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Ncs-Past Questions and Answers

This practice pack is designed to help candidates prepare for the Nigerian Customs Recruitment aptitude test, consisting of 4 sets of questions covering Mathematics, English, and Current Affairs. Each set includes 20 questions from each subject, to be completed in 60 minutes. The document also provides answers and explanations for the questions, emphasizing the importance of speed and accuracy in preparation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
9K views143 pages

Ncs-Past Questions and Answers

This practice pack is designed to help candidates prepare for the Nigerian Customs Recruitment aptitude test, consisting of 4 sets of questions covering Mathematics, English, and Current Affairs. Each set includes 20 questions from each subject, to be completed in 60 minutes. The document also provides answers and explanations for the questions, emphasizing the importance of speed and accuracy in preparation.

Uploaded by

mahashir2
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ABOUT THIS PRACTICE PACK

Use this practice pack to extend your practice for the Nigerian Customs Recruitment
aptitude test.

TEST FORMAT

This practice pack comprises of 4 sets of questions. Each set contains

20 MATHEMATICS
20 ENGLISH
20 CURRENT AFFAIRS

ENGLISH Section will include Comprehension and fill in the gap questions.

TIME: 60Minutes / 60 questions.

Here's a word of advice... Beyond just reading, please make sure you set a timer for
yourself, and practice each section according to the allotted time. Your Speed
and Accuracy is key! Also be current with the news and happenings in Nigeria.
Goodluck.

Important Notice: You can find all the answers to the questions in the answer
key section - at the end of each set.

Questions on this ebook are compiled from previous years.

3
MATHS SET 1
1. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice.
Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were
cats. How many cats do you think there were?
A. 991
B. 1009
C. 997
D. 999
E. None of these

2. Find the value of (598+194)2−(598−194)2598×194


A. 404
B. 4
C. 792
D. 312
E. None of these

3. A rectangular plate with length 8 inches, breadth 11 inches and thickness 2 inches
is available. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 10 inches and equal
to the volume of the rectangular plate?
A. 2.24 inches
B. 3.5 inches
C. 4.25 inches
D. 4.48 inches
E. None of these

4. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 37°C and of Tuesday to


Thursday was 34°C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then
what was the temperature on Thursday?
A. 36.5°C
B. 36°C
C. 35.5°C
D. 34°C
E. 33.5°C

5. The average number of visitors of a library in the first 4 days of a week was 58. The
average for the 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th days was 60.If the number of visitors on the 1st

4
and 5th days were in the ratio 7:8 then what is the number of visitors on the 5th day
of the library?
A. 18
B. 64
C. 58
D. 56
E. None of these

6. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day. How many hour
a day should 40 men take in 20 days to complete the job?
A. 6 hours/day
B. 6.5 hours/day
C. 7 hours/day
D. 6.75 hours/day
E. 7.75 hours/day

7. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes.
Working together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75

8. Find the least number when divided by 7 gives the reminder 6, when divided by 6
gives reminder 5, when divided by 5 gives reminder 4 and so on….
A. 419
B. 319
C. 257
D. 299
E. None of these

9. A triangle is made from a rope. The sides of the triangle are 12 cm, 14 cm and 18
cm. What will be the area of the square made from the same rope?
A. 196
B. 324
C. 121

5
D. 144
E. None of These

10. Find the largest number which gives out remainders 2 and 5 respectively when
used to divide 80 and 122 .
A. 19
B. 17
C. 13
D. Infinite number of solutions
E. None of these

11. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then


A. b<a
B. b>a
C. b=a
D. b >= a
E. None of these

12. What will come in place of question mark in the following equation?
283 × 56 + 252 = 20 × ?
A. 805
B. 803
C. 807
D. 809
E. None of these

13. Derrick was all bent on building a new house. He carefully got the blue print of his
house designed by his friend Josh, a civil engineer. He wanted to build a room of
dimension 27 by 48 ft and lay tiles in this room. Each tile was of dimension 2 by 3 ft.
How many tiles should Derrick buy?
A. 216
B. 125
C. 264
D. 64
E. None of these

14. Complete the series 2, 7, 22, 67, _

6
A. 128
B. 100
C. 202
D. 156

15. Direction: The question below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements
and give answer.
What is the rate of interest?
I. Simple interest accured on an amount of Rs.215000 in two years is less than the
compound interest for the same period by Rs.250
II. Simple interest accured in 10 years is equal to the principal.
A. Data in Statement I along are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in Statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

16. The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly
divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is:
A. 23.0
B. 13.0
C. 3.0
D. 33.0
E. None of these

17. Find the number of sides of a regular convex polygon whose interior angle is 40
degrees?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 4
D. 6

7
E. Not possible

18. 3 types of chickens: Baby chickens cost 5 cents, hen chickens cost 3 dollars, and
rooster chickens cost 5 dollars Buy 100 chickens for 100 dollars How many will you
have from each?
A. 20, 9, 71
B. 70, 3, 27
C. 18, 2, 80
D. 80, 2, 18
E. 90, 2, 8

19. The sum of two numbers is 45 and their product is 500. The HCF of the numbers
is:
A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15
E. None of the above

20. If n=4p, where p is a prime number greater than 2, how many different positive
even divisors does n have including n?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 3

8
ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B

6. D 7. E 8. A 9. C 10. E

11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. C

16. A 17. E 18. D 19. A 20. B

EXPLANATION

1. Solution: A
We can write 999919 as product of 2 numbers in the following manner
⇒999919 = 991× 1009
Also we have number of cats < rats killed by each cat.
Hence, we can safely assume that each cat has killed 1009 mice and there were 991
cats.

2. Solution: B
Now the given expression is
⇒(598+194)2−(598−194)2598×194
Formula :
We know (A + B)2 = A2 + 2AB + B2
(A - B)2 = A2 - 2AB + B2
If (A-B)2 is subtracted from (A+B)2 then ,
(A+B)2 - (A-B)2 = (A2 + 2AB + B2) – (A2 - 2AB + B2) = 4AB
Using the above formula we can see that it is similar to (A+B)2 - (A-B)2 . Where A is
598 and B is 194
=(598+194)2−(598−194)2598×194=4×598×194598×194
=4
Hence the answer is 4.

9
3. Solution: A
We have volume of rectangular plate = Length × Breadth × Height
= 8 × 11 × 2
= 176 inch3
We have area of rod = πr2
⇒ (22/7) × (10/2) × (10/2) = 550/7 inch2
Volume of rod = Area × Length = volume of plate
Length of rod= volume of plate/area = 176/(550/7)
= 176 × 7/550
= 1232/550
= 2.24 inches

4. Solution: B
Let’s denote Monday by Mo, Tuesday by Tu, Wednesday by We, and Thursday by Th
Given
Mo + Tu + We = 3 × 37 ----- (Eq.1)
Tu + We + Th = 3 × 34 --- (Eq.2)
Eq.1 – Eq.2
⇒ Mo - Th = 3 × (37 - 34) = 9 ……………….(Eq.3)
Given,
Th = (4/5) × Mo
⇒ Mo = (5/4) × Th
Put it in Equation (3)
⇒ ((5/4) - 1) × Th = 9
⇒Th = 36°C

5. Solution B
Let number of visitors on first 5 days of a week ne a, b, c, d, e respectively

10
Hence we have
⇒ a + b + c + d/4 = 58
⇒ a + b + c + d = 58 × 4
⇒ a + b + c + d = 232-------[1]
Now we have
⇒ b + c + d + e /4 = 60
Hence, b + c + d + e = 240 -------[2]
Now, [2] - [1]
⇒ (b + c + d + e) – (a + b + c + d) = 240 – 232
⇒e-a=8
We are also given that e: a = 8:7
Hence, let e=8m then a=7m
We are given 8m-7m=8
⇒m=8
Hence, number of visitors of fifth day = e = 8m
=8×8
= 64

6. Solution: D
Let the hours required = x
Total hour = 20 × 9 = 180 hours
We know that
Work = strength × time
∴ Strength×time
work=1
∴30×180
1
=40×x

11
1
⇒ x = 135 hours
For a completing the job in 20 days 40 men have to do = 135/20 = 6.75 hours a day

7. Solution: E
We know that Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes.
Hence, number of pages she can type in 30 mins = 10/5 × 30
⇒60
We know that Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes
Hence, number of pages she can type in 30 mins = 5/10 × 30
⇒15
Total number of pages typed by both in 30 minutes = 60 + 15
⇒ 75

8. Solution: A
Let us have that number as m.
Then we have, when m is divided by 7 gives the reminder 6, when divided by 6 gives
reminder 5, when divided by 5 gives reminder 4 and so on
Hence we can say that m+1 should be perfectly divisible by 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1.
Hence, we have m+1 = LCM (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7)
⇒ m + 1 = 420
⇒ m = 420 – 1
⇒ m = 419

9. Solution: C
Let the side of the square formed = a
Perimeter of the square = 4a
⇒ 4a = length of the rope = Perimeter of triangle = 12 + 14 + 18 = 44
⇒ 4a = 44

12
⇒ a = 11
Area of square = a × a = 11 × 11 = 121

10. Solution: E
Since when 80 is divided by the number remainder is 2. Hence 80 – 2 = 78 will be
divisible by the number.
Similarly, when 122 is divided by the number remainder is 5. Hence 122 – 5 = 117 will
be divisible by the number
Finding out the HCF of 78 and 117
⇒HCF(78 , 117) = 39

11. Solution: A
Given expression is-
(a – b)/3.5 = 4/7
⇒ (a – b) = 3.5 × (4/7)
⇒ (a – b) = 14/7
⇒ (a – b) = 2
⇒a=b+2
We can see that
a>b

12. Solution: A
283 × 56 + 252 = 20 × ?
⇒ 15848 + 252 = 20x
⇒ x = 805

13. Solution: A
Since are of a rectangle = Length × breadth
∴ Total area of the room = 27 × 48
= 1296 sq ft

13
∴ Area of 1 tile = 2 × 3
= 6 sq feet
Hence, number of tiles required = 1296 / 6
= 216 tiles

14. Solution: C
2+5=7
7 + 15 = 22
22 + 45 = 67
67 + 135 = 202

15. Solution: C
C.I. = A - P = P (1 + R/100)T - P
S.I. = (P × R × T)/100
Where, C.I. = Compound Interest,
A = Amount,
P = Principal = 215000
R = % of Rate
T = Time Period = 2 years
S.I. = Simple Interest
Statement 1
⇒ C.I. - S.I. = 250
⇒ P (1 + R/100)T - P - (P × R × T)/100 = 250
Clearly, in above equation the unknown is only R
Hence the equation can be solved for R
⇒ Statement 1 alone can solve the question
Statement 2 :
⇒ S.I. = (PRT)/100
⇒ For T = 10 years, P = 10PR/100

14
⇒ R = 10
⇒ Statement 2 alone can solve the question
Both statements alone are sufficient to solve the equation

16. Solution: A
For a number to be divisible by 5, 6, 4, 3, it should be divisible by their LCM.
Their LCM = 60
So, we want the least number greater than 2497 which is divisible by 60.
When 2497 is divided by 60, we get a remainder of 37 and quotient of 41.
So, we need another (60 – 37) = 23 to make the number divisible by 60.
So, 23 need to be added to 2497.
(2497 + 23 = 2520 = 60 × 42)

17. Solution: E
We have interior angle as 40 degrees.
Hence Let n be the number of sides of that polygon,
Then formula is
⇒180 × (n-2) = 40 × n
⇒180n – 360 = 40n
⇒140n = 360
Since, no integer value of n is possible, hence such a polygon cannot exist

18. Solution: D
Say we buy B, H and R amounts of Baby, Hen and Rooster chickens.
Given (B × 0.05) + (H × 3) + (R × 5) = 100 Dollars
Also given that (B + H + R) = 100 Chickens.
We have three variables and only two equations to solve the problem. We have to
use trial and error to try all possible combinations.
We know that R should be less than 20 or else the cost would go beyond 100 dollars.

