Acids, Bases & Salts

1. Match List-I with List-II and using the code given below, select the correct answer:
List I (Natural Source) List II (Acid)
a. Bee Sting (i) Tartaric Acid
b. Tamarind (ii) Methanoic Acid
c. Tomato (iii) Acetic Acid
d. Vinegar (iv) Oxalic Acid
a. b. c. d.
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer – 1. a. (ii), b. (i), c. (iv), d. (iii)
Explanation: Correct combination of the above list with some other important natural sources containing acids is as:
Natural Source Acid
Vinegar Acetic Acid
Tamarind Tartaric Acid
Tomato Oxalic Acid
Bee Sting Methanoic Acid
2. When a gas ‘X’ reacts with lime water, a compound ‘Y’ is formed. If both X and Y are used as a
bleaching agent in chemical industry, then X is ………………?
1. Ozone
2. Chlorine
3. Fluorine
4. Methane
Answer – 2. Chlorine
Explanation: Chlorine is used as bleaching agent in chemical industries. Thus, X is chlorine gas and Y is bleaching
powder (CaOCl2).
3. In which of the following oxalic acid is present?
1. Vinegar
2. Citrus Fruits
3. Ant’s Sting
4. Spinach
Answer – 4. Spinach
Explanation: Name of the Acid Found in
Acetic Acid Vinegar
Formic Acid Ant’s Sting
Citric Acid Citrus Fruits such as Oranges, Lemons, etc.
Lactic Acid Curd
Oxalic Acid Spinach
Ascorbic Acid (Vitamin C) Amla, Citrus Fruits
Tartaric Acid Tamarind, Grapes, Unripe Mangoes, etc.
4. Acetic acid, formic acid, carbonic acid are examples of
1. Strong Acid
2. Weak Acid
3. Neutral Acid
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Weak Acid
Explanation: An acid, which dissociates completely or almost completely in water, is classified as a strong acid.
Examples of strong acids are: Hydrochloric Acid, Sulphuric Acid, Nitric Acid etc. An acid that dissociates only partially
when dissolved in water, is classified as a weak acid. Examples are: Acetic Acid, Formic Acid, Carbonic Acid etc.
5. Which of the following indicators turns pink in basic solution?
1. Methyl Orange
2. Litmus Paper
3. Phenolphthalein
4. China Rose
Answer – 3. Phenolphthalein
Explanation: Phenolphthalein: In a neutral solution-Colourless; In acidic solution-Remains Colourless; In basic
solution-Pink.
6. Which of the following solutions turns the red litmus paper into blue?
1. Acidic Solution
2. Basic Solution
3. Neutral Solution
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Basic Solution
Explanation: When added to an acidic solution, the litmus paper turns red and when added to a basic solution, it turns
blue. The solutions which do not change the colour of either red or blue litmus are known as neutral solutions. These
substances are neither acidic nor basic.

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7. Which of the following is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher?
1. Washing Soda
2. Bleaching Powder
3. Baking Soda
4. Sodium Chloride
Answer – 3. Baking Soda
Explanation: Baking soda is also known as sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3), sodium bicarbonate, sweet soda and
food soda. It is also an ingredient of antacids. Due to its alkaline nature, it relieves the depression of excessive acid in the
stomach. It is also used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
8. Consider the following statements: (i) The human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to
7.8; (ii) When pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain; (iii) Tooth decay starts
when the pH value of the mouth increases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (i) & (ii) Only
2. (ii) & (iii) Only
3. (iii) Only
4. (i), (ii) & (iii) Only
Answer – 1. (i) & (ii) Only
Explanation: Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of
pH change. When pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the
pH of the river water. Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Tooth enamel, made up of calcium
phosphate is the hardest substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water, but gets corroded when the pH level in the
mouth goes below 5.5. Using toothpastes, which are generally basic, for cleaning the teeth can neutralise the excess acid
and thus can prevent tooth decay.
9. Match List-I with List-II and using the code given below, select the correct answer:
List-I (Matter) List-II (pH Value)
a. Human Blood (i) 5.5 to 7.5
b. Milk (ii) 7.3 to 7.5
c. Human Saliva (iii) 6.4
d. Human Urine (iv) 6.5 to 7.5
a. b. c. d.
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer – 1. a. (ii), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (iv)
Explanation: Substance pH Value
Human Blood 7.3 to 7.5
Milk 6.4
Human Saliva 5.5 to 7.5
Human Urine 6.5 to 7.5
Lemon Juice 2.2 (approx.)
Gastric Juice 1.2 (approx.)
Pure Water 7
Sodium Hydroxide 14 (approx.)
Milk of Magnesia 10
10. All acids generate which of the following gas on reacting with metals?
1. Hydrogen Gas
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon Dioxide
4. Water Vapour
Answer – 1. Hydrogen Gas
Explanation: All acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.
Carbon & its Compounds
11. Which of the following statements are correct for carbon compounds: (i) Most carbon
compounds are good conductors of electricity; (ii) Most carbon compounds are poor
conductors of electricity; (iii) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is
not very strong; (iv) Force of attraction between molecules of carbon compounds is very
strong.
1. Only (ii) and (iv)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (iii) and (iv)
4. Only (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Most carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity. Force of attraction between molecules of
carbon compounds is not very strong.
12. The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of heat and electricity is
1. Diamond
2. Graphite
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 3. Charcoal
4. None of these
Answer – 2. Graphite
Explanation: The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of heat and electricity is graphite. This is because, like
metals, graphite contains delocalized (free) electrons. These electrons are free to move through the structure of the
graphite.
13. Which of the following is not considered as crystalline allotrope of carbon?
1. Coal
2. Diamond
3. Graphite
4. Fullerence
Answer – 1. Coal
Explanation: Carbon has three crystalline allotropes: Diamond, Graphite and Fullerene.
14. The soap molecule has a
1. Hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
2. Hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
3. Hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
4. Hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
Answer – 1. Hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
Explanation: The soap molecule has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
15. Consider the given four statements about ethanol and choose the correct answer from the
given options: (i) It is the main constituent of all alcoholic drinks; (ii) It is not a good solvent;
(iii) It is soluble in water in all proportions; (iv) It cannot be used as an additive in petrol.
Codes:
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (ii) and (iv)
4. Only (i) and (iv)
Answer – 2. Only (i) and (iii)
Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct because ethanol is the main constituent of all alcoholic drinks and it is
soluble in water in all proportions. Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect because it is considered as a universal solvent and
it can be combined with petrol in any concentration.
16. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent
atoms, e.g., hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic
configuration of
1. Helium
2. Neon
3. Argon
4. Krypton
Answer – 2. Neon
Explanation: After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of Neon with atomic no. 10.
17. Which of these is true for most of the organic compounds?
1. High melting and boiling points
2. Low melting point but high boiling point
3. High melting point but low boiling point
4. Low melting and boiling points
Answer – 2. Low melting point but high boiling point
Explanation: Organic compounds have low melting point but high boiling point.
18. Ethanol is also known as which of these ....................?
1. Formic Acid
2. Ethyl Alcohol
3. Ethane
4. Acetaldehyde
Answer – 2. Ethyl Alcohol
Explanation: Ethanol (also called ethyl alcohol, grain alcohol, drinking alcohol, or simply alcohol) is an organic
compound with the chemical formula CH3CH2OH. Ethanol is a volatile, flammable, colorless liquid with a characteristic
wine-like odor and pungent taste.
19. Ethanoic acid is also known as which of these ......................?
1. Citric Acid
2. Nitric Acid
3. Acetic Acid
4. Formic Acid
Answer – 3. Acetic Acid
Explanation: Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) belongs to the group of carboxylic acids and is commonly called as acetic acid.
After adding 5-8% of acetic acid in water it becomes vinegar and is mostly used as preservatives in pickles. Acetic acid is
the common name for Ethanoic acid.
20. Detergents can be used for washing of clothes
1. Only in hard water
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 2. Only in soft water
3. Both in soft and hard water
4. None of the above
Answer – 3. Both in soft and hard water
Explanation: The cleaning action of soap is very effective in soft water because it contains negligible calcium and
magnesium ions. Synthetic detergents are used in the case of hard water also because the calcium and magnesium salts of
detergents are soluble in water. Detergents are more soluble than soaps and hence form more lather than soaps.
Digestive & Circulatory System
21. ……………… enzyme helps in the formation of alcohol?
1. Zymase
2. Lipase
3. Sucrase
4. All of the above
Answer – 1. Zymase
Explanation: The enzyme that helps in the formation of alcohol is Zymase. Zymase is a complex of enzymes that is found
in yeast and other microorganisms. It is responsible for the fermentation of sugar into alcohol. The fermentation process
begins when yeast cells.
22. The pancreatic juice is capable of
1. Breaking down carbohydrates and fats into simpler substances
2. Breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into simpler substances
3. Breaking down proteins and fats into simpler substances
4. Breaking down only fats into simpler substance
Answer – 2. Breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into simpler substances
23. Which juice secreted by the organs in the alimentary canal plays an important role in the
digestion of fats?
1. Pancreatic Juice, Saliva
2. Hydrochloric Acid, Mucus
3. Bile Juice, Pancreatic Juice
4. Saliva, Hydrochloric Acid
Answer – 3. Bile Juice, Pancreatic Juice
Explanation: Secretion of the Pancreatic juice is regulated by the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin.
24. What is the role of mucus secreted by the stomach?
1. To protect the lining of the stomach
2. To digest fats
3. To kill the germs in the food
4. To digest the proteins
Answer – 1. To protect the lining of the stomach
25. Dietary fibres are very much required in our daily food, so as to ……………….?
1. To provide extra protein
2. To balance the insulin secreted by pancreas
3. To help our body get rid of undigested food
4. To decrease tiredness
Answer – 3. To help our body get rid of undigested food
Explanation: ‘Fiber’ is a type of ‘Carbohydrate’ that keeps our body’s digestive system strong. This is especially
important for ‘Obesity and Diabetes’ patients who should consume a diet of fibre every day. ‘Fibre’ is mainly found in
sufficient quantities in foods including Bran, Wheat Flour, Green leafy vegetables, Seasonal Fruits. Fibre is responsible for
the “Digestion of the Body”.
26. Which of the following sequences of blood circulation refers to pulmonary circulation?
1. Pulmonary veins left atrium left ventricle aorta organs venae cava right atrium-arteries of different
2. Venae cava Right atrium pulmonary trunk lungs pulmonary veins left atrium
3. Coronary arteries myocardium coronary sinus right atrium
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Venae cava Right atrium pulmonary trunk lungs pulmonary veins left atrium
27. Neutrophils and Lymphocytes originate from
1. Kidney Tubule
2. Bone Marrow
3. Spleen
4. All of the above
Answer – 2. Bone Marrow
28. Which of the following pairs has a double circulation pathway?
1. Amphibians and Mammals
2. Birds and Mammals
3. Reptiles and Mammals
4. Fishes and Birds
Answer – 2. Reptiles and Mammals
29. Which blood group has no antibody?
1. O

