17-08-2024

1015CMD303001240024 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Assertion: The velocity increases, when water flowing in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.
Reason: According to equation of continuity, product of volume and velocity is constant

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

2) The height of a mercury barometer is 75 cm at sea level and 50 cm at the top of a hill. Ratio of
density of mercury to that of air is 104. Then the height of hill is :-

(1) 250 m
(2) 2.5 km
(3) 1.25 km
(4) 750 m

3) A piston of cross sectional area 100 cm2 is used in a hydraulic press to exert a force of 107 dyne on
the water. The cross sectional area of the other piston which supports an object having a mass 2000
kg is:-

(1) 100 cm2

(2) 109 cm2
(3) 2 × 104 cm2
(4) 2 × 1010 cm2

4) The pressure of the confined air in the right leg is P1. If the atmospheric pressure is P, then :-

(1) P is equal to P1
(2) P is less than P1
(3) P is greater than P1
(4) P may be less or greater than P1 depending on the mass of the confined air

5) A ball whose density is 0.4 × 103 kg/m3 falls into water from a height of 9 cm. To what depth does
the ball sink?

(1) 9 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 4.5 cm
(4) 2.25 cm

6) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with one fourth of its volume immersed in the liquid. If whole
of the system accelerates upward with acceleration g/4, the fraction of volume immersed in the
liquid will be :-

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 3/4
(4) 2/3

7) A piece of solid weighs 120g in open air, 80g in water and 60g in a liquid. The relative density of
the solid and that of the liquid are respectively :

(1) 3, 2
(2) 3, 3/2
(3) 3/2, 2
(4) 4, 3

8) Water and oil are poured into the two limbs of a U-tube containing mercury. The interface of the
mercury and the liquids are at the same height in both the limbs. If h2 = 20 cm, density of oil is 0.9

g/cm3, then value of h1 is :-

(1) 18 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 12 cm

9) A plastic sphere is held below the surface of a lake by tying a thread at the bottom of the lake. The
tension in the thread is 900 N. The sphere has volume 0.65 m3. Find the mass of the sphere :-

(1) 250 kg
(2) 340 kg
(3) 470 kg
(4) 560 kg

10) The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8cm2, one end of which has 40 fine
holes each of area 10–8 m2. If the liquid flows inside the tube with a speed of 0.15m min–1, the speed
with which the liquid is ejected through the holes is:

(1) 50ms–1
(2) 5ms–1
(3) 0.05ms–1
(4) 0.5ms–1

11) The velocity of kerosene oil in a horizontal pipe is 5ms-1, then velocity head of oil will be (g=10
ms-2)

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 12.5 m
(3) 0.125 m
(4) 125 m

12) Along a streamline of a liquid flow :-

(1) The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant

(2) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant
(3) The velocity of all fluid particles at given instant is constant
(4) The speed of a fluid particle is constant

13) A force of 70 N is applied on a block of mass 5 kg as shown in figure. The normal reaction

offered by the ground on the block is:-

(1) 50 N
(2) 20 N
(3) Zero
(4) 70 N

14) Identical constant forces push two identical objects A and B continuously from a starting line to
a finish line. If A is initially at rest and B is initially moving to the right,

(1) Object A has the larger change in momentum.

(2) Object B has the larger change in momentum.
(3) Both objects have the same change in momentum
(4) Not enough information is given to decide.

15) If a block is held between two inclined planes then find value of normal reaction by wedge A &

wedge B respectively

(1) 60, 80
(2) 80, 60
(3) 60, 100
(4) 100, 80

16) Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are connected by a string as shown in the figure over a

frictionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) zero
(4) 6 m/s2

17) The acceleration of the 2kg block if the free end of string is pulled with a force of 20 N as shown

is :–

(1) Zero
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 upward
(4) 5 m/s2 downward

18) In the arrangement shown the pulleys are fixed and ideal, the string are light m1 > m2 and S is a

massless spring balance. The reading of S (in unit of mass) is :-

(1) m1 – m2

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A man of mass m = 60 kg is standing on weighing machine fixed on a triangular wedge of angle
θ = 60° as shown in figure. The wedge is moving up with an upward acceleration a = 2 m/s2. The

weight registered by machine is (g = 10 m/s2) :

(1) 600 N
(2) 1440 N
(3) 360 N
(4) 240 N

20) A force F pushes a block weighing 10 kg against a vertical wall as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of friction between the block and wall is 0.5. The minimum value of F to start the upward
motion of block is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 500 newton

(2) 400 newton
(3) 250 newton
(4) Can't be determined
21) A block of mass 10 kg is kept over a rough surface and a force F = 4t is applied on it (where t is
time in sec.). Then the minimum value of t for which the block will start moving is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4 sec.
(2) 10 sec.
(3) 8 sec.
(4) 5 sec

22) If the mass of block is 1 kg and a force of N is applied horizontally on the block as shown in
the figure. The frictional force acting on the block is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4) 5N

23) The moment of inertia of a disc (radius R, mass M) about a tangential axis perpendicular to its
plane will be :-

(1)

