MATHEMATICS

PROBLEM SOLVING ASSESSMENT

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

for

CLASS – VI
2016 – 17

CHAPTER WISE MULTIPLE CHOICE

QUESTIONS

Prepared by

M. S. KUMARSWAMY, TGT(MATHS)
M. Sc. Gold Medallist (Elect.), B. Ed.

Kendriya Vidyalaya GaCHIBOWLI

Prepared by: M. S. KumarSwamy, TGT(Maths) Page - A -

 PREFACE
It gives me great pleasure in presenting the Quantitative Aptitude Study material
for Problem Based Assessment (PSA) for Class VI Mathematics for II-term.
I avail this opportunity to convey my sincere thanks to respected sir, Shri U. N.
Khaware, Additional Commissioner(Acad), KVS Headquarter, New Delhi, respected sir,
Shri S. Vijay Kumar, Joint Commissioner(Admn), KVS Headquarter, New Delhi,
respected sir Shri P. V. Sairanga Rao, Deputy Commissioner(Acad), KVS Headquarter,
New Delhi, respected sir Shri. D. Manivannan, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO
Hyderabad, respected sir Shri Isampal, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Bhopal,
respected sir Shri Jagdish Mohan Rawat, Director, KVS ZIET Chandigarh, respected sir
Shri P. Deva Kumar, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Bangalore, respected sir Shri
Nagendra Goyal, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Ranchi, respected sir Shri Y. Arun
Kumar, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Agra,, respected sir Shri Sirimala Sambanna,
Assistant Commissioner, KVS RO Jammu, respected sir Shri. K. L. Nagaraju, Retd-AC,
KVS RO Bangalore and respected sir Shri M.K. Kulshreshtha, Retd-AC, KVS RO
Chandigarh for their blessings, motivation and encouragement in bringing out this project
in such an excellent form.
I also extend my special thanks to respected sir Shri. P. S. Raju, Principal, KV
Gachibowli, respected madam Smt. Nirmala Kumari M., Principal, KV Mysore &
respected sir Shri. M. Vishwanatham, Principal, KV Raichur for their kind suggestions
and motivation while preparing this Question Bank.
I would like to place on record my thanks to respected sir Shri. P. K. Chandran,
Principal, presently working in KV Bambolim. I have started my career in KVS under his
guidance, suggestions and motivation.

Inspite of my best efforts to make this notes error free, some errors might have
gone unnoticed. I shall be grateful to the students and teacher if the same are brought to my
notice. You may send your valuable suggestions, feedback or queries through email to
kumarsir34@[Link] that would be verified by me and the corrections would be
incorporated in the next year Question Bank.

M. S. KUMARSWAMY

Prepared by: M. S. KumarSwamy, TGT(Maths) Page - B -

 DEDICATED
TO
MY FATHER

LATE SHRI. M. S. MALLAYYA

Prepared by: M. S. KumarSwamy, TGT(Maths) Page - C -

 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 1
KNOWING OUR NUMBERS

1. Identify the greatest and the smallest in 2853, 7691 , 9999 , 12002 , 124
(a) 12002,124 (b) 9999,124 (c) 7691,124 (d) 2853,124

2. Which pair has same digits at hundreds place

(a) 4232,4331 (b) 2334,2340 (c) 6524,7823 (d) 5432,6922

3. Using digits 4,5,6&0 without repetition make the greatest four digit number
(a) 4560 (b) 5640 (c) 6540 (d) 6504

4. Using digits 0,1,2,3 without repetition make the smallest four digit number
(a) 0123 (b) 1023 (c) 1230 (d) 1032

5. Make the greatest four digit number by using any one digit twice by 3,8,7

(a) 3387 (b) 8378 (c) 8873 (d) 8773

6. Make the smallest four digit number by using any one digit twice by 0,4,9
(a) 0049 (b) 4009 (c) 0449 (d) 4049

7. Make the greatest and the smallest four digit number using any four-digits number with
digit 5 always at thousand place
(a) 5986 , 5012 (b) 5987,5012 (c) 5999, 5000 (d) 5789,5120

8 Correct ascending order of 847,9754,8320, 571

(a) 571,8320,847,9754 (b) 571,847,8320,9754
(c) 9754,847,8320,571 (d) 9754,8320,847,571

9. Correct descending order of 5000,7500,85400,7861is

(a) 5000,7500,85400,7861 (b)85400,7500,7861,5000
(c) 85400,7861,7500,5000 (d) 7861,7500,7861,5000

10. (i)Ascending order means arrangement from the smallest to the greatest
(ii) Ascending order means arrangement from the greatest to the smallest
(iii) Descending order means arrangement from the greatest to the smallest
(iv) Descending order means arrangement from the smallest to the greatest
(a) All statements are true (b) All statements are false
(c) Only statements (i) & (iii) are true (d) Only statements (ii) & (iv) are true

11. When one is added to the greatest four digit number what is the result?
(a) Greatest 5 digit number (b) Smallest 5 digit number
(c) Greatest 4 digit number (d) Smallest 4 digit number

12. Which is greatest and smallest 4 digit number.

(a) 10000,9999 (b) 1000,99999 (c) 9999,1000 (d) 9999,10000

13. When 1 is subtracted from smallest 5 digit number what is the result?
(a) Smallest 4 digit number (b) Greatest 4 digit number
(c) Greatest 5 digit number (d) Smallest 5 digit number

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14. Expand the number 500428
(a)Five crore four hundred thirty eight (b)fifty lakh four hundred twenty eight
(c) five lakh four hundred twenty eight (d) five lakh four hundred eight.

15. If we add 1 more to the greatest 6 digit number we get

(a) ten lakh (b) one lakh (c) ten lakh one (d) one lakh one

16. The smallest 8 digit number is called .

(a) one lakh (b) one crore (c) ten lakh (d) ten crore

17. One crore is similar to .

(a) hundred thousand (b)100 lakhs (c)10 hundreds (d) 1000
hundreds

18. Write the numeral for the number Nine crore five lakh fourty one.
(a) 9,50,00,041 (b) 9,05,00,041 (c) 9,05,041 (d) 9,500,041

19. 1 million is equal to how many lakhs

(a) 1 (b)10 (c) 100 (d) 1000

20. Insert, commas suitably according to Indian system of numeration in 98432701.

(a) 9,84,32,701 (b) 98,432,701 (c) 98,43,2701 (d) 98432701.

21. Insert, commas suitably according to International system of numeration in 99985102

(a) 999,85,102 (b) 99,985,102 (c) 9,99,85,102 (d) 99985102

22. How many centimeters make a meter.

(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 1000

23. How many millimeter make one kilometer.

(a) 1000 (b) 10,000 (c) 100,000 (d) 10,00,000

24. A box contains 500000 medicine tablets each winging 10 mg. what is the total weight of
all the tablets in the box in kilograms
(a) 5,00,000 (b) 50,000 (c) 5kg (d) 500kg

25. What is the difference between the greatest and the least number that can be written using
the digits 6, 2,7,4,3, each only once
(a) 50000 (b) 52965 (c) 52865 (d) 51965

26. Population of sundernagar was 235471 in the year 1991. In the year 2001 it was found
to be increased by 72598. What was the population of the city 2001
(a) 308429 (b) 309429 (c) 308069 (d) 30328

27. The town news paper is published everyday . One copy has 12 pages . Every day 11980
copies are printed. How many total pages are printed everyday
(a) 153760 (b) 143760 (c) 163760 (d) 143660

28. In a basket there are two thousand five hundred kg apples , 340 kg oranges, and 20 kg
grapes, what is the total weight of fruits?
(a) 2840 (b) 2850 (c)2870 (d)2860

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29. What must be subtracted from 11010101 to get 2635967.
(a) 934134 (b) 7383414 (c) 8374134 (d) 937414

30. The difference between the face value and place value of 4 in 2416 is .
(a) 404 (b) 396 (c) 3000 (d)2996

31. The symbol M in roman numeral stands for:

(a) 100 (b) 500 (c) 1000 (d) 50

32. Which of the following is meaning less.

(a)XIII (b) XIX (c) XVV (d) XL

33. For 500 which symbol is used in Roman system

(a) L (b) C (c) M (d) D

34. In the international system of numeration we write one billion for

(a) 1 crore (b) 10 crore (c)100 crore (d) 1000 crore

35. Estimation of the quotient 86÷ 9 to nearest 10

(a) 90 (b)10 (c)80 (d) none of these

36. When 1787 is rounded off to nearest tens , we get

(a) 1790 (b) 1780 (c) 1700 (d)1800

37. The sum of the number 765432 and the number obtained by reversing its digit is
(a) 930865 (b) 980356 (c) 999999 (d) 9999998

[Link] corresponding numeral for

5x 100000 + 8x10000 + 1x1000 + 6x100 + 2x10 + 3x1 is
(a) 581623 (b) 5081623 (c) 5810623 (d) 5816023

39. The expanded form for 308927 is

(a) 3000000 + 8000 + 900 + 20 + 7 (b) 300000 + 800 + 90 + 2 + 7
(c) 30000 + 80000 + 9000 + 20 + 7 (d) 300000 + 8000 + 900 + 20 + 7

40. Estimate 734+998 by rounding off the nearest tens

(a) 1730 (b) 1740 (c) 1750 (d) 1760

41. Estimate 636 +988 by rounding off the nearest tens

(a) 1630 (b) 1640 (c) 1650 (d) 1660

42. Estimate 574+676 by rounding off the nearest tens

(a) 1230 (b) 1240 (c) 1250 (d) 1260

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 CLASS - VI: CHAPTER - 2
WHOLE NUMBERS

[Link] is the predecessor of 17

(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 0 (d) 17

[Link] the successor of 1997

(a) 1996 (b) 1997 (c) 1998 (d) none of these

[Link] is the smallest whole number

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) -1

[Link] 7÷0
(a) 7 (b) 0 (c) not defined (d) 1

5. Find value of 297x17 + 297x3

(a) 5940 (b) 5980 (c) 5942 (d) 5970

6. Which of the following will not represent 0

(a) 1+0 (b) 0x0 (c) 0/2 (d) (10-10)/2

7. If the product of two whole numbers is one if

(a) one number is 1 (b) two numbers are 1 (c) not defined (d) none of these

[Link] natural number is

(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2

9. Simplify 126x55+126x45
(a)12000 (b) 12400 (c) 12600 (d) 12500

10. (i)If the product of two whole numbers is zero then one number will be zero
(ii) If the product of two whole numbers is zero then both number will be zero
(a) Only I can be true (b) only ii can be true (c) Both can be true (d)both are false

11. Study the pattern 1x8+1=9

12x8+2=98
Next step is-
(a)123x8+3=987 (b)1234x8+4=9876 (c) 120x8+3=963 (d) 13x8+3=987