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 2. AB
3. A
4. B
Answer – 2. AB
Explanation: Type AB blood is rare it’s found in less than 5% of the population. It is the ‘newest’ of the blood types. Until
ten or twelve centuries ago, there was little to no Type AB blood type. That is because type AB results from the
intermingling of Type A with Type B. Type AB has both A and B antigens, but no antibodies.
30. The blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to the various parts of the body are called
1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Septum
4. Capillaries
Answer – 1. Arteries
31. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
1. Carotid Arteries
2. Hepatic Arteries
3. Coronary Arteries
4. Pulmonary Arteries
Answer – 3. Coronary Arteries
32. In which part of our body RBC formed?
1. Liver
2. Heart
3. Bone-Marrow
4. Kidney
Answer – 3. Bone-Marrow
33. Why do ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria?
1. Ventricles receive oxygen-rich blood than atria
2. Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs
3. Atria have to pump blood into various organs
4. Ventricles first receives blood from the various organs
Answer – 2. Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs
34. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(i) Peristaltic Movement a. Saliva
(ii) Gastric Glands b. Alimentary Canal
(iii) Amylase c. Inner Lining of Stomach
(iv) Bile Juice d. Liver
a. b. c. d.
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer – 4. a. (ii), b. (iii), c. (i), d. (iv)
Digestive System
35. Consider the following statements: (i) The pancreas serves both endocrine as well as exocrine
functions; (ii) As an endocrine gland, secreting pancreatic juice by the pancreatic duct into the
duodenum. Which of the above statement is incorrect?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (i)
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: The pancreas serves both endocrine as well as exocrine functions. As an endocrine gland, it assists in the
secretion of hormones like glucagon and insulin. Additionally, it performs the role of an exocrine gland, secreting
pancreatic juice by the pancreatic duct into the duodenum.
36. Which one of the following glands is responsible for producing insulin, the main hormone in
the body responsible for sugar metabolism?
1. Pancreas
2. Pituitary Glands
3. Salivary Glands
4. Intestinal Glands
Answer – 1. Pancreas
Explanation: The pancreas is a part of the digestive system that is placed in the abdomen beyond the stomach and
performs as a gland. It assists in the secretion of hormones like glucagon and insulin and regulates blood sugar levels.
37. The majority of the water from the indigestible food is absorbed in the
1. Stomach

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 2. Foodpipe
3. Pancreas
4. Large Intestine
Answer – 4. Large Intestine
Explanation: The large intestine plays important role in our digestive system; it can absorb most of the water from
Indigested food. The waste is eliminated from the body through the rectum. The length of the large intestine is roughly five
feet (or 1.5 meters).
38. Which is the longest segment of the digestive system in the human body?
1. Pancreatic Duct
2. Small Intestine
3. Large Intestine
4. Esophagus
Answer – 2. Small Intestine
Explanation: The small intestine is the longest component of the
digestive system. The length of the small intestine is 7 meters (22 feet).
The small intestine’s primary activities are to absorb nutrients and
finish food digestion.

39. Consider the following statements: (i) The stomach, located in the upper right portion of the
abdominal cavity, has three major parts; (ii) The oesophagus opens into a cardiac portion; (iii)
The fundic region which opens into the first part of small intestine. Which of the above
statement is incorrect?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 3. Only (i) and (iii)
Explanation: A muscular sphincter (gastro-oesophageal) [a
ring of muscle surrounding and serving to guard or close an
opening] regulates the opening of oesophagus into the
stomach. The stomach, located in the upper left portion of the
abdominal cavity, has three major parts-a cardiac portion into
which the oesophagus opens, a fundic region and a pyloric
portion which opens into the first part of small intestine.

40. Which of the following parts of the human body secretes the enzyme “Diastase”?
1. Oral Cavity
2. Stomach
3. Ileum
4 Duodenum
Answer – 1. Oral Cavity
Explanation: A starch hydrolyzing enzyme called diastase converts complex carbs into simple ones. Diastase is an
enzyme that helps turn starch into maltose. Diastase enzymes are secreted in the oral cavity (mouth).
41. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by
the body?
1. First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
2. First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
3. First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
4. First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly protein
Answer – 3. First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
42. In human body, the digestion of protein begins in which of the following organs?
1. Stomach
2. Mouth
3. Small intestine
4. None of the above
Answer – 1. Stomach
Explanation: The digestion of protein begins in the stomach. The enzyme pepsin digests proteins and the Chief cells of
the stomach secrete the enzyme pepsin along with HCL. So the digestion of protein begins in the stomach.
43. Which of the following is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats?
1. Stomach

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 2. Mouth
3. Small Intestine
4. Large Intestine
Answer – 3. Small Intestine
Explanation: The small intestine is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
44. The function of the epiglottis is:
1. To swallow the food
2. To breathe in air and breathe out
3. To chew the food
4. To prevent the food particles from entering the windpipe
Answer – 4. To prevent the food particles from entering the windpipe
Explanation: The function of the epiglottis is to prevent the food particles from entering the windpipe.
Electrostatics
45. Which of the following are the highest-frequency electro magnetic waves?
1. Gamma Rays
2. Radio Waves
3. Ultraviolet Rays
4. Microwaves
Answer – 1. Gamma Rays
Explanation: Gamma rays are the highest energy electromagnetic radiation and typically have energies greater than 100
keV, frequencies greater than 1019 Hz, and wavelengths less than 10 picometers.
46. Consider the following statements;
Assertion (A): Lightning conductors prevent buildings from damages in the event of lightning
strike.
Reason (R): The electric charge conduct to ground through the wire, instead of passing
through the structure.
Codes:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
4. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Answer – 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: A lightning conductor is a metal rod mounted on the top of building to prevent it from damages in the
event of lightning strike. The lightning conductor work on the principle of induction. The lightning conductor is connected
through the wire, which conducts electric charge to the ground during lightning. The wire provides easy route for the
transfer of electric charge to the ground. This process is called earthing.
47. Superconductors are substances which
1. Conduct electricity at lower temperature
2. Offer high resistance to the flow of current
3. Offer no resistance to the flow of current
4. Conduct electricity at high temperature
Answer – 3. Offer no resistance to the flow of current
Explanation: Superconductors are substances which offer no resistance to the flow of current. Resistivity of
superconductor become almost zero below critical temperature. Hence, conductivity becomes infinite. At this condition,
superconductor offers no resistance for the flow of current.
48. The electric appliances in a house are connected
1. In series
2. In parallel
3. Either in series or in parallel
4. Both in series and in parallel
Answer – 2. In parallel
Explanation: The electric appliances in a house are connected in parallel. It is because in parallel arrangement, each of
them can be put on and off independently. In this arrangement, all electrical appliances gets full voltage. If one appliance
fuses, then it does not affect the working of other appliances.
49. Electricity consumption bill is based on the measurement of: (i) Watt; (ii) Voltage; (iii) Ohm;
(iv) Ampere. Codes:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (i) and (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iv)
4. Only (i) and (iv)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Electricity consumption bill is based on the measurement of electric power. The SI unit of electric power is
watt. The unit of electricity consumption bills are typically based on the measurement of watt-hour (Wh), which is a unit of
energy. The watt-hour is a measure of the amount of electrical energy consumed over time. In many cases, electricity
providers use kilo watt-hours (kWh), which is equal to 1000 watt-hours.
50. Consider the following statements. An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the:
(i) Filament wire is not uniform; (ii) Bulb cannot be evacuated completely; (iii) Wires

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 supporting the filament melt at high temperatures. Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (i) and (iii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the filament wire is not uniform, bulb cannot be
evacuated completely and wires supporting the filament melt at high temperature. When current flows through filament,
then its temperature goes up to 1500°C to 2500°C. Generally, electric bulb converts only 5% to 10% of electric energy into
light.
51. How two identical bulbs should be connected to get maximum light: (i) Both are connected in
series; (ii) Both are connected in parallel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. In case (i) more
2. In case (ii) more
3. Same in both (i) and (ii)
4. Nothing can be said
Answer – 2. In case (ii) more
Explanation: To get maximum light, the two bulbs are connected in parallel because each bulb will show its maximum
power or total resistance decrease, hence greater current may be drawn from the source. Also, potential difference of each
bulb is the same as the terminal voltage of the battery. It can be concluded that both of the bulbs glow brightly in the case
of parallel combination.
52. In comparison to an electric bulb, a fluorescent tube is preferred because
1. It has greater external outer surface to radiate/emit the light.
2. There is not effect of voltage fluctuation on it.
3. In the tube, electric energy almost converted into light energy.
4. None of the above
Answer – 4. None of the above
Explanation: In comparison to an electric bulb, a fluorescent tube is preferred because it converts approximately 22% of
electric energy into light energy. While a bulb converts only 5% of electric energy into light energy.
53. The filament of a halogen lamp is an alloy of
1. Tungsten & Iodine
2. Tungsten & Bromine
3. Tungsten & Sodium
4. Molybdenum & Sodium
Answer – 3. Tungsten & Sodium
Explanation: The filament of a halogen lamp is an alloy of tungsten and sodium. It produces yellow light due to presence
of sodium. Tungsten is preferred due to its exceptionally high melting point, which allows the filament to reach very high
temperatures without melting or deforming. This property is essential for the efficient production of bright light in halogen
lamps.
54. The electric current does not flow between two properly connected charged bodies if they are
having
1. Same Charge
2. Same Capacity
3. Same Resistivity
4. Same Potential
Answer – 4. Same Potential
Explanation: The electric current does not flow two properly connected charged bodies if they are having same potential.
According to ohm’s law, V = IR i.e. current flows in a circuit as a result of difference in potential between the two points in
the circuit.
55. Most commonly used safety fuse wire is made of
1. Tin
2. Lead
3. Nickel
4. An Alloy of Tin and Lead
Answer – 4. An Alloy of Tin and Lead
Explanation: Most commonly used safety fuse wire is made of an alloy of tin and lead. It has low melting point, so that it
may melt easily, whereas copper wire cannot be used as a fuse wire because it has a high melting point due to which it will
not melt easily when a short circuit takes place.
56. Which one of the following seeds can benefit a patient of diabetes mellitus by normalizing his
blood sugar level?
1. Coriander Seeds
2. Mustard Seeds
3. Cumin Seeds
4. Fenugreek Seeds
Answer – 4. Fenugreek Seeds
Explanation: Fenugreek seeds have folic acid, sodium, zinc, magnesium, copper, thiamine, niacin, carotene, etc. that
help in controlling diabetes as well as cholesterol levels in the body. Having one teaspoon of ground or powdered
fenugreek seed added in water can prove fruitful for diabetics.