(2) MR2

(3)
MR2
(4) 2MR2

24) The uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 1.6 m is pivoted at its end and swings freely in the
vertical plane. Angular acceleration of rod just after the rod is released from rest in the horizontal

position as shown in figure is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A mass M is moving with a constant velocity parallel to x-axis. Its angular momentum w.r.t.
origin :-

(1) Is zero
(2) Remains constant
(3) Goes on increasing
(4) Goes on decreasing

26) Assertion (A) :- It is very difficult to open or close a door if force is applied near the hinge.
Reason (R) :- The moment of applied force is lesser near the hinge.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

27) The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass
and radius, around their respective axes is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) If the sphere is in pure rolling then ratio of speed of point B to that of A is :

(1) 2:1
(2)
(3) 1:1
(4) infinity

29) A force of acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, –1)
is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

30) The square sheet is pivoted at O. The net torque on it about O is :-

(1) 0.2 Nm clockwise

(2)
0.2 Nm anticlockwise

(3)
0.2 Nm clockwise
(4) 0.2 Nm anticlockwise

31) Three identical point masses of mass m lie in x-y plane at point (0, 0) , (0, 2a) then
gravitational force on mass at origin is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is the evidence to show that there must be a force acting on earth and
directed towards the sun :-

(1) Deviation of the falling bodies towards east

(2) Revolution of the earth round the sun
(3) Phenomenon of day and night
(4) Apparent motion of sun round the earth

33) If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between them :-

(1) Is doubled
(2) Becomes four times
(3) Is reduced to half
(4) Is reduced to a quarter
34) The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 metre
in vacuum is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 6.675 × 10–5 newton
(3) 6.675 × 10–11 newton
(4) 6.675 × 10–8 newton

35) The gravitational force Fg between two objects does not depend on :-

(1) Medium between them

(2) Product of the masses
(3) Gravitational constant
(4) Distance between the masses

SECTION-B

1) A cube of edge length 10 cm is just balanced at the interface of two liquids A and B as shown in
figure. If A and B has specific gravity 0.6 and 0.4 respectively, then mass of cube is :-

(1) 240 g
(2) 360 g
(3) 480 g
(4) 540 g

2) A tank is filled with water upto a height H. Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the
walls at a depth D below the surface of water. Express the horizontal distance x in terms of H and D

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

3) There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm =
105 N/m2), then the velocity of water flowing from hole is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

4) In a cylindrical vessel containing a liquid of density ρ, there are two holes in the side walls at
heights of h1 and h2 respectively such that the range of efflux at the bottom of the vessel is same. The
height of a hole for which the range of efflux would be maximum

(1) h2 - h1
(2) h2 + h1

(3)

(4)

5) A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1cm2 in its bottom. If the water is allowed to flow into the tank
from a tube above it at the rate of 70 cm3/s, then the maximum height upto which water can rise in
the tank is (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 2.5 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 0.25 cm

6) A helicopter is moving to the right at a constant horizontal velocity. It experiences three forces
and force on it caused by rotor . Which of the following diagrams can be
correct free body diagram representing forces on the helicopter ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Calculate T1 & T2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) According to given figure monkey X of mass 15 kg moving downwards with acceleration 2 m/s2
and monkey Y of mass 10 kg is moving upwards with acceleration 1 m/sec2 on light rope then find

out force exerted on point O :–

(1) 210 N
(2) 230 N
(3) 21 N
(4) 200 N

9) A toy train in C.B. garden Kota consist of 4 coaches of 100 kg each. Its coaches are joined by a
magnetic coupler which can support 1200 N. Mass of engine is 600 Kg. The external horizontal force
on engine which is applied by ground for no link to break is (Assume no friction between coaches
and rail) :–

(1) 1200 N
(2) 2400 N
(3) 3000 N
(4) 1000 N

10) An arrangement of two blocks of same mass m kept inside a lift which is moving with
acceleration a in vertical downward direction. Find acceleration of block A with respect to ground :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

11) The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis passing
through a point at a distance of L/3 from one of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) A small object of mass M radius R and uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial

velocity v as shown in figure. It reaches upto a height of with repect to initial position. The

object is :

(1) a circular disc

(2) a circular ring
(3) a hollow sphere
(4) a solid sphere

13) A thin and circular disc of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis
passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity ω. If another disc
of the same dimensions but of mass M/4 is placed genetly on the first disc coaxially, then the new
angular velocity of the system is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Figure shows a uniform disc, with mass M = 2.4 kg and radius R = 20 cm, mounted on a
fixed horizontal axle. A block of mass m = 1.2 kg hangs from a massless cord which is wrapped
around the rim of the disc. The tension in the cord is :

(1) 12 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 6 N

15) The distance between the centres of moon and earth is D. The mass of earth is 8l times the mass
of the moon. At what distance from the centre of the earth, the gravitational force will be zero :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Given that Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62°C, compute the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral aqueous
solution at 62°C :-

(1) 7.0
(2) 13.30
(3) 14.0
(4) 13.0

2) pOH of 0.002 M HNO3 is :-

(1) 11 + log 2
(2) 11 – log 2
(3) –3 + log 2
(4) None of these

3) Which of the following is the strongest acid (pKa value is given) ?

