Smart

for

CHO-EXAM
Review Guide

(MCQs)
For All States NHM- CHO | Staff Nurse | CCH and All other Nursing Competetive Exams

Based on New Exam Patterns

3500+ MPMCQs

12+ PYPs (NHM/CHO)

Useful for all Nursing Exams

Salient Features
Based on the new pattern of Community Health Officer (CHO) Exam.
Subject wise Most Probable MCQs (MPMCQs) prepared by the speciality faculty (M.Sc./ PhD
Nursing from various Govt institution of India.
Detailed Explanation where required.
Previous Year Papers (PYPs) of NHM-CHO/ Staff Nurse Exams of various states with correct
answer and detailed explanations where required.
Most authentic and valid answer form trusted books and govt guidlines
This books is also very usefull for all Nursing Officer/Staff Nurse, MLHP, CCH, BPCHN
exams.
Author
Nurses Pathshala NP Publication
Prepare | practice | Achieve Nurturing Knowledge, Empowering Future Surendra K Jogpal
 Smart
for

CHO-EXAM
Review Guide

(MCQs)
For All States NHM- CHO | Staff Nurse | CCH and All other Nursing Competetive Exams

SURENDRA K JOGPAL
NURSING EDUCATOR/AUTHOR

Formerly selected as STAFF NURSE-II (Raj Govt) in 2016

Qualified in NORCET 2020
Provisionally selected in Raj CHO 2020
Qualified in NORCET 2021
Provisionally selected in Haryana CHO (Bhiwani) 2022
Formally selected as Nursing Tutor, GMC Basti, DGME, UP 2023
Provisionally selected in Raj CHO 2022
Formally selected as Nursing Tutor, GMC Kannauj, DGME, UP 2024
Formally selected in Raj CHO 2024

NP PUBLICATION
Nurturing Knowledge, Empowering Future
Book Title: Smart Review Guide for CHO-EXAM (MCQs)
ISBN: 978-81-985362-3-5
Edition & Year: first 2025
Author: Surendra K Jogpal
Published By: NP Publication, Nagaur (Raj.) 341001
Printed by: Kaagaz Wala, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh 226013

© NP Publication, 2025. All Rights Reserved.

No part of this book may be reproduced, distributed, or transmitted in any form or by any
means, including photocopying, recording, or other electronic or mechanical methods,
without the prior written permission of the publisher or author, except in the case of brief
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Unauthorized use, reproduction, or distribution of this material is strictly prohibited and
may result in legal action.
 OUR PROUD CONTRIBUTORS

Mr. Visanth V S Mrs. Mathivathani M

M.Sc. (N) MHN, PhD* M.Sc. (N) MSN
Associate Professor Nursing Tutor
GMC, Basti (U.P.) GMC, Kanpur

Mr. Suresh Bera Prof. Shaheen Akhtar Khan

Nursing Officer M.Sc. (N) CHN, PhD*
AIIMS Patna Vice principal
GMC, Basti (U.P.)

Ms. Sneha Dixit Ms. Neha Singh

M.Sc. (N) CHN M.Sc. (N) MHN
Nursing Tutor Assistant Professor
GMC, jalaun (U.P.) GMC, jalaun (U.P.)

KM Bhavana Mr. Deepak Gehlot

M.Sc. (N) OBG Nursing Tutor
Nursing Tutor GMC, jalaun (U.P.)
GMC, jalaun (U.P.)

Ms. Shreya Sharma Mr. Mahaveer Farroda

M.Sc. (N) OBG M.Sc. (N) Pediatric
Nursing Tutor Assistant Professor
GMC, jalaun (U.P.) SR Nursing Institute,
Basti (U.P.)

Mrs. Poonam Chaurasia Ms. Shweta Sharma

M.Sc. (N) OBG Nursing Tutor
Assistant Professor GMC, Azamgarh (U.P.)
Sahara College of
Nursing, Lucknow (U.P.)
 Saheen Sheikh Ms. Shritika Singh
M.Sc. (N) OBG M.Sc. (N) CHN
Professor Nursing Tutor
Mariampur College of Nursing, GMC, Agra (U.P.)
Kanpur

Mr. Rahul Panwar Ms. Anjali Mall

M.Sc. (N) Pediatric Nursing Tutor
Assistant Professor GMC, Basti (U.P.)
GMC, Basti (U.P.)

Reviewer

Mrs, Anjali Shukla Mr. Sushil Bugaliya

M.Sc. (N) OBG, PhD* Nursing Officer
Nursing Officer JLN Hospital, Nagaur
GMC, Basti (U.P.)

Mr. Harendra bana Mr. Harsh Saswat

Nursing Officer M.Sc. (N) MHN
Nagaur (raj.) Assistant Professor
Vanasthali Vidhyapeeth,
Jaipur (Raj.)

Ms. Manju Changal Ms. Papeeta Lalariya

CHO CHO
Rajasthan Rajasthan

Mr. Abhishek Sharma Ms. Surya Kiran

Nursing Officer CHO
AIIMS, Patna Rajasthan
 Ms. Jyoti Srivastava Mr. Dinesh Swami
M.Sc. (N) MSN Nursing Officer
Nursing Tutor AIIMS, Patna
GMC, PRAYAGRAJ(U.P.)

Mr. Sahi ram Bhambu Mr. Saitan Ram Jethu

Nursing Officer M.Sc. (N) Pediatric
BHU, Varanasi Nursing Officer
BHU, Varanasi

Prof. Seema Jangid Shivraj Padhiyar

M.Sc. (N) CHN CHO
Vice principal Rajasthan
GMC, BAHRAICH (U.P.)

Mr. Satendra Rajput Mrs. Kanaz Dsouza

Nursing Tutor Vice principal
GMC, Basti (U.P.) KAMALA NEHRU HOSPITAL
SCHOOL OF HEALTH SCIENCES
PRAYAGRAJ (UP)
NORCET | RRB SUPER TEST SERUES
Specially designed for
upcoming RRB, NORCET,
& other Nursing Officer
exam
why choose THIS?
15 Exam (12 subject wise +
3 mega exam)
Most probable MCQs
Detailed solution
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NHM-CHO| STAFF NURSE EXAM

अ ब क रे अ प नी प री क्षा की तै या री
C H O - V I J E T A T E S T S E R I E S के सा थ

FEATURES
18 Exam (15
subject wise +
3 mega exam)
Most probable
MCQs
Detailed
solution
Live ranking
 A message to
all Nursing Aspirants

