Mock Test 07 Test Papers (PCM)
Mock Test 07 Test Papers (PCM)
0 (2025)
MOCK TEST - 07
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 17/01/2025 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Chemistry: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
Mathematics: Full Syllabus 11th + 12th
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each Section in which first 20 questions
are Objective Type and last 5 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’ where answer
needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the
bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the
specified area may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 6. An alternating voltage of frequency is induced
1. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the in electric circuit consisting of an inductance L and
roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. capacitance C, connected in parallel. Then across
Assuming that the pressure inside the house is the inductance coil the
atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the I. current is maximum when 2 = 1/(LC)
wind on the roof and the direction of the force will II. current is minimum when 2 = 1/(LC)
be (air = 1.2 kg/m3) III. voltage is minimum when 2 = 1/(LC)
(1) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards IV. voltage is maximum when 2 = 1/(LC)
(2) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards (1) I and III (2) I and IV
(4) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards (3) II and III (4) II and IV
2. For maximum power from battery the internal 7. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003)g, radius
resistance of battery r is (0.5 ± 0.005)mm and length (6 ± 0.06)cm. The
maximum percentage error in the measurement of
its density is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
[2]
11. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is 15. If the root mean square velocity of the molecules
free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless of hydrogen at NTP is 1.84 km/s. Calculate the
string is wound round the cylinder with one end root mean square velocity of oxygen molecule at
attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in NTP, molecular weight of hydrogen and oxygen
the string required to produce an angular are 2 and 32 respectively
acceleration of 2 revolutions s–2 is (1) 1.47 km/sec
(1) 25 N (2) 50 N (2) 0.94 km/s
(3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N
(3) 1.84 km/s
12. Statement I : The displacement current in a (4) 0.46 km/sec
parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C can be
dV 16. The following observations were taken for
written as id C , where V is the potential
dt determining surface tension T of water by
difference between the plates. capillary method :
Statement II: The displacement current in free Diameter of capillary, D 1.25 102 m , rise of
d e
space is given by id 0 . water, h 1.45 102 m .
dt
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true Using g 9.80m / s 2 and the simplified relation
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false rhg
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are False T 103 N / m , the possible error in
2
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true surface tension is closest to :
(1) 2.4% (2) 10%
13. A graph of the square of the velocity against the (3) 0.15% (4) 1.5%
square of the acceleration of a given simple
harmonic motion is 17. Two discs rotating about their respective axis of
rotation with angular speeds 2 rads–1 and 5 rads–1
are brought into contact such that their axes of
(1) (2)
rotation coincide. Now, the angular speed of the
system becomes 4 rads–1. If the moment of inertia
of the second disc is 1×10–3 kg m2, then the
moment of inertia of the first disc (in kg m2) is
(3) (4)
(1) 0.25 × 10–3
(2) 1.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.25 × 10–3
14. Two fixed equal positive charges, each of (4) 0.5 × 10–3
magnitude q 5 105 C are located at points A
and B , where AB is 6m . An equal and opposite 18. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to
another state with principal quantum number equal
charge moves towards AB line along the
to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in the
perpendicular bisector of AB
emission spectra will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6
[4]
30. SbF5 reacts with XeF4 and XeF6 to form ionic
compounds XeF3 SbF6 and XeF5 SbF6 .
The geometry of XeF3 ion and XeF5 ion,
respectively, is:
(1) Square pyramidal, T-shaped
Identify the tripeptide.
(2) Bent T-shaped, square pyramidal
(1) Glu-Cys-Gly (2) Gly-Glu-Cys
(3) See-saw, square pyramidal
(3) Cys-Gly-Glu (4) Gys-Glu-Gly
(4) Square pyramidal, see-saw
(2)
(3)
(1) p>q>r
(2) r>q>p (4)
(3) p>r>q
(4) q>r>p
37. Which is true for complex [Ni(en)2] 2+?
(1) Paramagnetic, dsp2, square planar, Coordination
34. A tripeptide (X) on partial hydrolysis gave two
number of Ni = 2
dipeptides Cys-Gly and Glu-Cys, i.e.,
(2) Diamagnetic, dsp2, square planar, Coordination
number of Ni = 4
(3) Diamagnetic, sp3, tetrahedral, Coordination
Number of Ni = 4
(4) Paramagnetic, sp3 , tetrahedral, Coordination
Number of Ni = 4
[5]
38. A light source of wavelength illuminates a metal
and ejects photo-electrons with (K.E.)max = 1 eV
Another light source of wavelength , ejects photo- (3)
3
electrons from same metal with (K.E.)max = 4 eV
Find the value of work function?
(1) 1eV (2) 2eV
(3) 0.5eV (4) None of these
Given : E Fe3 Fe 2 0.77V;
E 0 Ce 4 Ce3 1.61V
If an ammeter is connected between the two platinum
electrodes, predict the direction of flow of current.
Will the current increase or decrease with time? H
42.
Major product
(1) Ce electrode to Fe electrode, decrease
(2) Ce electrode to Fe electrode, increase
In the above reaction, left hand side and right hand
(3) Fe electrode to Ce electrode, decrease side rings are named as 'A' and 'B' respectively. They
(4) Fe electrode to Ce electrode, increase undergo ring expansion. The correct statement for this
process is:
40. Which of the following is/are not correctly matched? (1) Finally both rings will become six membered
(i) GeO 2 Acidic each.
(2) Finally both rings will become five membered
(ii) PbO 2 - Amphoteric
each.
(iii) CO - Neutral
(3) Only 'A' will become 6 membered.