(1) HCOOH [3.77]

(2) C6H5COOH [4.22]
(3) CH3COOH [4.7]
(4) CH3CH2COOH [4.88]

4) pH of an aqueous NaCl solution at 50°C should be :-

(1) 7
(2) > 7
(3) < 7
(4) 0

5) Upon hydrolysis of sodium carbonate, the reaction takes place between :-

(1) Na+ and water

(2) Na+ and OH–
(3) and water
(4) and H+

6) In which of the following cases is the solution of AgCl unsaturated ?

+ –
(1) [Ag ] [Cl ] < Ksp
+ –
(2) [Ag ] [Cl ] > Ksp
+ –
(3) [Ag ] [Cl ] = Ksp
+ –
(4) [Ag ] [Cl ] ≤ Ksp

7) When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, the precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 ×
10–10) will occur with :-

(1) 10–4 M (Ag+) and 10–4 M (Cl–)

(2) 10–5 M (Ag+) and 10–5 M (Cl–)
(3) 10–5 M (Ag+) and 10–6 M (Cl–)
(4) 10–10 M (Ag+) and 10–10 M (Cl–)

8) The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxBy in water is 'S' moles per litre. The solubility product
has the value :-

(1) S2
(2) xyyx . Sx+y
(3) xxyySx+y
(4) Sx+y

9) The solubility in terms of Ksp for A3B(aq.) is :-

(1)

(2)

1/4
(3) (27 Ksp)
1/4
(4) (3 Ksp)

10) If pKa of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 each, then pH of aqueous solution
of ammonium acetate is :-

(1) 7
(2) less than 7
(3) more than 7
(4) Zero
11) Configuration 5s2 5p2 Belongs to :-

(1) Group II A and Period 3

(2) Group IV A and Period 4
(3) Group IV A and Period 5
(4) Group II B and Period 5

12) Which of the following element was present in mendeleev's periodic table ?

(1) Sc
(2) Tc
(3) Al
(4) Ge

13) Atomic weight of which element corrected by mendeleev ?

(1) Carbon(C)
(2) Gold(Au)
(3) Uranium(U)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

14) Total number of transuranic actinoids :-

(1) 14
(2) 12
(3) 11
(4) 92

15)

Write the number of pairs in which size of first element or ion is higher as compare to IInd out of
following pairs.
(O, S), (He, Ne), (Kr, Ne), (Na, Na+), (Cl, Cl–), (I–,Cl–),(K,Ba), (Li,Na), (Li+, Mg+2)

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

16) If zeff of Na is ‘x’ then zeffect of carbon will be:

(1) n + 0.90
(2) x + 1.05
(3) x + 1.95
(4) x + 0.40

17) Which of the following is Dobereiner’s Triad :-

(1) C, O, F
(2) Fe, Co, Ni
(3) Li, Na, K
(4) F, Cl, Br

18) Which of the following element is not a transition element :-

(1) Zr
(2) Pd
(3) Hg
(4) Co

19) The incorrect order of Zeff will be :-

(1) Fe < Fe+2 < Fe+3

(2) N–3 < O–2 < F–
(3) Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3
(4) Ti+2 < V+3 < Mn+5

20) According to slater's rule incorrect order of Zeff on valence shell electron is :-

(1) Fe > Fe+2 > Fe+3

(2) N–3 < O–2 < F–
(3) Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Cl– < Cl < Cl+

21) Which electronic configuration of an atom is smallest in size :-

(1) 3s2
(2) 3s23p3
(3) 3s1
2 2 2 1
(4) 3s 3px 3py 3pz

22) Element H will have Vander waal and covalent radius as respectively :-

(1) 85 nm, 85 nm
(2) 85 nm, 55 nm
(3) 55 nm, 85 nm
(4) 55 nm, 55 nm

23) The radius of potassium atom is 0.203 nm. The radius of the potassium ion in nanometer will be
:-

(1) 0.133
(2) 0.231
(3) 0.234
(4) 0.251

24) The radius of isoelectronic series :-

(1) decreases with decreasing nuclear charge

(2) decreases with increasing effective nuclear charge
(3) same for all
(4) first increases then decreases

25) Eka-Boron & Eka-Silicon are now called, respectively :-

(1) Al, Si
(2) Ga, Si
(3) Al, Ge
(4) Sc, Ge

26) 4-d transition series starts & ends from which of the following elements ?

(1) Sc to Zn
(2) Y to Xe
(3) La, Hf to Hg
(4) Y to Cd

27) The present form of periodic table has been classified into :-

(1) 18 groups
(2) 7 periods
(3) s, p, d, f blocks
(4) All of the above

28) An element belongs to 3rd period & group-13 of the periodic table which of the following
properties will be shown by the element.

(1) Liquid & non-metallic

(2) Has an oxide with formula M2O3
(3) Bad conductor of electricity
(4) Solid & non-metallic

29) The element 120 will have an IUPAC symbol :-

(1) Uub
(2) Unn
(3) Ubn
(4) Bum
30) The correct order of atomic radii of Cs, Al, C & S is :-

(1) S < C < Al < Cs

(2) S < C < Cs < Al
(3) C < S < Cs < Al
(4) C < S < Al < Cs

31) Which of the following groups represent isoelectronic species ?