15
We try for R = 19
⇒ B + H = 81 and 0.05B + 3H = 5, this has no integer solution.
We try for R = 18
⇒ B + H = 82 and 0.05B + 3H = 10
⇒ B = 80 and H = 2
∴ B, H and R = 80, 2 and 18 respectively.

19. Solution: A
Let the 1st no. = a
Let the 2nd no. = b
⇒ a + b = 45 ..... (i)
⇒ a × b = 500 ..... (ii)
Substituting Value of "b" from (i) in (ii)
⇒ a × (45 - a) = 500
⇒ a2 - 45a + 500 = 0
⇒ a2 - 20a -25a + 500 = 0
⇒ a(a - 20) - 25(a - 20) = 0
⇒ (a - 25)(a - 20) = 0
⇒ a = 25 or a =20
From eq (i)
we get b = 20 or b = 25
Either Case two numbers are 20 & 25
HCF is greatest common Factor
20 = 2 × 2 × 5
25 = 5 × 5
Clearly seen from prime factorization of both numbers that the HCF = 5

20.Solution: B
Given that p is a prime number and it should be greater than 2,

16
So p will be odd number which is greater than 2
Since n =4p, n is even number
This means that n has 4 even divisors which are: 2, 4, 2p, 4p
⇒ Ex: if we take p =3, then n = 12
12 = 2 × 6 = 3 × 4 = 1 × 12
Even Divisors of 12 = 2, 4, 6 (2p), 12 (4p) = 4 even divisors

17
SET 1 ENGLISH
1. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

One characteristic of a dialect as mentioned in the passage is ______.


A. informality
B. possession of various forms
C. distinction from British English
D. restricted area of usage

2. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

18
According to the author, Nigerian, American, Irish and British English can be regarded
as ______.
A. registers
B. standards
C. styles
D. languages

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


3. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

According to the passage, International English is _______.


A. a kind of arbitrary classification
B. an imaginary classification
C. an informal standard
D. a recognised formal standard

4. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each

19
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as International English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

The author refers to Standard English as ______.


A. a dialectal variant of language that is accepted and recognized
B. language spoken by users who are set apart by culture or geography
C. an official and accurate usage of language
D. accepted and recognized words, expressions and structures

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
5. The politician was given a TUMULTOUS welcome when he came to address the
rally.
A. pleasant
B. noisy
C. discouraging
D. strange
E. well organised

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the
word written in capital letters.
6. Mr. Jonah plays the piano with great DEXTERITY.
A. wisdom
B. power
C. force
D. skill

20
E. style

Choose from the options lettered A-E, the most appropriate interpretation for the
given statement.
7. The children were all ears as the teacher narrated the story. This means that they
were _____.
A. anxious
B. attentive
C. restless
D. patient
E. distracted

From the options lettered A-E, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
8. Some candidates take examinations in their stride. This means that they ______.
A. prepare hard for them
B. do not worry about them
C. find them insurmountable
D. are familiar with them
E. are reluctant about taking examinations

From the options lettered A-E, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
9. My book has become dog-eared through use. This means that _____.
A. the corners of the pages of my book are crumpled
B. my book is designed like dog's ears.
C. my book is torn.
D. my book is indispensable
E. my book has been unused

21
From the options lettered A-E, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
10. His decision to reconcile with his former agent paid off. This means that the
reconciliation _____.
A. yielded positive results
B. cost him a lot of money
C. was successful
D. caused him some trouble.
E. paid his bills

Choose from the options lettered A-E, the most appropriate interpretation for the
given statement.
11. Incoming students are expected to start registration immediately to avoid
bottlenecks. This means they are expected to start registration immediately to avoid
______.
A. being arrested
B. being embarrassed by the school authority
C. forfeiting the admission
D. unnecessary delay
E. being expelled
The correct answer is option [D]

From the options lettered A-E, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
12. The beauty of Bimpe's garden shows that she has green fingers. This means that
Bimpe ____.
A. always paints her fingers green
B. is good at growing plants
C. turns everything she touches to green

22
D. likes keeping green objects
E. steals seed to plant

Choose from the options lettered A-E, the most appropriate interpretation for the
given statement.
13. Well, it seems Alao got out of bed on the wrong side today. This means that he
______.
A. is in a bad mood
B. woke up late
C. is extremely excited
D. is ill
E. slept on the wrong side

From the options lettered A-E, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
14. Her husband's death has forced her to tighten her belt. This means that she has
_____.
A. become more economical
B. adjusted her belt
C. become very aggressive.
D. become very greedy
E. started wearing tight belts

15. The principal queried our teacher for always taking a French leave. This means
that our teacher always ______.
A. travels to France during the holidays
B. eats french leaves
C. likes going on leave
D. leaves the school without permission

23
E. taking a long leave

16. Which of the following phrases (1), (2), (3), (4) given below in the statement should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is required’, mark (5) as the
answer.
Our neighbours are always trying to keep up with our lifestyle.
A. to keep on
B. to keep at
C. to keeping on
D. to keep off
E. No Correction is required

17. Select the correct tense.


Kiran had been working in a bank for some years.
A. Simple past
B. Past continuous
C. Past perfect continuous
D. Past perfect.
E. None of the above

18. Select the correct tense:


I had seen him earlier.
A. Past continuous
B. Past perfect
C. Past perfect continuous
D. Future perfect
E. Simple Past

24
19. Select the correct tense:
She had played carom.
A. Future perfect
B. Past perfect
C. Present perfect
D. Simple present
E. None of the above

20.Select the correct plural form for the given word:


Country
A. Countrys
B. Countryes
C. Countries
D. Countrees
E. None of the above

25
ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. A

11. D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D

16. E 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. C

EXPLANATION
1. The correct answer is Option [D]
2. The correct answer is option [D]
3. The correct answer is option [B]
4. The correct answer is option [C]
5. The correct answer is option [B].
Tumultuous means noisy, turbulent, violent
Pleasant means a feeling of enjoyment, pleasure or satisfaction. it also means to be
friendly, kind, or good-natured.
Noisy means loud, ear-splitting sound.
Discouraging means not encouraging or dissuading...
Strange means peculiar or unusual.
Well organised means done properly or in an orderly manner.
6. The correct answer is option [D].
Dexterity implies skill and ease in the use of the hands.
7. The correct answer is option [B]
8. The correct answer is option [A]
9. The correct answer is option [A]
10. The correct answer is option [A]
11. The correct answer is option [D]
12. The correct answer is option [B]
13. The correct answer is option [A]

26
14. The correct answer is option [A]. After the sentence, a list of possible
interpretations is given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for the sentence.
15. The correct answer is option [D]
16. The correct answer is option [E]
'Keep up' (with someone/something) means to stay at the same level as someone or
something and fits the context of the sentence. Also none of ‘keep on’ to continue
doing something, ‘keep at’ means to persevere and ‘keep off’ means avoid
encroaching on or touching, is implied in the sentence.
17. The correct answer is option [C]
(Had + been + root + ing) is used to make past perfect continuous tense and
indicates that an activity was being carried on in the past, continued for some time
and is no longer continued.

18. The correct answer is option [B]


This is an easy one: the use of ‘had + past participle’ clearly indicates that it is in the
Past Perfect tense.

19. The correct answer is option [B]


‘Past perfect tense’ uses ‘had + past participle’ form of the verb, same as given in the
sentence.

20. The correct answer is option [C]


Words whose singular form ends in ‘y’ have their plural forms ending in ‘ies’. E.g.
Cherry – Cherries, Party - Parties, Pastry - Pastries etc. Along the same lines, we
have country - countries.

27
SET 1 CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Who formed the first political party in Nigeria?
A Obasanjo
B Osama
C Obi
D Herbert Macaulay

2. What was the first political party in Nigeria?


A APC
B PDP
C NNDP
D AD

3. What Year was Nigerian Customs Service founded


A. 1880
B. 1990
C. 1891
D. 2014

4. Who is the Comptroller-General of The Nigerian Customs


A. Mr. Ayodele Diyan
B. Alhaji Shehu A. Musa,
C. Mr. Henny Etim Duke
D. Col. Hameed Ibrahim Ali

5. Who is the current president of Nigeria?


A. Obasanjo
B. Saraki
C. Buhari
D. Jonathan

28
6. Who is the current vice president of Nigeria?
A. Osibanjo
B. Atiku
C. Peter obi
D. Namadi sambo

7. What Year was The Board of Customs & Excise set up


A. 1 June, 1972
B. 4 April, 1962
C. 31 January, 1900
D. 6, May, 1999

8. Under What Arm of the Government is The Nigerian Customs


A. Legislative
B. Executive
C. Judiciary
D. None

9. What does the eagle in the Nigerian coat of arm


represent?
A peace
B Terror
C. Agriculture
D. Strength

10. Representative democracy is best characteristic by


A. free elections and proper registers of voters
B. a politically educated electorate
C. rule by the interest group
D. proper constituencies and a real choice of candidates

11. The Chairman of the Nigerian Custom Service Board is same as the __________

29
A. Minister of Finance
B. Head of The Customs Service
C. Comptroller General of Customs
D. President of Nigeria

12. The first Nigerian Chairman of the Board of the NCS is ______
A. Late Mr. James Lawanson
B. Mr. Ayodele Diyan
C. Alhaji Shehu A. Musa,
D. Mr. Henny Etim Duke

13. While political parties aim at forming a government, pressure groups aim at
A. causing social unrest
B. influencing governmental decisions
C. controlling nation’s economy
D. getting workers to unite

14. When the electorate vote for representatives who in turn vote on their behalf we
say it is
A. an indirect election
B. an unfair election
C. a disputed election
D. a rigged electron

15. The first Nigerian Chairman of the Board of the NCS was appointed in the Year
_______
A. 1908
B. 1955
C. 1964
D. 1999

30
16. The first Director of the Department of Customs and Excise is _________
A. Alhaji Shehu A. Musa,
B. Snr. James Bruce
C. Mr. Kunle Bankole
D. Mr. Idris Johnson

17. An election which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a


A. by election
B. general election
C. referendum
D. plebiscite

18. Which of these countries does NOT operate a federal constitution


A.USA
B. Nigeria
C. Canada
D. France

19. The first major reorganization of The NCS took place in _________
A. 1990
B. 1975
C. 1900
D. 2012

31
20. The First Director-General of Customs is
A. Mr. T. A. Wall
B. Mr. Solanke Sodiq
C. Sir Isaac Lawal
D. Mr Lawson Green

32
ANSWERS
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C

6. E 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A

11. A 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C

16. A 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. A

33
MATHS SET 2
1. Find the smallest 8-digit number which gives 15 as a remainder when divided by 38,
22 and 16.
A. 10002004
B. 10002015
C. 10001919
D. 10000015
E. None of these

2. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average
speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30
minutes. The duration of the flight is:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
E. 5 hours

3. Water flows into a tank 200 m × 150 m through a rectangular pipe of 1.5m × 1.25 m
@ 20 kmph. In what time (in minutes) will the water rise by 2 metres?
A. 48 min
B. 96 min
C. 108 min
D. 36 min
E. None of these

4. What is the next number of the following sequence 32, 29, 26, 64, 61, 58, 96, 93, ...
A. None of these
B. 90, 138, 1157

34
M
C. 90, 27, 126
D. 90, 128, 125

O
E. 128, 90, 27

C
5. Area of a square is given as 12800 sq miles, find the time taken by a lady to move
across a diagonal with speed of 15 miles per hour.

S.
A. 8 hours
B. 9 hours

AM
C. 8.5 hours
D. 10 hours
E. None of these.
RE
6. What should be missing term in the following number series?
8, 6, 17, 14, 35, 30, 71, 143
A. 62
ST

B. 56
C. 54
D. 64
ST

E. None of these

7. Complete the Series: 3, 10, 20, 27, _____, 44


TE

A. 39.0
B. 37.0
C. 34.0
D. 35.0

8. If the ratio of production of 3 different companies A,B & C is 4:7:5 and overall
production last year was 4 lac tonnes and if each company had an increase of 20%
in production level this year what is the production of company B this year?