Dear Nursing Aspirants,

Welcome to NP Publication—your dedicated partner in
achieving success in competitive exams like AIIMS NORCET,
Nursing Officer, State NHM CHO, Staff Nurse, RRB, GMCH, and
many more. We understand the challenges you face on this
journey, and we are committed to providing you with the best
study resources to help you excel.
Our books are designed with the latest syllabus, expert-
reviewed content, and strategic practice materials to
enhance your preparation. We believe that with the right
guidance, hard work, and perseverance, you can achieve your
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Stay focused, keep pushing forward, and believe in your
potential. Your dedication today will shape the healthcare
hero you are destined to become.
Wishing you all the best in your preparations and future
career.
With best wishes,

Urmila Gunpal
Publication Head
NP Publication
 Preface
Dear Nursing Aspirants,
It is with great pleasure that I present to you the "Smart Review
Guide for CHO Exam (MCQs)", a comprehensive resource
designed to support your preparation for the NHM-CHO
examination and other competitive nursing exams such as NHM
Staff Nurse, all State NHM Exams, AIIMS NORCET, and more.
This book is the result of extensive research, careful planning,
and expert contribution. It features a vast collection of most
probable MCQs, thoughtfully crafted with accurate answers
and detailed explanations to enhance your understanding.
Additionally, we've included previous CHO question papers with
correct answers and explanations to give you insight into the
exam pattern and frequently asked questions.
The subject-wise content has been meticulously prepared by
specialist faculty with advanced qualifications (M.Sc.
Nursing/Ph.D. in their respective subjects), ensuring the highest
level of accuracy and relevance. Their expertise has helped
shape this guide into an effective tool for both learning and
revision.
Whether you're preparing specifically for the CHO exam or
aiming to excel in other nursing competitive exams, this guide
will serve as a valuable asset to your success.
Wishing you the very best in your studies and future endeavors.
May your hard work lead you to the career of your dreams.
With warm regards,

Surendra K Jogpal
Author, Smart Review Guide for CHO Exam (MCQs)
 Table of Contents
S.N. SUBJECT/PAPER PAGE NO.
SECTION - A: MOST PROBABLE MCQs
1. Community Health Nursing 1 - 28
2. Obstetric & Gynaecological Nursing 29 - 51
3. Child Health Nursing 52 - 65
4. Psychology & Mental Health (Psychiatric)Nursing 66 – 77
5. Anatomy & Physiology 78 - 86
5. Medical-Surgical Nursing 87 – 108
6. Nursing Foundation 109 – 118
7. Nutrition 119 – 122
8. Environmental Sanitation 123 – 126
9. Miscellaneous 127 - 142
SECTION B: PREVIOUS YEAR PAPERS
1. Rajasthan CHO 2020 143 – 152
2. Rajasthan CHO 2022 (cancelled) 153 - 162
3. Rajasthan CHO 2022 (reconducted again in 2024) 163 – 181
4. Uttar Pradesh NHM – CHO 2021 182 – 190
5. Uttarakhand CHO 2021 190 – 205
6. Uttarakhand CHO 2022 206 - 220
7. Himachal Pradesh CHO 2022 221 – 235
8. Madhya Pradesh NHM – CHO 20 236 – 250
9. Haryana CHO 2021 251 - 260
10. Haryana CHO 2023 261 – 275
11. Rajasthan NHM – Nursing Officer 2024 276 – 299
12. Uttar Pradesh NHM – Staff Nurse 2021 300 - 315
13. Uttar Pradesh NHM – Staff Nurse 2023, shift-I 316- 332
14. Uttar Pradesh NHM – Staff Nurse 2023, shift-II 333 - 351
15. Uttar Pradesh NHM – Staff Nurse 2023, shift-III 352 - 368
 SECTION – A

Most Probable
MCQs

1
Most Probable MCQs

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

1. Who invented the Smallpox vaccine? A. Plague
A. Louis Pasteur B. Dengue
B. Edward Jenner C. Tuberculosis
C. Paul Eugene D. Cholera
D. Robert Kotch Ans. A. Plague
Ans. (B) Edward Jenner 8. We celebrate World Health Day on:
2. The ‘web of causation’ theory was given by: A. 1st December
A. Paul Eugene B. 31st May
B. McMohan and Pugh C. 8th May
C. John snow D. 7th April
D. Louis Pasteur Ans. D. 7th April
Ans. B. McMohan and Pugh 8. Father of Public Health is:
3. Match the following: A. Louis Pasteur
a. Edward Jenner I. Rabies and B. John snow
Anthrax C. Cholera
b. Louis Pasteur II. Small pox D. Robert Koch
c. Albert Calmette III. Poliomyelitis Ans. C. Cholera
and Camille Guérin 9.Which of the following is known as 3-day disease:
d. Pierre Lépine IV. Tuberculosis A. Chicken pox
B. Rubeola
A. a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II C. Rubella
B. a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III D. Measles
C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III Ans. C. Rubella
D. a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I 10. Which of the following is not included in
Ans. C. a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III Standard of Living (WHO):
4. The eradication of smallpox was declared by WHO A. Income
in: B. Sanitation and nutrition
A. May 1980 C. Level of provision of health
B. September 1978 D. Human rights
C. May 1988 Ans. D. Human rights
D. July 1987 Explanation:
Ans. A. May 1980  Standard of Living is Refers to the usual scale of
• On May 8, 1980, WHO announced that smallpox expenditure, goods we consume, and services
was eradicated worldwide. enjoyed by a individual.
5. Which disease is referred to as the "Barometer of  Standard of living [WHO] includes:
Social Welfare"? o Income and Occupation
A. Tuberculosis o Standards of housing,
B. Cholera o sanitation, and nutrition
C. Leprosy o Level of provision of health, educational,
D. Malaria recreational and other services
Ans. A. Tuberculosis  Standard of living depends upon the ‘Per capita
6. The dates of Breastfeeding Week celebrations are: GNP’
A. 1st week of March 11. Human Development Index (HDI) does not
B. 1st week of July include:
C. 1st week of August A. Mean years of schooling
D. 1st December B. Life expectancy at age 1
Ans C. 1st week of August C. Real GDP per capita
 The theme for 2024 is Closing the Gap: D. Adult literacy rate
Breastfeeding Support for all. Ans. B. Life expectancy at age 1
7. The Black Death is: Also Remember

