0% found this document useful (0 votes)
35 views9 pages

Mock Test 07 Test Papers (PCM)

Lakshya JEE 2.0 Mock Test 07 is a comprehensive examination covering the full syllabus of Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics for 11th and 12th grades, consisting of 75 questions with a total of 300 marks. The test has a duration of 180 minutes and includes objective and integer-type questions, with specific marking schemes and instructions for candidates. General and OMR instructions are provided to ensure proper conduct and evaluation during the test.

Uploaded by

yashhpiece
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
35 views9 pages

Mock Test 07 Test Papers (PCM)

Lakshya JEE 2.0 Mock Test 07 is a comprehensive examination covering the full syllabus of Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics for 11th and 12th grades, consisting of 75 questions with a total of 300 marks. The test has a duration of 180 minutes and includes objective and integer-type questions, with specific marking schemes and instructions for candidates. General and OMR instructions are provided to ensure proper conduct and evaluation during the test.

Uploaded by

yashhpiece
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

Lakshya JEE 2.

0 (2025)

MOCK TEST - 07

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 17/01/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Chemistry: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Mathematics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions
are Objective Type and last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer
needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 6. An alternating voltage of frequency  is induced
1. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the in electric circuit consisting of an inductance L and
roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. capacitance C, connected in parallel. Then across
Assuming that the pressure inside the house is the inductance coil the
atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the I. current is maximum when 2 = 1/(LC)
wind on the roof and the direction of the force will II. current is minimum when 2 = 1/(LC)
be (air = 1.2 kg/m3) III. voltage is minimum when 2 = 1/(LC)
(1) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards IV. voltage is maximum when 2 = 1/(LC)
(2) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards (1) I and III (2) I and IV
(4) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards (3) II and III (4) II and IV

2. For maximum power from battery the internal 7. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003)g, radius
resistance of battery r is (0.5 ± 0.005)mm and length (6 ± 0.06)cm. The
maximum percentage error in the measurement of
its density is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

8. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is


silvered. An object held 8 cm in front of the first
face, forms an image 12 cm behind the silvered
face. The refractive index of the glass is
4R
(1) 10 R (2) (1) 0.4 (2) 0.8
9
(3) 1.2 (4) 1.6
R 10 R
(3) (4)
8 9 9. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to
R. The equivalent resistance between adjacent
3. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction corners A and D is
with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass
2 m moving in the y direction with speed v. If the
collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss
in the energy during the collision is close to
(1) 56% (2) 62%
(3) 44% (4) 50%

4. A proton and -particle are accelerated through


the same potential difference. The ratio of their de- 2
Broglie wavelength will be (1) R (2) R
3
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
3 8
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 2 :1 (3) R (4) R
7 15

5. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a


height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R 10. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that
being the radius of the earth. The time period of delivers a constant power of k watts. If the particle
another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the starts from rest the force on the particle at time t is
surface of the earth is (1) mk t 1/2 (2) 2 mk t 1/2
(1) 5 (2) 10
1 mk 1/2
(3) 6 2 (4)
6 (3) mk t 1/2 (4) t
2 2 2