35
A. 2.1 lac tonnes
B. 1.5 lac tonnes
C. 3.6 lac tonnes
D. 2.25 lac tonnes
E. None of these

9. What will come in place of question mark in the following equation?


1/4th of 1/2 of 3/4th of 52000 =?
A. 4875
B. 4857
C. 4785
D. 4865
E. None of these

10. What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
[(7.99)2 - (13.001)2 + (4.01)3] 2 = ?
A. -1800
B. 1450
C. -1680
D. 1681
E. -1450

11. If 9x - 3y = 12 and 3x - 5y = 7 then 6x - 2y = ?


A. -5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8

36
E. 5

12. Find the 25th word if the word JACKED is arranged in dictionary order….
A. ACDEJK
B. ADCEJK
C. AECDJK
D. AEDCJK
E. AJCDEK

13. 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?
A. 25.0
B. 22.0
C. 24.0
D. 26.0

14. Find the missing term in the following series:


5, 3, 12, 7, 26, 15, __?
A. 47
B. 27
C. 108
D. 31
E. 32

15. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data.
You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for
answering the questions.
Was David early, on time or late for work?

37
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast.
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow.
A. If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
B. If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
C. If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is
sufficient.
D. If both together are not sufficient.
E. None of the above

16. Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the
probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
A. 48/14785
B. 48/16575
C. 22/8750
D. 154/23584
E. None of these

17. There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10
green balls. You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you
choose a box at random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of
getting a red ball is maximized. This maximum probability is:
A. 1/2
B. 14/19
C. 37/38
D. 3/4
E. 2/3

18. There is a 5-digit no. Sum of 3 pairs of digits is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times
the first one. 3rd digit is 3 less than the second. 4th digit is 4 more than the second
one. Find the number.

38
A. 25296
B. 26594
C. 24569
D. 26458
E. None of these

19. Maximum numbers that can be formed using all the 4 digits 6, 4, 8, 1 without
repetition and which is divisible by 9?
A. 0
B. 450
C. 900
D. 150
E. None of these

20. A two-digit number is 18 less than the square of the sum of its digits. How many
such numbers are there?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

39
ANSWERS
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. E
26. A 27. B 28. A 29. A 30.D
31. D 32. B 33. A 34. A 35. D
36. B 37. B 38. A 39. A 40.B

EXPLANATION
1. Solution: C
Let us first find out the LCM of 38,22 and 16.
⇒ LCM(22,38,16)
⇒ 2 × 11 × 19 × 8
= 3344
Hence, every number which is divisible by 3344 is automatically divisible by 38, 22
and 16.
Now we divide 10000000 which is the least number of 8 digits to find out if it is
divisible by 3344
We need 10001904 to make is completely divisible by 3344.
Hence, since 15 is the remainder which is left in every case, hence, we can say that
10001904 + 15
Ie 10001919 is the least number which when divided by 38, 22 and 16 leaves a
remainder of 15 in every case.

2. Solution: A
Let, the original duration of flight be (t) hrs.
∵ Average Speed = Total Distance / Time

40
Total Distance of the flight is 600 km.
So, original average speed = 600/t
Due to bad weather speed of trip is reduced by 200 km/hr and time of flight is
increased by 30 minutes i.e. 0.5 hr.
∴ Reduced average speed = (600/t) – 200
And New duration of flight = (t + 0.5) hrs
So, the new average speed = 600/ (t + 0.5)
Equating,
⇒600t−200=600t+0.5⇒3t−1=3t+0.5⇒3−tt=3t+0.5
⇒ t2 + 0.5t – 1.5 = 0
⇒ 2t2 + t – 3 = 0
⇒ 2t2 – 2t + 3t – 3 = 0
⇒ (t – 1) (2t + 3) = 0
⇒ (t – 1) = 0
∴ t = 1 hr

3. Solution: B
We know that, formula:
Volume of any Cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height
According to the given question:
⇒ Volume of the water required in the tank = (200 × 150 × 2) m3 = 60000 m3 . . .
∴ Length of water column flown in1 min = (20 × 1000)/60 m = 1000/3 m
∴ Volume flown per minute = 1.5 × 1.25 × (1000/3) m3 = 625 m3.
∴ Required time = (60000/625) min = 96min.
Hence, the required answer is 96 minutes.

4. Solution: D
The pattern of the given number series is as:

41
Here the number series in the form of sets of 3 - 3 terms. i.e. among first 3 numbers
2nd and 3rd term is equal to the 3 subtracted from 1st terms and 2nd term
respectively and 4th term is multiplication if 1st term and 2 and again same process is
applied.
→ 32,
→ 32 – 3 = 29,
→ 29 – 3 = 26,
→ 32 × 2 = 64,
→ 64 – 3 = 61,
→ 61 – 3 = 58,
→ 32 × 3 = 96,
→ 96 – 3 = 93,
→ 93 – 3 = 90,
→ 32 × 4 = 128,
→ 128 – 3 = 125,
→ 125 – 3 = 122,
Hence, the required term of the given number series is 90, 128, 125, 122.

5. Solution: E
We have, area of a square = 12800 sq miles.
Hence side2 = 12800
Side = √12800
⇒ Side = 80√2
We know that diagonal of a square = √2 × side
= √2 × 80√2
= 160 miles.
Hence we know that speed = distance/time
Time = distance/speed
Time = 160/15

42
= 10.66 miles/hr.

6. Solution: A
We have the terms of the series as
⇒17 = (8) × 2 + 1
⇒14 = (6) × 2 + 2
⇒35 = (17) × 2 + 1
⇒30 = (14) × 2 + 2
⇒71 = (35) × 2 + 1
⇒? = (30) × 2 + 2
⇒? = 62
⇒143 = (71) × 2 + 1

7. Solution: B
3 + 7 = 10
10 + 10 = 20
20 + 7 = 27
27 + 10 = 37

8. Solution: A
Let production of companies A, B and C in last year was = 4m, 7m and 5m
respectively.
Hence,
We are given that
⇒ 4m + 7m + 5m = 4 lac tonnes
⇒ 16m = 4 lac tonnes
⇒ m = 4/16 lac tonnes
⇒ m = 0.25 lac tonnes

43
Hence, production of company B last year = 7m
= 7 × 0.25 lac tonnes
= 1.75 lac tonnes
After an increase of 20%, production of company B this year = 1.75 + 20% of 1.75
= 1.75 + (20/100) × 1.75
= 1.75 + 0.35
= 2.1 lac tonnes

9. Solution: A
1/4th of 1/2 of 3/4th of 52000 =14×12×34×52000=4875
Hence, option A

10. Solution: D
Since we want to find out approximate value,
So we can write these values to their nearest integers.
Given expression is –
[(7.99)2 - (13.001)2 + (4.01)3] 2 = ?
⇒ ? ≈ [82 – 132 + 43]2
⇒ ? = [64 – 169 + 64]2
⇒ ? = [- 41]2
⇒ ? = 1681

11. Solution: D
9x - 3y = 12 ..............(i)
3x - 5y = 7 ................(ii)
Multiplying eq. (ii) by (-3)
⇒ -3 ( 3x - 5y = 7 )
⇒ -9x + 15y = -21 ............(iii)

44
Adding equation (iii) & Equation (i)
( 9x - 3y ) + ( -9x + 15y) = 12 + (-21)
⇒ 9x - 3y -9x + 15y = -9
⇒ 12y = -9
⇒ y = (-9/12) ............... (iv)
Putting equation (iv) in equation (i)
⇒ 9x - 3(-9/12) = 12
⇒ 9x + (9/4) = 12
⇒ 9x = 12 - (9/4) = (39 / 4)
⇒ x = (13 /12) .................(v)
Putting Values of x, y from eq (iv) & (v) respectively in required expression
=> 6x -2y =?
=> 6(13/12) - 2(-9/12) =?
=> 39/6 + 9/6 =?
=> 48 / 6 =?
=> 8 =?

12. Solution: B
As in JACKED total number of letters are 6 and the lowest letter as per dictionary is A
so words starting with A are = 5! (number of letters left in JACKED other than A)
= 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120 words so 25th word will definitely start with A
And after A next letter is C so words starting with AC are = 4! (number of letters left in
JACKED other than A, C) = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24. So 25th word can’t start with AC.
And after AC in dictionary combination, to start words will be with AD and so 25th
word will start with AD which is ADCEJK (letters other than AD are arranged in
alphabetical order because dictionary follows this pattern)

13. Solution: A

45
In this simple alternating subtraction and addition series; 1 is subtracted, then 2 is
added, and so on.

14. Solution: A
given series 5, 3, 12, 7, 26, 15,
There are two alternative series
alternative terms 5, 12, 26, P
and Remaining terms 3, 7, 15,
From the first series 5, 12, 26,
⇒ 12 = 5 + (1 × 7)
⇒ 26 = 12 + (2 × 7)
⇒ P = 26 + (3 × 7)
⇒ P = 47

15. Solution: D
Statement 1
⇒ According to David the actual time is 10 minutes less than what was being shown
on his watch
∴ Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question whether he was early or
late
Statement 2
⇒ Actually The time was 5 minutes more than what was being shown on his watch
∴ Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question whether he was early or
late
⇒ Both the statements together neither tell us about the time shown on the watch
neither about the office timings

16. Solution: B
Probability of getting first card as king = 4/52

46
Probability of getting second card as queen = 4/51
Probability of getting third card as ace = 4/50
Hence, Total probability = 3! × 4/52 × 4/51 × 4/50
= 6 × 4/52 × 4/51 × 4/50
= 384/132600
= 48/16575

17. Solution: B
Probability of getting a red ball can be maximized by taking only one red ball in one
box and transferring all other red balls into other boxes.
Now probability of choosing each box is (1/2).
Probability of choosing red box = (1/2) × 1 + (1/2) × (9/19)
= (1/2) × (28/19) = 14/19

18. Solution: A
We are given a 5-digit number
Let first digit be 'X'
then 5th digit is '3X'
let 2nd digit be 'Y'
then 3rd digit is 'Y - 3'
and 4th digit is 'Y + 4'
then the no is '(X)(Y) (Y - 3) (Y + 4) (3X)'
from the above we can say 3X <= 9
so X<=3 and any of the digit in the number is <= 9
and also given that 3 pairs sum is 11...
Also Y–3 ≥ 0 and Y+4 ≤ 9
⇒ Y ≥ 3 and Y ≤ 5 i.e. Y = 3,4 or 5
for x = 1, all the conditions won’t be satisfied.

47
For x = 2,
Let Y = 5
∴ The number is 25296

19. Solution: A
Since we need to use all 4 digits of the given number, we need to see that the sum of
digits 6,4,8,1 = 19
And divisibility rule of 9 says that
For a number to be divisible by 9, the sum of its digits should be divisible by 9.
Hence, we can say that no numbers can be formed using all 4 digits and still divisible
by 9.

20.Solution: B
Say 10x + y is the number with y in unit’s place and x in ten’s place.
Given, number is 18 less than square of sum of digits
⇒ 10x + y + 18 = (x + y)2
∴ (x+y)(x+y) – (x+y) = 18 + 9x
⇒ (x+y)2 – (x+y) = 9(x+2)
Say (x+y) = p
⇒ p2 – p – k = 0, where k = 9(x+2)
Solving for p gives p = 0.5 + 0.5 × √(1+4k)
For p to be integer we need 1+4k to be a perfect square.
⇒ 1+4k = 1 + 4 × (9x + 18) = 73 + 36x should be a perfect square and x is and integer
from 0 to 9
By trial and error, we get x = 6 and x = 8 as possible solutions.
∴ There are two numbers satisfying the given conditions.

48
ENGLISH SET 2
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
1. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the man continued.' I'd
like to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said:
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and won't be back before
nightfall.
'Oh! said the stranger,' That's too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

Which of the following is true of the passage?


A. The stranger could not afford to miss the boat ride because he had come from a
very far place.
B. Though the stranger had a rich deep voice, Shola's father was more outspoken
than him.
C. Shola and her father were idle when the stranger approached them.
D. Shola's father sized the stranger's capability to pay.

