :

Solution :
Girls are : K, L, O

Correct Answer:C

Question 34 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:B

Question 35 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:C

Question 36 :

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Solution :

Correct Answer:B

Question 37 :

Solution : K $ H => K > H

H % I => H I
I © F => I = F
Therefore, K > H I = F
Conclusions
I. K $ I => K > I: True
II. H % F=> H F : True
(36 – 38):
$ => => <
# => , => =
% => => >

Correct Answer:E

Question 38 :

Solution : P ¸ Q ® P is son of Q.
Q – T ® Q is father of T.
T is either brother or sister of P.

Correct Answer:D

Question 39 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:C

Question 40 :

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Solution : The number 36 is a perfect square.

Correct Answer:E

Question 41 :

Solution : Here young one-animal relationship has been shown. Cub is baby of tiger. Similarly,
kitten is baby of cat.

Correct Answer:B

Question 42 :

Solution : AB, ABC

BC, BCD
CD, CDE

Correct Answer:B

Question 43 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:D

Question 44 :

Solution : Both the Premises are Particular Affirmative (I-type).

Both the Premises are already aligned. We know that no Conclusion follows from Particular
Premises.
Conclusion I is the Converse of the first Premise.

Correct Answer:A

Question 45 :

Solution : The element ‘is’ at the tenth position from the right end is the second last step.

Correct Answer:B

Question 46 :

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Correct Answer:C

Question 47 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 48 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 49 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 50 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 51 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 52 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 53 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 54 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 55 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 56 :

Solution : 729 = 93 = 36, Now 4X – 2 = 6 or X = 2.

Correct Answer:C

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Question 57 :

Solution : Use test of 11 after putting y = 5

Correct Answer:C

Question 58 :

Solution : The middle number = Sum of the first six + Sum of the last six – Sum of all the 11.
= 6 x 10.5 + 6 x 10.5 – 11 x 10.9
= 63 + 68.4 – 119.9
= 11.5

OR
11 terms
Deviation = (10.5 – 10.9) x 6 + (11.4 – 10.9) x 6 = -2.4 + 3 = 0.6
This deviation is due to extra counting 6th term
6th term = 10.9 + 0.6 = 11.5

Correct Answer:A

Question 59 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:A

Question 60 :

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Solution : % reduction in consumption

Correct Answer:A

Question 61 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:B

Question 62 :

Solution : Checking with options, we find that after 13 years, population of the village A = 6800 –
120 x 13 = 5240
And that of village B = 4200 + 80 x 13 = 5240

Correct Answer:C

Question 63 :

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Solution :

Correct Answer:C

Question 64 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:C

Question 65 :

Solution : Let the total distance be x km. Then,

Correct Answer:B

Question 66 :

Solution : Considering the two vowels E and A as one letter, the total no. of letters in the word
‘EXTRA’ is 4 which can be arranged in 4P4, i.e. 4! ways and the two vowels can be arranged among
themselves in 2! ways.

Reqd. No. = 4! X 2! = 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 x 2 x 1 = 48

Correct Answer:A

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Question 67 :

Solution : Since A and B are independent events

A’ and B’s are also independent events
→ P (A’ á´– B’) = P(A’).P(B’)
→ (0.4) (0.7) = 0.28
[ P(A’) = 1 – P(A), P(B’) = 1 – P(B)]

Correct Answer:B

Question 68 :

Solution :

Correct Answer:A

Question 69 :

Solution :

Total marks obtained by Q in all subjects

= 55% of 60 + 70% of 40 + 67% of 80 + 74% of

50 + 88% of 120 + 78% of 75

= 33 + 28 + 53.60 + 37 + 105.6 + 58.50 = 315.7

percentage of markes =

Correct Answer:E

Question 70 :

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Solution :
From (II), R can be calculated.
Hence, C. I. after 3 years can be determined.
Therefore, each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Answer:D

Question 71 :

Solution : Use ‘the’ in place of ‘a’ because ‘The’ person who convinced the world is definite.

Correct Answer:A

Question 72 :

Solution : use ‘a’ in place of ‘the’, here we are not taking about definite match.

Correct Answer:B

Question 73 :

Solution : Use ‘very’ in place of ‘too’.

Correct Answer:C

Question 74 :

Solution : Change ‘fastly’ into ‘fast’.

Correct Answer:C

Question 75 :

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Solution : Use ‘goes’ in place of ‘go’. To refer an activity that is a habitual action we use simple
present tense.

Correct Answer:A

Question 76 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 77 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 78 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 79 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 80 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 81 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 82 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 83 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 84 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 85 :

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Correct Answer:C

Question 86 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 87 :

Correct Answer:C

Question 88 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 89 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 90 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 91 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 92 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 93 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 94 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 95 :

Correct Answer:C

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Question 96 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 97 :

Correct Answer:A

Question 98 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 99 :

Correct Answer:B

Question 100 :

Correct Answer:C

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