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 Metals & Non-Metals
57. Match List-I with List-II and using the code given below, select the correct answer:
List I (Homogeneous Mixture) List II (Alloy)
(i) Mercury and any other metal a. Amalgam
(ii Copper and Zinc b. Brass
(iii) Copper and Tin c. Bronze
(iv) Lead and Tin d. Solder
Which of the following pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. Only (i) and (iv)
2. Only (i) and (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal. If one of the metals
is mercury, then the alloy is known as an amalgam. The electrical conductivity and melting point of an alloy is less than
that of pure metals. For example, brass, an alloy of copper and zinc (Cu and Zn), and bronze, an alloy of copper and tin (Cu
and Sn), are not good conductors of electricity whereas copper is used for making electrical circuits. Solder, an alloy of lead
and tin (Pb and Sn), has a low melting point and is used for welding electrical wires together.
58. Doctors, Artists and Sculptors use Calcium Sulphate which is popularly known as
1. Quick Lime
2. Limestone
3. Bleaching Powder
4. Plaster of Paris
Answer – 4. Plaster of Paris
Explanation: Doctors, artists and sculptors use calcium sulphate which is popularly known as ‘Plaster of Paris’. It is used
for the setting of fractured bones. Quick lime is known as calcium oxide (CaO) and is used in the manufacture of iron and
steel etc. Limestone is known as calcium carbonate (CaCO3). Bleaching powder is known as calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl2).
It is prepared by passing chlorine over slaked lime.
59. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Liquid sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
2. Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of toothpaste
3. Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime
4. Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
Answer – 2. Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of toothpaste
Explanation: Statements (1), (3) and (4) are incorrect because normal nuclear reactor uses normal water or deuterium
oxide at high pressure as a coolant. Bordeaux mixture consists of copper sulphate and calcium hydroxide. Zinc amalgams
are used for coating zinc on steel.
60. Steel is mainly an alloy of iron and ..............?
1. Chromium
2. Nickel
3. Manganese
4. Carbon
Answer – 4. Carbon
Explanation: Steel is mainly an alloy of iron and carbon. However, few metals like chromium, nickel, manganese,
molybdenum, etc. are also used to produce different varieties of steel.
61. During electrolysis of molten calcium hydride which of the following happens?
1. Calcium is deposited at cathode
2. Hydrogen is liberated at anode
3. Hydrogen is liberated at cathode
4. Hydrogen and oxygen are liberated at cathode and anode respectively
Answer – 3. Hydrogen is liberated at cathode
Explanation: During electrolysis of molten calcium hydride, hydrogen is liberated at cathode while calcium is deposited
at anode. The deposited calcium can be used for various purposes such as deoxidiser in manufacturing of steel, aluminium
alloys for bearings etc.
62. Select from these statements: (i) Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc; (ii) Magnetite is the main
ore of aluminium; (iii) Mercurius solubilis are that substance which mainly involves mercury;
(iv) Potassium nitrate (KNO3) is a chemical used in photography. Which of the above are true?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 2. Only (i) and (iii)
Explanation: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct because brass is an alloy of copper and zinc which can be varied to
achieve varying mechanical, electrical and chemical properties. Mercurius solubilis are those substances that involves
mercury. It is a commonly used homoeopathic medicine for mouth-throat infections, eye and ear infections and fever.
Statements (ii) and (iv) are incorrect because magnetite (Fe3O4) is an ore of iron and silver bromide (AgBr) is used in
photography.

Science 9|Page
63. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest
metal, respectively?
1. Lithium and Mercury
2. Lithium and Osmium
3. Aluminium and Osmium
4. Aluminium and Mercury
Answer – 2. Lithium and Osmium
Explanation: Lithium is the lightest metal and osmium is the heaviest metal.
64. Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?
1. Copper
2. Iron
3. Titanium
4. Aluminium
Answer – 3. Titanium
Explanation: Among the given options, titanium is called the ‘metal of future’. It is a light, strong and corrosion resistant
metal.
65. Which one of the following elements is kept safely in kerosene oil?
1. Sodium
2. Copper
3. Mercury
4. Silver
Answer – 1. Sodium
Explanation: Sodium is kept safely in kerosene oil. This is done to prevent it’s exposure from oxygen present in air. As
sodium reacts with oxygen to form sodium oxide which is highly exothermic hence, heat is generated.
66. With reference to Non-metals, consider the following statements: (i) Unlike metals, they are
neither malleable nor ductile; (ii) They are bad conductors of heat and electricity, except for
graphite, which conducts electricity; (iii) They react with hydrogen of dilute acids to form
hydrides. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Non-metals have properties opposite to that of metals. They are neither malleable nor ductile. They are bad
conductors of heat and electricity, except for graphite, which conducts electricity. Non-metals form negatively charged ions
by gaining electrons when reacting with metals. Non-metals form oxides which are either acidic or neutral. Non-metals do
not displace hydrogen from dilute acids. They react with hydrogen to form hydrides.
Health & Diseases
67. Which of the following is/are inherited blood disorders: (i) Thalassemia; (ii) Sickle Cell
Disease. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Thalassemia is an inherited (passed from parents to children through genes) blood disorder. Sickle Cell
Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders.
68. Consider the following statements regarding the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus (HIV): (i)
All people infected with HIV also have Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS); (ii)
India has completely eliminated the prevalence of HIV in pregnant women across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: HIV after entering the human body gradually destroys the immune system, i.e. the ability to fight
infections/diseases. AIDS is the later stage of HIV infection. It is a condition in which a group of symptoms appear as the
immune system becomes very weak. It can take around 8-10 years from the time of HIV infection to the stage of AIDS.
Being diagnosed with HIV does not mean a person will also be diagnosed with AIDS.
69. Consider the following statements regarding the Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): (i) It refers
to a phenomenon of human body acquiring resistance to antibiotics; (ii) It only occurs in case
of the bacterial infection diseases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
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 Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: Antimicrobials-including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics-are medicines used to
prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria,
viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and
increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death. Antibiotic resistance does not mean the body is becoming
resistant to antibiotics; it is that bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics designed to kill them.
70. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Thalassemia disease: (i) It is
an inherited blood disorder; (ii) The human body doesn’t make enough hemoglobin protein.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder caused when the body doesn’t make enough of a protein called
hemoglobin, an important part of red blood cells. When there isn’t enough hemoglobin, the body’s red blood cells don’t
function properly and they last shorter periods of time, so there are fewer healthy red blood cells traveling in the
bloodstream.
71. Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C: (i) It is a major cause of liver cancer;
(ii) It can spread through exposure to blood from infected person. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Hepatitis C is a liver disease caused by the hepatitis C virus (HCV): the virus can cause both acute and
chronic hepatitis, ranging in severity from a mild illness lasting a few weeks to a serious, lifelong illness. Hepatitis C is a
major cause of liver cancer. The hepatitis C virus is a bloodborne virus: the most common modes of infection are through
exposure to small quantities of blood. This may happen through injection drug use, unsafe injection practices, unsafe
health care, transfusion of unscreened blood etc.
72. Vaccine(s) is/are available for which of the following disease(s): (i) Hepatitis A; (ii) Hepatitis
B; (iii) Hepatitis C. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 1. Only (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver. When the liver is inflamed or damaged, its function can be
affected. The common hepatitis viruses are hepatitis A virus, hepatitis B virus, and hepatitis C virus.
73. Consider the following statements regarding Trans fats: (i) It is a byproduct of hydrogenation
that is used to turn healthy oils into solids; (ii) Trans fats raise the (high-density lipoprotein)
HDL cholesterol levels in bloodstream. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Trans fats are a byproduct of a process called hydrogenation that is used to turn healthy oils into solids and
to prevent them from becoming rancid. Trans fats raise the bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (high-density
lipoprotein) HDL cholesterol levels. Eating trans fats increases risk of developing heart disease and stroke. It’s also
associated with a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
74. Which of the following is/are source(s) of Vitamin A: (i) Milk; (ii) Eggs; (iii) Fish Oil. Select the
correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 4. All of the above
Explanation: Vitamin A is involved in immune function, vision, reproduction, and cellular communication.
Concentrations of preformed vitamin A are in liver and fish oils, milk and eggs, which also include some provitamin A.
Most dietary provitamin A comes from leafy green vegetables, orange and yellow vegetables, tomato products, fruits, and
some vegetable oils.
75. Consider the following statements regarding the Parkinson’s disease: (i) There is no cure for
this disease. (ii) No women have ever been diagnosed with the Parkinson’s disease. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
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 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Parkinson’s disease (PD) is the second most common neurodegenerative disease after Alzheimer’s disease.
Early symptoms of PD include tremor, rigidity, and difficulty walking; cognitive decline is common at later stages.
Statement 1 is correct. There is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can
often relieve some symptoms. Statement 2 is incorrect. Both men and women can have Parkinson’s disease. However, the
disease affects about 50 percent more men than women.
76. Consider the following statements regarding the Sickle Cell Disease: (i) These are genetically
inherited red blood cell disorders; (ii) The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant
shortage of red blood cells. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Sickle Cell Disease is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders. The sickle cells die early, which causes a
constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood
flow. This can cause pain and other serious problems such infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke.
Light
77. The sound travels fastest in
1. Solids
2. Liquids
3. Gases
4. None of These
Answer – 1. Solids
78. Consider the following statements: (i) Twinkling of stars; (ii) Advance sunrise and delayed
sunset; (iii) Blue colour of sky; (iv) Red colour of sun at the time of sunrise & sunset. Which of
the statements given above is/are the phenomenon seen due to Atmospheric refraction?
1. Only (i) and (iv)
2. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 3. Only (i) and (ii)
Explantation: The deviation of light or other electromagnetic waves from a straight line as it passes through the
atmosphere is known as atmospheric refraction. The star twinkles & Advance sunrise and delayed sunset due to
atmospheric refraction of starlight.
79. A full length of the image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using:
1. A Concave Mirror
2. A Convex Mirror
3. A Plane Mirror
4. Both concave as well as plane mirrors
Answer – 2. A Convex Mirror
Explantation: Convex mirrors give erect diminished images of objects. They also
have a wider field of view than plane mirrors. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view
mirrors in vehicles.
80. In human eyes, where is the image formed?
1. Eye Lens
2. Cornea
3. Retina
4. Pupil
Answer – 3. Retina
Explantation: In human eye, the image is formed on the
retina. The retina is the backward part of the eyeball containing
rods and cones to form an image.

81. Splitting of white rays of light into seven colors is called:

1. Dispersion of Light
2. Reflection of Light
3. Refraction of Light
4. Scattering of Light
Answer – 1. Dispersion of Light

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 Explantation: Splitting of white rays of light into seven colors when passing through a prism is called dispersion of light.
82. Which type of mirror is used by dentists to see large images of teeth?
1. Concave Mirror
2 .Convex Mirror
3. Plane Mirror
4. Cylindrical Mirror
Answer – 1. Concave Mirror
Explantation: Concave mirrors are used as dental mirrors. This is because concave mirrors produce highly magnified
images which are useful in obtaining larger view of teeth and gums. These mirrors enable the dentists to see the minute
details of the tooth in a magnified form.
83. In a concave mirror if object is placed at centre of curvature, then image will be …………………?
1. Virtual
2. Erect
3. Diminished
4. At the centre of curvature
Answer – 4. At the centre of curvature
Explantation: Different types of images can be formed by a concave mirror by changing the position of the object from
the concave mirror. When object is placed between infinity and centre of curvature of a concave mirror the image is
formed between centre of curvature (C) and focus (F).

