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I Do Not Remember

This document outlines the instructions and structure for the IIT-JEE 2023 Major Test - 5, scheduled for August 13, 2022. It includes general instructions for candidates, marking schemes for the Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections, and details about the types of questions and their scoring. The test consists of 90 questions divided into three parts, with specific guidelines on how to answer and submit responses.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
58 views28 pages

I Do Not Remember

This document outlines the instructions and structure for the IIT-JEE 2023 Major Test - 5, scheduled for August 13, 2022. It includes general instructions for candidates, marking schemes for the Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections, and details about the types of questions and their scoring. The test consists of 90 questions divided into three parts, with specific guidelines on how to answer and submit responses.

Uploaded by

yashhpiece
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

MUMBAI / DELHI & NCR / GOA / AKOLA / NASHISK / PUNE / BOKARO / DUBAI / AMRAVATI / JALGAON

Time : 3 Hrs. MAJOR TEST - 5 Date : 13/08/2022


IIT-JEE : 2023 MAIN Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
A. General Instructions :
1. Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
2. You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
3. This booklet has 90 Questions.
4. Attempt ALL the questions and submit your answers at the response positions.
5. This question paper contains Three parts.
6. Part (A) is Physics, Part (B) is Chemistry and Part (C) is Mathematics.
7. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section - I & II.
8. Blank pages are provided in this booklet for rough work. No additional sheets will
be provided.
9. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers
and electronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.
10. Using ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the ORS Sheet.

B. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts :

1. Section-I: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other
cases.

2. Section-II: This section contains 10 questions. Attempt any 5 questions out of 10.
Each question is numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 7, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other
cases.

Candidate Name : ___________________________________________

Roll No.
Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

PART (A) : PHYSICS

Section – I : Single Answer Correct Type


This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

1. Two plane mirrors AB and AC are inclined at an angle   20o . A ray of light starting from point P is
incident at point Q on the mirror AB, then at R on mirror AC and again on S on AB. Finally, the ray ST
goes parallel to mirror AC. The angle which the ray makes with the normal at point Q on mirror AB is

(A) 20o (B) 30o (C) 40o (D) 60o

2. A bird is flying over a swimming pool at a height of 2 m from the water surface. If the bottom is
perfectly plane reflecting surface and depth of swimming pool is 1 m, then the distance of final image
of bird from the bird itself is w  4 3
11 23 11 11
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
3 3 4 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

3. Identify the correct statement about the charges q1 and q2 , then

(A) q1 and q2 both are positive (B) q1 and q2 both are negative
(C) q1 is positive q2 is negative (D) q2 is positive and q1 is negative

4. Three identical charges are placed at corners of an equilateral triangle of side l. If force between any
two charges is F, the work required to double the dimensions of triangle is
(A) –3 Fl (B) 3 Fl (C) (–3/2) Fl (D) (3/2) Fl

5. A ring of radius R is having two charges q and 2q distributed on its two half parts. The electric potential
 1 
at a point on its axis at a distance of 2 2 R from its centre is  k  
 4 0 
3kq kq kq kq
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 3R R 3R

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

6. A cyclic process for 1 mole of an ideal gas is shown in the V-T diagram The work done in AB, BC and
CA respectively is

V2 V1
(A) 0, RT2 ln , R T1  T2  (B) R T1  T2  , 0, RT1 ln
V1 V2

V1 V2
(C) 0, RT1 ln , R T1  T2  (D) 0, RT2 ln , R T2  T1 
V2 V1

7. Two rods are of same material and having same length and area. If heat Q flows through them for
12 min when they are joined side by side. If now both the rods are joined in parallel then the same
amount of heat Q will flow in
(A) 24 min (B) 3 min (C) 12 min (D) 6 min

8. A man is standing on a cart of mass double the mass of man. Initially cart is at rest. Now, man jumps
horizontally with velocity u relative to cart. Then work done by man during the process of jumping
will be

mu 2 3mu 2
(A) (B) (C) mu 2 (D) None of these
2 4
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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