1
Most Probable MCQs

OBSTETRIC & GYNAECOLOGICAL NURSING

1. The severe type of vomiting that occurs during C. Insomnia
pregnancy, which hurts the health of the mother, is D. Dyspareunia
called: Ans. A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum 8. An umbilical cord length measures about:
B. Morning sickness A. 100 cm.
C. Emesis gravidarum B. 20 cm.
D. Morning sickness C. 50 cm.
Ans. A. Hyperemesis gravidarum D. 80 cm.
2. What is morning sickness Ans. C. 50 cm.
A. A condition is pregnancy lasting the entire 9. The most common reason of vaginal bleeding in
length of the pregnancy first trimester is:
B. Mind nausea sometimes accompanied by A. Placenta previa
vomiting B. Separation of the placenta
C. Severe nausea and vomiting C. Implantation bleeding
D. All options D. Cervical ectropion
Ans. D. All options Ans. C. Implantation bleeding
3. Nausea and vomiting are seen in which trimester 10. Which of the following symptoms, along with
during pregnancy: vaginal bleeding is most concerning in early
A. First trimester pregnancy and could indicate a serious
B. Second trimester complication?
C. Third trimester A. Mild cramping
D. Puerperium time B. Severe abdominal pain
Ans. A. First trimester C. Vomiting
4. Which of the following is NOT a common D. Breast tenderness
symptom of hyperemesis Gravidarum? Ans. B. Severe abdominal pain
A. Dehydration 11. A patient presents with vaginal bleeding and a
B. Weight loss positive pregnancy test at 6 weeks gestation what is
C. Inability to keep down fluid the most likely cause of the bleeding.
D. Mild nausea A. Inevitable miscarriage
Ans. D. Mild nausea B. Placenta abruption
5. What is the most appropriate first treatment for C. Subchorionic hematoma
mild nausea and vomiting in pregnancy? D. Multiple pregnancy
A. Restriction of fat in her diet Ans. C. Subchorionic hematoma
B. IV fluid 12. What is the presumptive signs in pregnancy?
C. Take small frequent meals A. Amenorrhea
D. Medications B. Goodell’s sign
Ans. C. Take small frequent meals C. Fetal movement
6. When should a pregnant woman seek immediate D. Hegar’s sign
medical attention regarding vomiting? Ans. A. Amenorrhea
A. Occasional vomiting with ability to keep 13. Which factors can increase the risk of early
down fluids pregnancy bleeding?
B. Vomiting accompanied by severe abdominal A. History of previous miscarriage
pain B. Alcoholism
C. Mild nausea with no weight loss C. Insomnia
D. Vomiting that prevents adequate hydration D. All of above
Ans. D. Vomiting that prevents adequate hydration Ans. D. All of above
7. The medical term for severe nausea and vomiting 14. A patient presents with heavy vaginal bleeding
during pregnancy is: and severe abdominal pain at 8-week gestation.
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum What is diagnosis:
B. Morning sickness A. Nocturia

29
 Child Health Nursing

CHILD HEALTH NURSING

1.what should be the amount of oxygen at the time B. Abdominal hernia
of Resuscitation of a newborn baby? C. Intussusception
A. 100% D. None of the above
B. 80% Ans: C. Intussusception.
C. 40% 8. which of the following is the most important
D. 70% hemolytic uremic syndrome. of
Ans A. 100% A. salmonella
2. A 2-year-old child had cyanotic congenital heart B. Pseudomonas
disease. Nurse would expect to observe. C. E. coli
A. Orthopnea D. Clostridium
B. Edema in the extremities. Ans: C. E. Coli
C. An elevated hematocrit 9. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft
D. Absence of Pedal pulse Palate. You should inform the mother that surgical
Ans: C. An elevated hematocrit correction will be done when the infant is Mother of
3. If the child is in the Post operative unit after age.
hydrocephalus surgery, which of the following A. 6-12 Month
priority will be assessed by the nurse. B. 8 to 12 month
A. Routine vital signs and site, of, dressing C. 20-24 month
B. Blood Pressure I hourly and papillary reaction D. 1 year
C. vital sign every 15-20 minutes and papillary Ans: B. 8 to 12 Month.
reaction 10.which of the following is an active form of vitamin-
D. 15-20 minutes Papillary reaction and Liv fluid B?
site A. 1,25 dihydroxy Cholecalciferol
Ans: C. vital sigh every 15-20 minutes and papillary B. 25 hydroxy chole calciferol
Reaction. C. Ergocalciferol (vit. 02)
4. A child is suffering from dyspnea, first of all what D. 7 dihydroxycholecalciferol
nursing care will you provide to the child?" Ans: A. 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol.
A. Start I.V infusion. 11. The newborn maturity rating scale is assessed
B. Start 02 therapy by?
C. Start nebulization A. New Ballard Score
D. Both of b & c B. Abgar score
Ans: B. start O2 therapy C. Growth chart
5 which of the following are the Most common D. Glasgow scale
symptoms of AIDS in the Infant. Ans: A. New Ballard Score
A. Lymphadenopathy 12. Following are immediate essential care to be
B. Persistent cough provided to all the preterm babies?
C. Rashes A. Breast feeding
D. GI Infection B. Immunization
Ans. A. Lymphadenopathy. C. Provide warmth
6. The Congenital Megacolon of a Child is admitted D. Prevention to infection
to Surgical. So which enema is given- Ans: C. Provide warmth
A. Phosphate enema 13. A what temperature hypothermia occur to the
B. Isotonic Saline enema newborn.
C. oil enema A. 92 F-94 F
D. Soap water enema B. 95 F-97F
Ans: B. Isotonic Saline enema. C. 99F-100 F
7. Currant Jelly Like Stools containing blood and D. 97 F-99F
mucus among 3 months to 3-year-old child is Ans: A. 92 F-94 F
suspected to have
A. Hirschsprung's disease

52
 Psychology & Psychiatric Nursing

PSYCHOLOGY PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

1. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of C) Clozapine
schizophrenia? D) Fluphenazine
A) Persistent mood elevation Answer: C) Clozapine
B) Hallucinations and delusions
8. A person with schizophrenia exhibits a "flat
C) Obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors
affect." This means:
D) Memory loss
A) They have excessive emotional expression
Answer: B) Hallucinations and delusions
B) They lack emotional expression
2. Schizophrenia is primarily associated with C) They rapidly switch between emotions
dysfunction in which neurotransmitter? D) They display inappropriate emotions
A) Serotonin Answer: B) They lack emotional expression
B) Dopamine
9. Which of the following is a major risk factor for
C) Acetylcholine
developing schizophrenia?
D) GABA
A) Low socioeconomic status
Answer: B) Dopamine
B) Childhood trauma
3. Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom C) Family history of schizophrenia
of schizophrenia? D) All of the above
A) Avolition Answer: D) All of the above
B) Alogia
10. The prodromal phase of schizophrenia is
C) Auditory hallucinations
characterized by:
D) Anhedonia
A) Sudden onset of delusions and hallucinations
Answer: C) Auditory hallucinations
B) Gradual decline in social and cognitive function
4. The term "first-rank symptoms" of schizophrenia C) Complete remission of symptoms
was introduced by: D) Improvement in overall functioning
A) Emil Kraepelin Answer: B) Gradual decline in social and cognitive
B) Eugen Bleuler function
C) Kurt Schneider
11. Bipolar disorder is characterized by alternating
D) Sigmund Freud
episodes of:
Answer: C) Kurt Schneider
A) Anxiety and paranoia
5. Which type of schizophrenia is characterized by B) Depression and mania/hypomania
prominent delusions and auditory hallucinations? C) Obsessions and compulsions
A) Catatonic D) Hallucinations and delusions
B) Paranoid Answer: B) Depression and mania/hypomania
C) Disorganized
12. Which of the following is a characteristic
D) Undifferentiated
symptom of mania?
Answer: B) Paranoid
A) Decreased energy and fatigue
6. The most common type of hallucination in B) Increased goal-directed activity and impulsivity
schizophrenia is: C) Social withdrawal and isolation
A) Visual D) Pessimistic thoughts and suicidal ideation
B) Olfactory Answer: B) Increased goal-directed activity and
C) Auditory impulsivity
D) Tactile
13. The key difference between mania and
Answer: C) Auditory
hypomania is:
7. Which of the following antipsychotic medications A) Hypomania lasts longer than mania
is considered a second-generation (atypical) B) Mania is less severe than hypomania
antipsychotic? C) Mania causes significant impairment, while
A) Haloperidol hypomania does not
B) Chlorpromazine D) Hypomania always requires hospitalization