12. Fill in the blanks to make the statement true

6245+(631+751)=631+……….)+751
(a) 6245 (b) 751 (c) 200 (d) 231

13. 5 divided by 0 is
(a) 5 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) not defined

14. 0 divided by 6 is
(a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 60

[Link] the correct number to complete:

13x100x……………. = 1300000
(a)10 (b) 1000 (c) 10000 (d)100
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16. State the property used statement
(29x36)x18=29x(36x18)
(a)Associative property in multiplication (b) Commutative property in multiplication
(c)Distributive property in multiplication (d) Closure property in multiplication

[Link] school canteen charges Rs 20 for lunch, Rs 4 for milk for each day How much
money do
you spend in 5 days on these things
(a) 100 (b)20 (c) 120 (d) 5

18. Largest number formed by digits 2,4,0,3,6,9 is

(a) 432900 (b) 392460 (c) 964320 (d) 903642

19. If 36 flats cost Rs 68251500 What is the cost of each flat

(a) Rs 198670 (b)Rs 135649 (c) Rs 203456 (d)Rs 1895875

20. State the property in statement:256x24=24x256

(a)Associative property in multiplication
(b) commutative property in multiplication
(c)Distributive property in multiplication
(d)Closure property in multiplication

21. Find product 12x35

(a) 12600 (b) 34840 (c) 420 (d) 400

22. Find the value of 1507 – (625/25)

(a) 1482 (b) 1580 (c) 1370 (d) 1234

23. Find the sum 837+ 208 + 603

(a) 1548 (b) 1148 (c) 1648 (d) 1148

[Link] the whole number if n +4 =9

(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

25. Find a whole number n such that n=2n

(a) 20 (b) 100 (c) 0 (d) 1

26. The difference of largest number of three digit and smallest natural number is
(a) 998 (b) 997 (c) 996 (d) 995

27. The largest whole number is:

(a) 99 (b) 9979 (c) 9999 (d)can not be found

28. The sum of a natural number with a whole number is always:

(a) 0 (b) 100 (c) even number (d) a natural number

[Link] sum of two whole numbers is always:

(a) zero (b) 100 (c) a whole number (d) odd number

30. How many natural numbers are there

(a) 100 (b) 1000 (c) infinitly many (d) 10

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31. The product multiplication of a number with zero is always
(a) zero (b)one (c) the number itself (d)none of these

32. The line on which we represent the natural number is known as

(a)counting line (b) number line (c) digit line (d) zero line

33. Smallest natural number is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -1

34. (I) All natural numbers are also whole numbers

(II) One is the smallest natural number
(a) only I is true (b) only II is true (c) both are true (d) both are false

35. The natural numbers along with zero form the collection of
(a) Whole numbers (b) Integers (c) Rational numbers (d) Real numbers

36. Predecessor of which two digit number has a single digit

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 0 (d) 11

37. Which natural number has no predecessor

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 100

38. Whole numbers are closed under which operation

(a) Addition (b) Subtraction (c) Division (d) None of these

39. Which number is identity for Addition of whole number

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 100

40. Which number is identity for multiplication of whole numbers:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c)10 (d) 100

41. Smallest whole number is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -1

42. Predecessor of which three digit number has a two digit

(a) 99 (b) 100 (c) 101 (d) 111

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 CLASS - VI: CHAPTER - 3
PLAYING WITH NUMBERS

1. Which of the following is smallest prime number:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

2. The only prime number which is also even

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
3. The sum of two odd and one even numbers is
(a) Even (b) Odd (c) Prime (d) Composite
4. The smallest composite number is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
5. Tell the maximum consecutive numbers less then 100 so that there is no prime
number between them
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

6. If a number is divisible by 2 and 3 both then is divisible by

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
7. Which of the following number is divisible by 3
(a) 121 (b) 123 (c) 124 (d) 122
8. A number is divisible by 4 if its
(a) Last digit is 4 (b) last digit is 0

(c) last two digits are divisible by 4 (d) last digit is 8

9. Two numbers having only 1 as common factor are called
(a) Prime numbers (b) Co- prime numbers
(c) Composite numbers (d) Odd numbers
10. Which of the following pair is co-prime
(a) 6 and 8 (b) 18 and 35 (c) 7 and 35 (d) 30 and 415

11. Common factors of 15 and 25 are

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 5 (d) 75
12. If a number is divisible two co-prime numbers than it is divisible by their
(a) Sum also (b) Difference also (c) Product also (d) Quotient also

13. The exact divisor of number 9 is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

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14. Which number is factor of every number
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) 100
15. Numbers of factors of given number are:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) finite (d) infinite

16. The numbers of multiples of given number are

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) finite (d) infinite
17. Every number is multiple of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 10 (d) itself
18. A number for which sum of all its factors is equal to twice number is called
(a) Perfect number (b) even number (c) Odd number (d) Prime number

19. How many factors does 36 has

(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 8
20. Which of following number is multiple of 8
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d) 16
21. The numbers having two factors are called
(a) Even (b) Odd (c) Prime (d) Composite

22. Which number is neither prime nor composite

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
23. The multiple of 2 are also called
(a) Even numbers (b) Odd numbers
(c) Prime numbers (d) Composite numbers

24. The product of L.C.M and H.C.F. of two numbers is equal to

(a) Sum of numbers (b) Difference of numbers
(c) Product of numbers (d) Quotients of numbers
25. The missing number is:
60
6 10
3 ? 2 5

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

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26. The numbers having more than two factors are called
(a) Prime numbers (b) Composite numbers
(c) Even numbers (d) Odd numbers
27. What are the prime factors of greatest 4 –digit number

(a) 3x3x11x101 (b) 9x11x101 (c) 3x33x101 (d) 3 x3 x 11 x11

28. Which of the following expression has prime factors
(a) 24=2x3x4 (b) 56=7x2x2x2 (c) 70= 2x5x7 (d)54=2x3x9
29. Which of the following numbers has 4 different prime factors
(a) 24 (b) 120 (c) 210 (d)100
30. The product of three consecutive numbers is always divisible by

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

31. The sum of two consecutive odd number is always divisible by
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d)8
32. What is the H.C.F. of 18 and 48
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d)8
33. What is the H.C.F. two consecutive even numbers

(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 4 (d) 8

34. What is the H.C.F. two consecutive odd numbers
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8

35. Find the L.C.M. of 12 and 18

(a) 6 (b) 36 (c) 12 (d) 18
36. L.C.M. of two co-prime numbers is always
(a) product of numbers (b) sum of numbers

(c) difference of numbers (d)none

37. Find the least number which when divided by 6,15 and 18 leave remainder 5 in each
case
(a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 95 (d)185
38. Divisibility by 2,5,10 can be checked by

(a) sum of digits (b) last digit (c) last two digits (d) last three digits
39. Which is greatest 3-digit number exactly divisible by 8,10,12
(a) 120 (b) 360 (c) 960 (d) 980

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40. 4= 2x2 , 15= 3x5, so H.C.F. of 4 and 15 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
41. Find the least number which when divided by 12, 16, 24 and 36 leaves a remainder 7
in each case.
(a) 150 (b) 151 (c)144 (d) none of these
42. Renu purchases two bags of fertiliser of weights 75 kg and 69 kg. Find the maximum
value of weight which can measure the weight of the fertiliser exact number of times.
(a) 150 (b) 138 (c)144 (d) none of these

43. Which of the following is divisible by 3?

(a)15287 (b) 15267 (c) 15286 (d) 152638

44. Which of the following is divisible by 9?

(a)15287 (b) 15267 (c) 152865 (d) 152638

45. If a number is divisible by 9, it must be divisible by __.

(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 12
46. Numbers having more than two factors are called ____________.
(a) Prime numbers (b) Co- prime numbers

(c) Composite numbers (d) Odd numbers

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 CLASS - VI: CHAPTER - 4
BASIC GEOMETRICAL IDEAS

1. How many points does the given figure has?

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6

2. In the given figure, the ray will be named as ___. O A

(a) l (b) OA (c) OA (d) AO

3. How many lines pass through one given point?

(a) One (b) two (c) countless (d) none

4. How many lines pass through two given points?

(a) One (b) two (c) many (d) none

5. Which of the following is an open curve?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. The line segment forming a polygon are called _________________.

(a) Vertex (b) sides (c) angle (d) curve

7. Two distinct lines meeting at a points are called _____________.

(a) Collinear lines (b) intersecting lines (c) parallel lines (d) none of these

8. An angle is made up of two ________ starting from common end point

(a) vertex (b) lines (c) rays (d) line segments

9. A flat surface which extends indefinitely in all directions is called ___________ .

(a) line (b) line segment (c) plane (d) point

10. Number of lines which can be drawn from one point:

(a) one (b) infinite (c) two (d) zero

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11. Which of the following is pair of opposite sides in the given figure.
B
(a) AB,BC (b) BC,AD (c) CD,AD (d) AB,AD C

A D
12. Which of the following is the pair of adjacent angles in the given figure.

(a )  A,  C (b)  B,  D (c)  A,  B (d) none of these.

13. A __________ of a circle is a line segment joining any two points on the circle

(a)radius (b) diameter (c) circumference (d) chord

14. If two lines intersects each other then the common point between them is known as
point of __________ .

(a) Contact (b) vertex (c) intersection (d) concurrence

15. Two lines in a plane either intersect exactly at one point or are
(a) perpendicular (b) parallel (c) equal (d) equidistant

16. Three or more points lying on the same line are known as ___________ points.
(a) non – collinear (b) collinear (c) intersecting (d) none of these.

17. Three or more points which lie on a same line are called:
(a) non – collinear points (b) straight lines
(c) collinear points (d) point of concurrence

18. Two lines meeting at a point are called ___________ .

(a) parallel lines (b) intersecting lines (c) concurrent lines (d) intercept

19. A line has ___________ length.

(a) definite (b) indefinite (c) no (d) none of these.

20. The edge of a ruler draws _____________ .

(a) ray (b) line (c) line segment (d) curve

21. A portion of a line which has two end points:

(a) line segment (b) plane (c) ray (d) point
A
22. The number of line segment in the adjoining figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

23. The number of sides in a pentagon are B C

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4

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24. The number of sides in a quadrilateral are
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4
25. The number of sides in a triangle are
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 4
26. Three or more lines which pass through same point are called
(a) intersecting lines (b) parallel lines (c) perpendicular lines (d) concurrent lines.

27. Geometrical figure which has no dimension is

(a) line (b) plane (c) line segment (d) point.
28. The lines which do not intersect and have equal distance between them are called:
(a) parallel lines (b) perpendicular lines (c) intersecting lines (d) straight lines

29. Number of points a line can have are :

(a) infinite (b) one (c) two (d) zero.

