MICROBIOLOGY-ANATOMY
EXTRA-EDGE
MICROBIOLOGY
19. A 25-year-old male presents with difficulty swallowing,
hydrophobia, and aerophobia after being bitten by a bat. He
develops spasms, agitation, and coma, eventually
succumbing to respiratory failure. Histopathological
examination of his brain is shown in the image. Which of the
following best describes the viral genome of the pathogen?
A. Double-stranded DNA, enveloped
B. Single-stranded RNA, positive-sense, enveloped
C. Single-stranded RNA, negative-sense, enveloped
D. Single-stranded RNA, segmented, non-enveloped
Hep E
Matona
Delta: Hep D
JE, KFD
18. There is an outbreak of hepatitis A infection in a college
hostel. Which of the following is false about this infection?
A. It does not cause hepatocellular carcinoma
B. The incubation period is 2-6 weeks
C. Caused by an enveloped ssRNA virus
D. Case fatality rate is 0.1%
15. Identify morphology of coronavirus
A. Naked helically symmetrical viruses
B. Enveloped icosahedrally symmetrical viruses
C. Enveloped helically symmetrical viruses
D. Variably enveloped viruses with a complex symmetry
Polio YF All other RNA
Hep A Rubella
Helical: Tobacco mosaic
186. A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department with
sudden-onset chest pain, fever, and significant intercostal muscle
tenderness. He works in agriculture, and his symptoms started after
eating street food. Upon examination, he shows signs of pleuritic
chest pain and muscle stiffness. He reports a recent fever and
generalized muscle aches. He also has a past medical history of
diabetes. Given the context and clinical presentation, which of the
following pathogens is most likely responsible for his condition?
A. Group A Coxsackievirus
B. Group B Coxsackievirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
Group A Coxsackieviruses Group B Coxsackieviruses
1. Aseptic meningitis (A7, A9) 1. Aseptic meningitis (B1-6)
2. Herpangina (vesicular Pharyngitis) 2. Pleurodynia (Epidemic myalgia or Bornholm
3. Hand foot and mouth disease (also by disease
Enterovirus:71) 3. Myocarditis, pericarditis
4. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis-Caused by 4. Hepatitis and Pneumonia
Coxsackie-A24 and Enterovirus 70 5. Pancreatitis leading to Juvenile Diabetes
mellitus - Coxsackie B4
25. A 6-month-old infant is brought to the emergency
department with difficulty swallowing, a weak cry, and
generalized weakness. The child’s mother reports that the
infant consumed honey several days ago. On examination, the
infant is floppy, with a weak cry and poor muscle tone. The
diagnosis of infant botulism is made. Which of the following
adenovirus serotypes is most commonly associated with
diarrhea in infants and would be a potential differential
diagnosis for this case?
A. 40, 41
B. 8, 19, 37
C. 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 3, 7, 14
64. Which of the following is not a continuous cell line used
for viral culture?
A. Vero
B. Hep2
C. WI-38
D. Hela
1. The following phenomenon not be observed in?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Neisseria gonorrheae
D. Hemophilus influenzae
Polysachharide capsule:
Grp B Strep, [Link], Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Salmonella
[Link]
[Link]
Cryptococcus
Hyaluronic acid:
Polypeptide:
F1 protein:
183. A 34-year-old male presents with a fluctuant mass in the
jaw region and purulent discharge from multiple sinuses. The
culture shows the colonies displayed in the given image
below. Which of the following is a key feature of the causative
organism?
A. Gram-negative obligate anaerobe
B. Gram-positive facultative anaerobe
C. Gram-positive obligate anaerobe
D. Acid-fast bacterium
Actinomyces Staphylococcus
Bacteroides Helicobacter
Streptococcus Campylobacter
Clostridium Enterobacteracae
Fusobacterium [Link]
Hemophilus
Vibrio
Peptostreptococcus
(aero-tolerant)
Lack catalase
Ineffective:
12. Identify the microaerophilic bacteria from the list:
1. Positive CLO test.
2. Gram-negative bacilli implicated in GBS
3. Gram-negative curved bacilli with 'fish-in-stream' appearance
4. Bacteria showing 'mercury drop' colonies.
5. LJ medium showing ruff, buff, tough colonies.
A. 2 and 5
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 1 and 2
3. Identify the staining method for a tissue biopsy of the
painless ulcer shown below:
A. Fontana's method
B. Levaditi's method
C. Castaneda's method
D. Albert's method
2. Which of the following stains are used to visualize the
specific fibers present in the following cartilage?