49
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


2. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the island', the man continued. 'I'd like
to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said,
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman has gone to Badagry and won't be back
before nightfall'.
'Oh!', said the stranger, 'That's too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily, 'for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the island at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

How would you describe Shola's father?


A. A greedy boat man.
B. An energetic but good-for-nothing man.
C. A loving father who wants to safeguard the interest of his daughter.
D. A talkative fool.
E. An arrogant man

50
3. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the man continued.' I'd
like to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said:
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and won't be back before
nightfall.
'Oh! said the stranger,' That's too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

'Manoeuvre' as used in the passage means _______.


A. shrewdness
B. cleverness
C. attitude
D. strategy
E. game

4. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,

51
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the man continued.' I'd
like to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said:
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and won't be back before
nightfall.
'Oh! Said the stranger,' that’s too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

Which of the following is NOT true of the passage?


A. Shola did not approve of her father's behaviour towards the stranger.
B. Shola's father could row the stranger to the island alone if he so wished.
C. Shola's father exaggerated the difficulties in order to raise his fee.
D. Tunde Onu's boatman is the only man who knows how to sail beyond the bay to
the island.
E. The stranger had a fine, arrogant carriage.

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


5. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.

52
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the man continued.' I'd
like to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said:
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and won't be back before
nightfall.
'Oh! said the stranger,' That's too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

Which of the following is true of the stranger in the passage?


A. He was a good looking man with a deep voice, but very proud.
B. He was familiar with the people on the island.
C. He was a fine gentleman in need of help.
D. He was too proud to reciprocate Shola's love.
E. Shola knew the stranger and was excited to see him again.

6. Select the correct plural form for the given word:


Mouse
A. Mice
B. Mouses
C. Mices
D. Mouese

53
E. None of the Above

7. Select the correct plural form for the given word: brush
A. Brushes
B. Brushs
C. Brushies
D. Brush
E. None of the above

8. Select the correct plural form for the given word: child
A. Childs
B. Childrens
C. Children
D. Child
E. None of the above

9. Choose the best word/phrase to replace the underlined part in accordance with
grammatical usage, wherever necessary.
In his middle age even he preferred working hard to amuse himself.
A. Even in his middle age
B. In his middle age too
C. In his middle age even
D. Also in his middle age
E. In his middle age

10. Select the correct plural form for the given word: radius
A. Radiuses
B. Radii

54
C. Radiis
D. Radia
E. None of the above

OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the capitalised word.


11. We should regard donations as ______ and not COMPULSORY.
A. mandatory
B. necessary
C. voluntary
D. gratuitous
E. obligatory

Choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word in capital letters.


12. Lou APPROVED of the behavior of his sons during the Church service last week.
A. disliked
B. disappointed
C. sanctioned
D. rejected
E. endorsed

From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the underlined word and will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the
sentence.
13. Usually, Joseph is articulate in his speech, but today he sounds ____
A. clear
B. turgid
C. timid
D. incoherent

55
E. eloquent

From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the underlined word and will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the
sentence.
14. The man's first wife is loyal, while the second is ______.
A. unfaithful
B. unkind
C. selfish
D. hostile
E. harsh

Choose the option OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word written in capital letters.
15. The pastor decided to EXORCISE the evil spirit as the afflicted member of his
congregation cried for help.
A. expel

B. drive
C. invite
D. charm
E. pacify

From the options lettered A to E, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
16. The winner of the wrestling contest was commended for his tenacity.
A. strength
B. wisdom
C. doggedness
D. gentility

56
E. willingness

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the words written in capital letters..
17. The boss made a CLEAN SWEEP of all the old hands in the office.
A. The boss completely got rid of all the old hands in the office.
B. The boss promoted all the old hands in the office.
C. The boss made a ridicule of all the old hands in the office.
D. The boss gave a quick charge to all the old hands in the office.
E. The boss made an adjustment to the positions of all the old hands in the office.

Choose from the options lettered A -E, the one that is nearest in meaning to the
word written in italics in the sentence below.
18. He has been mandated to search for a new candidate for the post.
A. compelled
B. convinced
C. assigned
D. demanded
E. requested

Choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word in capital letters.


19. The soldiers RETREATED because their commander was shot.
A. scattered
B. surrendered
C. separated
D. advanced
E. submitted

57
From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
20. My friend was reduced to BEGGARLINESS by various ill-advised business deals.
A. affluence
B. penury
C. influence
D. poverty
E. impoverished

58
ANSWERS
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C

6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B

11. C 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C

16. C 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A

EXPLANATION
1. The correct answer is option [D].
2. The correct answer is option [A].
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay.
3. The correct answer is option [D]
Manoeuvre means a clever plan or movement, especially one used to deceive
people.
4. The correct answer is option [D].
5. The correct answer is option [C].
6. The correct answer is option [A]
The plural of ‘mouse’ is ‘mice’. One can’t always apply the rule of adding an ‘s’ to
change singular to plural. Some nouns have different (irregular) plural forms.
child – children
woman – women
man – men
mouse – mice
goose – geese
7. The correct answer is option [A]
For nouns that end in ‘ch’, ‘x’, ‘ss’, ‘s’, or ‘sh’ sounds we add ‘es’ to obtain the plural.
E.g.
box – boxes
watch – watches

59
boss – bosses
bus – buses
bush - bushes
8. The correct answer is option [C]
This is one of the nouns where we can’t obtain the plural by modifying the singular
form of the word. These nouns have different plural forms because these are
irregular. In this case, the plural of ‘child’ is ‘children’.
9. The correct answer is option [A]
‘Even’, ‘also’ and ‘too’ all nearly mean the same thing but there are differences in
their usage. ‘Also’ and ‘too’ are used when talking about an additional object. ‘Even’ is
used to talk about a case that is out of the ordinary. Like in this case – it wouldn’t be
expected at his age to work hard instead of amusing himself. But in his case, despite
being that age, he did. So we use ‘even’. Also note that when using ‘even’ this way, it
is used at the beginning of the phrase and not at the end. The correct phrase would
then be ‘Even in his middle age’. Since 'to' is being used as a preposition here and
not as an infinitive, the -ing form of the verb can follow 'to'. The base form is used
when 'to' is the part of an infinitive. Eg: She came to pay the rent.
10. The correct answer is option [B]
The plural of ‘radius’ is ‘radii’. One cannot always apply the rule of adding an ‘s’ to
change from singular to plural
11. The correct answer is option [C].
Compulsory means being requird by law or rule.
Mandatory is synonym of compulsory.
Voluntary means to arise, act or do something out of free will; resulting from
somebody's choice or decision without an external force/influence/pressure.
Gratuitous means to give or do something free without being paid.
Obligatory is a synomym of compulsory.
12. The correct answer is option [D]
13. The correct answer is option [D]
14. The correct answer is option [A]
15. The correct answer is option [C].
16. The correct answer is option [C]

60
17. The correct answer is option [A].
18. The correct answer is option [C]
19. The correct answer is option [D]
20. The correct answer is option [A].

61
SET 2 ENGLISH
1. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that
A. it is faster than other systems
B. nobody can be prevented from voting
C. it ensures the anonymity of each voter
D. losers can ask for another secret voter

2. In a one party state


A. there are no free citizens
B. the communist party is the only legal party
C. the ruling party is the only legal party
D. elections to be legislature are held at the party’s conferences

3. The First DG of the Customs was appointed in the Year


A. 2014
B. 1905
C. 1891
D. 1855

4. The early duty of The Customs was primarily ________


A. chasing of thieves
B. collection of inland Revenue
C. sending crime reports to the government
D. publicizing the country’s G.D.P

5. A cabinet system of government is practiced in


A. Britain and Canada
B. the soviet union
C. all European Countries including Britain
D. the United State of America

62
6. A proclamation by the head of state ending a session of parliament is called
A. a dissolution
B. an adjournment
C. a prorogation
D. a devolution

7. The name ‘Department of Customs and Excise’ emerged in _______


A. 1914
B 2000
C. 2004
D. 1922

8. The early divisions of ‘The Customs and Excise Preventive’ service was ‘Maritime’
and _________
A. Financial
B. Transport
C. Revenue
D. Preventive

9. The constitution of the federal republic of Nigeria


A. promotes unity in diversity
B. allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
C. concentrates governmental power at on one level of government
D. ensures the dominance of one political party.

10. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as


A. delegation
B. fusion
C. fragmentation
D. devolution

63
11. The Nigeria Customs Service is headed by the _________
A. Head of The Customs Service
B. Minister of Customary affairs
C. Comptroller-General
D. President of The Federal Republic

12. In The NCS, there is/are _________ Deputy Comptroller-General(s)


A. ten
B. two
C. six
D. one

13. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they


A. are not the servant of a particular government
B. are trained for the duties they perform
C. are credited or blamed for anything they do
D. they are seen but not heard

14. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 were


A. UPN, NPN, PPA, PPP, NPP, and NAP
B. UPN, GNPP, NAP, PRP, NPP, NPN,
C. NPN, UPN, NPP, PRP, PPP NNDP,
D. NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA

15. Which of the following is not an assigned unit under the NCS _________
A. Security and Smuggler arrest unit
B. Enforcement, Investigation, and Inspection unit
C. Finance Administration and Technical Service unit

64
D. Tariff & Trade unit

16. The Assistant Comptroller-Generals are higher in rank than the Deputy
Comptroller-Generals
A. True
B. False
C. They are equal
D. It depends

17. Which of the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria


A. farmers
B. the Nigerian union of teachers (NUT)
C. Nigeria medical associate (NMA)
D. academic staff union of university (ASUU)

18. The N.C.N.C sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the
A. burns constitution
B. Richards constitution
C. Littleton constitution
D. Macpherson constitution

19. ACG (Headquarters) reports directly to the Comptroller-General


A. True
B. False
C. He/she doesn’t have to report

20. Where is The NCS headquarters located


A. Wuse, Abuja
B. Yaba, Lagos
C. Apapa, Lagos

65
D. Kaduna, Kaduna

66
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A

6. A 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A

11. C 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. A

16. B 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. A

EXPLANATION
1. Answer:C
2. Answer:B
3. Answer: C
4. Answer: B
5. Answer:A
6. Answer:A
7. Answer: D
8. Answer: D
9. Answer:A
10. Answer:A
11. Answer: C
12. Answer: C
13. Answer:D
14. Answer:D
15. Answer: A
16. Answer: B
17. Answer:A
18. Answer:C
19. Answer: A
20. Answer: A

67
MATHS SET 3
1. In school there are some bicycles and 4 wheeler wagons. There are 18 students
each own either a bicycle or a wagon. One Tuesday there are 58 wheels in the
campus. How many bicycles are there?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 7
D. 12
E. 6

2. Evaluate:
986 × 237 + 986 × 863
A. 1084600
B. 1084800
C. 986000
D. 986860
E. None of these

3. If A/B = 3/5, then 15A = ?


A. 10B
B. 15B
C. 9B
D. 25B
E. None of these

4. A Pipe can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the
same in 40 mins. If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank?
A. 140/7 mins

68
B. 120/6 mins
C. 80/6 mins
D. 120/7 min
E. 140/8 min

5.What is a percent of b divided by b percent of a?