66
 Anatomy & Physiology
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY
1. Which of the following blood group is a universal C. Thyroid Hormone
donor? D. LH
A. O Positive Ans: A
B. O Negative 9. Which electrolyte causes atrial depolarization?
C. AB positive A. Sodium
D. AB negative B. Potassium
Ans: B. C. Calcium
2. Which of the following is the longest bone of the D. Phosphate
body? Ans: B
A. Femur 10. The largest synovial joint in the body is:
B. Tibia A. The knee joints
C. Fibula B. The shoulder joints
D. Radius C. The ankle joint
Ans: A D. The wrist joints
3. Which of the following is the “Breast bone” in the Ans: A
given below bones? 11. In male individuals, testosterone is normally
A. Sternum produced by:
B. Ribs A. The Sertoli cells
C. Clavicle B. The interstitial cells of Leydig
D. Vertebrae C. The vas deferens
Ans: A D. The epididymis
4. What is the typical urine output of a healthy Ans: B
adult? 12. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the
A. 100 mL compression of:
B. 500 mL A. The median nerve
C. 1500 mL B. The radial nerve
D. 2500 Ml C. The ulnar nerve
Ans: C D. The femoral nerve
5. Which congenital heart disease is associated with Ans: A
minimum chances of heart failure? 13. Thyroxin is secreted by:
A. Transposition of great arteries A. The thyroid gland
B. ASD B. The thymus
C. VSD C. The pituitary gland
D. Patent ductus arteriosus D. The hypothalamus
Ans: A Ans: A
6. Which bone is called the Breast Bone? 14. What is the superficial layer of skin called?
A. Sternum A. Sebaceous glands
B. Clavicle B. Epidermis
C. Forearm C. Dermis
D. Radius D. Hair
Ans: A Ans: B
7. Normal urine output in an adult is: 15. Which joint helps to look left and right:
A. 2500 mL A. Atlanto-occipital
B. 3000 mL B. Atlanto-axial
C. 1500 mL C. C3-C4
D. 500 Ml D. C4-C5
Ans: C Ans: B
8. Which hormone regulates calcium and 16. A young male, after sudden unconsciousness,
phosphate? finds that both of his arms were abducted and
A. Parathyroid Hormone internally rotated. The most probable diagnosis is:
B. Calcitonin A. Anterior dislocation

78
Most Probable MCQs
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING
1. An obstruction in the bile duct causes 9. Risk is more after blood transfusion
A. Jaundice A. Hepatitis A
B. Malaria B. Hepatitis B
C. Cholera C. Hepatitis C
D. Acidity D. Hepatitis D
Ans: A. Jaundice Ans: C. Hepatitis C
2. Diarrhea takes out too much of water and 10. Hematemesis is
minerals, which causes A. Blood in vomitus
A. Lack of energy B. Blood in sputum
B. Dryness C. Fresh blood in stool
C. Hunger D. occult blood in stool
D. Dehydration Ans: A. Blood in vomitus
Ans: D. Dehydration 11. Direct serum bilirubin range
3. Which of the following tests is used to diagnose A. 0.1 to 0.4 mg/dl
ulcers? B. 0.2 to 0.8 mg/dl
A. ECD C. 0.3 to 1.6 mg/dl
B. Barium swallow D. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dl
C. CT Scan Ans: A. 0.1 to 0.4 mg/dl
D. X ray 12. Causes of gastritis
Ans: A. ECD A. H.Pylori infection
4. A major causative organism for peptic ulcer is B. Overuse of NSAIDS
A. Escherichia Coli C. Alcohol and smoking
B. Streptococci D. All the above
C. Staphylococci Ans: D. All the above
D. Helicobacter pylori 13. ORS used in
Ans: D. Helicobacter pylori A. Gastritis
5. Dysphagia means B. Constipation
A. Absence of breathing C. diarrhoea
B. Difficulty in Swallowing D. Ulcer
C. Difficulty in breathing Ans: C. diarrhoea
D. Decrease in respiratory rate 14. Clinical symptoms of viral hepatitis
Ans: B. Difficulty in Swallowing A. Fever, chills, headache
6. The bacillary dysentery causative agent is B. Body pain
A. Entamoeba C. Jaundice
B. E.coli D. All of the above
C. Shigella Ans: D. All of the above
D. Streptococci 15. Meaning of Haematochezia
Ans: C. Shigella A. Bleeding by Mouth
7. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be B. Bleeding per rectum
used to assess a client with acute upper GI bleeding C. Bleeding in gums
A. Upper GI Series D. Bleeding in lungs
B. Barium X Ray Ans: B. Bleeding per rectum
C. Endoscopy 16. Symptoms of dyspepsia
D. Arteriography A. Epigastric burning pain
Ans: C. Endoscopy B. Loss of appetite
8. Amoebic dysentery caused by C. Burping
A. E.coli D. all of above
B. Entamoeba Ans: D. all of above
C. Streptococci 17. Aphthous ulcers reduce by
D. Shigella A. Good oral Hygiene
Ans: B. Entamoeba B. Plenty of green leafy vegetables