30. The point at which two lines cross each other is called:
(a) point of intersection (b) point of concurrence
(c) parallel lines (d) concurrent lines.
31. A line segment AB is denoted as:
(a) AB (b) AB (c) AB (d) both a and c
32. The length of line segment AB is denoted as:
(a) AB (b) AB (c) AB (d) none of these.
33. A line segment has:
(a) definite length but no end points (b) infinite length but no end point
(c) definite length and have end points (d) none of these.
34. If the length of a line segment AB = 3 cm then 2AB will be
(a) 8 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 9 cm

35. Number of line segments which can be drawn joining two points:
(a) two (b) one (c) infinite (d) none

36. A portion of a line is known as:

(a) line segment (b) line (c) portion of a line (d) none of these
37. Two line segments having the same length are said to be:
(a) same (b) unequal (c) parallel (d) equal
38. The number of diagonal in a triangle are:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
39. If two lines are perpendicular to each other then angle between them at the point of
contact is
(a) 80o (b) 90o (c) 85o (d) 100o
40. A line segment has definite
(a) breadth (b) length (c) thickness (d) area

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 5
UNDERSTANDING ELEMENTARY SHAPES
1. An angle whose measure is equal to one-fourth of a revolution is
(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

2. An angle whose measure is equal to half of a revolution is

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

3. An angle whose measure is equal to a full revolution is

(a) complete angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

4. An angle whose measure is equal to 900.

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

5. An angle whose measure is less than 900.

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

6. An angle whose measure is more than 900.

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

7. An angle whose measure is less than that of a right angle is______.

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

8. An angle whose measure is greater than that of a right angle is ______.

(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

9. An angle whose measure is the sum of the measures of two right angles is _____.
(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

10. When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a right angle, then each one of
them is ______.
(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

11. When the sum of the measures of two angles is that of a straight angle and if one of
them is acute then the other should be _______.
(a) acute angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

12. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 3 to 9
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4
13. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 12 to 3
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4
14. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 3 to 6
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

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15. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 4 to 7
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

16. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 7 to 10
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

17. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 12 to 9
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

18. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 1 to 10
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

19. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 6 to 3
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4

20. What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through,
when it goes from 5 to 11
1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4
1
21. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 12 and makes of a revolution,
2
clockwise?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
22. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 12 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a)3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
3
23. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 12 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
24. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 2 and makes of a revolution,
2
clockwise?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) none of these

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 3
25. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 2 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) none of these
1
26. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 2 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) none of these
1
27. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 3 and makes of a revolution,
2
clockwise?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
28. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 3 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
3
29. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 3 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
3
30. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 6 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
31. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 6 and makes of a revolution,
4
clockwise?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
32. Where will the hand of a clock stop if it starts at 6 and makes of a revolution,
2
clockwise?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) none of these
1
33. Which direction will you face if you start facing east and make of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
3
34. Which direction will you face if you start facing east and make of a revolution
4
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
35. Which direction will you face if you start facing east and make 1 of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south

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 1
36. Which direction will you face if you start facing west and make of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
3
37. Which direction will you face if you start facing west and make of a revolution
4
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
38. Which direction will you face if you start facing west and make 1 of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
39. Which direction will you face if you start facing north and make of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
3
40. Which direction will you face if you start facing north and make of a revolution
4
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
41. Which direction will you face if you start facing north and make 1 of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
42. Which direction will you face if you start facing south and make of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
3
43. Which direction will you face if you start facing south and make of a revolution
4
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south
1
44. Which direction will you face if you start facing south and make 1 of a revolution
2
clockwise?
(a) east (b) west (c) north (d) south

45. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 2 to 8.
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

46. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 5 to 11
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

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47. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 10 to 1
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

48. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 12 to 9
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

49. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 1 to 4
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

50. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 4 to 10
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

51. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 9 to 3
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

52. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 6 to 6
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

53. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 7 to 4
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

54. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 12 to 6
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

55. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 1 to 8
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

56. Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it
goes from 1 to 11
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

57. How many right angles do you make if you start facing south and turn clockwise to
west?
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

58. How many right angles do you make if you start facing north and turn anti-clockwise
to east?
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

59. How many right angles do you make if you start facing west and turn to west?
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

60. How many right angles do you make if you start facing south and turn to north?
(a) 1 right angle (b) 2 right angles (c) 3 right angles (d) 4 right angles

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61. An angle whose measure is more than 1800 but less than 3600.
(a) reflex angle (b) obtuse angle (c) right angle (d) straight angle

62. If each angle is less than 90°, then the triangle is called _________________.
(a) an acute angled triangle (b) a right angled triangle
(c) an obtuse angled triangle (d) none of these.

63. If any one angle is a right angle then the triangle is called
_________________.
(a) an acute angled triangle (b) a right angled triangle
(c) an obtuse angled triangle (d) none of these.

64. If any one angle is greater than 90°, then the triangle is called
_________________.
(a) an acute angled triangle (b) a right angled triangle
(c) an obtuse angled triangle (d) none of these.

65. Name the type of triangle: Triangle with lengths of sides 7 cm, 8 cm and 9 cm.
(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) equilateral triangle

66. Name the type of triangle: ABC with AB = 8.7 cm, AC = 7 cm and BC = 6 cm.
(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) equilateral triangle

67. Name the type of triangle: PQR such that PQ = QR = PR = 5 cm.

(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) equilateral triangle

68. Name the type of triangle: DEF with mD = 90°

(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) equilateral triangle

69. Name the type of triangle: XYZ with mY = 90° and XY = YZ.
(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) both (b) and (c)

70. Name the type of triangle: LMN with mL = 30°, mM 70° and mN 80°.
(a) an acute angled triangle (b) a right angled triangle
(c) an obtuse angled triangle (d) none of these.

71. Name the type of triangle: PQR such that PQ = QR = 5 cm and PR = 7 cm.
(a) scalene triangle (b) isosceles triangle (c) right triangle (d) equilateral triangle

72. Name the polygon with 3 sides.

(a) Triangle (b) Quadrilateral (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon

73. Name the polygon with 4 sides.

(a) Triangle (b) Quadrilateral (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon

74. Name the polygon with 5 sides.

(a) Triangle (b) Quadrilateral (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon

75. Name the polygon with 6 sides.

(a) Triangle (b) Quadrilateral (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon

76. Name the polygon with 8 sides.

(a) Octagon (b) Quadrilateral (c) Pentagon (d) Hexagon

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77. Name the quadrilateral with property “One pair of parallel sides”.
(a) Trapezium (b) Parallelogram (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

78. Name the quadrilateral with property “Two pairs of parallel sides”.
(a) Trapezium (b) Parallelogram (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

79. Name the quadrilateral with property “Parallelogram with 4 right angles”.
(a) Trapezium (b) Kite (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

80. Name the quadrilateral with property “Parallelogram with 4 sides of equal length”.
(a) Trapezium (b) Square (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

81. Name the quadrilateral with property “A rhombus with 4 right angles”.
(a) Trapezium (b) Square (c) Rectangle (d) Rhombus

82. A cuboid has ________ rectangular faces.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

83. A cuboid has ________ edges.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

84. A cuboid has ________ vertices.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

85. The number of faces of a cube is _______.

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3

86. The number of faces of a cone is _______.

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3

87. The number of vertices of a cube is _______.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12

88. The number of vertices of a cone is _______.

(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 3

89. The number of faces of a triangular prism is _______.

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) none of these

90. The number of faces of a square pyramid is _______.

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) none of these

91. The number of faces of a triangular pyramid or tetrahedron is _______.

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) none of these

92. The number of edges of a triangular prism is _______.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12

93. The number of edges of a square pyramid is _______.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12

94. The number of edges of a triangular pyramid is _______.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 12

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95. The number of faces of a triangular prism is _______.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 5

96. The number of faces of a triangular pyramid is _______.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 5

97. The number of faces of a square pyramid is _______.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 5

98. The corners of a solid shape are called its ________.

(a) vertices (b) edges (c) faces (d) net

99. Name of the solid given below left figure.

(a) Cylinder (b) Cone c) Sphere d) Cuboid

100. Name of the solid given above sided right figure.

(a) triangular pyramid b) Cone c) triangular prism d) Cuboid

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 CLASS - VI: CHAPTER - 6
INTEGERS

1. 2 subtracted from 7 gives

(a) – 9 (b) 5 (c) - 5 (d) 9

2. 5 added to – 5 gives
(a) 10 (b) - 10 (c) 0 (d) - 25

3. 3 taken away from 0 gives

(a) 3 (b) - 3 (c) 0 (d) not possible

4. Smallest integer is
(a) 0 (b) - 1 (c) we cannot write (d) – 10000

5. Which of the following statement is true:

(a)2 subtracted from – 3 gives 1 (b) – 1 subtracted from – 5 gives 6
(c)3 subtracted from – 8 gives – 11 (d)1 subtracted from – 7 gives – 6
6. Absolute value of - 11 is
(a) 10 (b) – 1 (c) 11 (d) – 11

7. The number 3 less than – 2 is

(a) – 1 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) – 5

8. Which of the following numbers is to the right of -3 on number line ?

(a) -4 (b) -2 (c) -5 (d ) -6

9. Which of the following number is not to the left of -10 on the number line ?
(a) -9 (b) - 11 (c) -12 (d) -13

10. The number of integers between -2 and 2 is-

(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

11. The opposite of -7 is

(a) – 6 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7

12. Sum of two negative integers is always

(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) 0 (d) 1

13. Sum of – 30 and – 12 is

(a) 42 (b) - 18 (c) - 42 (d) 18

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14. In addition and subtraction of the integers the sign of answer depends upon
(a) Smaller Number (b) Their Difference (c) Their Sum (d) Greater numerical value

15. Sum of -14 and 9 is

(a) 23 (b) – 23 (c) – 5 (d) 5
16. Which of the following number is greater than – 1 ?
(a) – 2 (b) – 10 (c) 0 (d) – 3

17. The preceding number of - 1 on number line is:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) - 2

18. Which number is 5 more than – 3?

(a) – 2 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d) - 8

19. 7 steps to the left of 4 on number line gives:

(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) - 11 (d) - 3

20. 2 steps to the right of – 1 on number line gives:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) – 3 (d) 3

21. Which number is being represented by the point A on following number line:
A
0
(a) – 9 (b) 5 (c) -5 (d) - 6

22. What number is being represented by points A and B respectively on the number line:
B A
0
(a) 3 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) - 3 and – 2 (d) 3 and – 2

23. The integer succeeding - 9 is:

(b) – 10 (b) 10 (c) - 8 (d) 8

24. What will be the opposite of 3 Km south?

(a) 3 km east (b) 3 km north (c) 3 km north east (d) 3 km west

25. Which of the following set of numbers is in descending orders?

(a) 2, - 2 , 1 , - 1 (b) 0, 1, 2, 3 (c) 1, 0 , - 1 , -2 (d) – 3 ,- 2 , -1 , 0

26. 5 added to the – 1 gives

(a) 4 (b) - 4 (c) 6 (d) - 6
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27. Which of the following statements is false:
(a) 0 lies to the left of – 1 (b) 2 lies to the right of 1
(c)1 lies to the right of 0 (d) – 2 lies to the left of – 1