A. 1
B. ab/10
C. (a+b)/10
D. a+ b/a
E. Depends on a and b

6. By observation, we observe that the decimal value of 39/50 is greater than the
decimal value of 3/5. So, the fraction must be greater too22
If x = y = 2z and xyz = 256 then what is the value of x?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 16
D. 6
E. Cannot be determined

7. The price of a product is reduced by 30%. By what percentage should it be


increased to make it 100%?
1. 50 %
2. 42.85 %
3. 30 %
4. 46.87 %
5. 45.83%

69
8. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3?
A. 22/62
B. 15/46
C. 2/3
D. 1
E. None of These

9. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece in 18 days. In


how many days will A alone finish the work?
A. 20 days
B. 27 days
C. 24 days
D. 16 days
E. None of these

10. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now
give 10% discount, then what is the profit percentage?
A. 40%
B. 55%
C. 35%
D. 30%
E. 50%

11. What is the selling price of a car if the cost of the car is $60 and a profit of 10%
over cost price is earned?
A. $ 66
B. $ 54
C. $ 72

70
D. $ 64
E. None of these

12. How many alphabets need to be there in a language if one were to make 1 million
3 letter initials using the alphabets of the language?
A. 140
B. 1000
C. 10
D. 120
E. 100

13. Three partners started a business with $ 80000. At the end of the year they
receive $ 1800, $ 3000 and $ 4800 as profit. Find the investment of the second
person.
A. $ 27000
B. $ 7030
C. $ 8510
D. $ 32000
E. None of these

14. Mr and Mrs Smith have invited 9 of their friends and their spouses for a party at
the Waikiki Beach resort. They stand for a group photograph. If Mr Smith never
stands next to Mrs Smith (as he says they are always together otherwise). How many
ways the group can be arranged in a row for the photograph?
A. 20!
B. 19! + 18!
C. 18 × 19!
D. 2 × 19!
E. None of these

71
15. What should come in place of question mark '?' in the following number series?
121, 112, 97, 91, 86
A. 102
B. 108
C. 99
D. 104
E. None of these

16. In 1988, a kg of paper was sold at Rs25/-. If the paper rate increases at 1.5% more
than the inflation rate which is 6.5% a year, then what will be the cost of a kg of paper
after 2 years?
A. 28.8
B. 29.8
C. 29.16
D. 27.5
E. 29

17.Time and Work


George can do a piece of work in 8 hours Paul can do the same work in 10 hours,
Hari can do the same work in 12 hours George, Paul and Hari start the same work at 9
am, while George stops at 11 am, the remaining two complete the work. Approximately
at what time will the work complete?
A. 11.30 am
B. 12 noon
C. 12.30 pm
D. 1 pm
E. 2 pm

18. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram
PQRST?

72
A. 3/2
B. 1/3
C. 4/3
D. 2/3
E. 1/2

19. A cylinder of diameter 14 cm and height 7 cm is converted into a cone of radius 6


cm. Now, what could be the height of the new shape?
A. 28.58 cm
B. 26.58 cm
C. 27.48 cm
D. 27.74 cm
E. None of these

20. 23 people are there, they are shaking hands together, how many handshakes
possible, if they are in pair of cyclic sequence?
A. 250
B. 252
C. 242
D. 253
E. 23

73
ANSWERS

41. C 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A


46. B 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. E
51. A 52. E 53. E 54. C 55. D
56.C 57. D 58. E 59. A 60. D

EXPLANATION

1. Solution: C
Let there are B bicycles and W wagons.
Total number of wheels = 2 × B + 4 × W
Given 58 wheels ⇒ 2B + 4W = 58
⇒ B + 2W = 29 …… (Eq.1)
Also given B + W = 18 …… (Eq.2)
∴ Eq.1 – Eq.2
⇒ W = 11
⇒ B = 18 – W
⇒ B = 18 – 11 = 7 Bicycles.

2. Solution: A
We are given 986 x 237 + 986 x 863
Hence taking 986 common
We have 986 × (237 + 863)
= 986 × 1100
= 108460018

74
3. Solution: C
A/B = 3/5
Cross Multiplying
⇒5×A=3×B
⇒ 5A = 3B
Multiplying both sides of the equation by 3
⇒ 15A = 9B
Hence option (C)

4. Solution: D
In one min work done by A = 1/20
In one min work done by B = 1/30
In one min work done by C = 1/40
∵ A and B both fill the tank and C empty the tank
∴ Total work done in one min to fill the tank =120+130−140=6+4−3120=7120
∴ Time take to fill the tank = 120/7 mins

5. Solution: A
Let the two numbers are a and b
a percent of b = (a/100) ×b = ab/100 (i)
b percent of a = (b/100) ×a = ab/100 (ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get 1, since they are both the same

6. Solution: B
xyz = x.x.x/2 = x3/2
Now, x3/2 = 256
⇒ x3 = 512
⇒x=8

75
7. Solution: B
Let the cost price be x
Discount = 30%
New Price = Cost Price - Discount
New Price = x - (30/100)x = (70/100)x = (7/10)x
Now the New Price = (7/10)x
% increase to bring it back to its original price (i.e. x) = y
⇒ (7 / 10)x + (y / 100) × (7 / 10)x = x
⇒ (7 / 10) + (y / 100) × (7 / 10) = 1
⇒ (y / 100) × (7 / 10) = (3 / 10)
⇒ y = (3/7) × 100 = 42.85 %

8. Solution: B
Converting Each into decimal and comparing
1/3 = 0.33333
22/62 = .354
15/46 = .326
2/3 = 0.666
1=1
Hence Comparing it can be easily find out that (15 / 46) < (1 / 3)
Hence Option (B)

9. Solution: B
Let number of days taken by A to finish the work alone = m
Part of work done by A in 1 day = 1/m
Since, A is twice as good as
Then number of days taken by B to finish the work = 2m

76
Part of work done by B in 1 day = 1/2m
We have
⇒1m+12m=118
⇒1m+12m=118
⇒2+12m=118
⇒2+12m=118
⇒ 3/2m = 1/18
⇒ m = 18 × 3/2
⇒ m = 27

10. Solution: E
Let the Marked price of the object is Rs.100
Given that company gives 25% discount, the object is sold at 75% price = 0.75 × 100
= Rs.75
∵ Rs.75 fetches 25% profit, this implies 25/100 = (75 – Cost)/Cost [Cost is cost
incurred by company]
[From percentage gain formula, Percentage profit = ((Selling price – cost)/Cost) ×
100]
0.25 × cost = 75 – cost
⇒ Cost = 75/1.25
⇒ Cost = Rs.60
Now the company gives only 10% discount ⇒ Selling price = 0.90 × 100 = Rs.90
Profit made = Rs.90 – Rs.60 = Rs.30
Profit Percentage = (30/60) × 100 = 50%

11. Solution: A
Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit
Cost Price = 60
Profit = 10%

77
Selling price = 60 + (10/100) × (60)
Selling price = 60 + 6
Selling price = 66
Hence Option (A)

12. Solution: E
Suppose we have A number of alphabets in a language.
⇒ Number of ways to make a 3 letter initial = A × A × A = A3
Given, number of ways to make 3 letter initial = 1 million = 106
⇒ A3 = 106
⇒ A = 102 = 100
∴ The language needs 100 alphabets

13. Solution: E
Ratio of their profit = 1800 : 3000 : 4800 = 3 : 5 : 8
As they receive profit in the ratio 3 : 5 : 8, their capital will also be divided in that ratio
So, the investment brought in by the second person will be in the ratio of 5/16 of the
entire capital
= (5/16) × 80000 = 25000
So, investment of 2nd person = $ 25000

14. Solution: C
We have total number of friends = 9
Total number of spouses = 9
Hence total number of people in picture = 9 + 9 + 2 (the hosts)
= 20
Hence they can be arranged in 20! Ways
When Mr and Mrs Smith are together, assume both as a group. Now total people = 19

78
Number of arrangement, when Mr and Mrs Smith are together = 19! × 2!
So, Number of ways arrangement when Mr and Mrs Smith are not together in the
photograph
= 20! – 19! × 2!
= 20 × 19! – 19! × 2
= 18 × 19!

15. Solution: D
We have the terms of the given series formed as
⇒ 112 = 121 – 9
⇒ ? = 112 – 8
⇒ ? = 104
⇒ 97 = 104 – 7
⇒ 91 = 97 – 6
⇒ 86 = 91 – 5

16. Solution: C
Actual rate of increase in price of paper = 6.5 + 1.5 % = 8%
Cost of 1 kg paper in 1988 = 25
Cost of 1 kg paper in 1989= 25 + 8% of 25
= 25 + 8/100 × 25
= 25 + 2
= 27
Cost of 1 kg paper in 1990 = 27 + 8% of 27
= 27 + 8/100 × 27
= 27 + 2.16
= 29.16

79
17. Solution: D
Amount of work George can do in one hour = 1/8
Amount of work Hari can do in one hour = 1/12
Amount of work Paul can do in one hour = 1/10
Amount of work all together can do in one hour = (1/8) + (1/10) + (1/12) = 37/120
All three work for two hours i.e. from 9 am to 11 am
⇒ Work done = 2 × (37/120) = 37/60
Remaining work = 1 – (37/60) = 23/60
Amount of work Paul and Hari can do in one hour = (1/10) + (1/12) = 11/60
Time taken by Paul and Hari to complete 23/60 of work = 23/11 hours.
= 2 hours and (60/11) minutes. = 2 hours (approximating)
So the work gets completed by 11 am + 2 hours = 1 pm

18. Solution: E
Area of parallelogram is=base × height ………. (1)
Area of triangle= (1/2) × (base × height) ……… (2)
∵ Triangle PQS inside the parallelogram PQRST.
∴ Base × height will be same for both.
Ratio=Area of triangle PQSArea of Parallelogram PQRST=12

19. Solution: A
We have the volume of the cylinder as πr2h
We have radius = diameter/2 = 14/2 = 7 and height = 7
Hence, volume of cylinder = π × 7 × 7 × 7
= 343 π
We also know that volume of cone = πr2h/3
We have volume of cone = Volume of cylinder
Hence 343 π = πr2h/3

80
⇒ 343 × 3 = 6 × 6 × h
⇒ 1029 = 36 × h
⇒ h = 1029/36
⇒ h = 28.58 cm

20.Solution: D
Every person shakes hand with every other person = 22 hand shakes
⇒ Total handshakes = 22 × 23
But A handshaking with B is same as B Handshaking A
⇒ Total handshakes = (22 × 23)/2 = 253

81
ENGLISH SET 3
1. This passage sums up the two problems peculiar to the book trade which make it
different from any other trade - the problem of selection and the problem of
stocking. How is the book seller to tell what, in an enormous output, will prove
saleable, before the full weight of unsold items affects the balance of his business,
and how is he, at the same time, to hold a stock large enough to enable the public to
choose freely? He may seek to escape from this dilemma by becoming the passive
sales representative of large publishing houses or distribution networks, but he is
then no longer a book seller. He may take refuge in the sale of safe items to a
restricted circle of customers, but he hereby cuts himself off from all that is vital in
his trade and dooms himself to mediocrity and stagnation.
On the other hand, he may protect his business from the danger of idle stock by
speculating on the latest publications, but this is a dangerous game in that it implies
a constantly changing clientele: readers remain faithful to their own discoveries and
failure to follow up a book, an author or a type of literature means dismissing the
public responsible for their success.
This brings us back to the fact that books are undefinable. The story is told of a
certain country with a great many generals where it was decided to present a rare
and valuable edition of an old book to a general about to retire. The old soldier
looked at the volume and remarked, 'A book? What's the point? I've already got one!'

How many solutions to the bookseller's problems are offered in this passage?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. One

2. As the stranger approached, Shola noticed that he was handsome and her
excitement increased. It was of such a man she had dreamt. He had a fine, arrogant
carriage, like a soldier or someone in authority. When he reached the end of the pier,
he addressed them in a rich, deep voice that disturbed her as the voluptuous rising
of the tide had done.
'You're Tunde Onu, I'm told,' he said to her father.

82
'That's right,' said her father.
'The bus conductor told me you take people to the islands,' the man continued.' I'd
like to go there if you can take me.'
Her father examined the man from head to foot, shrewdly measuring his capacity to
pay. Then he said:
'When were you thinking of going?'
'Right away.'
'That's a different story, for my boatman is gone to Badagry and won't be back before
nightfall.
'Oh! Said the stranger,' that’s too bad. You couldn't get someone else instead of
him?'
'I would have to think hard', he said gloomily,' for it's not everyone that would do for
the job of going with me beyond the bay to the islands at this time of the year.'
Shola understood her father's manoeuvre and felt ashamed.

Which of the following is NOT true of the passage?