(1) N3–, F–, Na+

(2) Be, Al3+, Cl–
(3) Ca2+, Cs+, Br
(4) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+

32) The Zeff on 3d e– of V(Z = 23) will be :-

(1) 4.3
(2) 3.3
(3) 2.3
(4) 23

33) Assertion (A) :- The element with electronic configuration [Xe]4f15d16s2 is an f-block element.
Reason (R) :- The last e– enters the f-subshell.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true & (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding inert gases ?

(1) They are monoatomic.

(2) They belong to group zero.
(3) Metallic radii is calculated for them.
(4) Their valency is generally zero.

35) Which of the following statement is correct regarding given part of P.T. ?

(1) A is not a transition element.

(2) B element has 3e– in it's outermost shell.
(3) C element has general electronic Configuration of ns2np5.
(4) All of these

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is false for acidic aqueous solution at 25°C ?

(1)

(2) pH > pOH

(3)

(4) pH < pOH

2) 10–5 M NaOH solution at 25°C is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the resultant solution will :-

(1) be equal to 8
(2) lie between 7 and 8
(3) lie between 6 and 7
(4) remain unchanged

3) The pH values of decinormal solution of NH4OH which is 20% ionised, is :-

(1) 13.30
(2) 14.70
(3) 12.30
(4) 12.95

4) pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is :-

(1) 0.5 × 10–15

(2) 0.25 × 10–10
(3) 0.125 × 10–15
(4) 0.5 × 10–10

5) The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be :-

(1) 1.26 × 10–5 M

(2) 1.6 × 10–9 M
(3) 1.6 × 10–11 M
(4) Zero

6)

IUPAC name of the element placed just after actinoids series :-

(1) Unniltrium
(2) Unnilpentium
(3) Unnilquadium
(4) Ununbium

7) Which of the following set of elements belongs to same period :-

(1) Fr, Ra, U

(2) Zn, Cd, Hg
(3) K, Ca, Ag
(4) None

8) If atomic radius of B, Al and Ga are x, y and z respectively then correct order is :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x > y > z
(3) y > z > x
(4) y > x > z

9) Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Shielding constant (σ) increases in a group

(2) Zeff increases always in a group
(3) Zeff increases in a period
(4) All

10) Which of the following is correct regarding dobereiner triads ?

(1) It forms a group of 3 elements having dissimilar properties.

(2) Atomic masses were different by 1 to 2 units only.
(3) It was only for metals.
(4) Elements of the triad were from the same group.

11) Select the incorrect statement out of the following :-

(1) Mendeleev plotted a curve between atomic masses & atomic volume
(2) Lothar Meyer plotted a curve between atomic mass & atomic volume
(3) Moseley plotted a curve between of x-rays emitted by an element & Z
(4) Modern periodic table is based on Z

12) The total no. of elements in a period is :-

(1) 2x no. of orbitals available in that period

(2) 2x no. of subshells available in the period
(3) 2x principal quantum no. of the period
(4) All of the above
13) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Eka-Aluminium (i) s-block element

(B) [Kr] 5s2 (ii) Transition element

(C) Uuu (iii) Gallium

(D) Te, I (iv) Anomalous pair

(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

14) Which e– of Cr would be the easiest to remove ?

(1) 3d
(2) 4s
(3) 3s
(4) 3p

15) The elements having Z = 35, 53 & 85 are all :-

(1) Transition elements

(2) Noble gases
(3) Halogens
(4) Alkali metals

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Intra molecular
(i) α helix Keratin
hydrogen bond

β pleated Inter molecular

(ii) Fibroin
sheet hydrogen bonding

Tertiary 2 Polypeptide
(iii) Haemoglobin
structure chain
(1) i only
(2) i and ii only
(3) i and ii and iii
(4) iii only

2) Match List - I with List - II

List-I List-II

(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds

Unsaturated
(b) (ii) Homopolymer
fatty acid

(c) Chitin (iii) Glycosidic bonds

(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
(2) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii
(3) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii

3) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–Primary structure, b–Secondary structure

(2) a–Secondary structure, b–Primary structure
(3) a–Secondary structure, b–Tertiary structure
(4) a–Tertiary structure, b–Quaternary structure

4)

Building block of protein is –

(1) Monosaccharide
(2) Disaccharide
(3) Amino acid
(4) Nucleoside

5) Identify the amino acids marked as A, B and C :

(1) A = Alanine, B = Serine, C = Glycine

(2) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Arginine
(3) A = Glutamic acid, B = Serine, C = Alanine
(4) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Alanine

6) What does X and Y represent in the structures given below ?

(1) X = Uridylic acid, Y = Uridine

(2) X = Uridine, Y = Uridylic acid
(3) X = Uridine, Y = Uracil
(4) X = Uracil, Y = Uridine

7) In a double stranded DNA sample, 30 molecules of pentose sugar are present. In this sample what
will be the number of purine N-bases ?

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 6
(4) 20

8) Match Column-I and Column-II.