28. 7 added to – 1 gives

(a) 6 (b) - 6 (c) - 8 (d) 8

29. 3 added to – 3 gives

(a) 0 (b) 6 (c) - 6 (d) 9

30. 1 subtracted from – 1 gives

(a) 0 (b) - 1 (c) - 2 (d) 2

31. Sum of – 10 , - 5 and 12 is

(a) 27 (b) – 3 (c) 3 (d) – 27

32. Which of the following statements is false

(a)– 4 > - 5 (b) – 4 < 5 (c) 4 < - 5 (d) 4 > - 5

33. Which of the following is in increasing order

(a) 0 , 1 , - 1 (b) – 1 , - 2 , - 3 (c) – 1 , 0 , 1 (d) – 1 , 1 , - 2

34. Which of the following is correct

(a) – 8 > - 7 (b) 1 < 0 (c) – 1 < 0 (d) – 2 > 4

35. Which of the following number forms a pattern

(a) – 6 , - 3 , 0 , 3 (b) – 5 , - 3 , - 2 , 0 (c) 0 , 2 , 3 , 4 (d) 1 , 2 , 4 , 6

36. Sum of – 36 and 29 is

(a) –65 (b) 65 (c) –7 (d) 7

37. Which of the following will give answer with negative sign
(a) – 48 + 79 (b) – 40 + 40 (c) – 48 + 30 (d) 48 + ( - 39 )

38. What will be the additive inverse of -1 ?

(a) -2 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) 1

39. Sum of two positive integers is always-

(a) Negative (b) positive (c) 0 (d) 1

40. Sum of a negative and a positive integer is –

(a) Always negative (b) either positive or negative (c) always positive (d) Zero

41. The pair of integers whose sum is –5

(a) 1, –4 (b) –1 , 6 (c) –3 , –2 (d) 5, 0

42. 39 – 50 is
(a) Not possible (b) -89 (c) -11 (d) 10

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 7
FRACTIONS
1. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
3 5 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
7 7 7

2. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
3 5 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
7 7 7

3. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
4 4 4

4. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
4 4 4
5. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
4 4 4

6. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
4 4 4

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7. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
1 4 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

8. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
1 4 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

9. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
1 4 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

10. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
1 4 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

11. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
4 10 9 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 16 16

12. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
4 10 9 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 16 16
1 1
13. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
2 1
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

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 3 1
14. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
3 1
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

1 7
15. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
1 6
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

1 3
16. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
2 2
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

3 2
17. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
4 4
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

18. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
4 10 9 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 16 16

19. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
4 10 9 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 16 16

20. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
4 6 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7

21. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
4 6 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
5 7
22. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
8 8
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

5 7
23. Fill in the boxes with the correct symbol: .....
5 7
(a) > (b) < (c) = (d) none of these

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24. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
4 6 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7

25. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
4 6 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
26. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
6 4 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

27. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
6 4 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

28. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the below left figure.
6 4 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

29. Write the fraction representing the shaded region in the above sided right figure.
6 4 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8

30. What fraction of a day is 8 hours?

1 8 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 1 1 3

31. What fraction of an hour is 45 minutes?

4 3 1 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 2 5

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The points P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on the number line are such that, US = SV = VR, and
WT = TP = PQ. Answer the following question from Q6 – Q15.

32. The fraction represented by P

6 9 8 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

33. The fraction represented by Q

6 9 8 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

34. The fraction represented by T

6 9 8 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

35. The fraction represented by W

6 9 8 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

36. The fraction represented by U

3 2 4 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

37. The fraction represented by S

3 2 4 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

38. The fraction represented by V

3 2 4 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

39. The fraction represented by R

3 2 4 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

40. The fraction represented by X

5 2 4 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

41. The fraction represented by Y

5 2 4 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5

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 3
42. The equivalent fraction of with denominator 20 is
5
12 20 10 15
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 12 20 20
3
43. The equivalent fraction of with numerator 9 is
5
15 9 9 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 11 15 5
48
44. The simplest form of is
60
5 4 8 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 10 15
45. Which one of the following is a proper fraction?
5 7 4 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 3 3 5
46. Which one of the following is an improper fraction?
7 8 3 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 3 4 11
47. A proper fraction with denominator 7 is
8 4 9 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
48. A improper fraction with denominator 9 is
2 7 11 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 9 9
20
49. can be written in mixed fraction as
3
6 2 6 5
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 5
2 3 3 3
2
50. 6 can be written in improper fraction as
3
3 15 20 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20 3 3 15
2 8
51. Which of the following can be written in the box 
7 .....
(a)16 (b)13 (c) 28 (d) 35
3 ....
52. Which of the following can be written in the box 
5 20
(a) 18 (b)12 (c) 60 (d) 15
53. The next equivalent fraction of the given fraction
1 2 3 4
, , ,……, is
2 4 6 8
7 6 10 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14 12 5 10
54. Which of the following pair of fractions are equivalent
5 30 3 12 7 5 8 16
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
9 54 10 50 13 11 7 21

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 1
55. Which of the following fraction is a like fraction of
15
2 15 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
15 2 7 7
3
56. Which of the following fraction is a unlike fraction of
7
5 8 3 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 5 7

57. Which of the following is a larger fraction

1 4 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 9 9 9
58. Which of the following is a smaller fraction
7 5 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8
59. Which of the following is a greater fraction
4 5 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 6 3 2
60. Which of the following is a smaller fraction
5 4 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 5 2 3
1 1
61. The sum of the fraction and is given by
18 18
1 1 2 36
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 9 36 18
2 1
62. Shubham painted of the wall and his sister painted of the wall space. How much
3 3
did they paint together?
2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
3 3 2
5
63. Javed was given of a basket of oranges. What fraction of oranges was left in the
7
basket?
4 2 5 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7 7
2
64. The value of 1+ is
3
7 5 3
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
3 3 5
12 7
65. The value of – is
15 15
1 5 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 1 5
3 2
66. The value of – is
2 3
5 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 0 (d)
6 6

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 12
67. The value of 3 – is
5
9 9 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 5 3
4 7
68. Which of the following should be put in the given box  .... 
10 10
10 1 3
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d)
3 3 10
7 3
69. Which of the following should be put in the given box  .... 
10 10
2 1 5
(a) (b) 4 (c) (d)
5 4 2
1 3 5
70. The value of + + is
2 2 2
9 17 9
(a) 5 (b) (c) (d)
2 2 6
2 3 1
71. The value of + + is
3 4 2
6 23 21 6
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 12 12 12
1 2
72. The value of 1 + 3 is
3 3
10 6 15 15
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 3 6
1 2
73. The value of 3 – 1 is
5 3
9 23 9
(a) 9 (b) (c) (d)
1 15 15

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 8
DECIMALS

1. What is the place value of 2 in the given decimal 924.75

a) ones b) tens c) tenth d) hundredth

2. What is the place value of 5 in the given decimal 924.75

a) ones b) tens c) tenth d) hundredth

125
3. What is the decimal expansion of
100
a) 125 b) 12.5 c) 12.05 d) 1.25

5
4. What is the decimal expansion of
10
a) 0.5 b) 5.0 c) 0.05 d) 0.005

5. Write the following as decimals: “Thirty and one-tenth”

a) 301 b) 3.01 c) 30.1 d) none of these

6. Write the following as decimals: “Two ones and five-tenths”

a) 2.5 b) 25 c) 21.5 d) none of these

2
7. 30  6  can be written in decimal form as
10
a) 3062 b) 362 c) 36.2 d) none of these

8
8. 600  2  can be written in decimal form as
10
a) 6002.8 b) 602.8 c) 628 d) none of these

8
9. 60  2  can be written in decimal form as
100
a) 62.8 b) 62.008 c) 62.08 d) none of these

10. What is the place value of 9 in the given decimal 19.4

a) ones b) tens c) tenth d) hundredth

11. What is the place value of 9 in the given decimal 91.4

a) ones b) tens c) tenth d) hundredth

8
12. What is the decimal expansion of
100
a) 0.8 b) 8.00 c) 800 d) 0.08
9
13. What is the decimal expansion of
1000
a) 0.9 b) 9000 c) 0.009 d) 0.09

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 4 1
14. 20+9+ + can be written in decimal as
10 100
a) 29.04 b) 29.41 c) 2941 d) 0.2941

7 6 4
15. The decimal form + + can be written as
10 100 1000
a) 76.40 b) 7.640 c) 0.764 d) 764.0

9
16. 700 +20 + 5 + can be written in decimal form as
100
a) 725.09 b) 725.9 c) 72.59 d) 7.259

9
17. 70 +2 + can be written in decimal form as
100
a) 72.9 b) 729 c) 72.09 d) 7.209

The points on the number line are shown in below number line. Answer the following
question from Q13 – Q20.

18. Write the decimal number represented by the points G on the given number line.
a) 2.1 b) 2.2 c) 2.4 d) 2.6

19. Write the decimal number represented by the points C on the given number line.
a) 2.1 b) 2.2 c) 2.4 d) 2.6

20. Write the decimal number represented by the points R on the given number line.
a) 2.1 b) 2.2 c) 2.4 d) 2.6

21. Write the decimal number represented by the points M on the given number line.
a) 2.1 b) 2.2 c) 2.4 d) 2.6

22. Write the decimal number represented by the points D on the given number line.
a) 2.9 b) 2.2 c) 2.4 d) 2.6

23. Write the decimal number represented by the points B on the given number line.
a) 1.1 b) 1.3 c) 1.5 d) 1.7

24. Write the decimal number represented by the points S on the given number line.
a) 1.1 b) 1.3 c) 1.5 d) 1.7

25. Write the decimal number represented by the points Q on the given number line.
a) 1.1 b) 1.3 c) 1.5 d) 1.7

26. Write the decimal number represented by the points T on the given number line.
a) 1.1 b) 1.3 c) 1.5 d) 1.7

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27. Write the decimal number represented by the points N on the given number line.
a) 1.8 b) 1.5 c) 1.6 d) 1.9

28. Write the decimal number represented by the points F on the given number line.
a) 0.8 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 0.1

29. Write the decimal number represented by the points E on the given number line.
a) 0.8 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) 0.1