A. Shola did not approve of her father's behaviour towards the stranger.
B. Shola's father could row the stranger to the island alone if he so wished.
C. Shola's father exaggerated the difficulties in order to raise his fee.
D. Tunde Onu's boatman is the only man who knows how to sail beyond the bay to
the island.
E. The stranger had a fine, arrogant carriage.

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


3. This passage sums up the two problems peculiar to the book trade which make it
different from any other trade - the problem of selection and the problem of
stocking. How is the book seller to tell what, in an enormous output, will prove
saleable, before the full weight of unsold items affects the balance of his business,
and how is he, at the same time, to hold a stock large enough to enable the public to
choose freely? He may seek to escape from this dilemma by becoming the passive
sales representative of large publishing houses or distribution networks, but he is
then no longer a book seller. He may take refuge in the sale of safe items to a

83
restricted circle of customers, but he hereby cuts himself off from all that is vital in
his trade and dooms himself to mediocrity and stagnation.
On the other hand, he may protect his business from the danger of idle stock by
speculating on the latest publications, but this is a dangerous game in that it implies
a constantly changing clientele: readers remain faithful to their own discoveries and
failure to follow up a book, an author or a type of literature means dismissing the
public responsible for their success.
This brings us back to the fact that books are undefinable. The story is told of a
certain country with a great many generals where it was decided to present a rare
and valuable edition of an old book to a general about to retire. The old soldier
looked at the volume and remarked, 'A book? What's the point? I've already got one!'
Of all the solutions proposed for the bookseller's problems, how many actually have
positive effects?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. None
E. One

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


4. This passage sums up the two problems peculiar to the book trade which make it
different from any other trade - the problem of selection and the problem of
stocking. How is the book seller to tell what, in an enormous output, will prove
saleable, before the full weight of unsold items affects the balance of his business,
and how is he, at the same time, to hold a stock large enough to enable the public to
choose freely? He may seek to escape from this dilemma by becoming the passive
sales representative of large publishing houses or distribution networks, but he is
then no longer a book seller. He may take refuge in the sale of safe items to a
restricted circle of customers, but he hereby cuts himself off from all that is vital in
his trade and dooms himself to mediocrity and stagnation.
On the other hand, he may protect his business from the danger of idle stock by
speculating on the latest publications, but this is a dangerous game in that it implies
a constantly changing clientele: readers remain faithful to their own discoveries and

84
failure to follow up a book, an author or a type of literature means dismissing the
public responsible for their success.
This brings us back to the fact that books are undefinable. The story is told of a
certain country with a great many generals where it was decided to present a rare
and valuable edition of an old book to a general about to retire. The old soldier
looked at the volume and remarked, 'A book? What's the point? I've already got one!'

The story of the old soldier and the book in the passage is an illustration of the point
that _____.
A. the general had already got a book
B. a book is of interest only to one who values it
C. soldiers do not like to read books
D. booksellers face a real dilemma because of constantly changing clientele
E. rare and valuable editions of books are no longer wanted

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


5. This passage sums up the two problems peculiar to the book trade which make it
different from any other trade - the problem of selection and the problem of
stocking. How is the book seller to tell what, in an enormous output, will prove
saleable before the full weight of unsold items affects the balance of his business,
and how is he at the same time to hold a stock large enough to enable the public to
choose freely? He may seek to escape from this dilemma by becoming the passive
sales representative of large publishing houses or distribution networks, but he is
then no longer a book seller. He may take refuge in the sale of safe items to a
restricted circle of customers, but he hereby cuts himself off from all that is vital in
his trade and dooms himself to mediocrity and stagnation.
On the other hand, he may protect his business from the danger of idle stock by
speculating on the latest publications, but this is a dangerous game in that it implies
a constantly changing clientele; readers remain faithful to their own discoveries.
Failure to follow up a book, an author or a type of literature means dismissing the
public responsible for their success.
This brings us back to the fact that books are undefinable. The story is told of a
certain country with a great many generals where it was decided to present a rare
and valuable edition of an old book to a general about to retire. The old soldier
looked at the volume and remarked, 'A book? What's the point? I've already got one!'

85
Books are different from other goods because ______.
A. customers for the book trade are much restricted
B. unlike other goods, books are printed
C. one cannot tell so easily which books will prove saleable
D. books can be kept in stock much longer than other goods
E. booksellers are always idle

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
6. The climate of Nigeria is an ENERVATING one.
A. a debilitating
B. a weak
C. an invigorating
D. a harmonious
E. exhausting

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
7. The chairman's verdict REDRESSED the injustice meted out by the secretary.
A. corrected
B. criticised
C. aggravated
D. addressed
E. calmed

Choose the option OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word written in capital letters.
8. Since mortality is the lot of man, argued the preacher, we must all accept death
with EQUANIMITY.

86
A. placidity
B. uncertainty
C. serenity
D. anxiety
E. unpreparedness

From the options lettered A - E, fill in the blank space with the word OPPOSITE IN
MEANING to the capitalised word.
9. Osemudiamen complained that while his colleagues were ELEVATED, he was
______.
A. interdicted
B. prompted
C. suspended
D. dismissed
E. demoted

10. Identify the synonym of the given word


Zest
A. pleasure
B. distaste
C. flop
D. encircles
E. enthusiasm

11. Fill in the blank with suitable word.


Barking dogs ____ bite.
A. regularly
B. rarely

87
C. seldom
D. frequently
E. don’t

12. Choose an appropriate word from the options to suitably fill the blank in the
sentence below so that the sentence makes sense, both grammatically and
contextually.
Focus on solving the refugee problems and drawing plans for ………… development was
less evident.
A. short-range
B. sustainable
C. needless
D. merit
E. regarding

13. Choose an appropriate word from the options to suitably fill the blank in the
sentence below so that the sentence makes sense, both grammatically and
contextually.
The groups were feared but at the same time ……. by the locals.
A. revered
B. detested
C. rebelled
D. loathed
E. loved

14. Choose an appropriate phrase from the options to suitably fill the blank in the
sentence below so that the sentence makes sense, both grammatically and
contextually.
…………………; the logo and the product were repeatedly flashed with jingle that dinned
the name into our heads.

88
A. There was a time when visual advertising styles were blatantly direct
B. It was this kind of advertising that paved the way
C. There was no escape from the bombardment
D. Similar products are clubbed together by a brand inspired generic name
E. When there was no technology

15. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
No sooner had (1)/ he begun to speak (2)/ when the opposition members (3)/
started shouting slogans. (4)/ No error (5)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

16. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make
the sentence meaningfully complete.
His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............
A. strong
B. large
C. broad
D. vast
E. deep

17. Comprehension:
Below, a passage is given with five blanks labelled (A)-(E). Below the passage, five
options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most
appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

89
In the 1920s, new technology allowed filmmakers to ___(A)___to each film a
soundtrack of speech, music and sound effects ___(B)___ with the action on the
screen. These sound films were initially distinguished by calling them talking pictures,
or talkies. The next major step in the development of cinema was the introduction of
colour. While the addition of sound to film revolutionized the medium, quickly driving
___(C)___ silent movies, colour was adopted more gradually. The public was relatively
indifferent to colour photography as opposed to black-and-white. But as colour
processes improved and became as ___(D)___ as black-and-white film, more and
more movies were filmed in colour after the end of World War II, as the industry in
America came to view colour as an essential to attracting audiences in its
competition with television, which remained a black-and-white medium until the mid-
60s. By the end of the 1960s, colour had become the ___(E)___for filmmakers.
Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?
A. Give
B. Attach
C. Present
D. Take
E. Fill

Choose from the options lettered A -E, the one that is nearest in meaning to the
word written in italics in the sentence below.
18. He has been mandated to search for a new candidate for the post.
A. compelled
B. convinced
C. assigned
D. demanded
E. requested

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the words written in capital letters.
19. It was their custom to KEEP AN OPEN HOUSE on Sundays.
A. To welcome visitors.

90
B. To keep the shutters open for proper ventilation.
C. To leave the house open to only strangers.
D. To put up the house on rent.
E. To open their doors.

Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate option.


20. Air travel is becoming increasingly popular with travellers who go from one
country to another. A look at the international time table of any major airlines such as
Pan America or Air France will show hundreds of flights departing at fixed times every
week. Besides these scheduled flights, you can travel nowadays on flights arranged
by a club for its members which hires an airplane for the journey. Fares on these ____
flights are low because the club ensures that all seats are filled.
A. airline
B. private
C. popular
D. chartered
E. excursion

91
ANSWERS
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C

6. C 7. C 8. D 9. E 10. E

11. C 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C

16. E 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D

EXPLANATION
1. The correct answer is option [B].
2. The correct answer is option [D].
3. The correct answer is option [D]
Look at the solutions again and observe that each proposed solution has a side
effect afterwards.
4. The correct answer is option [B].
5. The correct answer is option [C].
6. The correct answer is option [C].
ENERVATING means deprive of vigour or vitality.
7. The correct answer is option [C].
REDRESSED means to make up for; do something that compensates for
(wrongdoing).
8. The correct answer is option [D]
9. The correct answer is option [E].
Elevated means being exalted in rank.
Interdicted deals with a prohibited action.
Prompted means incited or urged.
To suspend means to debar temporarily from an office or a function.
Dismissed means sent away or terminated from ones employment.
Demoted means being reduced in rank or status; given a lesser responsibility or
office.

92
10. The correct answer is option [E]
Zest means great energy and enthusiasm. ‘Pleasure’ is ‘feeling of happiness or
satisfaction’. ‘Distaste’ is aversion or dislike. ‘Flop’ is to fail. ‘Encircle’ is to surround.
Thus, ‘enthusiasm’ is the correct synonym. Let us explore its use in a sentence:
The zest the old man portrayed towards life was admirable.
11. The correct answer is option [C]
The statement is an idiom which means that ‘a man who speaks too much never acts’.
12. The correct answer is option [B]
Using ‘regarding’ would be grammatically wrong as it is a preposition and cannot
come immediately after another preposition ‘for’.
We need an adjective or a noun to fill the blank. Besides, there is little help available
from the context for deciding among rest of the options and you will have to rely on
your reading experience to figure it out. Of late, the term ‘sustainable development’
(which means development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs) has become
a favourite with planners and policy-makers and thus it makes the most sense among
the given options.
‘Short-range’, though not grammatically wrong, isn’t a very meaningful adjective for
‘development’. Similarly, ‘merit’ is not as meaningful as ‘sustainable’ when used with
‘development’ and unless the author is being sarcastic, ‘needless’ is not appropriate
either.
13. The correct answer is option [A]
We need a word which is a contrast in meaning to ‘feared’ because of the phrase ‘but
at the same time’. ‘Revered’ means respected and something can be feared and
respected at the same time. In fact, there is a term ‘reverential fear’ which essentially
means the same thing. ‘Love’ and ‘fear’ cannot be simultaneously felt by someone.
‘Detested’ and ‘loathed’ are synonyms but do not suit the context here. ‘Rebelled’
would be contextually and grammatically incorrect.
14. The correct answer is option [A]
If you remember the html element <blink> then you can probably guess what this
sentence is talking about. It was distracting, ‘blatantly direct’ and in-your-face
method of advertising. This tag is no longer supported by modern browsers. The
second option contains too many pronouns and it would be inappropriate to put it at
the start. The third option is not as appropriate as the first one in the given context
since such type of advertisements have ceased to exist and an’ escape’ has been
found.

93
15. The correct answer is option [C]
‘No sooner’ requires to be followed by ‘than’ and not ‘when’. Thus, the correct
sentence should be ‘No sooner…than the opposition members started shouting
slogans’.
16. The correct answer is option [E]
We need a predicative adjective for the noun ‘interest’. A predicative adjective is one
which describes the subject of the sentence and is connected by a linking verb. Of
the given options, only ‘deep’ goes well with ‘interest’.

Note that there are no specific rules for deciding whether a particular adjective suits
a noun or not. The adjective-noun combination should be meaningful and should be
idiomatic in nature else it will sound weird. To be able to make proper choice of
adjectives, you will need to be well-read and have a good vocabulary.
17. The correct answer is option [B]
‘Take’ and ‘fill’ clearly don’t fit the context. ‘Present’ and ‘Give’ do not go well with the
technical term like soundtrack. ‘Attach’ is the only word which fits the context and
also goes well with the other terms.
18. The correct answer is option [C]
19. The correct answer is option [A].
20. The correct answer is option [D].