Column - I Column - II
C–C single
(a) Collagen (i)
bonds
Saturated Phosphodiester
(b) (ii)
fatty acid bonds
Glycogen and
(c) DNA & RNA (iii)
Chitin
(d) Homopoly-saccharide (iv) Amino acids

Choose the correct answer from option and given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii i ii iv

(2) iv iii i ii

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) iv i ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Plants perform maximum photosynthesis in blue and red light, this fact was experimently proved
by :-

(1) T.W. Engelmann

(2) Cornelius Van Niel
(3) Julius Von Sachs
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

10) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Photochemical Thylakoid
(i) Photosystem
phase membrane

Paper Yellow
(ii) Chlorophyll 'b'
Chromatography orange

Red light
(iii) Carotenoids Chief pigment
absorption
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

11) Select the incorrect statement about non-cyclic photophosphorylation :-

(1) In PS-II the reaction centre Chl-a absorbs 680 nm wavelength of red light
Electrons in the reaction centre of PS-I are excited when they receive red light of wavelength
(2)
700 nm
(3) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH + H+
The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS-I complex through
(4)
the ETS

12) Enzyme which can catalyse both carboxylation and oxygenation of RuBP in the chloroplast is not
found in which of the following cells ?

(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants

(2) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants

13) Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below

Characters C3 plant C4 plant

 CO2 fixation rate
A High
under high light intensity

Photorespiration at low
B Negligible
light intensity

Photorespiration at high
High C
light intensity

Photorespiration if CO2
Negligible D
concentration is high

A B C D

(1) Medium High Negligible High

(2) High High Negligible Negligible

(3) Negligible Negligible High High

(4) Medium Negligible Negligible Negligible

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) During photosynthesis, fixation of one CO2 molecule in maize (A) and tomato (B) plant require :-

[A] - 5 ATP & 2 NADPH2

(1)
[B] - 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
[A] - 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(2)
[B] - 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
[A] - 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2
(3)
[B] - 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
[A] - 30 ATP & 12 NADPH2
(4)
[B] - 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2

15) Read the following statements :-

(i) Decrease in the rate of photosynthesis at very high O2 concentration in C3-plants.
(ii) CO2 compensation point in C3 plants is 25-100 ppm whereas for C4 plants is 0-10 ppm.
(iii) Quality of light refers to wavelength of light.
(iv) Solarisation occurs at light intesities beyond the light saturation point.
(v) There is a linear relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light intensities
when plotted graphically.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) One
16) Which among the following is wrong?
(i) Only carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy in the process of respiration.
(ii) Energy produced in respiration is not released in a single step.
(iii) ATP can be broken down, as and when energy needs to be utilised.

(1) Only (ii)

(2) Only (iii)
(3) Only (i)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

17) The common component of TCA cycle and electron transport chain is :-

(1) Succinate dehydrogenase

(2) ATP synthase
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(4) Succinyl Co-A

18) Complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase complex containing cytochromes :-

(1) b and c1 and one copper centre

(2) a and a3 and four copper centres
(3) c1 and c and three copper centres
(4) a and a3 and two copper centres

19) Match the column I with column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:-.

Column-I Column-II
Conversion of Kreb’s
(A) (i)
glucose to pyruvate Cycle
Conversion of Electron
(B) pyruvate to (ii) transport
Acetyl CoA system
Break down of
(C) Acetyl CoA to yield (iii) Glycolysis
reduced co-enzyme
Synthesis Oxidative
(D) (iv)
of ATP decarboxylation
(1) (A) → iii, (B) → iv, (C) → i, (D) → ii
(2) (A) → iii, (B) → iv, (C) → ii, (D) → i
(3) (A) → iv, (B) → iii, (C) → ii, (D) → i
(4) (A) → iii, (B) → i, (C) → iv, (D) → ii

20) The aerobic respiration yields

(1) 8NADH2; 2FADH2; 2ATP

(2) 10NADH2; 2FADH2; 38ATP
(3) 12NADH2; 30ATP; H2O
(4) 10NADH2; 2FADH2; 2GTP; 2ATP

21) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Respiration is a amphibolic process i.e. it includes both catabolism and anabolism.
(2) Respiration occur only in presence of oxygen
(3) Respiration is an exergonic process
(4) Respiration includes oxidation of carbohydrates protein and fat

22) The number of ATP molecules produced by electron transport system from kreb's cycle
intermediates (NADH2 & FADH2) in a single turn, is :

(1) 11
(2) 14
(3) 12
(4) 16

23) Statement-I :- Fermentation accounts for only a partial breakdown of glucose whereas in
aerobic respiration it is completely breakdown to CO2 and H2O.
Statement-II :- In alcohol fermentation there is a net gain of only two molecules of ATP for each
molecules glucose breakdown to ethanol and CO2.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

24)

Read the following statements :-

(i) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%
(ii) In both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation not much energy is released, less than 7% of the
energy in glucose is released and not all of it is trapped as high energy bonds of ATP
(iii) The ratio of ATP formed in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is 18 : 1 or 19 : 1

(iv) During aerobic respiration, complete oxidation of respiratory substrate releases energy, CO2 but
not water.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