9. Two balls of equal mass are projected upwards simultaneously, one the ground with initial velocity
50 ms–1 and the other from a 40m tower with initial velocity of 30 ms–1. The maximum height
attained by their COM will be
(A) 80 m (B) 60 m (C) 100 m (D) 120 m

10. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis through B.
The rod begins rotating from rest. The angular velocity  at angle  is given as

 6g    6g    6g   6g 
(A)   sin (B)   cos (C)   sin  (D)   cos 
 L  2  L  2  L   L 

11. Find moment of inertia of a thin sheet of mass M in the shape of an equilateral triangle about an axis
as shown in figure. The length of each side is L

(A) ML2 8 (B) 3 3 ML2 8 (C) 7 ML2 8 (D) None of these

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

12. Three identical particles each of mass M move along a common circular path of radius R under the
mutual interaction of each other. The velocity of each particle is
GM 2 GM GM 2 GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 3 3R 3R 3 R

13. If T be the period of revolution of a planer revolving around sun in an orbit of mean radius R, then
identify the incorrect graph.

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

14. A particle of mass 2 kg moves in simple harmonic motion and its potential energy U varies with positon
x as shown. The period of oscillation of the particle is

2 2 2 2 4
(A) s (B) s (C) s (D) s
5 5 5 5

15. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the following equations y1  40sin t and
y2  10  sin t  c cos t  . If there displacement amplitudes are equal, then the value of c (in
appropriate units) is
(A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 17 (D) 4

16. The figure represents a U-tube of uniform cross-section filled with two immiscible liquids. One is
water with density w and the other liquid is of density  . The liquid interface lies 2 cm above the
base. The relation between  and w is

(A)   w (B)   1.02w (C)   1.2w (D) None of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

17. When a tap is closed, the manometer attached to the pipe reads 3.5  105 Nm–2. When the tap is opened,
the reading of manometer falls to 3.0  105 Nm–2. The velocity of water in the pipe is
(A) 0.1 ms–1 (B) 1 ms–1 (C) 5 ms–1 (D) 10 ms–1

18. The volume of a liquid flowing per second out of an orifice at the bottom of a tank does not depend
upon
(A) the height of the liquid above the orifice
(B) the acceleration due to gravity
(C) the density of the liquid
(D) the area of the orifice

19. The kinetic energy of a projectile at its highest positon is K. If the range of the projectile is four times
the height of the projectile, then the initial kinetic energy of the projectile is
(A) 2K (B) 2 K (C) 4 K (D) 2 2 K

20. Power applied to a particle varies with time as P   3t 2  2t  1 watt, where t is in second. Find the
change in its kinetic energy between time t  2s and t  4s
(A) 32 J (B) 46 J (C) 61 J (D) 102 J

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 7
Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

Section – II : Numerical Value Type


This section contains 10 questions. Attempt any 5 questions out of 10. Each question is
numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 7, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

21. Momentum of a particle is increased by 50%. By how much percentage kinetic energy of particle will
increase ?

22. A car is travelling along a circular curve that has a radius of 6 m. If its speed is 6 m/s and is increasing
uniformly at 8 m/s2. Determine the magnitude of its acceleration (in m/s2) at this instant.

23. A block of wood has a mass of 25 g. When a 5 g metal piece with a volume of 2 cm3 is attached to the
bottom of the block, the wood barely floats in water. What is the volume V (in cm3) of the wood?

24. A cubical block of ice floating in water has to support a metal piece weighing 2.7 kg. What can be the
minimum edge of the block so that it does not sink in water? Specific gravity of ice = 0.9.

25. A body of weight 27 N hangs on a long spring of such stiffness that an extra force of 9 N stretches the

spring by 0.15 m. If the body is pulled downward and released. The time period is n . The value
5
of 10n will be

26. A particle of mass 1 kg is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 20 kg and radius 1.0 m.
Work to be done against the gravitational force between them to take the particle away from the sphere
to infinity is x  109 J . Find x.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Physics (Main)

27. A metal ball weighs 0.90 N. When suspended in water it has an apparent weight of 0.75 N. Find the
density of the metal in kg/m3.