94
1. A popular policy of colonial administration in British west Africa was
(A) association
(B) indirect rule
(C) paternalism
(D) assimilation

2. The first governor-general of colonial Nigeria was


(A) sir, Hugh Clifford
(B) sir James Robertson
(C) lord Lugard
(D) sir Ralph moore.

3. The NCS has _____ total number of zones


A. 4
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36

4. The Zonal division of The NCS is according to the number of ______


A. Geo-political Zones
B. States in the Country
C. States that are along the national boarder
D. None of the above

95
5. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by
(A) General Yakubu Gowon
(B) General Agunyi Ironsi
(C) General M. Mohammed
(D) General O. Obasanjo.

6. The first general election in Nigeria was hold in


(A) 1933
(B) 1952
(C) 1955
(D) 1959

7. The Headquarter office of The NCS is headed by a/an _________


A. Compt
B. ACG
C. DCG
D. Chairman

8. The Headquarter of Zone B of the NCS is located in _______


A. Benue
B. Bauchi
C. Kaduna
D. P/Harcourt

9. The supreme organ of the U.N O is the


A. general assembly
B. secretary general
C. world court
D. world bank

96
10. Traditional rulers were restricted to ceremonial rules by the local government
reforms of
A. 1966
B. 1976
C. 1984
D. 1987

11. The Headquarter of Zone C of the NCS is located in


A. Benue
B. Bauchi
C. Kaduna
D. P/Harcourt

12. The sub-division of ‘Zone’ is ________


A. District
B. Area Command
C. Council
D. Region

13. Which of The following is not a Zonal Location of The NCS


A. Lagos
B. Kaduna
C. Port/Harcourt
D. Enugu

14. Bauchi is a Zonal Division of The NCS


A. True

97
B. False
C. Cannot tell

15. The NCS has _______ area commands


A. 25
B. 30
C. 36
D. 5

16. Indirect rule refers to situation in which


a. the rulers are subject to the supreme laws of the land.
b. Laws are supreme
c. The judiciary is independent
d. The British authority rule through our local elites

17. An important principle of the civil service is


a. Authoritarianism
b. Anonymity
c. Nepotism
d. Partisanship

18. Which of these is a core function of The NCS


A. Making of revenue-related laws
B. Collection of Revenue i.e. Import and Excise Duties
C. Trade Facilitation
D. Combating money laundering

19. The NCS has corroborative functions with Police

98
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

20. It is mandatory for The NCS to Protect businesses against illegal trade
malpractices
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

99
ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B

6. D 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. B

11. D 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. A

16. D 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. A

100
MATHS SET 4
1. An unbiased die is tossed. find the probability of getting a multiple of 3
A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 1/6
E. None of these

2. Capacity of a cylindrical vessel is 25,872 cm3. If the height of the cylinder is 200%
more than the radius of its base, what is the area of the base in square cm?

A. 336 cm2
B. 1232 cm2
C. 616 cm2
D. 308 cm2
E. Cannot be determined

3. What is the next number of the following sequence


48, 49, 57, 59, 36, 39, 28, 32, x, y
A. 24,18
B. 24,19
C. 13,18
D. 13,19

4. Find the value of 464 ÷ (16 × 2.32)


A. 12.5
B. 14.5
C. 10.5
D. 8.5
E. None of these

5. What is the next number of the following sequence


13, 24, 36, 23, 34, 56, 33, 44, 96, 43, 54, 116
A. 53.0
B. 65.0
C. 167.0

101
D. 169.0

6. Three coins are tossed. The probability of getting at least one head is----?
A. 1/3
B. 2/5
C. 3/8
D. 7/8
E. None of these

7. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years Had it been put at 1%
higher rate, it would have fetched $24 more. The sum is:
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $800
D. $480
E. $960

8. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40 second, and Machine
B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If the two machines run
simultaneously, how many seconds will it take for them to produce a total of 200
bolts?
1. 20 seconds
2. 24 seconds
3. 26 seconds
4. 25 seconds
5. 30 seconds

9. What will be the value of ‘x’ in the following question?


2x + 152 - 332 = 97
A. 133
B. 312
C. 134
D. 130
E. None of these

10. A man has 3 shirts, 4 pairs of trousers and 6 ties. What are the numbers of ways in
which he can dress himself with a combination of all the three?

102
A. 72
B. 36
C. 54
D. 120
E. 81

11. Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the number
on the two faces is divisible by 4 or 6?
A. 9/16
B. ½
C. 11/18
D. 7/18
E. None of these

12. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly.
What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?
A. 6/21
B. 8/21
C. 7/19
D. 1/3
E. None of these

13. Find the ratio of the volumes of a sphere and cone of same radius. Also the height
of the cone is twice its radius.
A. 3: 1
B. 4: 3
C. 4: 1
D. 2: 1
E. None of these

14. The perimeter of a square and a rectangle is the same. If the rectangle is 12 cm by
10 cm, then by what percentage is the area of the square more than that of the
rectangle?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 56%
D. 12%
E. 34%

103
15. Six friends decide to share a big cake. Since all of them like the cake, they begin
quarrelling who gets to first cut and have a piece of the cake. One friend suggests
that they have a blindfold friend choose from well shuffled set of cards numbered
one to six. You check and find that this method works as it should simulate a fair
throw of a die. You check by performing multiple simultaneous trials of picking the
cards blindfold and throwing a die. You note that the number shown by the method
of picking up a card and throwing a real world die, sums to a number between 2 and
12.
Which total would be likely to appear more often – 8, 9 or 10?
A. 8
B. All are equally likely
C. 9
D. 10
E. None of these

16. Find the missing number in the given sequence: 1,2,3, 5,13, 21,
A. 8,34
B. 10,26
C. 9,25
D. 9,32

17. A man buys 12 litres of Solution A which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is
water. He then mixes it with 10 litres of another Solution B with 30% of liquid. What is
the % of water in the new mixture?
A. 24.55 %
B. 75.45 %
C. 75.90 %
D. 24.50 %
E. None of these

18. In a simultaneous throw of pair of dice. Find the probability of getting the total
more than 7.
A. 5/12
B. 7/12
C. 1/3
D. 1/4

104
E. None of these

19. Samuel is younger than Rick by 7 years If the ratio of their ages is 7: 9, find the
age of Samuel.
A. 12.5 years
B. 24.5 years
C. 23.5 years
D. 14.5 years
E. None of these

20. Simplify: 78×78×78−45×45×4578×78+78×45+45×45


A. 123
B. 78
C. 45
D. 33
E. None of these

105
ANSWERS
61. B 62. C 63. C 64. A 65. A
66.D 67. B 68. D 69.E 70.A
71. D 72. D 73. D 74. C 75. A
76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80.D

EXPLANATION
1. Solution: B
We have been given a dice which is unbiased in nature.
Hence,
All possible outcomes = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Hence total possible outcomes = 6
Multiple of 3’s = 3, 6
Hence total favorable outcomes = 2
Hence probability = Total favorable outcomes/total possible outcomes.
= 2/6
= 1/3

2. Solution: C
Let the radius of vessel be R and height be H
Given that height is 200% more than radius
H = R + (200/100) × R = 3R
Volume of the cylinder V= πR2H

106
Given volume of cylinder = 25872 cm3

⇒ 22/7 × R2 × H = 25872
Since H = 3R
⇒ 22/7 × R2 × 3R = 25872
⇒ R3 = 25872 × (7/66)
⇒ R3 = 2744
⇒ R = 14 cm
Area of the base A= πR2
⇒ A = (22/7) × R2 = (22/7) × 142

⇒ A = 616 cm2

3. Solution: C
Next numbers will be: 24, 19. Explanation: (48, 49, 57, 59)(36, 39, 28, 32),(x ,y) Fist
number decreasing by 12 so x = 24 if you observe the difference of consecutive
terms:
⇒ 49 - 48 = 1
⇒ 59 - 57 = 2
⇒ 39 - 36 = 3
⇒ 32 - 28 = 4
⇒ 18 - 13 = 5

4. Solution: A
Applying BODMAS rule, the priority is
Bracket
Of
Division
Multiplication
Addition
Subtraction

107
So following the BODMAS rule, we simplify the bracket first.
⇒ 464 ÷ (16 × 2.32)
= 464 ÷ (37.12)
= 12.5

5. Solution: A
(13, 24, 36), (23, 34, 56), (33, 44, 96), (43, 54, 116) In each group, 1st number increases
by "10" {13, 23, 33, 43, x} ==> so x = 53

6. Solution: D
When three coins are tossed:
Sample space n(S) = 23 = 8,
To get at least one head,
Favorable events n(E)= {(H,T,T), (T,H,T), (T,T,H), (H,H,T), (H,T,H), (T,H,H), (H,H,H)} = 7,
We know that probability of happening an event ‘E’,
P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
∴ Required probability = 7/8.

7. Solution: B
Say P is the sum put at simple interest and R is the initial rate of interest.
Formula for Simple interest is, I=P×T×R100 , where T is the time period.
∴ Initial interest I=P×2×R100
When rate of interest is (R+1), interest is (I+24)
⇒I+24=P×2×(R+1)100=P×2×R100+P×2100
⇒ I + 24 = I + [(P × 2)/100]
⇒ (P× 2) = 24 × 100
⇒ P = $1200

8. Solution: D
Machine A produces 120 bolts for every 40 seconds

108
Number of bolts produced by machine A per second = 120/40 = 3
Machine B produces 100 bolts for every 20 seconds
Number of bolts produced by machine B per second = 100/20 = 5
If two machines run simultaneously number of bolts produced per second = 5 + 3 = 8
Time required to produce 200 bolts by both machines = 200/8 = 25 seconds

9. Solution: E
2x + 152 – 332 = 97
⇒ 2x = 97+332-152 = 277
⇒ x = 138.5

10. Solution: A
Since the man has 3 shirts, 4 pairs of trousers and 6 ties,
Hence he can dress himself in 3 × 4 × 6 ways
= 72 ways

11. Solution: D
When 2 dices are thrown together, there are a total of 36 possible outcomes.
Out of the 36 possible outcomes,
Only the following will give us favorable outcomes
(1,3), (3,1), (2,2), (1,5), (2,4), (3,3), (4,2), (5,1), (2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3), (6,2) and (6,6)
Hence total favorable outcomes = 14
Total possible outcomes = 36
Probability = Total favorable outcomes/total possible outcomes.
= 14/36
= 7/18

12. Solution: D
We have a total of 8 + 7 + 6 = 21 balls

109
Let E be the event such that the ball drawn is neither red nor green i.e., event that the
ball drawn is blue.
We have n(E) as the favorable outcomes and n(s) as the total possible combinations.
⇒ n(E) = 7
⇒n(S) = 21
Probability = 7/21
= 1/3

13. Solution: D
Let the radius of a cone and a sphere be r cm.
Then we have
Volume of sphere = 4/3 × πr3
We are given that height of cone = 2r
Hence, volume of cone = 1/3 × πr2h
Volume of cone = 1/3 × πr2× 2r
Volume of cone = 2/3 × πr3
Hence ratio of volume of sphere and cone = (4/3 × πr3): (2/3 × πr3)
= 2: 1

14. Solution: C
Perimeter of square = 4 × a
Where, a = Side of the square
Perimeter of rectangle = 2 (l + b)
Where, l = length of the rectangle = 12 cm
b = breadth of the rectangle = 10 cm
Given, perimeter of square= perimeter of rectangle
4 × a = 2 (l + b)
⇒ 4 × a = 2 (10 +22)
⇒ 4 × a = 44

110
⇒ a = 11
∴ Area of square = a × a = 11 × 11 = 121
∴ Area of rectangle = l × b = 12 × 10 = 120
Percentage of Area of square is more than area of rectangle = area difference /
rectangle area
⇒121−120120×100=1120×100=56%