87
Most Probable MCQs
NURSING FOUNDATION
1. Abraham Maslow first introduced his concept of c) 4000ml
the hierarchy of needs in d) 5000ml
a) 1943 Ans: c) 4000ml
b) 1954 9. Calculate of drug based on…………. in children
c) 1908 a) Length
d) 1989 b) Height
Ans: a) 1943 c) Weight
2. “Theoretical system of knowledge which d) Age
prescribes a process of analysis and action Ans: c) Weight
related to the care of ill or potentially ill person.” 10. Collapsing pulse is known as
This definition is given by a) Bigeminal pulse
a) WHO b) Bounding pulse
b) ANA c) Water hammer pulse
c) Sister Callista Roy d) Pulse alternes
d) Florence Nightingale Ans: c) Water hammer pulse
Ans: c) Sister Callista Roy 11. Is dressing in a wound contraindicated during?
3. TNAI was founded in a) Foul discharge
a) 1996 b) Lymphangitis
b) 1995 c) Lymphadenitis
c) 1994 d) All of these
d) 1993 Ans: d) All of these
Ans: b) 1995 12. A ready-made sterile dressing consists of a layer
4. To convert Celsius scales to Fahrenheit scales of gauze covered by a cotton pad with an attached
a) F= C:5/9) +32 roller bandage to hold it in position. This is a type of
b) F=(C:3/9) +32 a) Adhesive dressing
c) F=(C:9/5) +32 b) Non- adhesive dressing
d) F=(C:9/3) +33 c) Gauze dressing
Ans: c) F=(C:9/5) +32 d) Improvised dressing
5. The temperature goes above 105°F Ans: b) non-adhesive dressing
a) Hyperpyrexia 13. In the prevention of gas gangrene and severe
b) Subnormal temperature muscle wound of buttock, thigh, calf or axilla which
c) High pyrexia treatment is given
d) Low pyrexia a) 2 Mega units of penicillin in every 4 hours
Ans: a) Hyperpyrexia b) 1.5 Mega units of penicillin in every 4 hours
6. The rapid twitching of the ventricles and its fatal c) 2 Mega units of penicillin in every 6 hours
known as d) 1.5 Mega units of penicillin in every 6 hours
a) Arrhythmias Ans: b) 1.5 Mega units of penicillin in every 4 hours
b) Intermittent pulse 14. Immediate primary suturing is done within
c) Ventricular Fibrillation a) 2 hours of injury
d) Sinus arrhythmia b) 4 hours of injury
Ans: c) Ventricular Fibrillation c) 6 hours of injury
7. Which type of enema is administered in gaseous d) 8 hours of injury
distention? Ans: c) 6 hours of injury
a) Purgative enema 15. Which of the following is an indication of primary
b) Cold enema suturing?
c) Anthelminthic enema a) In a clean cut
d) Carminative enema b) Wound less than 6 hours old
Ans: d) Carminative enema c) Contains no doubtful viable tissues
8. 1 gallon is d) All of the above
a) 2000ml Ans: d) All of the above
b) 3000ml 16. In infant, the most preferred IM injection site is

109
Most Probable MCQs

NUTRITION
1. Macronutrients involve: 9. Causes of Vitamin A deficiency:
A. Protein A. Night blindness
B. Fat B. Xeropthalmia
C. Carbohydrates C. Bitot’s spot
D. All of these. D. All of the above
Ans: D. All of these. Ans: D. All of the above
2. Which of the following is the richest source of 10. Vitamin B6 is also known as:
Vitamin C: A. Riboflavin
A. Amla B. Thiamine
B. Apple C. Pyridoxine
C. Guava D. Niacin
D. Orange Ans: C. Pyridoxine
Ans: A. Amla 11. Deficiency of Iodine causes:
3. The other name of Vitamin C is: A. Goiter
A. Folic acid B. Hypothyroidism
B. Ascorbic acid C. Kidney disease
C. Pantothenic acid D. Hyperthyroidism
D. Nicotinic acid Ans: A. Goiter
Ans: B. Ascorbic acid 12. Diseases like Rickets, Scurvy, and Beri-Beri occur
4. Retinol is also known as: due to the deficiency of:
Vitamin B A. Amino acid
Vitamin D B. Carbohydrate
Vitamin A C. Lipids
Vitamin E D. Vitamins
Ans: C. Vitamin A Ans: D. Vitamins
5. Which of the following is a rich source of Vitamin 13. Processed foods generally lack of:
D: A. Fiber
A. Sunlight B. Minerals
B. Moonlight C. Starch
C. Fish D. Vitamins
D. Milk Ans: D. Vitamins
Ans: A. Sunlight 14. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble
6. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes: vitamin?
A. Scurvy A. Vitamin D
B. Osteomalacia B. Vitamin K
C. Pellagra C. Vitamin C
D. Tetany D. Vitamin A
Ans: B. Osteomalacia Ans: C. Vitamin C
7. Vitamin K is essential for: 15. Which vitamin deficiency causes Beri-Beri?
Blood viscosity A. Vitamin B12
Blood thinning B. Vitamin B6
Blood clotting C. Vitamin B2
Blood thickening D. Vitamin B1
Ans: C. Blood clotting Ans: D. Vitamin B1
8. Riboflavin is also known as: 16. Name the disease caused by the deficiency of
A. Vitamin B2 Niacin:
B. Vitamin B1 A. Pellagra
C. Vitamin B6 B. Rickets
D. Vitamin B12 C. Scurvy
Ans: A. Vitamin B2 D. Pernicious Anemia

119
Most Probable MCQs

ENVIRONMENTAL SANITATION
1. Purest water in nature is: Ans. (b) 5-10°C
(a) River water 8. Most undesirable metal in drinking water is:
(b) Rain water (a) Iron
(c) Deep well (b) Copper
(d) Impounding reservoirs (c) Zinc
Ans. (b) Rain water (d) Lead
2. All the following statements are true about break Ans. (d) Lead
point chlorination, except: 9. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by
(a) Free chlorine is released in water after break Sarcoptes scabiei, is an example of:
point chlorination (a) Water borne disease
(b) Chlorine demand is the amount needed to kill (b) Water washed disease
bacteria, oxidize organic matter and (c) Water based disease
neutralize ammonia (d) Water related disease
(c) 1 ppm free chlorine should be present in Ans. (b) Water washed disease
water after break point has reached 10. “Safe and Wholesome water” does not include
(d) Contact period of 1 hour is necessary being:
Ans. (c) 1 ppm free chlorine should be present in (a) Free from pathogenic agents
water after break point has reached (b) Free from harmful chemical substances
3. Recommended standard for bacterial water (c) Free from colour and odour
quality in small community supplies is: (d) Free 0rom chlorine
(a) No coliform Ans. (d) Free from chlorine
(b) No E coli in 100 ml 11. All are “Water-Washed Diseases” except:
(c) Coliform less than 10/100 ml (a) Scabies
(d) Coliform less than 1/100 ml (b) Trachoma
Ans. (a) No coliform (c) Typhoid
4. Temporary hardness of water is primarily due to (d) Conjunctivitis
the presence of: Ans. (c) Typhoid
(a) Calcium and magnesium sulphates 12. All are true for Rapid Sand Filters except:
(b) Calcium and magnesium chlorides (a) No preliminary storage of raw water is
(c) Calcium and magnesium bicarbonates required
(d) Calcium and magnesium nitrates (b) Operation requires highly skilled persons
Ans. (c) Calcium & magnesium bicarbonates (c) Frequent washing is not required
5. Horrock’s apparatus estimates: (d) Can be gravity type or pressure type
(a) Free chlorine Ans. (c) Frequent washing is not required
(b) Combined chlorine 13. Which of the following agents have ‘residual
(c) (a) + (b) germicidal effect’ when used for disinfection of
(d) Chlorine demand water:
Ans. (d) Chlorine demand (a) Chlorine only
6. Ortho-toulidine test is used to determine: (b) Chlorine and Ozone gas
(a) Nitrates in water (c) Chlorine and UV radiation
(b) Nitrites in water (d) Chlorine, Ozone gas and UV radiation
(c) Free and combined chlorine in water Ans. (a) Chlorine only
(d) Ammonia content in water 14. To find out the dose of bleaching powder
Ans. (c) Free and combined chlorine in water required for disinfection of water, following is used:
7. Most desired temperature range for drinking (a) Chloroscope
water is: (b) Chloronome
(a) 0-5°C (c) Horrock’s apparatus
(b) 5-10°C (d) Winchester Quart Bottle
(c) 10-15°C Ans. (c) Horrock’s apparatus
(d) 15-20°C