28. The electric flux form a cube of edge l is  . If an edge of the cube is made 2l and the charge enclosed

is halved, its value will be . Find x.
x

29. The diagram shows venturi meter through which water is flowing. The speed of water at X is 2 cm/s.
Find the speed of water at Y in cm/s. (taking g = 1000 cm/s2).

30. A point charge q  8.0 nC is located at the origin. Find the magnitude electric field in N/C at the
point x  1.2m, y  1.6m .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

PART (B) : CHEMISTRY

Section – I : Single Answer Correct Type


This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

kn 2
31. Rydberg given the equation for all visible radiation in the hydrogen spectrum as   . The value
n2  4
of k in terms of Rydberg constant is
R 4
(A) 4R (B) (C) (D) R
4 R

32. In the following compound the hydrogen atoms are labeled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. What is the increasing
order of their acidic character?
S
H1
H5
2 H O

3 H O
H4
(A) 5 < 3 < 2 < 4 < 1 (B) 5 < 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 (C) 3 < 2 < 5 < 4 < 1 (D) 5 < 2 < 4 < 3 < 1

33. Determine the pOH of a solution after 0.1 mole of NaOH is added to 1 litre of solution containing
0.15 M CH3COOH and 0.2 M CH3COONa. Assume no change in volume.
[Given: log 3 = 0.48, log 2 = 0.30, pKa of acetic acid = 4.74]
(A) 8.48 (B) 5.52 (C) 9.66 (D) None

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

34. Which of the following has maximum number of resonating structures?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

35. The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are, –890.3 kJ mol–1,
–393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4(g) will be
(A) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (B) –52.27 kJ mol–1 (C) +74.8 kJ mol–1 (D) +52.26 kJ mol–1

36. Which of the following structures are represent the meso compound?
CH2 OH
CH3
Me H Me Br H OH
Me Br OH
Me
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O Me H
H
Me

37. Assuming molecular orbital diagrams similar to that O2, use MO theory to predict the proper ordering
of bond energies of the following pairs.
(A) N 2 , N 2 and O 2 , O 2 (B) N 2 , N 2 and O 2 , O 2
greater greater greater greater

(C) N 2 , N 2 and O 2 , O 2 (D) N 2 , N 2 and O 2 , O 2


greater greater greater greater

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

38. Which of the following will show optical activity?


CH3 CH2 CH3 CH2 CH3
COOH
H OH HO H
H OH
(I) (II) OH H (III) H OH (IV) HO CH2 CH3
CH3 COOH CH2 CH3 H
(V) CH3  CH  C  CH  CH3
(A) I, IV and V (B) I and V only (C) II, III and IV (D) All except III

39. Which of the following statement is correct for the following reaction ?
K4 Fe(CN)6  Ce(NO3 )4  KOH  K2CO3  KNO3  Ce(OH)3  Fe(OH)3  H2O
(A) It is not a redox reaction.
(B) One mole of K 4 Fe(CN)6 will react with 61 moles of Ce(NO3 )4 .
(C) Oxidation number of Ce decreases from +6 to +3 during the reaction.
(D) None of these.