30. Write the decimal number represented by the points U on the given number line.
a) 0.8 b) 0.3 c) 0.6 d) 0.1

31. Write the decimal number represented by the points P on the given number line.
a) 0.8 b) 0.3 c) 0.6 d) 0.1

32. Write the decimal number represented by the points T on the given number line.
a) 1.1 b) 1.3 c) 1.5 d) 1.7
33. 108.56 can be written in words as
a) One hundred eight point fifty six b) One hundred eight point five six
c) Ten thousand eight hundred fifty six d) none of these
34. 5.008 can be written in words as
a) Five thousand eight b) Five point eight
c) Fifty point eight d) five point zero zero eight
35. Which of the following point lies between 0.1 and 0.2
a) 0.19 b) 1.9 c) 10.9 d) 1.09
36. 0.60in the form of a fraction can be written as
3 60 6 .6
a) b) c) d)
5 100 100 10
37. Which of the following is greater?
a) 1.09 b) 0.19 c) 1.90 d) 1.009
38. Which of the following is smaller?
a) 0.7 b) 0.07 c) 0.007 d) 0.0007
39. Which of the following is true
a) 0.3 > 0.4 b) 0.07<0.02 c) 3>0.8 d) 0.5 =0.05
5
40. 137 + can be written in the decimal form as
100
a) 137.5 b) 137.05 c) 13.75 d) 1.375
41. Three hundred six and seven hundredth in decimal form can be written as
a) 306700 b) 306.7 c) 306.07 d) 30670

42. Two tens and nine tenths in decimal form is given by

a) 2.9 b) 20.09 c) 2.09 d) 20.9
43. 725 Paisa in rupees can be written as
a) 72.5 b) 0.725 c) 7.25 d) 0.0725

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44. 32.549 > 32.458 because
a)Tenth part is more b) Hundredth is more
c)Thousandth is more d) Whole part of both number are equal

45. 4.19 m in cm can be written as

a) 419cm b) 41.9cm c) 0.419cm d) 41.09cm
46. 8888m in Km can be written as
a) 88.88Km b) 888.8Km c) 8.888Km d) 8888Km

47. 22g in Kg can be written as

a) 2.2Kg b) 0.022Kg c) 2.002Kg d) 2.02Kg
48. Write the numbers given in the following place value table in decimal form
Hundred Tens Ones Tenth Hundredth Thousandth
100 10 1 1 1 1
10 100 1000
0 1 2 9 0 2
a) 129.02 b) 1.29.2 c) 12.902 d) 129.02
The place value table is shown in below table. Answer the following question from
Q13 – Q20.

Hundred Tens Ones Tenth Hundredt Thousandth

100 10 1 1 1
h
10 1000
1
100

49. Which of the following number can be placed in the tenth column if the given number
is 97.50
a) 9 b) 5 c) 7 d) 0

50. Which of the following number can be placed in the tens column if the given number
is 297.35
a) 2 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3

51. Which of the following number can be placed in the ones column if the given number
is 97.50
a) 9 b) 5 c) 7 d) 0
52. Which of the following number can be placed in the ones column if the given number
is 297.35
a) 2 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3
53. Which of the following number can be placed in the hundred column if the given
number is 297.35
a) 2 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3
54. Which of the following number can be placed in the tenth column if the given number
is 297.35
a) 2 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3

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55. Which of the following number can be placed in the tenth column if the given number
is 489.75
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 5

56. Which of the following number can be placed in the hundredth column if the given
number is 489.75
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 5

57. Which of the following number can be placed in the ones column if the given number
is 489.75
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 5

58. Which of the following number can be placed in the tens column if the given number
is 489.75
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 5

59. Which of the following number can be placed in the tens column if the given number
is 69.25
a) 6 b) 9 c) 2 d) 6
60. The sum of 0.007 + 8.5 +30.08 is
a) 38.587 b) 3.100 c) 18.508 d) 385.87

61. Lata spend Rs 9.50 for buying a pen and Rs 2.50 for one pencil .How much money
did she spend
a) Rs 3.450 b) Rs 7 c) Rs 9.750 d) Rs 12

62. Find the value of 9.756 – 6.28

a)16.036 b)9.128 c)3.476 d)34.76

63. Find the value of 35 – 2.54

a)32.46 b)1.46 c)3.246
d)37.54

64. Subtract Rs. 18.25 from Rs. 20.75

a)Rs. 25 b) Rs. 39 c) Rs. 2.50 d)Rs. 3.9
65. Raju bought a book for Rs. 35.65. He gave Rs. 50 to the shopkeeper. How much
money did he get back from the shopkeeper?
a)Rs. 36.15 b)Rs. 14.35 c)Rs. 80.65 d) Rs. 1.435

66. Akash bought vegetables weighing [Link] of this 3kg 500g is onions, 2kg 75g is
tomatoes and the rest is potatoes. What is the weight of the potatoes?
a)9.500kg b) 1.425kg c)5.575kg d)4.425kg

67. The number 0.125 can be written as fractions in lowest terms

1 125 25 5
a) b) c) d)
8 1000 200 40
68. 1mm = _____
a)0.1cm b)0.01 cm c) 1.0 cm d)0.001cm

69. Which one of the following is not true

a)1.431 < 1.490 b)3.3 > 3.300 c)0.3 < 0.4 d) 3 > 0.8
70. The length of a young gram plant is 65mm. its length in cm will be
a)6.5cm b)0.65cm c)0.065cm d)6.05 cm.
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71. The length of Ramesh’s notebook is 9 cm 5 mm. What will be its length in cm?
a)9.5cm b)0.95cm c)0.095cm d)9.05 cm.

72. Write 0.04 as fractions in lowest terms.

1 1 4
a) b) c) d) none of these
5 25 25
73. Write 2.34 as fractions in lowest terms.
17 171 17
a) b) 2 c) 2 d) none of these
20 500 20

74. Write 0.342 as fractions in lowest terms.

171 171 17
a) 2 b) c) d) none of these
500 500 20

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 CLASS - VI: CHAPTER - 9
DATA HANDLING

The following pictograph shows the number of absentees in a class of 30 students during
the previous week. Read the table and answer the questions given bellow (Q1-Q6) :
Days Number of Absentees
= 5 students
Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday
Thursday

Friday

Saturday

1. On which day were the maximum number of students absent?

a. Thursday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Saturday
2. Which day had full attendance?
a. Thursday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Saturday
3. What was the total number of absentees in that week?
a. 600 b. 130 c. 150 d. 100
4. What was the total number of absentees on Tuesday?
a. 20 b. 25 c. 50 d. 10

5. On which day 5 students were absent?

a. Thursday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Saturday
6. On which day 30 students were absent?
a. Thursday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Saturday
The colours of fridges preferred by people living in a locality are shown by the
following pictograph. Read the table and answer the questions given bellow (Q7-Q13):
Colours Number of Peoples
= 10 People
Blue

Red

Green

Yellow

White

Black

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7. Find the number of people preferring blue colour.
a. 20 b. 80 c. 50 d. 10

8. How many people liked red colour?

a. 120 b. 80 c. 50 d. 110

9. Find the number of people preferring white colour.

a. 20 b. 80 c. 50 d. 10

10. Which colour preferred most?

a. red b. blue c. yellow d. black

11. Which colour preferred least?

a. green b. white c. yellow d. black

12. Which two colours liked by same number of people?

a. green and red
b. white and yellow
c. green and black
d. black and red

13. Find the number of people preferring yellow colour.

a. 20 b. 80 c. 50 d. 60

14. A _____ is a collection of numbers gathered to give some information.

a. bar graph b. data c. frequency d. tally mark

15. The tally mark frequency _______________

a. 6 b. 5 c. 10 d. 8

16. In a bar graph bars are made __________

a. Horizontally
b. vertically
c. sometime horizontally some time vertically
d. oblique

17. Representation of data in the form of picture is called ______________

a. bar graph b. pictograph c. histogram d. none of these

18. In a bar graph space between rectangles is always __________________

a. Unequal b. increasing c. decreasing d. equal

19. The tally mark frequency _______________

a. 6 b. 5 c. 0 d. 4

20. In a bar graph the width of the rectangle is

a. Unequal b. increasing c. decreasing d. equal

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Following table shows the number of bicycles manufactured in a factory during the
year 1998 to 2002. Read the table and answer the questions given bellow (Q7-Q12)
Years [Link] bicycles manufactured
1998 800
1999 600
2000 900
2001 1100
2002 1200
21. In which year were the maximum number of bicycles manufactured ?
a. 2002 b. 2001 c. 2000 d. 1999

22. In which year were the minimum number of bicycles manufactured ?

a. 2002 b. 1999 c. 2000 d. 1998

23. How many bicycles were manufactured from 1998 to 2002?

a. 4600 b. 4000 c. 2400 d. 2800

24. What is the difference between number of bicycles manufactured in 2002 and 1999 ?
a. 600 b. 1200 c. 500 d. 1800

25. How many bicycles were manufactured from 1998 to 2000?

a. 2300 b. 2000 c. 2400 d. 2800

26. In which year were the difference is more manufactured ?

a. 2002 b. 1999 c. 2000 d. 1998

27. On which year did the number of bicycles differ the most from the preceeding year?
a. 2002 b. 1999 c. 2000 d. 1998
The following pictograph shows the number of Maruti van manufactured during a
week. Read the table and answer the questions given bellow (Q1-Q7) :
Days Number of Maruti Van manufactured
= 100 Maruti Vans
Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

28. On which day were the least number of Maruti Vans manufactured?
a. Thursday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Saturday
29. Find the number of Maruti Vans manufactured on Wednesday.
a. 600 b. 100 c. 500 d. 800
30. On which day were the maximum number of Maruti Vans manufactured?
a. Thursday b. Friday c. Wednesday d. Saturday

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31. Find out the approximate number of Maruti Vans manufactured in the particular
week?
a. 2300 b. 2000 c. 2400 d. 2800
32. On which days were the same number of Maruti Vans manufactured?
a. Monday and Thursday b. Monday and Friday
c. Monday and Wednesday d. Monday and Saturday
33. Find the number of Maruti Vans manufactured on Monday.
a. 600 b. 100 c. 500 d. 400
34. Find the number of Maruti Vans manufactured on Thursday.
a. 600 b. 100 c. 500 d. 400

From the following above pictograph, answer the questions from Q8 – Q10
35. Find the number of mangoes purchased for
a home during February is
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 15

36. Find the number of mangoes purchased for

a home during January is
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 15

37. Find the number of mangoes purchased for

a home during March is
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 15

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER – 10
MENSURATION
1. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 40 cm and 10 cm respectively. Its perimeter
is
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm (c) 140 cm (d) none of these

2. The side of a square is 8 cm. Its area is

(a) 64 cm2 (b) 84 cm2 (c) 100 cm2 (d) none of these

3. The length of a rectangle is 150 cm. If its breadth is 1m, then its perimeter is
(a) 7 m (b) 5 m (c) 6 m (d) none of these

4. The area of a rectangle is 40 cm2. If its breadth is 4 cm, then its length is
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 10 cm (d) none of these