[2]
11. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is 15. If the root mean square velocity of the molecules
free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless of hydrogen at NTP is 1.84 km/s. Calculate the
string is wound round the cylinder with one end root mean square velocity of oxygen molecule at
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in NTP, molecular weight of hydrogen and oxygen
the string required to produce an angular are 2 and 32 respectively
acceleration of 2 revolutions s–2 is (1) 1.47 km/sec
(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (2) 0.94 km/s
(3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N
(3) 1.84 km/s
12. Statement I : The displacement current in a (4) 0.46 km/sec
parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C can be
 dV  16. The following observations were taken for
written as id  C   , where V is the potential
 dt  determining surface tension T of water by
difference between the plates. capillary method :
Statement II: The displacement current in free Diameter of capillary, D  1.25 102 m , rise of
d e
space is given by id 0 . water, h  1.45 102 m .
dt
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true Using g  9.80m / s 2 and the simplified relation
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false rhg
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are False T  103 N / m , the possible error in
2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true surface tension is closest to :
(1) 2.4% (2) 10%
13. A graph of the square of the velocity against the (3) 0.15% (4) 1.5%
square of the acceleration of a given simple
harmonic motion is 17. Two discs rotating about their respective axis of
rotation with angular speeds 2 rads–1 and 5 rads–1
are brought into contact such that their axes of
(1) (2)
rotation coincide. Now, the angular speed of the
system becomes 4 rads–1. If the moment of inertia
of the second disc is 1×10–3 kg m2, then the
moment of inertia of the first disc (in kg m2) is
(3) (4)
(1) 0.25 × 10–3
(2) 1.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.25 × 10–3
14. Two fixed equal positive charges, each of (4) 0.5 × 10–3
magnitude q  5 105 C are located at points A
and B , where AB is 6m . An equal and opposite 18. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to
another state with principal quantum number equal
charge moves towards AB line along the
to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in the
perpendicular bisector of AB
emission spectra will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6

19. Statement I: On disturbing an electric dipole in


stable equillibrium in an electric field, it returns
back to its stable equillibrium orientation.
The moving charge, when reaches at point C at a Statement II: A restoring torque acts on the
distance of 4m from O , has a kinetic energy of dipole on being disturbed from its stable
4J . equillibrium.
Calculate the distance of farthest point D which (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
the negative charge will reach before turning (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
towards C. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
(1) 0.5 m (2) 9 m
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) 9.5 m (4) 8.5 m
[3]
20. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a oscillations. If the total energy of the oscillator is 4
spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The J, the maximum acceleration (in m s–2) of the mass
gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 is ______
distance from the centre, will be
3GM 2GM 24. Two long parallel wires carrying current
(1)  (2) 
a a 2.5 amperes and I ampere in the same direction
GM 4GM (directed into the plane of the paper ) are held at P
(3)  (4)  and Q respectively such that they are perpendicular
a a
Integer Type Questions to the plane of paper. The points P and Q are
located at a distance of 5 metres and 2 metres
21. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the respectively from a collinear point R (see figure).
points (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) An electron moving with a velocity of 4 × 105 m/s
respectively. Find the moment of inertia (in kgm2) along the positive x-direction experiences a force
of this system about X-axis. of magnitude 3.2 × 10–20 N at the point R. Find the
value of I (in ampere).
22. An inductor of inductance 2.0 mH is connected
across a charged capacitor of capacitance 5.0 F,
and the resulting LC circuit is set oscillating at its
natural frequency. Let Q denote the instantaneous
charge on the capacitor, and I the current in the
circuit. It is found that the maximum value of Q is
200 C. When Q = 100 C, the value of |dI/dt| is 25. An iron rod of length 2 m and cross-sectional area
found to be 10x A/s. Find the value of x. of 50 mm2 stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of
250 kg is hung from its lower end. If Young’s
23. A mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force modulus of iron rod is 19.6 × 10x N/m2. Then the
constant 800 N m–1 executes simple harmonic value of x is _______
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions (1) Ph  CH  CH3
26. For preparing a buffer solution of pH  6 by mixing |
CH2OH
sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the
concentration of salt and acid should be; (2) Ph  CH  CH3
 K a  10 
|
5
CH3
(1) 1:10 (2) 10 :1 (3) Ph  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  OH
(3) 100 :1 (4) 1:100
(4) Ph  CH 2  CH 2  CH3
27. (i) There are four d -block series.
(ii) Total d -block elements are 40.
29. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is
(iii) Third d -block series starts with lanthanum
and ends with mercury.
(iv) All the d -block members are metals and
found in nature.
The correct statements are:
(1) (i) and (iii) only
(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (1) 2-Mmethanoyloxy-2-ethoxy carbonyl-3-oxo-
(4) all of these butanoic acid
(2) 2-Eethanoyloxy-2-methoxy carbonyl-3-oxo-
28. The final product A, formed in the following reaction butanoic acid
sequence is (3) 2-Eethanoyloxy-2-methoxy carbonyl-3-oxo-
(i) BH3 butane carboxylic acid
(ii) H 2O2 , OH
Ph  CH  CH 2   (4) 2-Eethanoyloxy-2-methoxy carbonyl-2-oxo-
(iii) HBr
 butanoic acid
(iv) Mg, ether,thenHCHO/H3O