A. Bielchowsky stain
B. Verhoeff's stain
C. GMS Silver stain
D. Alcian Blue stain
9. Which of the following is a pigment-producing species of
mycobacteria?
A. M. ulcerans
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. avium intracellulare complex
D. M. xenopi
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of
EI Tor vibrio?
A. Resistant to El Tor phage V
B. Intrinsic resistance to polymyxin B
C. Voges-Proskauer test is positive
D. Not susceptible to group IV phage
17. A 34-year-old man presents with a discharging wound
post-operatively. Cultures reveal infection with MRSA. Which
of the following is the gene implicated?
A. MecA
B. MecB
C. MecC
D. MecM
14. Which of the following microbes is also referred to as
Friedlander's bacillus?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Corynebacterium diphtheria
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E. [Link]
F. [Link]
16. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the
serological tests of syphilis?
A. Rapid plasma reagin test is a group specific treponemal test
B. VDRL test is the test of choice for response to therapy
C. VDRL is the test of choice for examining CSF
D. Treponemal tests are likely to remain reactive even after adequate therapy
TP-HA
EIA
122. A throat swab taken from a patient who presented with
fever, dysphagia and cervical lymphadenopathy was sent for
culture on potassium tellurite agar. The resultant colonies
had a poached egg appearance. Which among the following
is the most likely organism implicated here?
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae gravis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae mitis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae intermedius
D. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Acid labile:
[Link], Rhinovirus
10. A 25-year-old HIV/AIDS man presents with fever,
headache, photophobia and neck rigidity since the last 2
days. What is the empirical therapy of choice for this patient?
A. Cefepime + Vancomycin + Ampicillin
B. Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
C. Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide+ Ethambutol
D. Liposomal amphotericin B + Fluorocytosine
20. Which among the following is not a sexual spore?
A. Zygospore
B. Sporangiophore
C. Basidiospore
D. Ascospore
21. A 22-year-old man comes with complaints of intermittent
bloody diarrhea for 3 weeks after consuming street food
during his travel. He is febrile and has RUQ tenderness.
Which of the following is the infective form of the likely
protozoan causing this disease?
A. Trophozoite
B. Mature quadrinucleate cyst
C. Metacyclic trophozoite
D. Oocyst
E. Cyst
F. Sporozoite
G. Promastigote
22. Which of the following refers to a host in which the larval
stage of the parasite remains viable without further
development?
DH Not man
A. Definitive host
Malaria
B. Intermediate host Babesia
C. Paratenic host Toxoplasma
[Link]
D. Reservoir host
33. Which of the following tests is a type of ring precipitation
test?
A. VDRL test
B. Rose Bengal test
C. Ascoli's thermoprecipitation test
D. Elek test
PRECIPITATION/FLOCCULATION:
Ring test: Ascoli Lancefield
Slide: VDRL
Tube: Kahn
Immunodiffusion/ Gel: Elek test
Rocket electrophoresis
AGGLUTINATION
Slide: Blood grouping Rose Bengal
Tube: Widal Weil Felix Paul-Bunnel CAT SAT MAT
Coombs test
Indirect/Passive agglutination:
Latex-ASO, CRP, RF, HCG
Heme-Rose Waaler test
Complement fixation:
Wassermann, TPI
Sabin Feldman
5. What is the temperature used for this method of
sterilisation?
A. 121°C for 15 minutes
B. 140°C for 120 minutes
C. 50°C for 120 minutes
D. 160°C for 120 minutes
4. Which of the following will be used to sterilise the
instrument used to treat the following injury?
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Gamma rays
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Ultraviolet rays
6. Which among the following is a low-level disinfectant?
A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Benzalkonium chloride
2. Which of the following method of disinfection and
sterilization can also kill spores?