123
Most Probable MCQs

MISCELLANEOUS
1. Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into how asbestos, silica) cannot be engulfed and
many lobes? digested by alveolar macrophages, resulting
A. 2 in irreversible respiratory disease through an
B. 3 accumulation of these materials within lung
C. 4 tissue
D. 5 5. The majority of lymph fluid in the body returns to
Ans. C. 4 the venous circulation via the:-
Rationale: A. Right lymphatic duct
 The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. B. Cisterna chyli
It is divided into two hemispheres which are C. Intestinal tract
each further subdivided into four lobes. These D. Thoracic duct
lobes – frontal, temporal, parietal, and Ans. D. Thoracic duct
occipital lobes – are named after the cranial 6. The patient is admitted to the emergency
bones that lie over them. department having difficulty with respiratory,
2. A male client with a gunshot wound requires an vasomotor, and cardiac function. Which portion of
emergency blood transfusion. His blood type is AB the brain is affected to cause these manifestations?
negative. Which blood type would be the safest for A. Medulla
him to receive? B. Cerebellum
A. A Rh-positive C. Parietal lobe
B. A Rh-negative D. Wernicke’s area
C. AB Rh-positive Ans. A. Medulla
D. O Rh-positive 7. Islets of Langerhans are rich in which part of the
Ans. B. A Rh-negative pancreas?
3. Creatinine is a metabolic waste product excreted A. Neck
in urine and derived from: B. Body
A. Liver C. Head
B. Muscle D. Tail
C. Bone Ans. D. Tail
D. Skin Rationale:
Ans. B. Muscle  The islets of Langerhans are clusters of hormone-
Rationale: producing endocrine cells interspersed within
 Creatinine is a breakdown product of creatine pancreatic exocrine tissue and it is the most rich
phosphate in muscle and is usually produced tail region of the pancreas.
at a constant rate by the body (depending on  The islets of Langerhans contain three major cell
muscle mass). types
4. The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are 8. Peripheral resistance depends on:
called: A. Stroke volume
A. Alveolar macrophages B. Blood volume
B. Pulmonary cells C. Degree of contraction of veins
C. Goblet cells D. Diameter of arterioles
D. Chalice cells Ans. D. Diameter of arterioles
Ans. A. Alveolar macrophages Rationale:
Rationale: • Total peripheral resistance (TPR) is increased
 An alveolar macrophage (or dust cell) is a type because of arteriolar vasoconstriction, which leads to
of macrophage, a professional phagocyte, decreased blood flow to the cutaneous circulation and
found in the pulmonary alveoli, near the causes cold, clammy skin.
pneumocytes, but separated from the wall. • Constriction of the arterioles increases total
 Also known as ‘dust cells’, they remove dust peripheral resistance (TPR), and constriction of the
and other debris from the alveoli by veins promotes increased venous return of blood to
phagocytosis. Some particles (for example, the heart, both of which increase BP.

127
 SECTION – B

Previous Year
Papers

1
Previous Year Papers

RAJASTHAN CHO 2020 (ORIGINAL PAPER)

1. World Health Day is celebrated on Ans: B. Pneumonia
A. 10 May 8. Normal capillary refill time in children
B. 1 December A. < 1 second
C. 11 march B. < 3 second
D. 07 April C. 5 second
Ans: D. 7 April D. 7 second
2. The MTP Act was passed by the Indian parliament Ans: B. < 3 second
in which year 9. During growth assessment of a 6-year-old infant,
A. 1971 the nurse expects which of the following
B. 1962 A. Can speak a small sentence
C. 1965 B. Can feed with a spoon
D. 1984 C. Can seat independently
Ans. A. 1971 D. Can stand up independently
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was Ans: C. Can seat independently
passed by the Indian Parliament in 1971 and came 10. Normal newborn at the time of birth
into effect on April 1, 1972. A. 1.5 – 2.5 kg
It was later amended in 2002 and 2021 to expand B. 2.0 – 3.0 kg
access to safe abortion services and update the C. 2.5 – 3.5 kg
gestational limits for termination. D. 3.0 – 4.0 kg
3. Which of the following diseases was eradicated Ans. C. 2.5 – 3.5 kg
from India 11. The minimum duration for providing Kangaroo
A. TB Mother Care (KMC)
B. Malaria A. Minimum 15 minutes
C. Polio B. Minimum 1 hour
D. AIDS C. Minimum 3 hours
Ans: C. Polio D. Minimum
4. “Swachchh Bharat Mission” was started in India Ans: B. Minimum 1 hour
A. 2 September 2014 Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) should be provided for
B. 2 October 2014 a minimum of 1 hour at a time, as shorter durations
C. 15 August 2014 may not be effective. Ideally, continuous KMC for at
D. 02 October 2015 least 6–8 hours per day is recommended for preterm
Ans: B. 2 October 2014 and low-birth-weight babies to ensure maximum
5. Which of the following diseases is not transmitted benefits, such as temperature regulation, improved
by fecal-oral route: breastfeeding, and enhanced bonding.
A. Measles 12. Normal temperature of the labor room
B. typhoid A. 20 - 24
C. Cholera B. 26 - 28
D. Hepatitis A C. 28 - 30
Ans: A. Measles D. 34 37
6. Most common cause of death in diarrhea Ans: B. 26 - 28
A. Vomiting 13. Which of the following immunoglobulin is found
B. Abdomen pain in human milk
C. Dehydration A. IgG
D. Weakness B. IgM
Ans: C. Dehydration C. IgE
7. Most common cause of Under-five mortality D. IgA
A. Diarrhea Ans: D. IgA
B. Pneumonia 14. BCG vaccine is given by which route
C. measles A. Intradermal
D. Smallpox B. Subcutaneous