84. Which of the following statements is/are correct about double rainbow: (i) Double rainbows
are formed when sunlight is reflected twice within a raindrop; (ii) A key feature of double
rainbows is that the colour sequence in the second rainbow is reversed, so instead of red,
orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet (ROYGBIV), the colours appear in VIBGYOR
order. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
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 Explantation: Statement 1 is correct-Double rainbows are formed when sunlight is reflected twice within a raindrop
with the violet light that reaches the observers eye coming from the higher raindrops and the red light from lower
raindrops. Statement 2 is correct-A key feature of double rainbows is that the colour sequence in the second rainbow is
reversed, ROYGBIV instead of VIBGYOR order in primary rainbow.
85. Which of the following part of eyes controls the size of the pupil?
1. Retina
2. Iris
3. Cornea
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Iris
Explantation: The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris. The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye.
86. Which of the following is/are cause/causes for the formation of rainbow: (i) Reflection; (ii)
Refraction; (iii) Dispersion. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (i) and (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explantation: A rainbow is a meteorological phenomenon that is caused by reflection, refraction and dispersion of light
in water droplets resulting in a spectrum of light appearing as a circular arc in the sky. It is often visible after rainfall due
to highly humid atmosphere and absence of air pollution. The position of the sun and the raindrops in relation to the
observer need to be just right for a rainbow to form: The sun needs to be behind the viewer; The sun needs to be low in the
sky, at an angle of less than 42° above the horizon.
87. What is the nature of image formed by a convex mirror when the object is placed at infinity?
1. Real and Inverted
2. Virtual and Erect
3. Virtual and Inverted
4. Real and Erect
Answer – 2. Virtual and Erect
Explantation: Virtual and erect image
is formed by a convex mirror when the
object is placed at infinity.

88. Which of the following are the highest-frequency electro magnetic waves?
1. Gamma Rays
2. Radio Waves
3. Ultraviolet Rays
4. Microwaves
Answer – 1. Gamma Rays
Explantation: Gamma rays are the highest energy electromagnetic radiation and typically have energies greater than 100
keV, frequencies greater than 1019 Hz, and wavelengths less than 10 picometers.
Light & Human Eye
89. Which of the following is the correct cause of the twinkling of stars?
1. Scattering of light
2. Atmospheric Refraction
3. Total internal reflection of light
4. Diffraction of light
Answer – 2. Atmospheric Refraction
Explanation: The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction. The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere,
undergoes refraction continuously, before it reaches the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually
changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is
slightly different from its actual position. The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed
near the horizon. Further, this apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly. Since the
stars are very distant, they approximate point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes
on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers-the
star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other time, fainter, which gives the twinkling effect.
90. Which of the following phenomena are caused by the scattering of light: (i) The colour of clear
sky is blue; (ii) Twinkling of the stars; (iii) The colour of the Sun at Sunrise and Sunset is red.
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
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 3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 3. Only (i) and (iii)
Explanation: The sky appears blue during a clear cloudless day because the molecules in the air scatter blue light from
the sun more than they scatter red light. Twinkling of stars is caused by the atmospheric refraction of light. Light from the
sun near the horizon passes through thicker layers of air and travel larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere before
reaching our eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and other lights with shorter wavelengths are scattered away by
the particles. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelength. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of
the Sun.
91. Regarding the human eye, consider the following statements: (i). Light enters the eye through
the cornea; (ii). The pupil controls the amount of light entering the eye; (iii). An inverted real
image of the object is formed on the retina. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Light enters the eye, through a thin membrane called cornea. Cornea forms a transparent bulge on the
front surface of the eyeball. Pupil is a pigmented layer of tissues that makes up the coloured portion of the eye. Its primary
function is to control the amount of light entering in the eye. The eye lens forms an inverted real image of the object on the
retina. The retina is a delicate membrane having enormous number of light-sensitive cells.
92. Light travels the fastest in which of the following mediums?
1. In air
2. In vacuum
3. In water
4. In diamond
Answer – 2. In vacuum
Explanation: Light propagates with different speeds in different media. Light travels the fastest in vacuum with the
highest speed of 3×108 m s–1. Vacuum is free space and there are no obstacle to slow down light as the refractive index of
vacuum is very low. In air, the speed of light is only marginally less, compared to that in vacuum. It reduces considerably
in glass or water.
93. Regarding the properties of the image formed by a plane mirror, consider the following
statements: (i) Virtual and Erect images are formed by Plane Mirror; (ii) The size of the image
is smaller to that of the object. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: The properties of the image formed by a plane mirror are: (i) Image formed by a plane mirror is always
virtual and erect; (ii) The size of the image is equal to that of the object; (iii) The image formed is as far behind the mirror
as the object is in front of it; (iv) The image formed is laterally inverted.
94. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed .................?
1. At F
2. At infinity
3. At C
4. Beyond C
Answer – 3. At C
Explanation: Concave mirror image formation at C: The object emits two rays, one of which passes through the
mirror’s focus and the other parallel to the principal axis. After reflection at point C, these rays form an image that is real
and inverted and has the same size as the object. So, at C the image formed is real, inverted, and the same size. Other
Concave mirror image formation: When the Object is at Infinity: We take into account two rays from the object
that are parallel to the principal axis under this circumstance. After reflection, these rays converge to form an image in
front of the mirror at F, the primary focus of the mirror. As a result, an extremely reduced, point-sized, real, and inverted
image is created. The Object is Placed Between C and F: One of the two rays under consideration here is parallel to
the principal axis, and the other is passing through the concave mirror’s principal focus. The image is real and inverted, it
is larger than the object’s size, and it is formed beyond C. The Object is Placed Between F and P: One ray is going
parallel to the principal axis, and the other is going through the mirror’s center of curvature. The resulting image is virtual,
straight, and larger than the object.
95. Regarding the hypermetropia, consider the following statements: (i) A person with
hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly; (ii) Image is formed behind the retina; (iii)
Convex lens is used to correct this defect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 4. All of the above

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 Explanation: Hypermetropia is also known as farsightedness. A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects
clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly. The near point, for the person, is farther away from the normal near point
(25 cm). Such a person has to keep a reading material much beyond 25 cm from the eye for comfortable reading. This is
because the light rays from a close by object are focused at a point behind the retina. This defect can be corrected by using
a convex lens of appropriate power. Eye-glasses with converging lenses provide the additional focusing power required for
forming the image on the retina.
96. Regarding the myopia, consider the following statements: (i) In a myopic eye, the image of a
distant object gets formed behind the retina; (ii) Myopia is caused by shortening of eyeball.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: Myopia is also known as near sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot
see distant objects distinctly. Myopia is caused by two reasons: (i) Excessive curvature of eye lens; (ii) Elongation of
eyeball. A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may see clearly up to a distance of a
few metres. In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself.
97. Which of the following parts of eyes is transplanted during eye donation?
1. Retina
2. Ciliary muscles
3. Pupil
4. Cornea
Answer – 4. Cornea
Explanation: Corneal blindness can be cured through corneal transplantation of donated eyes. Eye donors can belong to
any age group or sex. People who use spectacles, or those operated for cataract, can still donate the eyes. People who are
diabetic, have hypertension, asthma patients and those without communicable diseases can also donate eyes.
98. The unit of power of lens is
1. Metre
2. Centimeter
3. Diopter
4. M–1
Answer – 3. Diopter
Explanation: The SI unit of the power of a lens is given by Dioptre. Power is the ability to bend light and it is equal to the
reciprocal of the focal length of the lens/mirror in meters [Power (P) = 1/f, where f is the focal length of the lens/mirror].
The SI unit of the focal length is meter. So, SI unit of power = 1/(SI unit of focal length) = m–1 = Dioptre (D), [1 m–1 = 1 D].
Motion
99. Which of the following is not an example of Newton’s third law of motion?
1. A cricket player lowering his hand while catching a ball
2. Walking on a floor
3. Rebounding of a rubber ball
4. Flight of a jet
Answer – 1. A cricket player lowering his hand while catching a ball
Explanation: Newton’s third law of motion states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. These
action-reaction forces act on two different bodies e.g. while walking, we push the ground backward (action). The ground,
in turn, pushes us forward (reaction) which helps us move on the ground.
100. A person jumping out of a moving bus may fall forward because of
1. Inertia of Rest
2. Inertia of Motion
3. Inertia of Direction
4. None of these
Answer – 2. Inertia of Motion
Explanation: Due to the inertia of motion, the upper half of their body resists this sudden change in state and continues
to move in the direction of the bus, causing the person to roll forward.
101. The device fitted in an automobile to measure the distance travelled by it is
1. Odometer
2. Speedometer
3. Hygrometer
4. Ticker Tape Timer
Answer – 1. Odometer
102. At the maximum height, a body thrown vertically upwards has
1. Velocity not zero but acceleration zero
2. Acceleration not zero but velocity zero
3. Both acceleration and velocity not zero
4. Both acceleration and velocity zero
Answer – 2. Acceleration not zero but velocity zero
Explanation: Its velocity is zero and acceleration is the acceleration due to gravity At maximum height, velocity of the
body is zero and acceleration is the acceleration due to gravity which is constant
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103. Which is not the correct equation of motion?
1. s = ut + 1 / 2 at2
2. v2 – u2 = 2as
3. v = u – at
4. v – u = at
Answer – 3. v = u – at
104. The inertia of a body is measured by its
1. Mass
2. Volume
3. Density
4. Force acting on it
Answer – 1. Mass
105. The SI unit of impulse is
1. kg ms–1
2. kg ms–2
3. N
4. N/s
Answer – 1. kg ms–1
Explanation: When a force acts on a body for a period of time, then the product of force and time is known as impulse.
Impulse is also equal to the magnitude of change in momentum. Hence, the SI unit of impulse is kg m s−1 or N s.
106. Action and reaction act on
1. Different bodies in opposite direction
2. Same body in opposite directions
3. Different bodies but in same direction
4. Same body in same direction
Answer – 1. Different bodies in opposite direction
107. The acceleration due to gravity
1. Has the same value everywhere in space
2. Has the same value everywhere on the earth
3. Varies with the latitude on the earth
4. Is greater on the moon
Answer – 3. Varies with the latitude on the earth
Explanation: The value of acceleration due to gravity varies from place to place. It depends on the distance of that point
from the centre of earth. Hence it is maximum at poles and minimum at the equator.
108. Which is a vector quantity?
1. Weight
2. Mass
3. Density
4. Volume
Answer – 1. Weight
Nervous System
109. Which of the following are the parts of neurons?
1. Brain, Spinal Cord, and Vertebral Column
2. Dendrite, Axon, and Cell Body
3. Sensory and Motor
4. Cortex, Medulla and Sheath
Answer – 2. Dendrite, Axon, and Cell Body
Explanation:

110. Consider the following statements: (i) Somatic nervous system controls involuntary muscles
system; (ii) Parasympathetic nervous system calms body to conserve and maintain energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
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 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation:

111. Which of the following is not found in axon?

1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
2. Neurofibrils
3. Mitochondria
4. Microtubules
Answer – 1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation: Endoplasmic reticulum is not present in axons as it does not synthesize protein. An axon contains
mitochondria, neurofibril, and microtubule and the cytoplasm of an axon is called axoplasm.
112. Which part of the Central Nervous System controls “Reflex Actions”?
1. Medulla Oblongata
2. Spinal Cord
3. Cerebrum
4. Pons
Answer – 2. Spinal Cord
Explanation: Reflex action is a sudden, unconscious and involuntary
response of the effectors to a stimulus.