[4]
30. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 and XeF6 to form ionic

compounds  XeF3  SbF6  and  XeF5  SbF6  .
    
The geometry of XeF3 ion and XeF5 ion,
respectively, is:
(1) Square pyramidal, T-shaped
Identify the tripeptide.
(2) Bent T-shaped, square pyramidal
(1) Glu-Cys-Gly (2) Gly-Glu-Cys
(3) See-saw, square pyramidal
(3) Cys-Gly-Glu (4) Gys-Glu-Gly
(4) Square pyramidal, see-saw

35. When a system is taken from state A to state B


31. Myoglobin stores oxygen for metabolic process along path ACB as shown in figure below, 80 J of
in muscle. Chemical analysis shows that it
heat flows into the system and the system does 30 J
contains 0.32%Fe by mass. If there is one Fe atom
of work.
per molecule of myoglobin, what is the molar mass of
myoglobin? [At. Mass of Fe = 56u]
(1) 1.75 104 g / mol
(2) 3.5 105 g / mol
(3) 1104 g / mol When the system is returned from state B to A along
the curved path, the work done on the system is 20 J .
(4) 2.5 10 g / mol
5
Does the system absorb or liberate heat and by how
much?
32. In the reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I 2 in (1) 70 J ; heat is liberated.
aqueous medium, the equivalent weight of sodium (2) 60 J ; heat is liberated.
thiosulphate is equal to: (3) 70 J ; heat is absorbed.
(1) Molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
(4) 60 J ; heat is absorbed.
(2) The average molar masses of Na 2S2 O3 and
I2
36. The major product P of the following reaction is
(3) Half the molar mass of sodium thiosulphate
(4) Twice of molar mass of sodium thiosulphate KCN

 (P)
Ethanol  H 2O

33. Decreasing order of bond length of C = C bond in the


following compound? (1)

(2)

(3)

(1) p>q>r
(2) r>q>p (4)
(3) p>r>q
(4) q>r>p
37. Which is true for complex [Ni(en)2] 2+?
(1) Paramagnetic, dsp2, square planar, Coordination
34. A tripeptide (X) on partial hydrolysis gave two
number of Ni = 2
dipeptides Cys-Gly and Glu-Cys, i.e.,
(2) Diamagnetic, dsp2, square planar, Coordination
number of Ni = 4
(3) Diamagnetic, sp3, tetrahedral, Coordination
Number of Ni = 4
(4) Paramagnetic, sp3 , tetrahedral, Coordination
Number of Ni = 4

[5]
38. A light source of wavelength  illuminates a metal
and ejects photo-electrons with (K.E.)max = 1 eV

Another light source of wavelength , ejects photo- (3)
3
electrons from same metal with (K.E.)max = 4 eV
Find the value of work function?
(1) 1eV (2) 2eV
(3) 0.5eV (4) None of these

39. The following electrochemical cell has been set up:


(4)
Pt  s  Fe3 , Fe 2  a  1 Ce 4 ,Ce3  a  1 Pt  s 


Given : E Fe3 Fe 2  0.77V; 