40. Which of the following is pair of resonance structure ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

1
41. The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction SO2  g   O2  g  SO3  g  is an exothermic reaction
2
following temperature – pressure relationship for its % yield, for temperature (T1, T2 and T3) the
correction option is :

(A) T3 > T2 > T1 (B) T1 = T2 = T3


(C) T1 > T2 > T3 (D) Not enough information

42. Which of the following information is CORRECT for a Van der waal’s gas?
(A) The pressure exerted by the gas is always higher than ideal gas
(B) The constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ have same dimension.
(C) At a temperature below critical temperature, the vapour may have three theoretically real molar
volumes at a given pressure.
(D) In moderate range of pressure and at about room temperature, all real gases perfectly obey Van
der waal’s gas equation

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

43. In the given reaction


Cl CH3
HOH
H3 CO CH CH C NO2 P

CH3 CH3
The major product ‘P’ is
CH3

(A) MeO CH CH C NO2

CH3 OH CH3
CH3 H CH3
(B) MeO C C C NO2

OH H CH3
CH3

(C) MeO CH CH C NO2

CH3 CH3 OH

(D) Me O CH2 CH CH2 NO2

OH

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

44. Which is the correct nucleophilicity order of the following sites?


O O
(4)

(1)
(3)
O

O S
O O
(2) O

(A) 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 (B) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (C) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (D) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2

45. If 0  PE , what is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion in octahedral complex with d 4


configuration:
(A) t 42g , eg0 (B) eg4 , t 02g (C) t 32g , e1g (D) eg2 , t 2g
2

46. Consider the reaction

Which of the following is formed in major product ?


(A) CH2 = CH2
(B) CH3CH = CH2
(C) Both (A) and (B) in equal amount
(D) None, as no reaction takes palce

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

47. Assign the hybridisation, shape and magnetic mometn of K2[Cu(CN)4]


(A) sp3 , tetrahedral, 1.73 BM
(B) dsp 2 , square planar, 1.73 BM
(C) sp3 , tetrahedral, 2.8 BM
(D) dsp 2 , square planr, 2.8 BM

Br Br Br Br Br

O NH
48.
O
O
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
Ease of SN1 reactions among these compounds upon treatment with aqueous NaOH will be in the order
(A) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) > (V) (B) (IV) > (I) > (III) > (II) > (V)
(C) (I) > (IV) > (III) > (II) > (V) (D) (V) > (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)

Br
CH3OH
49. In the given reaction C CH3 [X] .

CH3
[X] as the major products among the following elimination product is
CH3
(A) C CH2 (B) C CH3
CH3
CH3

CH3
(C) (D) CH3

CH3

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50. [Ni(CN)4]2–, [MnBr4]2– and [FeF6]3–. Geometry hybridization and magnetic moment of the ions
respectively are
(A) Tetrahedral, square planar, octahedral : sp3 , dsp3 , sp3d 2 : 5.9, 0, 4.9
(B) Tetrahedral, square planar, octahedral : dsp 2 , sp3 , sp3d 2 : 0, 5.9, 4.9
(C) Square planr, tetrahedral, octahedral : dsp 2 , sp3 , sp3d 2 : 0, 5.9, 4.9
(D) Square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral : dsp 2 , sp3 , sp3d 2 : 0, 5.9, 4.9

Section – II : Numerical Value Type


This section contains 10 questions. Attempt any 5 questions out of 10. Each question is
numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 7, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

51. The oxidation states of transition metal atoms in K2Cr2O7, KMnO4 and K2FeO4, respectively, are x, y
and z. The sum of x, y and z is ______ .

52. Total number of inner orbital complexes which are paramagnetic


[Co(NH3)6]3+, [Cu(H2O)6]2+, [Ni(en)3]2+, [Fe(en)3]2(SO4)3, Ga4[Cr(CN)6]3, [Ti(CN)6]3–,
Brown ring complex, K3[Fe(CN)6], [Co(SCN)6]3–, [Cr(SCN)6]3–

53. Pure N2O4 is taken in a closed vessel. It dissociates to NO2 and achieves equilibrium. The vapour
115
density of equilibrium mixture is at 4.8 atm at 127oC. The value Kp (in atm) of the reaction
3
N 2O4  g  2NO2  g  , at 127oC, is -

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Major Test – 5 : Chemistry (Main)

54. Find total number of possible alkenes (including stereoisomers) in reaction (i), (ii), (iii) is x, y and z
respectively, then value of (X + Y + Z) is
CH3
Cl
(i) Alc. KOH