1. Glutaraldehyde
2. Ethylene oxide
3. Pasteurization
4. Orthophthalaldehyde
A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3 and 4
ANATOMY
31. Arrange the following events of pre-embryonic development in
order, from the earlier stage to the later stage:
1. Cavitation
2. Compaction
3. Implantation
4. Cleavage
A. 2-4-1-3
B. 3-1-2-4
C. 4-2-3-1
D. 4-2-1-3
• Fertilisation
• Cleavage
• Compaction
• Differentiation
• Cavitation
• Hatching
• Implantation
• Bilaminar
• Gastrulation
33. The membranous labyrinth develops from which structure?
A. First pharyngeal pouch
B. First pharyngeal cleft
C. Otic vesicle
D. Meckel's cartilage
• Pinna
• EAC
• Middle ear, ET, antrum
• Malleus, incus
• Stapes
• TM
• Stapes footplate
• Membranous labyrinth
• SCC, utricle
• Saccule, cochlea
50. What is the embryological origin of the cells involved in
this condition?
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Surface ectoderm
D. Neural crest
Corneal stroma, endothelium
Sclera (Except superotemporal)
Iris, choroid stroma
Melanocytes
Ciliaris
27. Arrange the following stages of lung development in
order from the earliest stage to the latest stage.
[Link] stage
[Link] stage
[Link] stage
[Link] stage
A. 3-1-4-2
B. 1-3-2-4
C. 3-4-1-2
D. 4-3-1-2
32. Which of the following brainstem nuclei is not derived
from the alar plate?
A. Inferior olivary
B. Substantia nigra
C. Dentate
D. Hypoglossal
30. In which layer of the cerebral cortex is the outer band of
Baillarger seen?
A. External pyramidal layer
B. Internal granular layer
C. Internal pyramidal layer
D. External granular layer
36. Which of the following is not the blood supply of the
marked structure?
A. Middle cerebral artery
B. Recurrent artery of Heubner
C. Anterior choroidal artery
D. Posterior cerebral artery
37. Which of the following descending tracts in the spinal
cord remains uncrossed?
A. Tectospinal tract
B. Rubrospinal tract
C. Vestibulospinal tract
D. Olivospinal
E. Pyramidal tract
38. All of the following tracts pass through inferior
cerebellar peduncle except
A. Posterior spinocerebellar
B. Anterior spinocerebellar
C. Cuneocerebellar
D. Olivocerebellar
39. Which of the following branches of internal Carotid
artery are given off in the cervical region?
A. Pharyngeal branches
B. Pterygoid branch
C. Caroticotympanic branch
D. None of the above
40. Which of the following areas is not a part of anterior neck?
A. Subclavian triangle
B. Submental triangle
C. Digastric triangle
D. Carotid triangle
28. Which of the following properties of the eustachian tube
predisposes to higher incidence of acute otitis media in
children than adults?
A. More angulated at isthmus
B. Rigid cartilage
C. Dense elastin in the cartilage
D. Wider and shorter tube
7. Which of the following blood vessels does not contribute to the blood
supply of the abnormal structure?
1. Internal carotid artery
2. External carotid artery
3. Facial artery
4. Lingual artery
5. Maxillary artery
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 5
C. 1 and 3
D. 3, 4 and 5
25. A 40-year-old man presents with difficulty chewing on one side. On
examination, there is reduced movement of the mandible due to impaired
muscle function. Which of the following nerves, a branch of the anterior
division of the mandibular nerve, is most likely affected?
A. Masseteric
B. Lingual
C. Auriculotemporal
D. Meningeal
62. Identify the incorrectly matched pair with respect to its
nerve supply of the marked structures in the given image:
A) Facial Nerve
B) Trigeminal Nerve
C) Glossopharyngeal Nerve
D) Hypoglossal Nerve
43. The artery passing through the structure marked A is a
branch of which part of the maxillary artery?
A. First part
B. Second part
C. Third part
D. Fourth part
42. Which of the following muscle causes opening of
laryngeal inlet?