25) Growth is measurable on the basis of

(1) Increase in fresh weight

(2) Increase in dry weight
(3) Increase in surface area / volume
(4) All of these

26) Read the following statements:

(i) The unlimited growth throughout the life in plants is due to the presence of meristems at all
locations in their body
(ii) The form of growth in plants wherein new cells are always being added to the body by the
activity of the meristem is called 'open' form of growth
(iii) Growth may be reversible
(iv) Development is the sum total of two processes— growth and differentiation
(v) Growth is regarded as one of the most fundamental characteristics of living being
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (iii) only

27) Select correct option with respect to A, B and C for given graph :-

A = lag phase ; B = stationary phase ;

(1)
C = log phase
A = stationary phase ; B = log phase ;
(2)
C = lag phase
A = log phase ; B = lag phase ;
(3)
C = stationary phase
A = lag phase ; B = log phase ;
(4)
C = stationary phase

28) Identify the correct matching for plant hormone and its associated function :-

(i) Auxin (a) Bolting

Apical hook
(ii) Gibberellin (b)
formation
Nutrient
(iii) Cytokinin (c)
mobilisation
(iv) Ethylene (d) Parthenocarpy
(1) (i) – d, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – a
(2) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – a, (iv) – d
(3) (i) – d, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – b
(4) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – a

29) Select the mismatched pair

(1) Gibberellic acid – Increases yield of sugarcane

(2) Cytokinin – Promotes apical dominance
(3) Ethylene – Sprouting of potato tuber
(4) Abscisic acid – Inhibits seed germination

30) Which of the following statements are incorrect?

a. Cytokinin counteracts the effect of apical dominance
b. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of cytokinin
c. Pomalin = Auxin + cytokinin
d. 2, 4-D is synthetic auxin used to destroy dicot weeds

(1) a & d
(2) c & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & b

31) Which one of the PGRs would be used by farmers if they are asked to ?
(a) Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(b) Stimulates the closure of stomata.
(c) Induces flowering in mango
(d) Elongation and improvement in shape of apple
(e) Promote nutrient mobilisation

a-Auxins, b-ABA,
(1)
c-Ethylene, d-GA, e-Cytokinin
a-Ethylene, b-GA, c-Auxin,
(2)
d-ABA, e-Cytokinin
a-Auxin, b-ABA,
(3)
c-Cytokinin, d-Ethylene, e-GA
a-Cytokinin, b-Auxin,
(4)
c-GA, d-ABA, e-Ethylene

32) Identify a, b, c, and d in the given sentences-

1. Spraying sugarcane crop with __a__ increase in the lenth of the stem, thus increasing the yield by
as much as __b__ tonnes per acre.
2. __c__ does not occur naturally in plants.
3. Search of natural substance with cytokinins like activities led to the isolation of __d__ from
cornkernals

(1) a-Auxins, b-10, c-NAA, d-Zeatin

(2) a-Gibberellins, b-20, c-Zeatin, d-kinetin
(3) a-Gibberellins, b-10, c-Zeatin, d-kinetin
(4) a- Gibberellins, b-20, c- kinetin, d- Zeatin

33) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Enzymes are highly specific to substrate
(b) Enzymes require optimum temperature and pH for maximum activity.
(c) Almost all enzymes are protein
(d) Enzyme increase the activation energy

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

34) Which statement about the enzymes is true?

(1) They act to speed up a biochemical reaction

(2) They are made up of proteins or RNA in some cases
(3) They are sensitive to temperature and pH
(4) All of these

35) Choose the correct statement(s).

Km (Michaelis–Menten) constant is the substrate concentration at which the enzymatic reaction

(1)
attains half of its maximum velocity (1/2 Vmax)
(2) At lower Km, higher the substrate affinity for enzyme
(3) Vmax is reached when all the active sites of an enzyme are saturated with substrate
(4) All of these

SECTION-B

1) is the structure of which of the following compounds?

(1) Glyceraldehyde
(2) Glycerol
(3) Glyceric acid
(4) Triglycerides

2) The β-pleated sheet protein structure is due to :

(1) Coiling of the polypeptide chains

(2) The linking together of two or more polypeptide chains by intermolecular H-bonds
(3) Formation of peptide bonds
(4) The folding of the coiled polypeptide chains
3) The simplest amino acid is :-

(1) Glycine
(2) Lysine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Aspartic acid

4) Identify the linkages X, Y and Z in the diagram:

(1) X = α–1, 6 ; Y = α–1,4; Z = α–1,4

(2) X = β–1, 6 ; Y = β–1,4; Z = β–1,4
(3) X = α–1, 6 ; Y = β–1,4; Z = α–1,4
(4) X = β–1, 6 ; Y = α–1,4; Z = β–1,4

5) DNA and RNA differ with respect to :-

(1) only purine

(2) only pyrimidine
(3) Both purine and pyrimidine
(4) Sugar and nitrogen base

6) If 50,000 base pair are present in a double stranded DNA what will be the number of coils. :-