5. The area of square is 100 cm2. Its side is

(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 10 cm (d) none of these

6. The perimeter of a square is 100 cm. Its side is

(a) 25 cm (b) 35 cm (c) 15 cm (d) none of these

7. The side of a square is 12 m. Its perimeter is

(a) 7 m (b) 5 m (c) 9 m (d) none of these

8. If the perimeter of a square is 44 cm, then its area is

(a) 64 cm2 (b) 81 cm2 (c) 121 cm2 (d) none of these

9. If the area of a square is 64 cm2, then its perimeter is

(a) 25 cm (b) 32 cm (c) 15 cm (d) none of these

10. If the perimeter of a square is 16 cm, then its area is

(a) 64 cm2 (b) 81 cm2 (c) 121 cm2 (d) none of these

11. If the area of a square is 2.25 m2, then its perimeter is

(a) 7 m (b) 5 m (c) 6 m (d) none of these

12. The side of a square is 8 cm. If its side is doubled, then its new perimeter is
(a) 64 cm (b) 81 cm (c) 121 cm (d) none of these

13. The side of a square is 6 cm. If its side is doubled, then its new perimeter is
(a) 64 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 44 cm (d) none of these

14. The length and breadth of a rectangle are 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. If its length is
doubled, then its new area is
(a) 80 cm2 (b) 160 cm2 (c) 240 cm2 (d) none of these

15. The area of a rectangular sheet is 500 cm2. If the length of the sheet is 25 cm, what is
its width?
(a) 20 cm (b) 17 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 25 cm

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16. If the area of rectangle increases from 2 cm2 to 4 cm2 the perimeter will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remains same (d) none of these

17. The area of a square whose perimeter is 4 m

(a) 1 m2 (b) 4 m2 (c) 2 m2 (d) 3 m2

18. Which figure encloses more area : a square of side 2 cm ; a rectangle of side 3 cm &
2 cm ;An equilateral triangle of side 4 cm
(a) rectangle (b) square (c) triangle (d) same of rectangle & square

19. The area of rectangle whose length is 15 cm & breadth is 6 m

(a) 9000 cm2 (b) 90 cm2 (c) 9 cm2 (d) 900 cm2

20. The distance covered along the boundary of a rectangle is called its
(a) area (b) perimeter (c) length (d) breadth

21. The perimeter of a square is

(a) 4 + side (b) 4 x side (c) side x side (d) length +breadth

22. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is

(a) side + side + side (b) side x side x side (c) 3 + side (d) side + side

23. The amount of surface enclosed by a closed figure is called its

(a) perimeter (b) area (c) flat surface (d) interior region

24. Area of which figure is length x breadth

(a) rectangle (b) square (c) isosceles triangle (d) equilateral triangle

25. What will be the distance covered by Shalini by taking three rounds around a square
park of side 2 cm
(a) 6 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 24 cm

26. What is the perimeter of a regular pentagon whose each side measuring 5 cm
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 25 cm

27. The shape of your class blackboard is

(a) square (b) rectangle (c) triangle (d) parallelogram

28. What is the area of the rectangle whose sides are 5 cm

(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 25 cm

29. If the cost of painting one black-board is Rs.50, what will be the cost of painting 10
black-boards
(a) Rs.60 (b) Rs.500 (c) Rs.5000 (d) Rs.10
30. What will be the cost of tilting a rectangular plot of area 800 sq.m, if the cost of tiling
100 sq.m is Rs.6
(a) Rs.14 (b) Rs.48 (c) Rs.4800 (d) Rs.900

31. What is the length of the garden if area of rectangular garden of width 60 m is 300
sq.m
(a) 900 m (b) 90 m (c) 18 m (d) 5 m

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32. The perimeter of a triangle whose sides are 5 cm, 2 cm and 3 cm.
(a) 30 cm (b) 11 cm (c) 17 cm (d) 10 cm

33. The width in area of rectangle is

area length
(a) length + area (b) (c) (d) area x length
length area

34. What is the length of side of square whose area is 64 m2

(a) 16 m (b) 32 m (c) 8 m (d) 64 m

35. The perimeter of a rectangle whose length is 4 cm and breadth is 5 cm

(a) 9 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 36 cm

36. If the area of one tile is 102. What will be the area of 5 tiles?
(a) 50 m2 (b) 2 m2 (c) 15 m2 (d) 11 m2

37. 7 m is ---------------cm.
(a) 700 cm (b) 0.7 cm (c) 0.07 cm (d) 700 cm

38. To find the perimeter of floor of your class-room , we will

(a) add the lengths of sides (b) subtract the lengths of sides
(c) multiply the lengths of sides (d) divide the length of one side by the other
side

39. The perimeter of regular hexagon of side 4 cm will be

(a) 20 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 14 cm

40. The formula for finding area of square is

1
(a) side x side (b) 4 x side (c)  side (d) 2 x side
2
41. The formula for finding area of rectangle is
(a) length x breadth (b) length +breadth
(c) length/breadth (d) 2( length x breadth)

42. The cost of fencing a square park of side 100 m at the rate of Rs.10 per m will be
(a) Rs.4000 (b) Rs.10000 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs.400

43. The perimeter of regular octagon is 16 cm, the length of each side will be
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 1 cm (d) 8 cm
44. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle with equal side of length 4 cm and third side
of length 6 cm will be
(a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 14 cm
45. 1 m 25 cm is ---------------cm.
(a) 125 cm (b) 1.25 cm (c) 1025 cm (d) 12.5 cm
46. Which has larger perimeter a square of side 2 cm, decagon of side 1 cm, pentagon of
side 3 cm and equilateral triangle of side 1 cm
(a) decagon (b) pentagon (c) square (d) triangle

47. Which appropriate unit of measurement will be used to find the length of your thumb
(a) cm (b) m (c) km (d) m2

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48. In below left figure what will be the area of 4 squares on the corners whose each
side is 1 cm?
(a) 4 cm2 (b) 1 cm2 (c) 64 cm2 (d) 8 cm

49. The perimeter of above sided right figure is

(a) 20 cm (b) 20 cm2 (c) 20 cm3 (d) 20 m

50. Which formula will be used to find the area of wall of a room
1
(a) l x b (b) xlxb (c) l + b (d) 2 (l + b)
2
51. Area of rectangular garden of 50 m broad is 300 sq. m, the length of garden is
(a) 250 m (b) 6m (c) 6m2 (d) 60m

52. If perimeter of triangle is 15 cm and any two sides are of length 5 cm and 3 cm , then
length of third side will be
(a) 7 cm (b) 15 cm2 (c) 15 cm3 (d) 15 m

53. A table top measures 3 m by 50 cm, the area in sq. m will be

(a) 150 sq.m (b) 15 sq.m (c) 1.5 sq.m (d) 150 m

54. The perimeter of a regular pentagon is 100 cm. How long is its each side?
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 40 cm (d) none of
these

55. Area of blackboard of your class will be----------- than the area floor is
(a) less (b) greater (c) equal (d) none of these
56. If the area of one rectangular box is 50 m2 , the area of 10 boxes will be
(a) 500 m (b) 5 m (c) 50 m (d) 500 m2

57. 1 cm2 is _____mm2.

1
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 1000 (d)
10

58. Which has larger perimeter

(a) a regular pentagon of side 3 cm (b) a regular hexagon of side 3 cm
(c) a regular heptagon of side 3 cm (d) a regular octagon of side 3 cm

59. Area of floor of room will be _________ as the area roof

(a) greater (b) equal (c) less equal (d) none of these

60. The length and the breadth of a rectangular piece of land are 500 m and 300 m
respectively. Find its area
(a) 1500 m2 (b) 15000 m2 (c) 150000 m2 (d) none of these

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61. Find the area of a square park whose perimeter is 320 m.
(a) 6400 m2 (b) 10240 m2 (c) 102400 m2 (d) none of these

62. Find the breadth of a rectangular plot of land, if its area is 440 m2 and the length is 22
m.
(a) 40 m (b) 20 m (c) 10 m (d) none of these

63. The perimeter of a rectangular sheet is 100 cm. If the length is 35 cm, find its breadth.
(a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 10 cm (d) none of these

64. The perimeter of a rectangular sheet is 100 m. If the length is 35 m, find its area.
(a) 500 m2 (b) 525 m2 (c) 600 m2 (d) none of these

65. Find the perimeter of a rectangular sheet, if its area is 440 cm2 and the length is 22
cm.
(a) 64 cm (b) 84 cm (c) 100 cm (d) none of these

66. The perimeter of a rectangle is 130 cm. If the breadth of the rectangle is 30 cm, find
its length.
(a) 35 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 40 cm (d) none of these

67. The perimeter of a rectangle is 130 m. If the breadth of the rectangle is 30 m, find its
area.
(a) 640 m2 (b) 600 m2 (c) 700 m2 (d) none of these

68. The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio 5 : 4. If its perimeter is 72 cm then the length
is
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 40 cm (d) none of these

69. The perimeter of the below left figure is

(a) 490 m (b) 500 m (c) 495 m (d) none of these

70. The perimeter of the above-sided right figure is

(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 1.25 m (d) none of these
71. The cost of putting a fence around a square field at Rs. 2.50 per metre is Rs. 200. The
length of each side of the field is
(a) 40 m (b) 20 m (c) 80 m (d) none of these

72. The area of a rectangle is 650 cm2 and one of its sides is 13 cm. Find the perimeter of
the rectangle.
(a) 120 cm (b) 130 cm (c) 126 cm (d) none of these

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73. A room is 5m 40cm long and 3m 75cm wide. Find the area of the carpet needed to
cover the floor.
(a) 20 m2 (b) 20.25 m2 (c) 21 m2 (d) none of these

74. The total cost of flooring a room at Rs. 8.50 per m2 is Rs. 510. If the length of the
room is 8m, find its breadth.
(a) 7 m (b) 7.5 m (c) 7.25 m (d) none of these

75. The length and the breadth are in the ratio 3 : 2. If its perimeter is 30 cm, find its
breadth.
(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 8 cm (d) none of these

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER – 11
ALGEBRA
1. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “T”
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

2. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “V”

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

3. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “U”

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

4. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “Z ”

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

5. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “ E ”

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

6. Number of matchsticks required to make a pattern of “ A ”

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 4

7. A basket has x mangoes, how many mangoes are there in 5 baskets?

x
(a) x + 5 (b) 5x (c) x – 5 (d)
5

8. A teacher distribute 15 pencils per student, how many pencils are needed for ‘y’
students:
15
(a) 15 – y (b) 15 + y (c) (d) 15y
y
9. Perimeter of the square, whose each side is ‘n’ cm is
n
(a) n + 4 (b) 4n (c) n – 4 (d)
4

10. Perimeter of an equilateral triangle, whose each side is ‘x’ unit is

3
(a) 3x (b) 3 – x (c) (d) 3 + x
x

11. Diameter of circle whose radius is ‘r’ is

r
(a) (b) 2r (c) 2 – r (d) 2 + r
2

12. x + y = y + x is
(a) Commutative property (b) Associative property
(c) Closure property (d) Distributive property
13. How many variables are used in the expression 2x + 3y +5
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5

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14. What is an expression for the statement: “p is multiplied by 16”
p
(a) 16p (b) (c) p +16 (d) p –16
16