143
Previous Year Papers

RAJASTHAN CHO 2022 (Cancelled)

1. Which of the following facts is correct about C. E. Coli
jaundice? D. Coxiella burnetiid
(i) Bilirubin levels are high Ans: B. Salmonella typhi
(ii) Skin and eyes are yellow  Enteric fever (also known as typhoid fever) is
(iii) There is a loss of appetite caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi.
(iv) Pale color of fecal matter  It is a systemic bacterial infection transmitted
A. Only (i) and (ii) through contaminated food and water.
B. Only (ii) and (iii) Other Options:
C. Only (i), (ii), and (iii)  A. Leishmania – Causes Leishmaniasis
D. all (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)  C. E. Coli – Causes gastroenteritis and urinary
Ans: D. all (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) tract infections (UTIs),
jaundice occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin  D. Coxiella burnetiid – Causes Q fever.
in the blood, leading to yellow discoloration of the skin 5. If the body temperature of a patient is 40 degrees
and eyes. It is commonly associated with liver Celsius, then what will be in Fahrenheit?
diseases, hemolysis, or bile duct obstruction. A. 106 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct Facts About Jaundice: B. 104 degrees Fahrenheit
(i) Bilirubin levels are high – True. Jaundice occurs C. 103 degrees Fahrenheit
when bilirubin metabolism is impaired. D. 100 degrees Fahrenheit
(ii) Skin and eyes are yellow – True. Excess bilirubin Ans: B. 104 degrees Fahrenheit
deposits in the skin and sclera (whites of the eyes). 6. Adequate folate intake in the periconceptional
(iii) There is a loss of appetite – True. Liver period helps to prevent which of the following?
dysfunction often causes nausea, fatigue, and A. Cretinism
reduced appetite. B. Neural tube defect
(iv) Pale color of fecal matter – True. In obstructive C. Gestational diabetes
jaundice, bilirubin does not reach the intestine, D. Mental retardation
leading to pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of Ans: B. Neural tube defect
stercobilin (which gives stool its normal brown color). 7. Post-partum hemorrhage has been defined as
2. Tacypnea in a newborn is defined as a respiratory estimated blood of more than ……………… associated
rate greater than with vaginal delivery.
A. 60 breaths per minute A. 300 ml
B. 80 breaths per minute. B. 400 ml
C. 40 breaths per minute C. 200 ml
D. 30 breaths per minute D. 500 ml
Ans. A. 60 breaths per minute Ans: D. 500 ml
 Tachypnea in a newborn is defined as a 8. The EYE strategy developed by WHO, UNICEF, and
respiratory rate (RR) greater than 60 breaths per GAVI is for the elimination of which of the following
minute. epidemics?
 Normal respiratory rate in newborns: A. Yellow fever
o 30–60 breaths per minute B. Corona viral disease
o If RR exceeds 60, it is considered C. cholera
tachypnea. D. typhoid
3. Hemopoesis means Ans: A. Yellow fever
A. Synthesis of RBC  The EYE (Eliminate Yellow Fever Epidemics)
B. Breakdown of RBC Strategy was developed by the World Health
C. Synthesis of proteins Organization (WHO), UNICEF, and GAVI (Global
D. Synthesis of DNA Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization).
Ans: A. Synthesis of RBC  It aims to eliminate yellow fever epidemics by
4. the chief cause of Enteric fever is – 2026 through:
A. Leishmania o Mass vaccination campaigns
B. Salmonella typhi o Strengthening routine immunization

153
Previous Year Papers

RAJASTHAN CHO 2022- RECONDUCTED IN 2024 (ORIGINAL PAPER)

1. Case control study estimates: - a. Vitamin A I. Prothrombin time
A. Only odd’s ratio b. Protein II. Serum retinol,
B. Odd’s ratio and attributable risk c. Vitamin K III. ‘Thyroid-binding pre-
C. Relative task and attributable risk albumin
D. Only relative risk d. Niacin IV. N-methyl nicotinamide
Ans: A. Only odd’s ratio in urine
Explanation: A. a-l, b-lV, c-Ill, d-II
 A case-control study is a type of observational B. a-ll, b-III, c-I, d-1V
study that is typically used to investigate the C. a-IV, b-Il, c-Ill, d-I-
causes of a particular disease or condition by D. a-IIl, b-I, c-II, d-IV
comparing individuals who have the disease Ans: B. a-ll, b-III, c-I, d-1
(cases) to those who do not (controls). Explanation:
 In a case-control study, the odds ratio (OR) is the  Vitamin A: The biochemical test for vitamin A
primary measure of association, as it compares levels is typically serum retinol (because serum
the odds of exposure in the case group to the odds retinol is an indicator of vitamin A status in the
of exposure in the control group. body).
 Relative risk (RR) cannot be directly calculated  Protein: Thyroid-binding pre-albumin is a protein
from a case-control study because the study that can be used as a biochemical test for protein
design does not provide the incidence rates of status. It's often used to assess nutritional protein
disease in exposed and unexposed groups. levels.
 Attributable risk is also more relevant in cohort  Vitamin K: Prothrombin time is a test commonly
studies where the incidence rates can be used to assess vitamin K status, as vitamin K plays
calculated, making it not a direct estimate from a a critical role in blood clotting by aiding in the
case-control study. production of clotting factors like prothrombin.
2. Which is NOT a feature of the septic tank?  Niacin: N-methyl nicotinamide in urine is a
A. Used for personal and small public use. biochemical marker for niacin (vitamin B3) status,
B. Water-tight compartment as it is a metabolite of niacin.
C. Used where water supply is adequate. 6. Match List I with List II
D. Used where public sewage system is List I (Health List II (Sub-Indicator)
adequate. Indicators)
Ans: D. Used for personal and small public use. a. Mortality I. Health-Adjusted
3. Complete involution of the uterus to its pre- indicators Life Expectancy
pregnancy stage of delivering the child takes place b. Morbidity II. Population-bed -
by: indicators bed ratio
A. 6 weeks c. Disability rates III. Age-specific death
B. 7 weeks rates
C. 8 weeks d. Health care IV. Incidence and
D. 5 weeks delivery Prevalence
Ans. A. 6 weeks indicators
4. On doing an abdominal examination of a
A. A-VI, b-III, c-II, d-I
pregnant woman, you found the uterus to be at 20 B. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
weeks, but by dates (LMP) it is 24 weeks. What is the C. a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV
most probable reason for such a discrepancy?
D. a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
A. Wrong dates
Ans: B. a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
B. Hydramnios
7. Match List I with List II
C. Multiple pregnancies
List I List II
D. Gestational hypertension
a. Macula lutea I. Rods
Ans: A. Wrong dates
b. Photopic vision II. Fovea
5. Match List I with List II
c. Scotopic vision’: . III. Cones
List I (Nutrient) List II (Biochemical Test)