CH3

(ii) Alc. KOH

Cl
CH3
Cl
(iii) Alc. KOH

55. Out of 3d xy , 3d yz , 3d xz , 3d x2  y 2 , 3d z 2 five orbitals of Mn2+, total number of 3d-orbitals which points
towards the ligands (Cl–) in complex ion [MnCl4]2–, is :

56. For a perfectly crystalline solid, CP, m = aT3, where a is constant. If CP, m is 0.84 J K–1 mol–1 at 10 K,
molar entropy (in J mol–1 K–1) at 10 K is:

57. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on mono-chlorination of
the following compound, is
CH3
C
H3C CH2 CH2CH3
H

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58. Find the number of complexes which is/are diamagnetic in nature


[Pt(NH3)4]Cl2, [Ni(NH3)6]SO4, [Cu(H2O)4]SO4 H2O, K2[MnCl4],
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4, K3[Co(C2O4)6]

59. Find the number of CORRECT set of ionisation energy order.


(i) Ar > P (ii) P > F (iii) N > O (iv) O > B
(v) P > S (vi) He > Cs (vii) N2 > N 2

60. How many stereo isomers can be obtained by complete catalytic hydrogenation of the following
compound?
CH2

CH2

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Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

PART (C) : MATHEMATICS

Section – I : Single Answer Correct Type


This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

61. The equation of the circle which touches both the axes and the line 3x  4 y  8  0 and whose centre
lies in the third quadrant is
(A) x2  y 2  4 x  4 y  4  0 (B) x2  y 2  4 x  4 y  4  0
(C) x2  y 2  4 x  4 y  4  0 (D) x2  y 2  4 x  4 y  4  0

62. The equation of the parabola whose focus is (3, –4) and directrix is the line x  y  2  0 , is
(A) x2  2 xy  y 2  8x  20 y  46  0 (B) x2  2 xy  y 2  8x  20 y  46  0
(C) x2  2 xy  y 2  8x  20 y  46  0 (D) x2  2 xy  y 2  8x  20 y  46  0

63. The equation of the hyperbola of given transverse axis ‘2a’ whose vertex bisects the distance between
centre and the focus, is
(A) x 2  y 2  3a 2 (B) 3x 2  y 2  3a 2 (C) x 2  3 y 2  3a 2 (D) 3x 2  y 2  a 2

64. If (5, 12) and (24, 7) are the foci of the hyperbola passing through the origin, then the eccentricity of
the hyperbola is
386 386 386 386
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 13 25 38

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Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

65. The equation of the tangent to the parabola y 2  4ax which makes an angle of 45o with the line
y  2x  5 is
(A) x  3 y  9a  0 (B) x  3y  9a  0 (C) x  3 y  9a  0 (D) x  3 y  9a  0

66. The joint equation of the pair of lines which bisect angles between the lines given by x 2  3xy  2 y 2  0
is
(A) 3x2  2 xy  3 y 2  0 (B) 3x2  2 xy  y 2  0
(C) 3x2  2 xy  3 y 2  0 (D) 3x2  2 xy  3 y 2  0

67. If , ,  are the real roots of the equation x3  3 px2  3qx  1  0 , then the centroid of the triangle
 1   1  1
having vertices  ,  ,  ,  ,  ,  are
     
(A)  p, q  (B)  p,  q  (C)   p, q  (D)   p,  q 

Coefficient of x 24 in 1  x 2  1  x 1  x  is
12 12 24
68.
(A) C3  5
12
(B) 12
C6  1 (C) 12
C6 (D) C6  2
12

69. If log  a  c  , log  c  a  , log  a  2b  c  are in A.P., then


(A) a, b, c are in A.P. (B) a 2 , b2 , c 2 are in A.P.
(C) a, b, c are in G.P. (D) a, b, c are in H.P.