15. The expression for the statement: “ y multiplied by 10 and then 7 added to product”.
(a) 10 + y + 7 (b) 7y +10 (c) 10y +7 (d) 10y

16. What is the statement for the expression 2y – 9

(a) 2y subtracted from 9 (b) 9 subtracted from 2y
(c) 9 subtracted from 9 (d) thrice of y minus 9

17. Give expression for: “ 5 times of ‘y’ to which 3 is added”

5
(a) y +15 (b) 5y +3 (c) +3 (d) 3y +5
y

18. Which of the following is an equation

(a) 2x +3 + 5 (b) 2x + 3< 5 (c) 2x + 3 >5 (d) 2x + 3 = 5

19. Which of the solution of equation 3x + 2 =11

(a) 0 (b) 11 (c) 3 (d)27

20. p = 3 is a solution of equation

(a) 2p + 5 = 17 (b) 5p +2 = 17 (c) 2p +17 = 5 (d) 5p+17 = 2

21. The equation for the statement: one forth of a number minus 4 gives 4.
4 1 1
(a) 4x – 4 = 4 (b) –4 =4 (c) x – 4 = 4 (d) x – 4 =
x 4 4

22. Which of the following is expression with one variable

(a) y + 1 (b) x +y – 5 (c) x + y + z (d) 1

23. a x b = b x a is
(a) Commutative property under multiplication
(b) Associative property under multiplication
(b) Distributive property of multiplication over addition
(c) (d) Closure property

24. a x (b + c) = a x b + a x c is
(a) Commutative property under addition
(b) Associative property under multiplication
(c) Distributive property of multiplication over addition
(d) Closure property
25. Which of the following is an equation:
(a) x – 3 >0 (b) x +3 < 0 (c) x (d) x +3 = 0

26. The variable from the equation 2n +1=11 is

(a) 2 (b) n (c) 1 (d) 11

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 q
27. Which of the following is the solution of the equation =7
2
(a) 14 (b) 3.5 (c) 5 (d) 9

28. Value of the variable in the equation b+5=9 is

(a) 14 (b) 9/5 (c) 4 (d) 5

29. Sarita’s present age is ‘m’ years. What will be her age after ten years?
(a) 10m (b) m –10 (c) 10 – m (d) m+10

30. The price of potatoes is Rs. x per kg and price of onion is Rs. 10 more than the price
of potatoes. Therefore the price of onion is
x
(a) 10x (b) x +10 (c) (d) x –10
10

31. The expression x- 3 is read as

(a) x subtracted from 3 (b) 3 subtracted from x
(c) sum of x and 3 (d) multiplication of x and 3

32. The value of variable in the expression is

(a) fixed (b) not fixed (c) zero (d) one

r
33. The diameter of a circle whose radius is is equal to
2
r
(a) r (b) 2r (c) (d) r2
4
34. ‘z’ multiplied by 5 and then subtracted from 7 is
z
(a) 5z – 7 (b) z – 35 (c) 7 – 5z (d) –7
5

35. The age of Siddarth is x years , Sahil is 5 years older than Siddharth therefore Sahils
age is
x
(a) 5x (b) x – 5 (c) x + 5 (d)
5
36. The number of rows is 6 class is equal to the number of columns. If the number of
rows is ‘b’ then the total students in the 6 class are:
(a) 2b (b) 2 + b (c) b2 (d) 0
37. x + y + z is
(a) an equation (b) constant (c) a variable (d) an expression

38. The value of p – q +pq for p= –1, q = –2 is

(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) –5 (d) 3

39. x = 5 satisfies the equation

(a) x +10=30 (b) x – 3 = 7 (c) x + 3 = 7 (d) x – 3 = 2

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40. Number of variables used in the expression x2 +1 is
(a) x2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

41. Equation for the statement “ 2 multiplies by p and then subtracted from 5 is 10” is
(a) 2p – 5 = 10 (b) 2 + p – 5 = 10 (c) 5 – 2p = 10 (d) 2(5 – p)=10

3q
42. Solution of equation =5 is
2
3 10
(a) 10 (b) 30 (c) (d)
10 3

43. Age of Avneet is ‘ y’ years. Avishi is four years younger than Avneet. Therefore age
of Avishi is
(a) y – 4 (b) y + 4 (c) 4y (d) 4 – y

44. 2x – 3 may be expressed as

(a) Ram’s age is 3 years less than Shyam’s age
(b) Ram’s age is 3 years less than twice Shyam’s age.
(c)Ram’s age is 3 years more than twice the Shyam’s age.
(d)Ram’s age is 3 years morre than Shyam;s age.

45. Write the statements “The sum of three times x and 11 is 32”in the form of equations:
. (a) 6x – 5 = 32 (b) 3x + 11 = 32 (c) 11x + 3 = 32 (d) 3x = 32

46. Write the statements “If you subtract 5 from 6 times a number, you get 7.”in the form
of equations:
. (a) 6x – 5 = 7 (b) 5x – 6 = 7 (c) x – 5 = 7 (d) x – 6 = 7

47. Which is a solution of the equation 2x = 12

. (a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6

48. Which is a solution of the equation x + 4 = 6

. (a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6

49. Which is a solution of the equation 7x + 5 = 19

. (a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6
50. Which is a solution of the equation 4x – 3 = 13
. (a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6
51. Which is a solution of the equation 5x + 2 = 17
. (a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6
52. Which is a solution of the equation 3x – 14 = 4.
(a) x = 2 (b) x = 3 (c) x = 4 (d) x = 6
53. Write the statements “The sum of numbers x and 4 is 9”in the form of equations:
. (a) x – 4 = 9 (b) x + 4 = 9 (c) x + 9 = 4 (d) none of these

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54. Write the statements “2 subtracted from a number is 8”in the form of equations:
. (a) x – 8 = 2 (b) x – 2 = 8 (c) x + 2 = 8 (d) none of these

55. Write the statements “Seven times a number plus 7 gets you 77”in the form of
equations:
. (a) 7x – 7 = 77 (b) 7x + 7 = 77 (c) x + 7 = 77 (d) none of these

56. Write the statements “If you take away 6 from 6 time a number, you get 60”in the
form of equations:
. (a) 6x + 6 = 60 (b) 6x – 6 = 60 (c) x – 6 = 60 (d) none of these

57. Write the statements “12 subtracted from z” in the form of expression:
. (a) 12 – z (b) z – 12 (c) 12z (d) none of these

58. Write the statements “25 added to r” in the form of expression:

. (a) 25 – r (b) r + 25 (c) 25r (d) none of these
59. Write the statements “p multiplied by 16” in the form of expression:
16
. (a) p + 16 (b) p – 16 (c) 16p (d)
p
60. Write the statements “y divided by 8” in the form of expression:
y
. (a) y – 8 (b) y + 8 (c) 8y (d)
8
61. Write the statements “m multiplied by –9” in the form of expression:
. (a) m – 9 (b) 9 – m (c) –pm (d) none of these

62. Write the statements “n multiplied by 2 and 1 subtracted from the product” in the
form of expression:
. (a) 2n + 1 (b) 2n – 1 (c) 2n (d) none of these

63. Write the statements “y multiplied by 10 and then 7 added to the product” in the form
of expression:
. (a) 10y x 7 (b) 10y + 7 (c) 10y – 7 (d) none of these

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 12
RATIO AND PROPORTION
1. If 12,14, 9 and x are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 105 (b) 10.5 (c) 21 (d) none of these

2. If x, 30,24 and 16 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) none of these

3. If 8, 18, 18 are x in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 405 (b) 40.5 (c) 81 (d) none of these

4. If 14, 16, x and 24 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 105 (b) 10.5 (c) 21 (d) none of these

5. If 3, 8, 15 and x are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) none of these

6. If 5, 30, 3 and x are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) none of these

7. If 2, 3, 28 and x are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 42 (b) 52 (c) 62 (d) none of these

8. If x, 24, 30 and 16 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) none of these

9. If 9, 18, x and 8 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 4.5 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) none of these

10. If 49, 35, x and 25 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 49 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) none of these

11. If 7, 14, x and 12 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) none of these

12. If 18, 16, 99 and x are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 44 (b) 22 (c) 88 (d) none of these

13. If 10, x, 15 and 3 are in proportion then find the value of x.

(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) none of these

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14. The mean proportion of 9 and 16 is

(a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 33 (d) 11

15. The mean proportion of 11 and 44 is

(a) 3 (b) 22 (c) 33 (d) 11

16. The mean proportion of 4 and 16 is

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) 11

17. The ratio of 90 cm to 1.5 m is...........
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 60 : 1 (d) 4:3

18. 6 : 4 is equivalent ratio of ..............

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 1:2 (d) 1 : 4

19. Find the ratio of 81 to 108 ?

(a) 3 : 4 (b) 5 : 9 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 9 : 20

15 ......
20. Fill in the blank :- 
18 6
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7

21. Find the value of x in 4 : 3 = x : 12 ?

(a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 3

22. In proportion first and the last terms are called ______________________ .
(a) Mean terms (b) Extreme terms (c) Middle terms (d) None of these

23. The ratio is said to be in simplest form if common factor is _____________.

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) None of these

24. Three terms a , b , c are said to be in proportion if ______________ .

(a) a : b = b : c (b) a : b = c : b (c) b : a = c : a (d) c : a = a : b

25. Four terms a , b , c , d are said to be in proportion if ___________________ .

(a) a : b = c : d (b) a : c = d : b (c) a : d = b : c (d) None of these

26. If the cost of 6 cans of juice is Rs 210, then what is the cost of 4 cans of juice is ?
(a) Rs 120 (b) Rs 140 (c) Rs 100 (d) Rs 80

27. Fill in the blank :- 32 m : 64 m = 6 sec : ______

(a) 13 sec (b) 12 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 24sec

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28. Which of the following is correct :-
(a) 3 : 4 = 15 : 25 (b) 12 : 24 = 6 : 12 (c) 7 : 3 = 14 : 3
(d) 5 : 10 = 9 : 20

29. The ratio of 15 Kg to 75 Kg is...........

(a) 1 : 5 (b) 5 : 1 (c) 3:5 (d) 15 : 3

30. 7 : 42 is equivalent ratio of ..............

(a) 7 : 6 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 1:6 (d) 6 : 7

31. Find the ratio of 33 Km to 121 Km ?

(a) 3 : 11 (b) 11 : 3 (c) 3 : 7 (d) 7 : 3
35 .....
32. Fill in the blank :- 
42 6
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7

33. Find the value of x in 3 : 4 = x : 16?

(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 3

34. Two quantities can be compared only if they are in the same _____________.
(a) Ratio (b) Units
(c) Proportion (d) None of these

35. The ratio is said to be not in simplest form if common factor is ............
(a) 1 (b) Other than 1 (c) -1 (d) None of these

36. In Proportion the Symbol :: is used for ____________ .

(a) To show greater ratio (b) Two equate the two ratios

(c) Two show smaller ratio (d) None of these.