113. Consider the following statements: (i) Frontal lobe is related to visual processing; (ii) Parietal
lobe helps in movements, the perception of stimuli and orientation. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: The cerebrum is further divided into four sections or lobes: Frontal lobe is associated with parts of speech,
planning, reasoning, problem-solving and movements. Parietal lobe help in movements, the perception of stimuli and
orientation. Occipital lobe is related to visual processing. Temporal lobe is related to perception and recognition of
memory, auditory stimuli and speech.
114. Which part of the brain is responsible for maintaining balance and coordination?
1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Thalamus
4. Cerebrum
Answer – 1. Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum, located at the back of the brain, plays a crucial role in coordinating voluntary movements,
maintaining balance, and fine-tuning motor skills. It receives sensory input from various parts of the body and ensures
smooth and precise movements.
115. Consider the following statements regarding Neurological Disorders: (i) Migraine
characterized by recurrent seizures due to abnormal electrical activity in the brain; (ii)
Alzheimer’s disease is degenerative disorder that affects memory, cognition, and behavior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
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 Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: Stroke-A vascular disorder that occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted, leading to brain
damage. It can cause symptoms like weakness, speech difficulties, and paralysis. Epilepsy-A functional disorder
characterized by recurrent seizures due to abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Seizures can vary in intensity and type.
Alzheimer’s Disease-A degenerative disorder that affects memory, cognition, and behaviour. It is the most common
cause of dementia in older adults. Migraine-Although often considered a headache disorder, migraines involve
neurological changes and can cause severe headaches, visual disturbances, and sensitivity to light and sound.
116. The medulla oblongata contains reflex centers for ………………?
1. Vomiting, Coughing, Sneezing, Hiccuping, and Swallowing
2. Kneejerk and Blinking
3. Sexual Response
4. None of the above
Answer – 1. Vomiting, Coughing, Sneezing, Hiccuping, and Swallowing
Explanation: The medulla oblongata mainly controls the body’s autonomic functions such as heartbeat, breathing,
vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccuping, swallowing and digestion.
117. Which neurotransmitter is associated with pleasure, reward, and motivation?
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Acetylcholine
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is a crucial neurotransmitter that plays a significant role in regulating mood, pleasure, and
motivation. It is often associated with feelings of reward and reinforcement.
118. The two cerebral hemispheres are joined by which of the following?
1. Cerebellar Tentorium
2. Corpus Callosum
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Corpus Callosum
Explanation: The cerebrum is composed of two
cerebral hemispheres that are joined together by
heavy, dense bands of fibre called the corpus
callosum. The cerebellum and cerebrum are
separated by cerebellar tentorium.

119. Which part of the brain is responsible for processing auditory information and helping us hear
sounds?
1. Temporal Lobe
2. Frontal Lobe
3. Parietal Lobe
4. Occipital Lobe
Answer – 1. Temporal Lobe
Explanation: The temporal lobe, located on the sides of the brain, is primarily responsible for processing auditory
information, including interpreting sounds, speech, and music. It also plays a role in memory and language
comprehension.
Sound Waves
120. Consider the following statements: (i) Sound travels through gas, liquid, solid and vacuum; (ii)
The particles travel all the way from the vibrating object to the ear. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium. Sound travels through a
medium (gas, liquid or solid). It cannot travel in vacuum. The disturbance created by a source of sound in the medium
travels through the medium and not the particles of the medium. When an object vibrates, it sets the particles. of the
medium around it vibrating. The particles do not travel all the way from the vibrating object to the ear.
121. Sound waves are known as which of the following waves?
1. Longitudinal Waves
2. Transverse Waves
3. Electromagnetic Waves

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 4. Mechanical Waves
Answer – 2. Transverse Waves
Explanation: Transverse Waves-When Motion of Longitudinal Waves-Particles travel parallel to the direction
particles is perpendicular to the direction of wave of wave motion, by means of successive compressions. This is
motion e.g. Light also a mechanical wave e.g. Sound waves in air.

122. The distance between two successive crests or troughs (or) successive compressions and
rarefactions is known as which of the following?
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Time period
4. Wavelength
Answer – 4. Wavelength
Explanation: The distance between two successive crests or troughs (or)
successive compressions and rarefactions is called as wavelength (λ). The SI
unit of wavelength is metre (m).
123. The loudness or softness of a sound is determined by which
of the following?
1. Pitch
2. Amplitude
3. Time Period
4. Frequency
Answer – 2. Amplitude
Explanation: The loudness or softness of a sound is determined basically by
its amplitude. The magnitude of disturbance in a medium on either side of the
mean value is called an amplitude (A).
124. Consider the following statements: (i) Speed of sound in air is 333 m/s; (ii) Speed of sound in
air is greater than the speed of light in air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Speed of light in air =3 x 108 m/s; Speed of sound in air = 333 m/s.
125. Consider the following: (i) Radio Waves; (ii) Microwaves; (iii) X-Rays; (iv) Gamma Rays.
Arrange in the ascending order of increasing wavelength?
1. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
2. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
3. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
4. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Answer – 1. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

126. Consider the following statements regarding Echo: (i) To hear distinct echo sound, the time
interval between original and reflected sound must be at least 0.1 s; (ii) The total distance
covered by the sound from the point of generation to the reflecting surface and back should be
at least 17.2 m. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: The phenomenon where a sound produced is heard again due to reflection is called an echo e.g.: Clapping
or shouting near a tall building or a mountain. To hear distinct echo sound, the time interval between original and
reflected sound must be at least 0.1s. As sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s. Minimum distance for obstruction or
reflective surface to hear an echo should be 17.2 m. Hence, the total distance covered by the sound from the point of
generation to the reflecting surface and back should be at least (34.4 m/s) × 0.1 s = 34.4 m.
127. SONAR uses which of the following waves to measure distance of the objects under the sea or
sea bed?
1. Infrasonic Waves
2. Ultrasonic Waves

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 3. Radio Waves
4. Micro Waves
Answer – 2. Ultrasonic Waves
Explanation: SONAR-Sound Navigation and Ranging. It is a
technique that uses sound or ultrasonic waves to measure distance.
128. Which of the following does not produce infrasonic
sound?
1. Rhinoceros
2. Whales
3. Elephants
4. Dolphins
Answer – 4. Dolphins
Explanation: Rhinoceros, Whales and elephants produce sound in the infrasound range. It is observed that some
animals get disturbed before earthquakes. Earthquakes produce low-frequency infrasound before the main shock waves
begin which possibly alert the animals. Ultrasound is produced by animals such as dolphins, bats and porpoises.
129. Consider the following: (i) Detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks; (ii) Echocardiography; (iii)
Ultrasound scanner. Which of the above is/are applications of ultrasonic waves?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 4. All of the above

130. The sound travels fastest in

1. Solids
2. Liquids
3. Gases
4. None of these
Answer – 1. Solids
Explanation: Sound: A local disturbance whose propagation is facilitated by the collisions between particles this
disturbance propagates in a longitudinal wave, imagine one molecule hitting the next molecule, and then that molecule
hitting the next, and so forth. It is a mechanical wave that needs a medium to travel. The speed of sound is maximum in
solid then it is in liquid and slowest in gases. The distances between molecules in solids are very small i.e. solids are
denser-as compared to liquids and gases. Because they are so close, they can collide very quickly i.e. it takes less time for a
molecule of the solid to ‘bump’ into its neighbor.
Tissues
131. Consider the following statements: (i) The supportive tissue in plants generally has dead cells;
(ii) Most of the tissues animals contain are living. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) Nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Plants are stationary or fixed-they don’t move. Since they have to be upright, they have a large quantity of
supportive tissue. The supportive tissue generally has dead cells. Animals on the other hand move around in search of
food, mates and shelter. They consume more energy as compared to plants. Most of the tissues they contain are living.
132. Consider the following statements regarding Connective tissue: (i) Main function of Areolar
tissues is to join skin to muscles and repair tissues (ii) Main function of Adipose tissues joins
muscles to bones and store fat. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) Nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
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 Explanation: Areolar tissues fills the space between skin and muscles, inside the organs, around blood vessels etc. It
helps to repair the tissues. Adipose tissue is found below the skin and between internal organs. It contains fats and helps to
store fats. Tendons are fibrous tissues which joins muscles to bones and helps in movements.
133. Which of the following tissue allows plants to grow up without breaking from the weight of
their own body?
1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Xylem
4. Phloem
Answer – B
Explanation: Collenchyma helps to provide strength to the plant's stems, branches, leaves, and other structures. This
strength allows plants to grow up without breaking from the weight of their own body.
134. Which of the following tissue is located at the growing tips of the stem and roots of plants?
1. Apical Tissue
2. Intercalary
3. Lateral Meristem
4. Phloem
Answer – 1. Apical Tissue
Explanation: Location: It is located at the growing tips of the stem
and roots of plants. Function: It helps to increase the length of the
stem and the roots.

135. Consider the following statements: (i) Simple Squamous epithelium tissues have delicate cell
lining and are found in Alveoli; (ii) Stratified Squamous are arranged in several layers and are
found in intestine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) Nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Simple Squamous: They have delicate cell lining and possess a flat thin structure and are found in
Alveoli. Stratified Squamous: The epithelium Squamous cells are arranged in several layers and are found in Skin.
Columnar tissues are the column-like shape tissues and are found in Intestine.
136. Which of the following are the abiotic components of Ecosystem: (i) Volcanoes; (ii) Forest
Fires; (iii) Earthquakes; (iv) Sunlight. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: Abiotic components are the inorganic and non-living parts of the world. The abiotic part consists of soil,
water, air, and light energy etc. It also involves chemicals like oxygen, nitrogen etc. and physical processes including
volcanoes, earthquakes, floods, forest fires, climates, and weather conditions.
137. With reference to ecological succession, the term ‘Seres’ refer to:
1. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area
2. A stable community in near equilibrium with the environment
3. Species that invade a bare area
4. The plant species that have adapted to survive in dry conditions
Answer – 1. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area
Explanation: Seres refers to the entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area. Ecological
Succession: An important characteristic of all communities is that composition and structure constantly change orderly
and sequentially in response to the changing environmental conditions.
138. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(i) Producer a. Bacteria
(ii) Primary Consumer b. Phytoplankton
(iii) Secondary Consumer c. Herbivore
(iv) Decomposers d. Carnivore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (iii)-a, (ii)-b, (i)-c, (iv)-d
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 2. (iii)-a, (ii)-b, (iv)-c, (i)-d
3. (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (i)-c, (iv)-d
4. (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c, (i)-d
Answer – 1. (iii)-a, (ii)-b, (i)-c, (iv)-d
139. Consider the following statements: (i) Detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter; (ii)
Detritus food chain is made up of decomposers; (iii) Decomposers are also known as
saprotrophs. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (i) and (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: All statements are correct. Detritus food chain starts from organic matter of dead and decaying animals
and plant bodies from the grazing food chain. Dead organic matter or detritus feeding organisms are called detrivores or
decomposers. The detrivores are eaten by predators.
140. Consider the following statements regarding Ecosystem: (i) Non-living components of the
environment are not the part of ecosystem; (ii) Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit
of the biosphere. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-living components of the environment are also a part of ecosystem.
141. Which of the following part of neuron convert chemical signals into electrical signals and pass
them to the neuron cell body?
1. Axon
2. Dendrites
3. Schwann cells
4. Soma
Answer – 2. Dendrites
Explanation: Dendrites are tree-like extensions (highly-branched) at the beginning of a neuron. They receive chemical
signals from different neurons of the body. They then convert these chemical signals into electrical signals and pass them
to the neuron cell body.
General Science
142. Which of the following elements is/are used in making solar cells: (i) Silicon; (ii) Astatine; (iii)
Sirium; (iv) Vanadium.
1. Only (i)
2. Only (iii) and (iv)
3. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Solar cells convert solar energy into electricity. Silicon is used for making solar cells, which is abundant in
nature, but availability of the special grade silicon for making solar cells is limited. The entire process of manufacture is
still very expensive, silver used for interconnection of the cells in the panel further adds to the cost. The principal
advantages associated with solar cells are that they have no moving parts, require little maintenance and work quite
satisfactorily without the use of any focusing device. Another advantage is that they can be set up in remote and
inaccessible hamlets or very sparsely inhabited areas in which laying of a power transmission line may be expensive and
not commercially viable.
143. Consider the following statements about friction: (i) Heat is generated due to friction; (ii)
Kabaddi players rub dust on their hands, so that friction is increased when they try to grab
their opponents; (iii) Friction applied by fluids is called drag; (iv) Sliding friction is less than
static friction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. Only (i) and (iv)
3. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: Interlocking between two surfaces in contact is the reason behind friction. In the absence of friction, we
will be unable to hold a pen or pencil. It is due to friction that a matchstick catches fire on rubbing. Friction causes heat.
Kabaddi players rub sand/dust on their hands, which increases friction. Substances which decreases friction are called
lubricants. Water and other fluids also apply friction on the objects that move across them. Friction applied by fluids is
called ‘drag’. When an object slides over a surface, it applies sliding friction on it. Sliding friction is less than static friction.
144. Consider the following statements: (i) The fuels which are produced by plants and animals are
called biomass; (ii) The main Constituent of Biogas is Methane. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)