E 0 Ce 4 Ce3  1.61V 
If an ammeter is connected between the two platinum
electrodes, predict the direction of flow of current.
Will the current increase or decrease with time? H
42. 
 Major product
(1) Ce electrode to Fe electrode, decrease 
(2) Ce electrode to Fe electrode, increase
In the above reaction, left hand side and right hand
(3) Fe electrode to Ce electrode, decrease side rings are named as 'A' and 'B' respectively. They
(4) Fe electrode to Ce electrode, increase undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this
process is:
40. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched? (1) Finally both rings will become six membered
(i) GeO 2  Acidic each.
(2) Finally both rings will become five membered
(ii) PbO 2 - Amphoteric
each.
(iii) CO - Neutral
(3) Only 'A' will become 6 membered.
(iv) CO  Amphoteric
(4) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered
(1) (i) and (iv)
rings
(2) (iv) only
(3) (ii) only
43. Which of the following pair of acidic radical can be
(4) (iii) only
distinguished by using dil H 2SO 4 ?

41. The major product of the following reaction is: (I) C 2 O 42 and NO 3
(II) NO 3 and NO 2

(III) Cl and Br
 2
(IV) HCO 3 and CO3
(1) I and II
(2) II only
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV

(1) 44. The freezing point depression constant for water is


1.86 Cm 1 . If 5.00 g Na 2SO 4 is dissolved in
45.0 g H 2 O . , the freezing point is changed by
3.82 C . Calculate the van't Hoff factor for
Na 2SO 4 .
(2) (1) 2.05
(2) 2.63
(3) 3.11
(4) 0.381

[6]
45. The correct statement about iron includes Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of benzoic
(I) The highest oxidation state of iron is 6 in acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromobenzoic acid.
K 2 FeO4 . The percentage yield of the product is ______. (Round
off to nearest integer).
(II) The iron shows 2 oxidation state with six [Given: Atomic masses:
electrons in the 3d orbitals.
C: 12.0u,H:1.0u,O:16.0u,Br :80.0u ]
(III) The most stable oxidation state of iron is 3
with five unpaired electrons in the 3d orbital.
48. The number of paramagnetic species from the
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II only
following is ______.
(3) II, III only (4) I only
[Ni(CN)4]2–, [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2– [Fe(CN)6]4–,
[Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
Integer Type Questions
46. The following data were obtained during the first 49. The wavelengths of electrons accelerated from rest
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant through a potential difference of 40 kV is
volume:
A  g   2B  g   C  g  x 1012 m . The value of x is _____(Nearest
integer).
S.No. Time/s Total pressure/(atm)
Given: Mass of electron  9.11031 kg
1 0 0.1
Charge on an electron  1.6 1019 C
2 115 0.28
Plancks constant  6.63 1034 Js
The rate constant of the reaction is ____ × 10–2s–1
(Nearest Integer)
50. Millimoles of calcium hydroxide required to produce
100 mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12 is x 101 .
The value of x is ________(Nearest integer).
47. Assume complete dissociation.

Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 54. 20 Passengers are to travel by a double decked bus
51. If A and B are acute positive angles satisfying the which can accommodate 13 in the upper deck and 7 in
equations 3sin2 A + 2sin2 B = 1 and 3sin2A − 2sin2 B = the lower deck. The number of ways that they can be
0, then A + 2B is equal to divided if 5 refuse to sit in the upper deck and 8 refuse
  to sit in the lower deck, is
(1) (2) (1) 25 (2) 21
4 2
3 2 (3) 18 (4) 15
(3) (4)
4 3
55. If a focal chord of an ellipse y2 = b2(1 – x2) cuts the
52. 10 persons among whom are A, B, C are to speak at a 5
ellipse at the points whose eccentric angles are and
function. The number of ways in which it can be done if 12
A wants to speak before B and B wants to speak before
23
C is , then the value of b(where b < 1) is
(1) 10!/24 (2) 9!/6 12
(3) 10!/6 (4) None of these 3 1
(1) (2)
2 3
53. There are exactly two points on the ellipse
x2 y2 1 5
  1 whose distance from the centre of the (3) (4)
2 2 10
a2 b2
a 2  2b 2 56. The number of rational terms in the expansion
ellipse are equal to . Eccentricity of this
2 20
 1 
ellipse is equal to of  3 25   is
3
3 1  25 
(1) (2)
2 3 (1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 19
1 2
(3) (4)
2 3
[7]
x2 y2  
57. If   1 has eccentricity e and  is the angle (4) Straight line passing through  , 
a 2
b 2  2 2
between their asymptotes,
   64. If a five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed
then tan 3   cosec    sec   is equal to
 2  2  2 using the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetitions,
then the total number of ways this can be done is
(1) e3 (2) e3/2
(1) 216 (2) 600
1
(3) e (4) e (3) 240 (4) 3125
e
65. If (1 + x + x 2)25 = a 0 + a 1 x + a 2 x 2 + ....+ a 50  x 50,
58. The constant term in the expansion of
then a0  a2  a4  .....  a50 is
6
 2 1 1 (1) even
 x  2  y   is
 x y (2) odd and of the form 3n
(1) 420 (2) 400 (3) odd and of the form (3n – 1)
(3) 380 (4) 360 (4) odd and of the form (3n + 1)