(iv) CO Amphoteric
(4) Ring expansion can go upto seven membered
(1) (i) and (iv)
rings
(2) (iv) only
(3) (ii) only
43. Which of the following pair of acidic radical can be
(4) (iii) only
distinguished by using dil H 2SO 4 ?
41. The major product of the following reaction is: (I) C 2 O 42 and NO 3
(II) NO 3 and NO 2
(III) Cl and Br
2
(IV) HCO 3 and CO3
(1) I and II
(2) II only
(3) II and IV
(4) III and IV
[6]
45. The correct statement about iron includes Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of benzoic
(I) The highest oxidation state of iron is 6 in acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromobenzoic acid.
K 2 FeO4 . The percentage yield of the product is ______. (Round
off to nearest integer).
(II) The iron shows 2 oxidation state with six [Given: Atomic masses:
electrons in the 3d orbitals.
C: 12.0u,H:1.0u,O:16.0u,Br :80.0u ]
(III) The most stable oxidation state of iron is 3
with five unpaired electrons in the 3d orbital.
48. The number of paramagnetic species from the
(1) I, II, III (2) I, II only
following is ______.
(3) II, III only (4) I only
[Ni(CN)4]2–, [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2– [Fe(CN)6]4–,
[Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
Integer Type Questions
46. The following data were obtained during the first 49. The wavelengths of electrons accelerated from rest
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant through a potential difference of 40 kV is
volume:
A g 2B g C g x 1012 m . The value of x is _____(Nearest
integer).
S.No. Time/s Total pressure/(atm)
Given: Mass of electron 9.11031 kg
1 0 0.1
Charge on an electron 1.6 1019 C
2 115 0.28
Plancks constant 6.63 1034 Js
The rate constant of the reaction is ____ × 10–2s–1
(Nearest Integer)
50. Millimoles of calcium hydroxide required to produce
100 mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12 is x 101 .
The value of x is ________(Nearest integer).
47. Assume complete dissociation.
Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 54. 20 Passengers are to travel by a double decked bus
51. If A and B are acute positive angles satisfying the which can accommodate 13 in the upper deck and 7 in
equations 3sin2 A + 2sin2 B = 1 and 3sin2A − 2sin2 B = the lower deck. The number of ways that they can be
0, then A + 2B is equal to divided if 5 refuse to sit in the upper deck and 8 refuse
to sit in the lower deck, is
(1) (2) (1) 25 (2) 21
4 2
3 2 (3) 18 (4) 15
(3) (4)
4 3
55. If a focal chord of an ellipse y2 = b2(1 – x2) cuts the
52. 10 persons among whom are A, B, C are to speak at a 5
ellipse at the points whose eccentric angles are and
function. The number of ways in which it can be done if 12
A wants to speak before B and B wants to speak before
23
C is , then the value of b(where b < 1) is
(1) 10!/24 (2) 9!/6 12
(3) 10!/6 (4) None of these 3 1
(1) (2)
2 3
53. There are exactly two points on the ellipse
x2 y2 1 5
1 whose distance from the centre of the (3) (4)
2 2 10
a2 b2
a 2 2b 2 56. The number of rational terms in the expansion
ellipse are equal to . Eccentricity of this
2 20
1
ellipse is equal to of 3 25 is
3
3 1 25
(1) (2)
2 3 (1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 19
1 2
(3) (4)
2 3
[7]
x2 y2
57. If 1 has eccentricity e and is the angle (4) Straight line passing through ,
a 2
b 2 2 2
between their asymptotes,
64. If a five-digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed
then tan 3 cosec sec is equal to
2 2 2 using the numbers 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetitions,
then the total number of ways this can be done is
(1) e3 (2) e3/2
(1) 216 (2) 600
1
(3) e (4) e (3) 240 (4) 3125
e
65. If (1 + x + x 2)25 = a 0 + a 1 x + a 2 x 2 + ....+ a 50 x 50,
58. The constant term in the expansion of
then a0 a2 a4 ..... a50 is
6
2 1 1 (1) even
x 2 y is
x y (2) odd and of the form 3n
(1) 420 (2) 400 (3) odd and of the form (3n – 1)
(3) 380 (4) 360 (4) odd and of the form (3n + 1)
63. The locus of the mid points of the chords passing 69. The number of five digit numbers, greater than 40000
through a fixed point (α, β) of the hyperbola and divisible by 5, which can be formed using the digits
0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without repetition, is equal to
x2 y2
1 is (1) 120 (2) 132
a2 b2 (3) 72 (4) 96
(1) A circle with centre ,
2 2 70. The sum of rational terms in binomial expansion of
10
253 is
(2) An ellipse with centre ,
2 2 (1) 32
(2) 25
(3) A hyperbola with centre ,
2 2 (3) 41
(4) 9
[8]
Integer Type Questions 74. For a unique value of and , the system of equations
71. The number of ways in which we can choose a given by
committee from four men and six women, so that the x yz6
committee includes atleast two men and exactly twice as
x 2 y 3 z 14
many women as men is
2 x 5 y z
3
72. The probability of a shooter hitting a target is . How has infinitely many solutions, then is equal to
4 4
many minimum number of times must he/she fire so that
the probability of hitting the target at least once is more 75. If all the letters of the word "QUEUE" are arranged in
that 0.99? all possible manner as they are in a dictionary, then the
rank of the word QUEUE is:
73. The number of words, with or without meaning, that can
be formed using all the letters of the word
ASSASSINATION so that the vowels occur together is
then is
100
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[9]