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 2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Cow dung cakes serve as a steady source of fuel. Since, these fuels are derived from plants and animals
hence they constitute-Biomass. These fuels, however, do not produce much heat on burning but a lot of smoke is given out
when they are burnt. Cow-dung, various plant materials like crops residue, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in
the absence of oxygen to give Biogas. Since the starting material is mainly cow-dung, it is popularly known as ‘gobar-gas’.
Bio-gas is produced in a dome-shaped plant. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane. It burns without
smoke, leaves no residue like ash in wood, charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high.
145. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystem
2. They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
3. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields
4. They are often found to be used as food adulterants
Answer – 1. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystem
Explanation: Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest dimension.
They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and
polystyrene. They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science
research. Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in
freshwater and ocean water.
146. Due to which phenomena the stick if immersed in water appears to be bent?
1. Reflection
2. Dispersion
3. Refraction
4. Scattering
Answer – 3. Refraction
Explanation: Refraction of Light: The bending of the ray of light passing from
one medium to the other medium is called refraction. The refraction of light takes
place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is different in
the two media. The greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, the
greater will be the amount of refraction. A medium in which the speed of light is more
is known as an optically rarer medium and a medium in which the speed of light is
less is known as an optically denser medium.
147. Consider the following statements regarding food preservatives: (i) Sodium Benzoate and
Sodium Metabisulfite are common food preservatives; (ii) Salt, sugar, edible oil and vinegar
are used as food preservatives; Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Microorganisms contaminate food items. Preservatives are used to prevent the contamination of food
items. Sodium Benzoate and Sodium Metabisulfite are common food preservatives. These chemicals are used for the
manufacture of jams and [Link], sugar, edible oil and vinegar are used to inhibit the multiplication of
microorganisms in food items. For example, salt, edible oil and vinegar are used to prevent the contamination of pickles;
and sugar is used to prevent the contamination of jams and squash.
148. Match the items in Column 1 with those in Column 2, and choose the correct option.
Column 1 Column 2
(i) Fermentation a. Robert Koch
(ii) Penicillin b. Edward Jenner
(iii) Vaccine for Measles c. Louis Pasteur
(iv) Bacillus Anthracis d. Alexander Fleming
1. (iii)-a, (iv)-b, (ii)-c, (i)-d
2. (iii)-a, (iv)-b, (i)-c, (ii)-d
3. (iv)-a, (iii)-b, (ii)-c, (i)-d
4. (iv)-a, (iii)-b, (i)-c, (ii)-d
Answer – 1. (iii)-a, (iv)-b, (ii)-c, (i)-d
149. Which of the following cells act as messengers?
1. Spherical RBCs
2. Long Branched Nerve Cells
3. Spindle Shaped Muscle Cells
4. All of the above
Answer – 2. Long Branched Nerve Cells
150. Consider the following statements: (i) Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of
falling water into electricity; (ii) Construction of big dams generates greenhouse gas. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)

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 2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. In order to produce hydel
electricity, high-rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger
reservoirs. The water level rises and in this process the kinetic energy of flowing water gets transformed into potential
energy. But, constructions of big dams have certain problems associated with it. Large ecosystems get destroyed when
submerged under the water in dams. The vegetation which is submerged, rots under anaerobic conditions and gives rise to
large amounts of methane which is a greenhouse gas.
151. Sex hormones are secreted by endocrine glands. Consider the following statements regarding
the same: (i) Estrogen and testosterone are sex hormones. These are responsible for the
secondary sexual characters in the human body; (ii) Estrogen is the male hormone, while
testosterone is the female hormone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, and hence are also called ductless
glands. Sex hormones are also secreted through endocrine/ductless glands. Estrogen and testosterone are sex hormones
which are responsible for secondary sexual characters. Estrogen is the female hormone and testosterone is the male
hormone, secreted by ovary in females and testes in males respectively. This sex hormone is responsible for the
development of facial hair, enlargement of voice box (larynx, Adam’s apple) etc. in males. Due to an enlarged voice box,
boys have a deeper voice and girls have a high pitched voice. Secondary sexual characters like development of breasts and
mammary glands in females is caused by estrogen. The secretion of these sex hormones is regulated by a separate
hormone, secreted by the pituitary. It regulates the maturation of egg/ovum in the ovary and sperms in the testes.
152. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
1. Coal
2. Solar
3. Bio-mass
4. Wind
Answer – 1. Coal
Explanation: All these fuels are called fossil fuels. Non-renewable sources of energy: These sources of energy are
exhaustible and cannot be replaced once they have been used. These sources have been accumulated in nature over a very
long period of millions of years. Examples of Non-renewable Sources of Energy: Coal, Oil, Natural Gas.
153. …………………… agent is responsible for turning the Taj Mahal yellow?
1. Sulphur
2. Sulphur Dioxide
3. Nitrogen Dioxide
4. Chlorine
Answer – 2. Sulphur Dioxide
Explanation: The pH of normal rainwater is 5.6. When it drops below 5.6, the rain is termed as acid rain. The main
causes of acid rain are the presence of high levels of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the air. This acid rain contains
sulphuric acid which reacts with the calcium present in the white marble. This results in damage to this wonderful white
monument
154. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year ……………….?
1. 1981
2. 1996
3. 2000
4. 1974
Answer – 1. 1981
155. BOD Stands for ……………………?
1. Biological Oxygen Demand
2. Biological Oxidation Demand
3. Biotic Oxidation Demand
4. Biochemical Oxidation Demand
Answer – 1. Biological Oxygen Demand
Explanation: Parameters COD BOD

COD is a measurement that The biological oxygen demand, or BOD, is a

determines how much oxygen is measurement used to determine how much
Definition
required to break down both organic oxygen is required to break down organic
and inorganic materials in wastewater. matter by microbes present in wastewater.