59. Locus of mid points of chords of hyperbola x2 – y2 = a2  1 


n
66. In the binomial expansion of  x 
4 
which are tangents to the parabola x2 = 4by will be the first
(1) dependent on both a and b  2 x
(2) independent on both a and b three coefficient form an arithmetic progression, then
sum of coefficients of all the terms is
(3) dependent on a but independent of b
5 6
(4) independent on a but dependent of b 3 3
(1)   (2)  
2 2
60. The number of possible outcomes when a coin is tossed 7 8
3 3
6 times is (3)   (4)  
(1) 36 (2) 64 2 2
(3) 12 (4) 32
67. Eight chairs are numbered 1 to 8. Two women and 3
61. Locus of foot of normal drawn from any focus to men wish to occupy one chair each. First the women
variable tangent of hyperbola choose the chairs from amongst the chairs 1 to 4 and
4x2 – 9y2 – 8x – 18y = 41 will be then men select from the remaining chairs. Find the total
(1) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 3 number of possible arrangements.
(2) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 7 (1) 1410 (2) 1420
(3) x2 + y2 = 9 (3) 1430 (4) 1440
(4) x2 + y2 = 5
68. The number of triangles that are formed by choosing the
62. 5
The coefficient of x in the expansion of (1 + x ) (1 + 2 3 vertices from a set of 12 points, seven of which lie on
x4)7 (1 – x)3 is the same line is
(1) –30 (2) –33 (1) 105 (2) 15
(3) –21 (4) –12 (3) 175 (4) 185

63. The locus of the mid points of the chords passing 69. The number of five digit numbers, greater than 40000
through a fixed point (α, β) of the hyperbola and divisible by 5, which can be formed using the digits
0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repetition, is equal to
x2 y2
  1 is (1) 120 (2) 132
a2 b2 (3) 72 (4) 96
 
(1) A circle with centre  , 
 2 2 70. The sum of rational terms in binomial expansion of

 
10
  253 is
(2) An ellipse with centre  , 
 2 2 (1) 32
  (2) 25
(3) A hyperbola with centre  , 
 2 2 (3) 41
(4) 9

[8]
Integer Type Questions 74. For a unique value of  and  , the system of equations
71. The number of ways in which we can choose a given by
committee from four men and six women, so that the x yz6
committee includes atleast two men and exactly twice as
x  2 y  3 z  14
many women as men is
2 x  5 y  z  
3 
72. The probability of a shooter hitting a target is . How has infinitely many solutions, then is equal to
4 4
many minimum number of times must he/she fire so that
the probability of hitting the target at least once is more 75. If all the letters of the word "QUEUE" are arranged in
that 0.99? all possible manner as they are in a dictionary, then the
rank of the word QUEUE is:
73. The number of words, with or without meaning, that can
be formed using all the letters of the word
ASSASSINATION so that the vowels occur together is

 then is
100

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[9]

You might also like