70. If m  sin6 x  cos6 x , then m belongs to interval


1  1  7 5 1 5
(A)  , 1 (B)  , 1 (C)  ,  (D)  , 
2  4  8 4 2 8

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Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

2 2
b c
71. a, b, c are the roots of x  27  0 . Then the equation whose roots are   and   is
3

a a
(A) x2  x  1  0 (B) x2  3x  9  0 (C) x2  x  1  0 (D) x2  3x  9  0

e x  e x
72. The inverse of the function f  x    2 is given by
e x  e x
1 1 1
2
 x  2 2  x 1 2  x 2  x 1 
(A) log   (B) log   (C) log   (D) log  
 x 1   3 x   2 x   x 1 

1
ae x
73. If lim 1
 2 , then
x 0
1  be x

1 1
(A) a, b  R (B) a  b  2 (C) a  R, b  (D) a  2 & b 
2 2


74. The second derivative of a sin3 t w.r.t. a cos3 t at t  is
4
4 2 1 2
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
3a 12a 3a

75. The derivative of y  1  x  2  x  ...  n  x  at x = 1 is equal to

 1 n  1!  1  n  1!


n 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) n ! 1 (D)

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CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 22
Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

9 2  1  cos 3 x 
76. If f  x  is continuous and f    , then lim f   is equal to
2 9 x 0
 x2 
9 2 8
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D)
2 9 9

 1  sin 3 x 
 , x
 3cos x 2
2
  
77. If f  x    a , x is continuous at x  . Then  a, b  is
 2 2
 b 1  sin x  
 , x
    2 x 
2
2

1  1 1  1   1
(A)  , 4  (B)  ,  (C)   , 4  (D)  2, 
2  2 4  2   4

78. The slope of the tangent to the curve x  t 2  3t  8 , y  2t 2  2t  5 at the point (2, –1) is
22 6 7
(A) (B) (C)  6 (D)
7 7 6

79. The function f  x   sin 4 x  cos 4 x increases in the interval


     3 5   5 3 
(A)  0,  (B)  ,  (C)  ,  (D)  , 
 8 4 2  8 8   8 4 

80. If the centre of a regular hexagon is at origin and one of the vertex is (1, 2), then its perimeter is
(A) 2 5 (B) 6 2 (C) 4 5 (D) 6 5

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CENTERS: MUMBAI / DELHI / AKOLA / LUCKNOW / NAGPUR / NASHIK / PUNE / GOA / BOKARO / DUBAI # 23
Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

Section – II : Numerical Value Type


This section contains 10 questions. Attempt any 5 questions out of 10. Each question is
numerical value type. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation
(e.g. 6.25, 7.00, 7, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.

x2 y 2
81. If the area of the auxiliary circle of the ellipse 2  2  1 a  b  0  is twice the area of the ellipse,
a b
m
then the eccentricity of the ellipse is , then (m + n) is equal to
n

82. If (2, –3) lies on x2  y 2  2 gx  2 fy  c  0 which is concentric with x 2  y 2  2 x  4 y  1  0 , then c


is equal to

83. The numbers 32sin 2 a 1 ,14, 342sin 2 a from first three numbers of an AP, its fifth term is given by

x 2  3x x 1 x3
84. If px  qx  rx  sx  t  x  1
4 3 2
2 x x  3 , then t = …………
x 3 x4 0

85. If the system of equations ax  y  z  0; x  by  z  0 ; x  y  cz  0; a, b, c  1 ; has a non-trivial


a b c
solution, then    ..........
a 1 b 1 c 1

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Major Test – 5 : Mathematics (Main)

31 log x
86. If f  x   , then f 1994   ...........
x log 3

Ae x  B cos x  Ce  x
87. The value of B if lim  2 is
x 0 x sin x

88. For the equation 3x2  px  3  0, p  0 , if one of the roots is square of the other, then p = ………

89. If sin   cosec   2 , then the value of sin8   cosec8  is

90. The number of times the digit 3 comes when listing the integers from 1 to 1000, is

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