156. Which of the following is not necessary for photochemical smog formation?
1. SO2
2. Hydrocarbons
3. Sunlight
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 4. More than one of the above
Answer – 1. SO2
Explanation: Photochemical smog-Photochemical smog is formed when sunlight reacts with the mixture of pollutants
nitrogen oxides (NO) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) creating a brown haze. It is also called Los Angeles smog. It
is also referred to as oxidizing smog. This kind of smog requires neither smoke nor fog.
157. Blue baby syndrome is caused by
1. Nitrate pollution of surface water
2. Nitrate pollution of ground water
3. Sulphate pollution of surface water
4. Sulphate pollution of ground water
Answer – 2. Nitrate pollution of ground water
Explanation: It is caused by nitrate contamination in groundwater resulting in decreased oxygen carrying capacity of
haemoglobin in babies leading to death
158. The biodiversity hot spot concept was put forward in which of the following year?
1. 1944
2 .1988
3. 1991
4. 1993
Answer – 2. 1988
Explanation: A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by
human habitation. The biodiversity hot spot concept was put forth by Norman Myers in 1988.
159. The term Biodiversity includes which of the following forms of diversity: (i) Genetic Diversity;
(ii) Species Diversity; (iii) Ecological Diversity; (iv) All of the above.
1. Only (i) and (iv)
2. Only (ii) and (iv)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 4. All of the above
Explanation: Biodiversity is the term popularized by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined
diversity at all the levels of biological organisation. The most important of them are: (i) Genetic Diversity: A single
species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its distributional range. India has more than 50,000 genetically
different strains of rice, and 1,000 varieties of mango. (ii) Species Diversity: The diversity at the species level, for
example, the Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. (iii) Ecological
Diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands,
estuaries, and alpine meadows has a greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.
160. Which of the following chemicals is used to cause artificial rain (cloud seeding)?
1. Hydrogen Bromide
2. Silver Iodide
3. Silver Oxide
4. Aluminium Sulphide
Answer – 2. Silver Iodide
Explanation: Artificial rain is created by seeding clouds with Silver Iodide. Seeding of Clouds refers to the process of
making precipitation fall using substances like dry ice, and silver iodide. Cloud seeding chemicals include silver iodide,
potassium iodide and dry ice. Cloud seeding is an artificial way to create moisture in the clouds so as to cause rainfall.
161. Which one of the given is incorrect?
1. Acids turns blue litmus paper red
2. Aqueous solutions of acids conduct electricity
3. Acids react with certain metals to form hydrogen gas
4. None of these
Answer – 4. None of these
Explanation: When blue litmus paper is placed in an acidic solution, it becomes red. However, when placed in a basic or
neutral substance, it will remain blue. Aqueous solutions of acids conduct electricity. Acid dissociates into ions in aqueous
solution. The migration of movements helps in conducting electricity. Thus, aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity.
Acids react with certain metals to form hydrogen gas.
162. Match List I to List II and select the correct answer with the code given below:
List I List II
(i) Time at which land breeze flows a. Summer season
(ii) Time at which sea breeze flows b. Winter season
(iii) Dark-coloured clothes c. At day
(iv) Light-coloured clothes d. At night
1. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
2. (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
3. (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
4. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
Answer – 1. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
Explanation: During the day, the land gets heated faster than the water. The air over the land becomes hotter and rises
up. The cooler air from the sea rushes in towards the land to take its place. The warm air from the land moves towards the
sea to complete the cycle. The air from the sea is called the sea breeze. To receive the cooler sea breeze, the windows of the
houses in coastal areas are made to face the sea. At night it is exactly the reverse. The water cools down more slowly than
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 the land. So, the cool air from the land moves towards the sea. This is called the land breeze. Dark surfaces absorb more
heat and therefore, we feel comfortable with dark coloured clothes in the winter. Light coloured clothes reflect most of the
heat that falls on them and, therefore, we feel more comfortable wearing them in the summer.
163. Regarding the myopia, consider the following statements: (i) In a myopic eye, the image of a
distant object gets formed behind the retina; (ii) Myopia is caused by shortening of eyeball.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: Myopia is also known as near sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
but cannot see distant objects distinctly. Myopia is caused by two reasons: (i) Excessive curvature of eye lens;
(ii) Elongation of eyeball. A person with this defect has the far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may
see clearly up to a distance of a few metres. In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of
the retina and not at the retina itself.
164. Due to their semiconductor properties, which non-metals are used in computers and T.V.?
1. Carbon
2. Bromine
3. Silicon
4. Fluorine
Answer – 3. Silicon
165. Which one of the following statements is not true?
1. The molecules in a solid vibrate about a fixed position
2. The molecules in a liquid are arranged in a regular pattern
3. The molecules in a gas exert negligibly small forces on each other, except during collisions
4. The molecules of a gas occupy all the space available
Answer – 2. The molecules in a liquid are arranged in a regular pattern
166. Proton was discovered by
1. Thomson
2. Rutherford
3. Chadwick
4. Goldstein
5. None of the above
Answer – 2. Rutherford
Explanation: The scientist who discovered proton is also the man behind the gold foil experiment. He’s also known as
the father of nuclear physics. He was awarded the Nobel prize in chemistry in 1908. As we know proton is a subatomic
particle, with a positive electric charge and a mass slightly less than that of the neutron. The number of protons in the
nucleus acts as the defining property of an element, and is referred to as the atomic number. It's represented by the symbol
Z. We often refer the term proton to the hydrogen ion, H+H+. Its because since the atomic number of hydrogen is 1 and
when an electron is lost it only contain a proton. There are mainly three scientists associated with the discovery of the
proton. First one is English chemist William Prout who suggested that all atoms are made up of hydrogen atoms in 1815
and he referred to them as protyles. The second scientist is the German physicist Eugen Goldstein. He discovered canal
rays (positively charged ions formed by gases) in1886. He observed that the charge-to-mass ratio of the hydrogen ion was
the highest among all gases. He also observed that the hydrogen ion had the smallest size among all ionized gases. The
third scientist is Ernest Rutherford. He discovered the nucleus of the atom in the year 1911 by his famous gold foil
experiment. Rutherford concluded that all the positively charged particles in an atom were concentrated in a singular core
and that most of the atom’s volume was empty. Rutherford stated that the total number of positively charged particles in
the nucleus is equal to the total number of negatively charged electrons present around it. The discovery of the proton is
credited to Ernest Rutherford, who proved that the nucleus of the hydrogen atom (a proton) is present in the nuclei of all
other atoms in the year 1917. Note: A confusion may occur among the options. So, it's good to remember about discoveries
of other fundamental particles too. Thomson discovered electrons in 1897, Chadwick discovered neutrons in 1932
and Goldstein discovered canal ray in 1886.
167. Which of the following phenomena always results in the cooling effect?
1. Condensation
2. Evaporation
3. Sublimation
4. None of these
Answer – 2. Evaporation
Explanation: The cooling effect is produced in the room when a grass-screen (khaskhas) soaked with water is placed in
front of door. It is due to fact that warm and dry air helps in evaporation of water present in the grass-screen. And due to
evaporation, the cooling effect is produced. As we know that evaporation is the cooling phenomena, or produces a cooling
effect.
168. Which of the following is not a measurement of temperature?
1. Celsius

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 2. Fahrenheit
3. Kelvin
4. Pascal
Answer – 4. Pascal
Explanation: Pascal is the SI unit of Pressure whereas Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin are the scales used in thermometer
(a device used to measure temperature). The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin.
169. Tiny pores are found on the surface of the leaves of plants. These pores are called stomata.
These stomata surrounded by the kidney shaped guard cells provide many vital functions to
the plants. Which of the following functions is not served by the stomata for the plants?
1. Exchange of gases, particularly CO2 and O2, with atmosphere
2. Loss of water in the form of vapours during transpiration
3. Helps to create pressure for the water to rise upward, by its process of transpiration
4. Helps the leaves to carry out the process of photosynthesis
Answer – 4. Helps the leaves to carry out the process of photosynthesis
170. Arrange the following components in decreasing order according to their percentage present
in air?
1. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen, Argon, Carbon dioxide, Nitrogen
3. Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Argon
4. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Argon.
Answer – 1. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, Carbon dioxide
Explanation: The major components of the air are: Nitrogen-78% Oxygen-20% Argon-0.93% Carbon dioxide-0.031%.
Other gases such as Neon, Helium, Hydrogen etc., are present in trace amounts. The increasing order of the boiming
points of the above gases is: Nitrogen (lowest), Argon, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide.
171. Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Cold water corals”: (i) Cold-water
corals have symbiotic algae living in their polyps; (ii) They are found on the continental shelf
and also in deep-sea areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don’t have symbiotic algae living in their
polyps so they don’t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by capturing food particles from the surrounding water.
Their polyps tend to be much bigger than tropical corals. Statement 2 is correct: Cold-water coral reefs are commonly
found where current flow is accelerated. They are found on the continental shelf, and also in deep-sea areas with
topographic highs, such as seamounts, mounds, ridges, and pinnacles.
172. Consider the following statements with respect to Mission Divyastra: (i) It was a flight test of
Agni 4; (ii) It was not indigenously developed. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: The successful launch of Mission Divyastra by DRDO is an important milestone in India’s nuclear
capability. This is the first flight test of an indigenously developed 5,000-km range Agni-5 nuclear missile, equipped with
Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology. It aims to deliver multiple warheads at different
locations or the same location in a single launch. The warheads could include decoys to deceive the enemy’s ballistic
missile program.
173. Which space agency launched the ‘Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) project’?
1. ISRO
2. NASA
3. ESA
4. Rocosmos
Answer – 3. ESA
Explanation: European Space Agency has successfully launched its mission to Jupiter’s moons. The Ariane 5 rocket was
launched from the ESA’s spaceport in Kourou, French Guiana. The Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) project aims to
send a satellite on an eight-year journey to reach the icy moons of the planet, gas giant.
174. Which of the following is not one of the fundamental forces?
1. Gravity
2. The Weak Force
3. Frictional Force
4. The Strong Force
Answer – 3. Frictional Force
Explanation: From walking on the street, to launching a rocket into space, to sticking a magnet on your refrigerator,
physical forces are acting all around us. But all the forces that we experience every day can be whittled down to just four
fundamental forces: (i) Gravity; (ii) The Weak Force; (iii) Electromagnetism; (iv) The Strong Force. These are called the

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 four fundamental forces of nature, and they govern everything that happens in the universe.
175. Which of the following statements is/are not correct with reference to Gaganyaan?
1. It is India’s first indigenous human space flight mission under the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme
2. It is to demonstrate human space flight capability to Low Earth Orbit
3. It is being developed by the ISRO and NASA in collaboration
4. It will make India the fourth country to have sent humans to space
Answer – 3. It is being developed by the ISRO and NASA in collaboration
Explanation: The spacecraft is being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). So, option (c) is not
correct.
176. Which of the following is the intention behind launching ‘Netra’ by ISRO?
1. To safeguard its space assets from space debris
2. To safeguard its space assets from solar flares
3. To create a 3D vision camera to take better pictures from orbits
4. To create an awareness campaign for the blinds in India
Answer – 1. To safeguard its space assets from space debris
Explanation: The real amount of space debris is said to be between 500,000 and one million pieces as current sensor
technology cannot detect smaller objects. To safeguard its space assets from space debris, ISRO had set up a dedicated
Space Situational Awareness (SSA) Control Centre named ‘Netra’ in Bengaluru. Netra’s key objective is to monitor, track
and protect the national space assets and function as a hub of all SSA activities. Only the US, Russia and Europe have
similar facilities in place to track space objects and share collision warnings.
177. Which of the following are potential application of Indian National Satellite (INSAT): (i)
Educational TV Services; (ii) Satellite Aided Search and Rescue; (iii) Helps in Geopolitics like
SAARC satellite. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite
systems in the Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit. The
Potential Application of INSAT satellite includes: Television and Educational TV Services; Telemedicine Programme;
Satellite Aided Search and Rescue; Disaster management; Helps in Geopolitics like SAARC satellite; Helps in the
commercialization of space programs, like launching the communication satellites of Russia USA, etc.
178. Which among the following hormone can be used as a drug to treat cardiac arrest and some
other cardiac problems?
1. Thyroxin
2. Epinephrine
3. Calcitonin
4. Insulin
Answer – 2. Epinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine which is also known as adrenaline, is a medication and hormone. It is used to treat a number
of conditions, including cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, asthma, and superficial bleeding.
179. Which among the following is a common end product of Anaerobic Respiration?
1. Acetic Acid
2. Carbonic Acid
3. Lactic Acid
4. Hydrochloric Acid
Answer – 3. Lactic Acid
Explanation: Lactic Acid is a common end product of Anaerobic Respiration. Anaerobic respiration is the type of
respiration through which cells can breakdown sugars to generate energy in the absence of oxygen.
180. Consider the following statements regarding NISAR: (i) It is a collaboration between JAXA &
ISRO; (ii) It is a Dual frequency synthetic aperture radar. Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: NISAR (NASA ISRO SYNTHETIC APERTURE RADAR) has been built by space agencies of the US and
India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014. It is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan
Space Centre into a near-polar orbit. The satellite will operate for a minimum of three years. It is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
observatory. NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days.
181. For which of the following planet’s moon, Europa Clipper will be launched?
1. Mars
2. Venus
3. Jupiter
4. Saturn
Answer – 3. Jupiter