A. Vocalis
B. Thyroepiglotticus
C. Cricoarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
Muscles acting on the larynx
Movement Muscle
Elevation of larynx Thyrohyoid, mylohyoid
Depression of larynx Sternohyoid, sternothyroid
Opening inlet of larynx Thyroepiglottic
Closing inlet of larynx Aryepiglottic
Abductor of vocal cords Posterior cricoarytenoid only
Adductor of vocal cords Lateral cricoarytenoid (whisper), transverse and
oblique arytenoids
Tensor of vocal cords Cricothyroid
Relaxor of vocal cords Thyroarytenoid and vocalis (modulator)
41. A 40-year-old man with a history of tobacco chewing
presented with a non-healing ulcer over the tip of the tongue.
Biopsy revealed squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the
following would be the sentinel lymph nodes?
A. Submandibular lymph nodes
B. Submental lymph nodes
C. Deep cervical lymph nodes
D. Jugulo-omohyoid lymph nodes
48. A pedestrian crossing the road is met with a road traffic
accident. He has presented to the emergency with left foot drop.
Power in tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor
hallucis longus is 0/5. While power in tibialis posterior,
gastrocnemius is 4/5. What is the likely site of injury?
A. Supracondylar fracture of left femur
B. Fracture neck of left fibula
C. Posterior dislocation of femur head
D. Left ankle fracture
Nerve Muscle Group Muscles Supplied Main Actions
Superficial Peroneal Nerve - Peroneus (Fibularis) longus-
Lateral compartment of leg Eversion of foot
(SPN) Peroneus (Fibularis) brevis
- Tibialis anterior- Extensor
hallucis longus- Extensor Dorsiflexion of ankleToe
Deep Peroneal Nerve (DPN) Anterior compartment of leg
digitorum longus- Peroneus extension
(Fibularis) tertius
- Extensor digitorum brevis-
Dorsum of foot Extension of toes
Extensor hallucis brevis
Posterior compartment of leg - Gastrocnemius- Soleus-
Tibial Nerve Plantarflexion of foot
(superficial) Plantaris
- Popliteus- Flexor digitorum
Posterior compartment of leg Plantarflexion, toe flexion,
longus- Flexor hallucis longus-
(deep) inversion
Tibialis posterior
- Abductor hallucis- Flexor
Sole of foot (via medial plantar
digitorum brevis- Flexor Toe flexion, abduction of hallux
nerve)
hallucis brevis- 1st lumbrical
- Abductor digiti minimi-
Quadratus plantae- 2nd–4th
Sole of foot (via lateral plantar Toe abduction/adduction,
lumbricals- Adductor hallucis-
nerve) lateral toe flexion
Flexor digiti minimi brevis-
Interossei (dorsal & plantar)
46. Which of the following muscles causes external rotation
of the hip joint?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Tensor fascia lata
D. Adductor longus
47. The hunter's canal lies beneath which muscle?
A. Vastus medialis
B. Adductor longus
C. Sartorius
D. Adductor magnus
49. Which of the following structures do not pass through
both greater and lesser sciatic foramens?
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Tendon of obturator internus
C. Nerve to obturator internus
D. Internal pudendal vessels
26. Which among the following is wrong about the venous
drainage of the heart?
A. Coronary sinus is guarded by the thebesian valve
B. Middle cardiac vein lies in the posterior atrioventricular groove
C. Great cardiac vein accompanies left anterior descending artery
D. Anterior cardiac vein opens into RA directly
29. You should not insert the needle below which level in
midaxillary line so as not to damage the liver?
A. 6th rib
B. 10th rib
C. 8th rib
D. 12th rib
24. Which of the following arteries does not contribute to the scapular
anastomosis?
• Lateral thoracic artery
• Transverse cervical artery
• Subscapular artery
• Suprascapular artery
77. A 35-year-old patient is scheduled for central venous catheter
placement. The anesthesiologist discusses the landmarks used to
identify the internal jugular vein for cannulation. Which of the following
surface landmarks is used for this purpose?