(1) 4500
(2) 5000
(3) 50000
(4) 500

7) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Galactose (i) Protein

(B) Anticoagulant (ii) Phospholipid

 (C) Fructose (iii) Brain sugar

(D) Lecithin (iv) Heparin

(E) Insulin (v) Fruit sugar

(1) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(iv)
(2) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i)

8) Which one is incorrectly matched :-

(1) Joseph Priestley - discovered oxygen

(2) Jan Ingenhousz - requirement of CO2
(3) Julius Von Sachs - evidence of glucose
T.W. Engelmann - first action spectrum
(4)
of photosynthesis

9) PS I and PS II occur over

(1) Grana of chloroplast

(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Stroma of chloroplast
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondrion

10) CO2 saturation point for C3 and C4 plants respectively :-

(1) 300 ppm & 500 ppm

(2) 500 ppm & 360 ppm
(3) 450 ppm & 360 ppm
(4) 400 ppm & 450 ppm

11) Which of the following is the favoured substrate for respiration?

(1) Fat
(2) Protein
(3) Glucose
(4) Organic acids

12) The exponential growth can be mathematically expressed as :

(1) Lt = L0 +rt
rt
(2) W1 = W0 +e
rt
(3) W1 = W0 e
(4) Lt = L0 –rt
13) Butter cup represents :-

(1) Development heterophylly

(2) Development plasticity
(3) Environmental heterophylly
(4) Origin and developmental heterophylly

14) Which is/are biomolecule ?

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) All of the above

15) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues/cells in terms of % of the total
cellular mass :-

(1) Nucleic acid > proteins > H2O > carbohydrates > ion > lipids
(2) H2O > proteins > nucleic acid > carbohydrates > lipids > ions
(3) H2O > proteins > carbohydrates > nucleic acid > lipids > ions
(4) Lipids > ions > carbohydrates > H2O > proteins > nucleic acid

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following graphs regarding the effect of change of different factors on enzymatic
activity.

Choose the correct option with respect to A & B given in the graph.

(1) A-Substrate concentration, B-Temperature

(2) A-pH, B-Substrate concentration
(3) A-Temperature, B-pH
(4) A-Substrate concentration, B-pH

2) How many of the following statement is/are correct?

(i) Haem is the prosthetic group and is a part of active site of enzyme peroxidase.
(ii) NADP is a co-factor
(iii) During competitive inhibition Vmax decrease.
(iv) During competitive inhibition substrate and inhibitor competes with each other to bind with
active site.

(1) Only I
(2) Only I and II
(3) I, II and IV
(4) II, III and IV

3) Match the following columns and select the incorrect option.

Column - I Column - II
A Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine
B Essential oils Lemongrass oil
C Drugs Abrin, Ricin
D Lectins Vinblastin
Polymeric Rubber, Gums,
E
substances Cellulose
F Pigments Concanavalin A

Option :
(1) Only A, B, E pairs incorrect
(2) Only E pair incorrect
(3) Only C, D & F pairs incorrect
(4) Only C pair incorrect

4) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

A Tetrose sugar (i) Galactose

B. Pentose sugar (ii) Maltose

C. Hexose sugar (iii) Erythrose

D. Disaccharide (iv) Ribose

(v) Sedoheptulose
(1) A–v, B–iv, C–iii, D–i, ii
(2) A–iii, B–iv, C–v, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–i, ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–v

5) Which of the following is not homopolysaccharide?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Dextrin
(4) Heparin

6) Which of the following is not a micromolecule ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Cellulose

7) Which of the following statement is false ?

Chitin is a homopolysaccharide occurring in exoskeleton of arthropods consists of N-acetyl

(1)
glucosamine
(2) Glucosamine & galactosamine are amino sugars
(3) Cellulose show blue colour when treated with iodine
(4) Starch show blue colour when treated with iodine

8) How many total carbons are found in palmitic acid ?

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18

9) Given structure is showing :

(1) A simple lipid

(2) A protein
(3) A compound lipid
(4) A polysaccharide

10) Which of the following statements are not true ?

A. Glycerol is a 3-carbon compound with three–OH groups.
B. Waxes are monoesters with only one molecule of fatty acid attached with along chain
monohydroxy alcohol.
C. Proteins are heteropolymers of nucleotides.
D. Stearic acid is a unsaturated fatty acid while oleic acid is saturated fatty acid.

(1) A & B only

(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A & D only

11) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of:

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

12) Example of phylum aschelminthes is/are :-

(1) Smaller male Ascaris and longer female Ascaris

(2) Cloaca in male Ascaris and female Ascaris is without cloaca
(3) Curved Posterior end male Ascaris and straight female Ascaris
(4) All of the above

13) Which of the following animal have both forms polyp and medusa in its life cycle ?

(1) Adamsia
(2) Obelia
(3) Pennatula
(4) Meandrina

14) The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water vascular system, which
does not helps in :-

(1) Capture and transport of food

(2) Respiration
(3) Offence, defence and cleaning
(4) Locomotion

15) The skeleton of animals of porifera consists of :-

(1) Spicules
(2) Spongin fibres
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Chitinous exoskeleton

16)

Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its two examples?