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 Explanation: NASA is sending its Europa Clipper spacecraft in 2024 to investigate whether Europa has the capability to
support life, and is scheduled to enter orbit and begin its search in 2030.
182. When will the height of water in capillary tube be minimum?
1. When water temperature is 0°C
2. When water temperature is 4°C
3. When water temperature is – 4°C
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. When water temperature is 4°C
Explanation: The height up to which water will rise in a capillary tube will be minimum when water temperature is 4°C.
It is the temperature at which liquid water has the highest density.
Miscellaneous
183. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
(i) It is a global action plan for sustainable development; (ii) It originated in the World Summit
on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: It is a voluntary plan of UN on sustainable development. It is a product of earth summit 1992.
184. Three important micronutrients essential for humans are
1. Copper, Zinc & Iodine
2. Zinc, Copper & Potassium
3. Nitrogen, Molybdenum & Iodine
4. Sulphur, Copper & Iron
Answer – 1. Copper, Zinc & Iodine
185. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings produce
1. Infrared Rays
2. Ultrasonic Waves
3. Sound Waves
4. Ultraviolet Rays
Answer – 2. Ultrasonic Waves
Explanation: Bats are guided by ultrasonic waves which they produce and enable them to fly in the dark. The echo of
bats is very much the same as SONAR where echo is produced by the emitted ultrasonic sounds. The waves when striking
with any object return as echoes to bats which guide them the path to fly. They belong to the order Chiroptera and phylum
Chordata. They are important for pollinating flowers and dispersing seeds. Bat’s dung is used as fertilizer and reduces the
usage of pesticides as they consume pests. Bats are served as food in Asia and Pacific Rim. Roosting-posture in which bats
hang themselves upside down when not flying. They have an anticoagulant in their saliva which prevents blood from
clotting when they suck blood from animals. Reproduction-polygynous (male mates with multiple females).
186. Gypsum is added to cement clinker to
1. Increase the tensile strength of the cement
2. Bind the particles of calcium silicate
3. Decrease the rate of setting of cement
4. Facilitate the formation of colloidal gel
Answer – 3. Decrease the rate of setting of cement
187. Consider the following statements: (i) The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed
in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’; (ii) The Sustainable Development
Goals have to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: At the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit on 25 September 2015, world leaders
adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes a set of 17 Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) to end poverty, fight inequality and injustice, and tackle climate change by 2030. The history of
the SDGs can be traced to 1972 when governments met under the auspices of the United Nations Human and
Environment Conference. The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global think tank that deals with a range of international
political issues.
188. The working of the quartz crystal in the watch is based on the
1. Photoelectric Effect
2. Johnson Effect
3. Piezo-electric Effect
4. Edison Effect
Answer – 3. Piezo-electric Effect
189. Given below is a diary of disasters involving hazardous chemicals. Which one of the following
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 is correctly matched?
1. 1959, Minamata/Nigiata, Japan: Leakage at pesticide plant
2. 1976, Sevesor Italy: Mercury discharged into waterways
3. 1984, Bhopal, India: Leakage of dioxin
4. 1987, Kotka, Finland: Monochloro-benzene split In harbour
Answer – 4. 1987, Kotka, Finland: Monochloro-benzene split In harbour
190. Three communicable diseases prevalent in developing countries caused by unsafe drinking
water and bad sanitation are
1. Acute Diarrhoea, Cancer and Gout
2. Malaria, Acute Diarrhoea and Schistosomiasis
3. Onchocerciasis, Leukaemia and Arthritis
4. Rheumatism, Malaria and AIDS
Answer – 2. Malaria, Acute Diarrhoea and Schistosomiasis
191. Why does the Government of India promote the use of ‘Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture?
1. Release of Neem oil in the soil increases nitrogen fixation by the soil microorganisms
2. Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil
3. Nitrous oxide, which is a greenhouse gas, is not at all released into atmosphere by crop fields
4. It is a combination of a weedicide and a fertilizer for particular crops
Answer – 2. Neem coating slows down the rate of dissolution of urea in the soil
Explanation: Spraying urea with neem oil slows the release of nitrogen, by about 10 to 15 per cent, concomitantly
reducing consumption of the fertiliser. According to recent research, the “sustained release” nature of neem-coated urea
has seen rice yields jump 9.6 per cent and wheat by 6.9 per cent.
192. Consider the following statements: (i) Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except
hydrogen; (ii) The mass of electrons is quite negligible. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except hydrogen. Hydrogen is the lightest element. It
exists as the stable isotope Deuterium and the unstable, radioactive isotope Tritium. The mass of an atom is therefore
given by the sum of the masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus (The mass of electrons is quite negligible).
193. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 causes which of the following Disease?
1. Night Blindness
2. Beri Beri
3. Ricket
4. Scurvy
Answer – 2. Beri Beri
Explanation: People with wet Beriberi may experience increased heart rate, shortness of breath, and swelling of the
lower legs.
194. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current ………………?
1. Is zero
2. Decreases as we move towards its end
3. Increases as we move towards its end
4. Is the same at all points
Answer – 4. Is the same at all points.
Explanation: In case of a current carrying coil, the magnetic field of each loop
adds up to produce a net magnetic field. But in case of solenoid each loop is
separated by a distance and the magnetic field at the centre of each loop is same.
195. Which of the following is a fight hormone?
1. Adrenaline
2. Thyroxin
3. Oxytocin
4. Insulin
Answer – 1. Adrenaline
Explanation: Adrenaline makes your heart beat faster and your lungs breathe more efficiently. It causes your blood
vessels to send more blood to your brain and muscles, increases your blood pressure, makes your brain more alert thus
rightly called as a fight hormone.
196. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
1. The process of charging a body
2. The process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through
a coil
3. Producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a
magnet and the coil
4. The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
Answer – 3. Producing induced current in a coil due to relative
motion between a magnet and the coil
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 Explanation: Electromagnetic Induction is a current produced because of voltage production (electromotive force) due
to a changing magnetic field. This either happens when a conductor is placed in a moving magnetic field (when using an
AC power source) or when a conductor is constantly moving in a stationary magnetic field.
197. Which of the following list includes only abiotic factors?
1. Food, Temperature, Fire, Wind and Decomposer
2. Soil Minerals, Oxygen Level, Light and Predators
3. Wind, Rainfall, Temperature and Soil Minerals
4. Light, Food, Predators and Decomposers
Answer – 3. Wind, Rainfall, Temperature and Soil Minerals
Explanation: Abiotic components of ecosystem are: physical (temperature, humidity, light), organic (proteins,
carbohydrates, lipids) and inorganic (water, oxygen, carbondioxide).
198. Which of the following is a biotic component of ecosystem?
1. Humidity
2. Micro Organism
3. Proteins
4. Water
Answer – 2. Micro Organism
Explanation: Biotic components of ecosystem are: Producers (Green Plants), Consumers (Animals) & Decomposers
(Micro-Organism).
199. Which of the following is/are types of Ecosystem Services derived from nature: (i) Provisioning Services;
(ii) Regulating Services; (iii) Cultural Services. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All of the above
Answer – 4. All of the above
Explanation: Provisioning services: genetic resources, food and fiber, and fresh water. Egulating services: the regulation
of climate, water, and some human diseases. Cultural services are: The non-material benefits people obtain from
ecosystems through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and aesthetic experience.
Supporting services are: Ecosystem services that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services. Some
examples include biomass production, production of atmospheric oxygen, soil formation and retention, nutrient cycling,
water cycling, and provisioning of habitat.
200. Consider the following statements: (i) Forest, grassland, and desert are some examples of terrestrial
ecosystems; (ii) Crop fields, gardens, dams and an aquarium are natural eco-systems. Which of the above
statements is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (ii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 1. Only (i)
Explanation: Ecosystems are classified into terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Forest, grassland, and desert are some
examples of terrestrial ecosystems; Pond, lake, wetland, river and estuary are some examples of aquatic ecosystems. Crop
fields, gardens, dams and an aquarium are human-made ecosystems.
201. Consider the following statements regarding the Savanna Climate: (i) It has alternate wet and dry
seasons similar to monsoon climate but has considerably less annual rainfall; (ii) It is confined within the
tropics. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct-Savanna Climate is a type of climate has alternate wet and dry seasons similar to
monsoon climate but has considerably less annual rainfall. Also, there is no distinct rainy season like in monsoon climate.
Statement 2 is correct-It is confined within the tropics and is best developed in Sudan, hence its name the Sudan Climate.
202. Which of the following statements is/are correct about “Cold water corals”: (i) Cold-water corals have
symbiotic algae living in their polyps; (ii) They are found on the continental shelf and also in deep-sea
areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect-Unlike tropical corals, cold-water corals don’t have symbiotic algae living in their
polyps so they don’t need sunlight to survive. They feed solely by capturing food particles from the surrounding water.
Their polyps tend to be much bigger than tropical corals. Statement 2 is correct-Cold-water coral reefs are commonly
found where current flow is accelerated. They are found on the continental shelf, and also in deep-sea areas with
topographic highs, such as seamounts, mounds, ridges, and pinnacles.
203. Match List-I with List-II and using the code given below, select the correct answer:
List I (Homogeneous Mixture) List II (Alloy)
(i) Mercury and any other metal a. Amalgam
(ii) Copper and Zinc b. Brass
(iii) Copper and Tin c. Bronze
(iv) Lead and Tin d. Solder
Which of the following pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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 1. Only (i) and (iv)
2. Only (i) and (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer – 4. All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal. If one of the metals
is mercury, then the alloy is known as an amalgam. The electrical conductivity and melting point of an alloy is less than
that of pure metals. For example, brass, an alloy of copper and zinc (Cu and Zn), and bronze, an alloy of copper and tin (Cu
and Sn), are not good conductors of electricity whereas copper is used for making electrical circuits.
204. Consider the following statements: (i) The pancreas serves both endocrine as well as exocrine functions;
(ii) As an endocrine gland, secreting pancreatic juice by the pancreatic duct into the duodenum. Which of
the above statement is incorrect?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (i)
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: The pancreas serves both endocrine as well as exocrine functions. As an endocrine gland, it assists in the
secretion of hormones like glucagon and insulin. Additionally, it performs the role of an exocrine gland, secreting
pancreatic juice by the pancreatic duct into the duodenum.
205. Consider the following statements: (i) The supportive tissue in plants generally has dead cells; (ii) Most
of the tissues animals contain are living. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer – 3. Both (i) and (ii)
Explanation: Plants are stationary or fixed- they don’t move. Since they have to be upright, they have a large quantity of
supportive tissue. The supportive tissue generally has dead cells. Animals on the other hand move around in search of
food, mates and shelter. They consume more energy as compared to plants. Most of the tissues they contain are living.
206. Steel is mainly an alloy of iron and …………………
1. Chromium
2. Nickel
3. Manganese
4. Carbon
Answer – 4. Carbon
Explanation: Steel is mainly an alloy of iron and carbon. However, few metals like chromium, nickel, manganese,
molybdenum, etc. are also used to produce different varieties of steel.
207. The distance between two successive crests or troughs (or) successive compressions and rarefactions is
known as which of the following?
1. Amplitude
2. Frequency
3. Time period
4. Wavelength
Answer – 4. Wavelength
Explanation: The distance between two successive crests or troughs (or) successive compressions and rarefactions is
called as wavelength (λ). The SI unit of wavelength is metre (m).
208. Consider the following statements regarding Connective tissue: (i) Main function of Areolar tissues is to
join skin to muscles and repair tissues; (ii) Main function of Adipose tissues joins muscles to bones and
store fat. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 2. Only (ii)
Explanation: Areolar Tissues-fills the space between skin and muscles, inside the organs, around blood vessels etc. It
helps to repair the tissues. Adipose tissue :- is found below the skin and between internal organs. It contains fats and helps
to store fats. Tendons :- are fibrous tissues which joins muscles to bones and helps in movements.
209. Consider the following statements: (i) The stomach, located in the upper right portion of the abdominal
cavity, has three major parts; (ii) The oesophagus opens into a cardiac portio; (iii) The fundic region
which opens into the first part of small intestine. Which of the above statement is incorrect?
1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. None of the above
Answer – 3. Only (i) and (iii)

Science 33 | P a g e