• Subclavian triangle
• Sedillot’s triangle
• Scaleno Vertebral triangle
• Suboccipital triangle
19. Identify the tributaries of the vessel
marked in the image except:
• Right ascending lumbar
• Right subcostal vein
• Right 5th posterior intercostal vein
• Left 5th posterior intercostal vein
Formed by: left Lumbar azygos, left subcostal, left
Formed by: Right Lumbar azygos, right ascending lumbar
subcostal, right ascending lumbar Tributaries:
Tributaries: Left 9-11th PICV
Right superior intercostal vein: 2,3,4 PICV
Right 5-11th PICV
Hemiazygos, Accessory hemiazygos-T8 Tributaries:
T4->SVC Left 5-8h PICV
37. The largest lymphatic duct of our body opens into the
systemic circulation at which of the following locations?
A. Junction of superior vena cava and left brachiocephalic vein
B. Junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian vein
C. Directly into coronary sinus
D. Into the azygos vein
Feature Details
Length 45 cm (18 inches)
Origin Continuation of cisterna chyli near the lower border of T12 vertebra
Course Ascends through the posterior mediastinum, crosses to the left at
T5, arches at C7
Drainage Point Junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian veins
Drainage Entire body below the diaphragm and left half of the body above
Territory the diaphragm
193. A 35-year-old construction worker presents with pain
and swelling in the lower neck following a fall from a height.
He reports difficulty breathing, and on examination, there is
reduced air entry over the right lung apex. A CT scan reveals
herniation of the cervical pleura into the lower neck,
suggesting an injury to a fascial structure that protects the
lung apex and separates the neck from the thoracic cavity.
Which of the following statements regarding this fascial
structure is incorrect?
A. Attached to the inner border of the 2nd rib
B. Covers the apical part of the lung
C. Part of the scalenus minimus muscle
D. Vessels pass above the fascia
39. Which of the following statements about the lienorenal
(splenorenal) ligament are correct?
A. It connects the spleen to the kidney.
B. It contains the splenic artery and vein.
C. It contains the short gastric arteries.
D. It encloses the tail of the pancreas.
A. A and B only
B. A, B, and D only
C. A, C, and D only
D. All of the above
34. Which of the following structures in women is
homologous to gubernaculum testis in men?
A. Round ligament
B. Broad ligament
C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Cardinal ligament
44. Which of the following muscles is not involved in the
formation of the perineal body?
A. Bulbospongiosus muscle
B. Superficial transverse perineal muscles
C. Deep transverse perineal muscles
D. Internal anal sphincter muscle
45. Which of the following structures of the inguinal canal
lies outside the internal spermatic fascia?
A. Pampiniform plexus of veins
B. Testicular artery
C. Testicular nerve plexus
D. Ilioinguinal nerve
ROTATION ABNORMALITIES
31. Which of the following is not an anterior relation of the
left ureter while exposing it?
A. Root of the mesentery
B. Sigmoid mesocolon
C. Left Gonadal vessels
D. Left colic vessels
46. The structure that is present in the deep perineal pouch is?
A. Bulb of the vestibule
B. Corpus spongiosum
C. Bartholin glands
D. Bulbourethral glands
118. All of the following are true about grey rami communicantes except?
A. Unmyelinated
B. Connected to spinal nerve
C. Preganglionic
D. Present medial to white rami communicantes
25. Which of the following bones violates ‘The secondary
ossification center that appears first, fuses last’ law ?
A. Radius
B. Fibula
C. Ulna
D. Sternum
[Link] of the following types of joints is incorrectly
matched ?
A. Acromioclavicular joint – Plane synovial joint
B. Wrist joint – Condyloid joint
C. Sternoclavicular joint – Plane joint
D. Intercarpal– Plane synovial joint
Joint Type Example Permitted Movements
Gliding movements (limited
Plane (gliding) Intercarpal, intertarsal joints
sliding)
Hinge Elbow, interphalangeal joints Flexion, extension
Atlantoaxial joint, Sup-Inferior Rotation (e.g.,
Pivot
radioulnar pronation/supination)
1st carpometacarpal joint Flexion, extension, abduction,
Saddle
(thumb) adduction, circumduction
Flexion, extension, abduction,
Ball and socket Shoulder, hip adduction, rotation,
circumduction
35. Which of the following is not a unilayered epithelium?
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Seminiferous epithelium