15. Solution: A
Given that there are two cases
One is choosing a card from well shuffled cards and other one is throwing a die
In first case there are 6 possible ways (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
In second case also there are 6 possible ways (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
When we use both cases simultaneously there are 36 possible cases
Possibility of getting sum 8 = (2,6), (6,2), (3,5), (5,3), (4,4) = 5
Possibility of getting sum 9 = (3,6), (6,3), (4,5), (5,4) = 4
Possibility of getting sum 10 = (4,6), (6,4), (5,5) = 3
When we use two methods simultaneously more often occurring sum = 8

16. Solution: A
The given sequence is a Fibonacci series. any third number can be got by summing
the first and second numbers
2+3=5
3+5=8
5+8=13
8+13=21
13+21=34
Ans 8 & 34

17. Solution: B
% of Liquid in Solution A = 20%

111
⇒ % of Water in Solution A = 80%
Volume of Solution A = 12 Litres
Volume of Water in Solution A = (80/100) × 12 = 9.6 Litres
% of Liquid in Solution B = 30%
⇒ % of Water in Solution A = 70%
Volume of Solution B = 10 Litres
Volume of Water in Solution B = (70/100) × 10 = 7 Litres
If Solution A is mixed with Solution B
⇒Net Total Volume of Solution = (12 + 10) = 22 Ltrs
⇒Net Total Volume of Water in Solution = (9.6 + 7) = 16.6 Ltrs
% of Water in New Mixture = (Volume of Water in New Mixture / Volume of New
Mixture) × 100
% of Water in New Mixture = (16.6 / 22) × 100 = 75.45%

18. Solution: A
Here total number of possible outcomes, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36
Let (n) is event of getting a total more than 7
Possible pairs of numbers with sum > 7 = {(2, 6), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 4), (4, 5),(4, 6), (5, 3),
(5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
Therefore, total number of favorable outcomes = 15
P(E) = n (E)/n(S)
P(E) = 15/36
P(E) = 5/12.

19. Solution: B
Let’s say Rick is x years’ old
So Samuel is x - 7 years’ old
So, as per the question,
x−7x=79

112
⇒ 9x – 63 = 7x
⇒ 2x = 63
⇒ x = 31.5
So, Samuel's age is 31.5 – 7 = 24.5 years

20.Solution: D
We have the formula
⇒ a3 - b3 = (a - b) (a2 + ab + b2)
⇒78×78×78−45×45×4578×78+78×45+45×45
⇒ (78−45) (78×78+78×45+45×45)78×78+78×45+45×45
Hence we have
⇒ ? = 78 – 45 = 33

113
ENGLISH SET 4
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
1. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

According to the author, Nigerian, American, Irish and British English can be regarded
as ______.
A. registers
B. standards
C. styles
D. languages

114
Read the passage carefully and answer the question.
2. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

According to the passage, International English is _______.


A. a kind of arbitrary classification
B. an imaginary classification
C. an informal standard
D. a recognised formal standard

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


3. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as International English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

115
The author refers to Standard English as ______.
A. a dialectal variant of language that is accepted and recognized
B. language spoken by users who are set apart by culture or geography
C. an official and accurate usage of language
D. accepted and recognized words, expressions and structures

Read the passage carefully and answer the question.


4. Standard English refers to the authoritative and correct usage of the language, the
medium of expression for government and education. Its opposite is a dialectal
variant of the language, that is, accepted and recognised words, expressions and
structures peculiar to a smaller group of language users who are generally set apart
from standard usage by cultural group or geographical region. For example, Nigerian,
American, Irish and British English differ from one another in many respects and each
is identifiable, yet in every case the standard variety approaches a single and
hypothetical classification known as international English. As one moves towards
informality and away from the observance of strict rules, emphasis falls on the
differences between dialects. In addition to American English being distinguishable
from British English, it is also true that British English is not uniform within the United
Kingdom. The level of formality is determined by education and aspiration, while
dialects vary from region to region.

One characteristic of a dialect as mentioned in the passage is ______.


A. informality
B. possession of various forms
C. distinction from British English
D. restricted area of usage

Choose the option OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word written in capital letters.
5. Being NAIVE, he believed all the stories his friend told him.
A. artless
B. indifferent
C. difficult

116
D. experienced
E. innocent

From the options lettered A - E, choose the word that is NEAREST IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
6. As a result of the terrible sufferings he had undergone, he became very
DESPONDENT about the future.
A. mischievous
B. agitated
C. indignant
D. aggressive
E. hopeless

Choose the option OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word written in capital letters.
7. My friend was reduced to BEGGARLY by various ill-advised business deals.
A. affluence
B. penury
C. influence
D. poverty
E. destitution

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
8. The awareness of MORTALITY has always imposed some restraint on man's
excesses.
A. celestiality
B. eternity
C. continuity
D. inexistence

117
E. corruption

Fill in the blank space with the most appropriate option.


9. By the time we were due to ____ the following day, everybody heaved a sigh of
relief.
A. check out
B. leaving
C. check off
D. check on
E. check up

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
10. The man who had been seriously ill was CONVALESCING at a sea-side resort.
A. regaining health
B. deteriorating in health
C. recuperating
D. relaxing
E. getting better

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that BEST INTERPRETS the word
written in capital letters.
11. Your extreme patience sometimes INFURIATES me.
A. impresses
B. annoys
C. frustrates
D. amuses
E. excites

118
From the options lettered A-E, choose the word that is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the underlined word and will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the
sentence.
12. The now famous park was until recently _______ even in the neighbourhood.
A. anonymous
B. obscure
C. hidden
D. infamous
E. known

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is OPPOSITE IN MEANING to
the word written in capital letters.
13. Binta SOBBED by the door because she had lost her mother's precious necklace.
A. disguised
B. hid
C. wept
D. laughed
E. cried

14. The _____ is used in measuring body temperature.


A. barometer
B. odometer
C. speedometer
D. ammeter
E. thermometer

From the options lettered A to E, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence.
15. What do you intend to do with these inanimate objects?

119
A. lively
B. fascinating
C. precious
D. lifeless
E. costly

Choose the word OPPOSITE IN MEANING to the word in capital letters.


16. Environmentalists around the world fight to PRESERVE the world's natural beauty
and resources for future generations to come.
A. divert
B. safeguard
C. conserve
D. destroy
E. nurture

Choose the option NEAREST IN MEANING to the word written in capital letters.
17. Looking after many active little children is a LABORIOUS task.
A. compulsory
B. easy
C. hard
D. simple
E. tactful

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the
word written in capital letters.
18. COLLOSAL
A. A break in column
B. Gigantic

120
C. Huge waste
D. A calamity
E. The sale of colos

From the options lettered A - E, choose the one that is NEAREST IN MEANING to the
word written in capital letters.
20. The Preacher warned the congregation against worrying unduly about MUNDANE
things.
A. worldly
B. celestial
C. unimaginable
D. immoral
E. evil

121
1. The correct answer is option [D]
2. The correct answer is option [B]
3. The correct answer is option [C]
4. The correct answer is Option [D]
5. The correct answer is option [D].
6. The correct answer is option [E].
DESPONDENT means to be in low spirit from loss of hope or courage.
MISCHIEVIOUS means to have intentions to cause harm or trouble.
AGITATED means made to be anxious or excited; moved vigorously or briskly;
aroused the public aout something.
INDIGNANT means to be unworthy.
AGGRESSIVE means to be very angry or hostile, excessively forceful.
HOPELESS means to be without hope.
7. The correct answer is option [A].
8. The correct answer is option [B].
MORTALITY means being subject to death.
9. The correct answer is Option [A].
10. The correct answer is option [B].
Convalescing means regaining health after illness.
11. The correct answer is option [B].
Infuriate means to irritate greatly or make greatly annoyed.
12. The correct answer is option [B]
13. The correct answer is option [D].
14. The correct answer is option [E].
Barometer is an instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure
Odometer is also same as a milometer which is an instrument for measuring the
number of miles covered by a vehicle.

122
Speedometer is an instrument used to measure the speed of a vehicle.
Ammeter is an instrument used for the measurement of current.
Thermometer is an instrument used for the measurement of temperature.
15. The correct answer is option [D]
16. The correct answer is option [D]
17. The correct answer is option [C]
18. The correct answer is option [C]
19. The correct answer is option [B].
Colossal connotes something that is very immense; gigantic.
20. The correct answer is option [A].

123
CURRENT AFFAIRS SET 4
1. Which of these constitution recognized local government as the third tier of
government
A. The 1946 Constitution
B. The 1960 constitution
C. The 1963 constitution
D. the 1979 constitution

2. A condition for judicial independence is the appointment of judges by the


A. Civil service commission
B. Judicial service Commission
C. Low Review Commission
D. The 1979 constitution

3. The minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria in 1957 recommend that


A. More states should be created in the federation
B. No more states should created before independence
C. Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure
D. the legislature should Legislate for the minority areas
E the minorities should constitute one state

4. The NCS is fondly called ‘The Nigeria gatekeepers’


A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

5. To The NCS, the import of which of the following is NOT prohibited


A. Live Chicken

124
B. Chicken Egg
C. Refined Oil
D. Motor Vehicle of ten years from manufacture

6. In the NCS, the importation of Bagged cement is prohibited


A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

7. The second military coup d’état in Nigeria took place on


A July 15, 1966
B. October 1, 1966
C. July 29, 1966
D. July 29, 1975
E. February 13, 1976

8. One of these was in existence before the outbreak of the second world war
A. The OAU
B. The League of Nations
C. The UNO
D. The Commonwealth of Nations
E. ECOWAS

9. An important advantage of creating more constitution in a federal state is to


A. Enhance the People participation
B. Enable ambitious Politicians gain political power
C. Make the states gain more power from the federal
government

125
D. Curb the excess of the federal government.

10. In the NCS, the importation of Spaghetti/Noodles is prohibited


A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

11. In the NCS, it is generally not an offence for Nigerians to re-export an imported
good
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

12. In The NCS, Which of the following is prohibited for export by Nigeria
A. Timber
B. Fruit Juice
C. Cocoa Butter
D. Soaps and Detergents

13. Under the Presidential system


A. The party with the majority of seat forms the Executive
B. There is the principle of collective responsibility
C. The president may come from any of the parties
D. The states take instruction from the federal government

14. Public opinion is important because it


A. Tells government what action it must take
B. Lets government know what the people want

126
C. Allows Police to manage crisis
D. Mothers the minorities in resource lean areas
E. Guarantees peoples freedom and rights

15. Bicameral legislature exists


A. Where two cameras are used to monitor court proceedings
B. To prevent the concentration of power on legislative house
C. To provide jobs for more politicians
D. To ensure that just laws are passed

16. To The NCS, it is forbidden to export all of the following except______


A. Raw hides and skin
B. Bottled Drinks
C. Maize
D. Scrap Metals

17. Till date, The Nigerian Custom Service has remained loyal to the use of just one
colour of the uniform
A. True
B. False
C. Cannot tell

18. A parliamentary system, who ensures that members are in the house to vote on
major issues
A. Party leaders
B. Speaker of the House
C. Clerk of the House
D. Whip

127
19. A system in which no single person serves as the chief executive is known as
A. Republican
B. Revolutionary
C. Collegial
D. Parliamentary

20. A social system in which power is derived from control over land is called
A. Oligarchy
B. Feudalism
C. Socialism
D. Welfarism

128
ANSWERS
81. D 82. B 83. A 84. A 85. D

86. A 87. A 88. D 89. D 90. A

91. B 92. A 93. C 94. B 95. D


100.
96. B 97. B 98. B 99. D
B

EXPLANATION
1. Answer:C
2. Answer:B
3. Answer: C
4. Answer: B
5. Answer:A
6. Answer:A
7. Answer: D
8. Answer: D
9. Answer:A
10. Answer:A
11. Answer: C
12. Answer: C
13. Answer:D
14. Answer:D
15. Answer: A
16. Answer: B
17. Answer:A
18. Answer:C
19. Answer: A
20. Answer: A

129
130
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