163
 Uttar Pradesh NHM - CHO 2021

UTTAR PRADESH NHM - CHO 2021 (ORIGINAL PAPER)

1. ______ lanuginosa is a rare inherited disorder in B. Dryness of cervical mucus
which lanugo hairs persist or are overproduced C. Calculation of cycle length
throughout life. D. The waking temperature
A. Hypertrichosis Ans: B. Dryness of cervical mucus
B. Trypanosoma 8. The female hormonal or reproductive cycle is an
C. Borrelia example of real biological ______ system.
A. oscillating
D. Haemophilus B. fixed
Ans: A. Hypertrichosis C. diverse
2. The _______is formed by the hip bones in front D. reverse
and at the sides and by the sacrum and the coccyx Ans: A. oscillating
behind. 9. Which of the following is one of the guiding
A. phalanx principles of a community health nurse?
B. femur A. Function as a team
C. fibula B. Records and reports are not important
D. bone pelvis C. As part of culture, a health worker should
Ans: D. bone pelvis accept gifts
3. What is the sperm and the unfertilised oocytes D. Health services should be the felt need of the
transferred into the fallopian tube called? nurse
A. Intrauterine insemination Ans: Function as a team
B. In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer (IVF- 10. A _______ is the planner, promotor, organiser,
ET) supervisor, coordinator, and evaluator of all
C. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer functions in PHC.
D. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer A. community health worker
Ans: D. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer B. medical officer
4. If vomiting is severe, causing a woman to lose C. male health worker
fluids and weight, it may indicate a condition called: D. female health worker
A. polycystic ovary syndrome Ans: B. medical officer
B. urinary tract infection 11. The ______dimension of health is a notion of the
C. hyperemesis gravidarum perfect functioning of the body.
D. autoimmune disorder A. physical
Ans: C. hyperemesis gravidarum B. social
5. On day one the ovum fertilises to form a: C. spiritual
A. yolk sac D. mental
B. zygote Ans: A. physical
C. blastocyst 12. The statutory authority for assigning Aadhaar
D. embryo numbers to residents of India is ___.
Ans: B. zygote A. the Income Tax Department
6. Which of the following is a role of a nurse in B. the Ministry of Electronics and IT
midwifery? C. the Election Commission
A. To operate on a pregnant mother D. the Unique Identification Authority of India
B. To promote normal birth (UIDAI)
C. To be involved in health counselling of Ans: D. the Unique Identification Authority of India
pregnant woman only (UIDAI)
D. To conduct deliveries responsibly, like a 13. ______ includes both physical and nutritional
doctor assessment.
Ans: B. To promote normal birth A. Health assessment
7. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of B. Social assessment
fertility? C. Community data
A. Changes in the cervix D. Non-physical assessment

182
Previous Year Papers

UTTRAKHAND CHO 2021 (ORIGINAL PAPER)

1. To prevent foot drop in a patient with Buck's 3. After 48 hours, successful fluid resuscitation of
traction, the nurse should: burn victim can be evaluated by:
A. Place pillows under the patient's heels. A. Weight.
B. Tuck the sheets into the foot of the bed. B. Urine output.
C. Teach the patient isometric exercises. C. Urine specific gravity
D. Ensure proper body positioning. D. Peripheral perfusion
Ans: D. Ensure proper body positioning. Ans: B. Urine output.
Rationale: Rationale:
Foot drop is a condition caused by prolonged Urine output is the most reliable indicator of
immobility, leading to weakness or paralysis of the adequate fluid resuscitation in burn patients. After a
muscles responsible for dorsiflexion (lifting the foot). burn injury, fluid shifts occur due to increased
In a patient with Buck's traction, proper body capillary permeability, leading to hypovolemia and
positioning is essential to maintain neutral alignment shock. Fluid resuscitation aims to restore circulating
of the foot and prevent plantar flexion contractures volume and organ perfusion, and urine output
that cause foot drop. reflects kidney function and overall fluid balance.
Explanation of other options: Urine Output Goals in Fluid Resuscitation:
 (A) Place pillows under the patient's heels:  Adults: 0.5–1 mL/kg/hr
Incorrect – This can increase pressure on the  Children: 1–2 mL/kg/hr
heels, leading to skin breakdown and pressure  Electrical burns: 75–100 mL/hr (to prevent
ulcers. Instead, a footboard or high-top sneakers myoglobinuria-induced kidney damage)
may be used to support the foot in a neutral 4. An end-stage AIDS patient requires suctioning.
position. When performing this task, the nurse is correct to
 (B) Tuck the sheets into the foot of the bed: wear
Incorrect – Tight sheets can push the foot into A. A mask and eye protection.
plantar flexion, worsening foot drop. Instead, a B. Sterile gloves and eye protection.
bed cradle can keep sheets off the feet. C. A mask and sterile gloves.
 (C) Teach the patient isometric exercises: D. A mask, eye protection and sterile gloves.
Partially correct but not the best answer – Ans: D. A mask, eye protection, and sterile gloves.
Isometric exercises help maintain muscle Rationale:
strength, but proper positioning is the most Suctioning is a procedure that can generate aerosols
crucial measure for preventing foot drop in and splashes of bodily fluids, posing a risk of
patients on Buck’s traction. exposure to infectious materials. Standard
2. Using the Rule of the Nines, the nurse determines precautions require the use of personal protective
the percentage of body burned on a patient with equipment (PPE) to prevent contact with blood and
both arms burned to be: of the body. body fluids, especially in immunocompromised
A. 9% patients like those with end-stage AIDS who may
B. 36% have opportunistic infections.
C. 18% Required PPE for Suctioning:
D. 1% 1. Mask – Protects against droplet transmission
Ans: C. 18% from respiratory secretions.
Rationale: 2. Eye protection (goggles or face shield) –
The Rule of Nines is a method used in burn Shields the mucous membranes of the eyes
assessment to estimate the total body surface area from splashes.
(TBSA) affected by burns. According to this rule: 3. Sterile gloves – Ensures aseptic technique
 Each arm (including the front and back) accounts while preventing infection transmission
for 9% of TBSA (4.5% for the front and 4.5% for 5. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of patients.
the back). On review of the patient's medical records, the nurse
 Since both arms are burned, the total burned determines that which patient is at risk for fluid
area is: volume excess?
9%×2=18% (A) The patient with renal failure.

1
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