37. Fill in the blank:- 30 , 40 , ............. , and 60 are in proportion

(a) 15 (b) 45 (c) 35 (d) 10

38. The cost of 105 envelopes is Rs 35. How many envelopes can be purchased for Rs
10 ?
(a) 12 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 50

39. Fill in the blank :- 36 m : 72 m = 6 sec : __________

(a) 13 min (b) 24 sec (c) 8 min (d) 12 sec

40. Which of the following is correct :-

(a) 3 : 4 = 15 : 25 (b) 16 : 32 = 10 : 20

(c) 7 : 3 = 14 : 3 (d) 5 : 15 = 9 : 20

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41. The ratio of 20 Km to 100 Km is ___________
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 5 : 1 (c) 3:5 (d) 5:3

42. 30 : 45 is equivalent ratio of ..............

(a) 15 : 3 (b) 3 : 15 (c) 2:3 (d) 3 : 2

43. Find the ratio of 500 ml to 2 lt ?

(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4:1

36 72
44. Fill in the blank :- 
..... 6
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 3 (d) 6

45. Fill in the blank:- 25 , 30 , ______ and 48 are in proportion

(a) 15 (b) 40 (c) 35 (d) 42

46. Divide 20 pens between Sheela and Sangeeta in the ratio of 3 : 2.

(a) 12 , 8 (b) 11 , 9 (c) 10 , 10 (d) 14 , 6
47. Fill in the blank :- 12 : 108 = 1 : ______
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 12

48. The ratio of 98 to 63 is _______

(a) 14 : 5 (b) 9 : 14 (c) 5 : 14 (d) 14 : 9

49. 60 : 120 is equivalent ratio of ________

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2:3 (d) 3 : 2

50. Find the ratio of 55 paise to Re 1 ?

(a) 11 : 25 (b) 11 : 20 (c) 5 : 1 (d) 25: 4

22 2
51. Fill in the blank :- 
...... 3
(a) 3 (b) 22 (c) 33 (d) 11

52. The ratio of 20 cm to 2 m is _________

(a) 1 : 10 (b) 25 : 20 (c) 20 : 5 (d) 4:5

53. 36 : 84 is equivalent ratio of __________

(a) 7 : 3 (b) 3 : 7 (c) 6:7 (d) 12 : 7

54. Find the ratio of 25 to 125 ?

(a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 15 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 10 : 25

35 .....
55. Fill in the blank :- 
45 9
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 7

56. Find the ratio of 3 km to 300 m.

a) 10 : 1 b) 1 : 10 c) 1 : 5 d) none of these

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57. 6 bowls cost Rs 90. What would be the cost of 10 such bowls?
a) Rs 300 b) Rs 150 c) Rs 200 d) Rs 250

58. The car that I own can go 150 km with 25 litres of petrol. How far can it go with 30
litres of petrol?
a) 125 km b) 150 km c) 250 km d) none of these

59. The ratio of 90 cm to 1.5 m is

a) 2 : 5 b) 3 : 5 c) 4 : 5 d) none of these

60. Find the ratio of Speed of a cycle 15 km per hour to the speed of scooter 30 km per
hour.
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 4 : 5 d) none of these

61. Find the ratio of 5 m to 10 km

a) 2000 : 1 b) 1 : 2000 c) 1 : 2 d) none of these
If cost of a dozen pencils is Rs. 30 then answer the following questions Q1 to Q5:

62. _______ pencils can be bought for Rs. 30

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

63. cost of 1 pencil = Rs. _____

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2.50 (d) 3.50

64. ______ pencils can be bought for Rs. 15.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

65. ______ pencils can be bought for Rs. 60.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

66. ______ pencils can be bought for Rs. 90.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

If a car can go 90 km on 6 litres of petrol then answer the following questions Q6 to

Q10:

67. ________ litres of petrol will be needed to go 600 km.

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) none of these

68. ________ litres of petrol will be needed to go 1500 km.

(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) none of these

69. The car can go ____ km on 10 litres of petrol.

(a) 140 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d) none of these

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70. The car can go ____ km on 15 litres of petrol.

(a) 200 (b) 225 (c) 250 (d) none of these

71. ________ litres of petrol will be needed to go 1200 km.

(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) none of these

If Manoj earns Rs. 1200 in 10 days, then answer the following questions Q11 to Q15

72. Manoj’s per day income is Rs. ______

(a) 120 (b) 150 (c) 160 (d) none of these

73. Manoj’s income for 18 days is Rs. ______

(a) 2140 (b) 2150 (c) 2160 (d) none of these

74. Manoj’s income for 32 days is Rs. ______

(a) 3840 (b) 3850 (c) 3860 (d) none of these

75. Manoj will earn Rs. 9600 in _____ days.

(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) none of these

76. Manoj’s income for 30 days is Rs. ______

(a) 3000 (b) 3400 (c) 3600 (d) none of these

If 12 boxes are required to hold 48 litres of milk, then answer the following
questions Q1 to Q5:

77. ______ boxes will be required to hold 60 litres of milk.

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) none of these

78. 36 boxes will be required to hold _____ litres of milk.

(a) 155 (b) 146 (c) 144 (d) none of these

79. ______ boxes will be required to hold 16 litres of milk.

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) 11

80. 48 boxes will be required to hold _____ litres of milk.

(a) 195 (b) 192 (c) 144 (d) none of these

81. 60 boxes will be required to hold _____ litres of milk.

(a) 240 (b) 225 (c) 250 (d) none of these

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If the weight of 81 books is 9 kg, then answer the following questions Q6 to Q10:

82. The weight of 36 such books is _____ kg.

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) none of these

83. The weight of 180 such books is _____ kg.

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) none of these

84. The weight of 108 such books is _____ kg.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

85. The weight of 72 such books is _____ kg.

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) none of these

86. ____ books will weighs 1 kg.

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) none of these

If the cost of 3 dozens of banana is Rs. 60, then answer the following questions Q11
to Q15:

87. Cost of 5 dozens of banana is Rs. _____

(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) none of these

88. Cost of 1 dozen of banana is Rs. _____

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) none of these

89. _____ dozens of banana can be bought for Rs. 120.

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

90. _____ bananas can be bought for Rs. 30.

(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) none of these

91. Cost of 15 dozen of banana is Rs. _____

(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 300 (d) none of these

If the cost of 10 kg of wheat is Rs. 172.50, then answer the following questions:

92. Cost of 8 kg of wheat will be Rs. _____

(a) 131 (b) 135 (c) 138 (d) none of these

93. Cost of 18 kg of wheat will be Rs. _____

(a) 310 (b) 310.50 (c) 621 (d) none of these

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94. ______ kg of wheat can be purchased for Rs. 103.50

(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 24 (d) 36

95. ______ kg of wheat can be purchased for Rs. 431.25

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) none of these

96. Cost of 100 kg of wheat will be Rs. _____

(a) 1725 (b) 17250 (c) 17.25 (d) none of these

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 13
SYMMETRY

1. Which of the followings has both horizontal as well as vertical line of symmetry:

(a) S (b) A (c) U (d) H

2. The mirror image of ‘W’, when the mirror is placed vertically:

(a) V (b) M (c)  (d) W

3. Number of lines of symmetry a triangle does not have:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0

4. A parallelogram has ______ lines of symmetry:

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

5. Which of the following alphabets has line symmetry ?

(a) P (b) Z (c) A (d) Q

6. How many lines of symmetries are there in an equilateral triangle?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

7. Which of the following letters have reflection line of symmetry about vertical mirror?
(a) B (b) C (c) V (d) Q

8. How many lines of symmetries are there in an isosceles triangle ?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9. How many lines of symmetries are there in a rhombus?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

10. How many lines of symmetries are there in a square?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

11. How many lines of symmetries are there in regular pentagon?

(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

12. How many lines of symmetries are there in rectangle?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

13. Letter ‘A’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

14. Letter ‘B’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

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15. Letter ‘C’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

16. Find the number of lines of symmetry of the following figure:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

17. Find the number of lines of symmetry of the following figure:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

18. Find the number of lines of symmetry in regular hexagon.

(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

19. Letter ‘D’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

20. Letter ‘E’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

21. Letter ‘F’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

22. Letter ‘G’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

23. Letter ‘H’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

24. Letter ‘I’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

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25. Letter ‘M’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

26. Letter ‘T’ of the English alphabet have reflectional symmetry (i.e., symmetry related
to mirror reflection) about.
(a) a vertical mirror (b) a horizontal mirror
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

27. Find the number of lines of symmetry in the below left figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

28. Find the number of lines of symmetry in the above right sided figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these

29. Find the number of lines of symmetry in the below left figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

30. Find the number of lines of symmetry in the above right sided figure:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

31. Find the number of lines of symmetry in a circle.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these

32. Which of the followings has no line of symmetry:

(a) S (b) A (c) U (d) H

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33. Which of the followings has both horizontal as well as vertical line of symmetry:

(a) Z (b) B (c) P (d) I

34. Which letter look the same after reflection when the mirror is placed vertically.
(a) S (b) P (c) Q (d) H

35. Find the number of lines of symmetry in a scalene triangle.

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

36. Which letter look the same after reflection when the mirror is placed vertically.
(a) Z (b) P (c) M (d) N

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 CLASS VI: CHAPTER - 14
PRACTICAL GEOMETRY

1. Which geometrical instrument used to draw line segments and to measure their
lengths.
(a) ruler (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
2. Which geometrical instrument used to draw perpendicular and parallel lines.
(a) ruler (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
3. Which geometrical instrument used to compare lengths.
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
4. Which geometrical instrument used to draw and measure angles.
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
5. Which geometrical instrument used to mark off equal lengths but not to measure them
and draw arcs and circles.
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
6. Name the geometrical instrument having a pair – a pointer on one end and a pencil on
the other.
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
7. Name the geometrical instrument having a pair of pointers
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
8. Name the geometrical instrument having two triangular pieces
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
9. Name the geometrical instrument having a semi-circular device graduated into 180
degree-parts.
(a) protractor (b) compasses (c) divider (d) set squares
10. A _________ is a simple closed curve all of whose points are at the same distance
from a fixed point.
(a) circle (b) diameter (c) radius (d) none of these
11. The line segment joining any two points on the circle is called _____
(a) chord (b) diameter (c) radius (d) none of these
12. A ________ is the longest chord of a circle.
(a) circle (b) diameter (c) radius (d) none of these

13. The line segment forming a polygon are called _________________.

(a) Vertex (b) sides (c) angle (d) curve
14. Number of lines which can be drawn from one point:
(a) one (b) infinite (c) two (d) zero
15. A line has ___________ length.
(a) definite (b) indefinite (c) no (d) none of these.
16. The edge of a ruler draws _____________ .
(a) ray (b) line (c) line segment (d) curve

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