(1) Porifera : Euspongia, Gorgonia

(2) Ctenophora : Obelia, Physalia
(3) Aschelminthes : Ascaris, Ancylostoma
(4) Arthropoda : Pila, Periplaneta

17) Identify diploblastic animal amongst the following:

(1) Ctenoplana
(2) Fasciola
(3) Nereis
(4) Schistosoma

18) Which of the following phylum do possess true coelom ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Platyhelminthes

19) Respiration in insects takes place by:-

(1) Tracheal system

(2) Green glands
(3) Coxal glands
(4) All of the above

20) Assertion :- Coelenterates have tissue grade of organisation.

Reason :- In coelenterates the cells performing the same function are arranged into group.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

21) Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry ?

(1) Adult Echinoderms

(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelids

22) Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of

(1) Mollusca and Chordata

(2) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata and Annelida
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
23) "Animals exhibits radial or bilateral symmetry depending on the stage". This statement is:-

(1) True for Echinodermates

(2) True for Molluscans
(3) True for Arthropods
(4) True for Hemichordates

24) Animals of which phylum posseses high power of regeneration?

(1) Chordates
(2) Hemichordates
(3) NonChordates
(4) All the above

25) Which of the following pairs of animals comprise 'Combjellies' ?

(1) Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus

(2) Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana
(3) Sea anemone and sea pen
(4) Sea lily and brittle star

26) In following diagram this structure is related to :

(1) Food capture

(2) Reproduction
(3) Anchorage
(4) (1) and (3) Both

27) Which of the following option is incorrect regarding echinodermates :-

(1) Excretory system absent

(2) Internal fertilisation
(3) Mouth is ventral and anus is dorsal
(4) Exclusively marine

28) In which of the following a soft and spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the visceral hump ?

(1) Asterias
(2) Echinus
(3) Ophiura
(4) Pila

29) Which statement is false for sponges ?

(1) They are hermaphrodite

(2) They reproduce asexually by fragmentation.
(3) Development is always direct without any larval stage.
(4) Fertilisation is internal

30) Mismatch is :-

(1) Ctenoplana — well marked bioluminescence.

(2) Echinodermata — canal system.
(3) Porifera — spongocoel lined by flagellated choanocytes.
(4) Coelentrata — presence of coelentron cavity.

31)

Stomochord is present in which body part of hemichordates?

(1) Proboscis
(2) Collar
(3) Trunk
(4) Visceral hump

32) Connecting link between chordates and non-chordates

(1) Sphenodon
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Neopilina
(4) Peripatus

33) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select option which includes all the correct one
only.
a. Bones have a hard and non pliable ground substance.
b. Bone matrix is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
c. Bone forming cells are osteocytes.
d. Bones interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements.
Option -

(1) Statements a and b

(2) Statements c and d
(3) Statements b and c
(4) Statements a and d

34) Which structure connects bone with bone?

(1) Tendon
(2) Ligament
(3) Muscle
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35) Assertion : Goblet cells of alimentary canal are multicellular glands.

Reason : Some squamous or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-B

1) Vinblastin and morphine both are :-

(1) Primary metabolite

(2) Secondary metabolite
(3) Basic amino acid
(4) Aromatic amino acid

2) Which of the following match is correct.

Column-I Column-II

Stored food
A. Lactose i.
in animals

B. Fructose ii. Hexose

Nonreducing
C. Cellulose iii.
disaccharide

Unit = β,
D. Glycogen iv.
D-glucose

β-D-glucose +
v.
β-D-galactose
(1) A–iii; B–i; C–v; D–ii
(2) A–v; B–ii; C–iv; D–i
(3) A–iv; B–v; C–iii; D–ii
(4) A–i; B–iii; C–v; D–iv

3) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Starch is a polymer of α-Glucose

(2) Starch is made up of amylose and amylopectin
 Amylose is linear structure consisting of several glucose residues joined by 1, 4 glycosidic
(3)
linkages.
Amylopectin is a straight chain with several glucose residues joined only by 1, 4 glycosidic
(4)
linkages.

4) Which of the sugar is/are reducing among the following?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Glucose
(3) Maltose
(4) (2) & (3) both

5) Male sex hormone testosterone is derived from :-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Lipid
(3) Protein
(4) DNA/RNA

6) Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are given ?

(1) A = Medusa = Asexual stage

(2) B = Medusa = Asexual stage
(3) B = Polyp = Asexual stage
(4) B = Polyp = Sexual stage

7) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options gives.
(1) a–3–S, b–4–R, c–1–T, d–2–T
(2) a–3–S, b–4–R, c–2–T, d–1–T
(3) a–3–R, b–4–S, c–2–T, d–1–T
(4) a–4–Q, b–3–T, c–1–S, d–2–R

8) Which of the following is not the feature of animal given below ?

(1) Bilateral symmetrical and triploblastic animal

(2) Found in marine water
(3) Circulatory system is open typed
(4) Respiration through gills.

9) Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.

A. Presence of mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.
B. Presence of closed circulatory system
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and C only

(2) B, D and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only

10) Select incorrect matching of animals, their body symmetry and coelom.

Animals Symmetry Coelom

(1) Ctenophores Radial Acoelomate
(2) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Acoelomate
(3) Aschelminthes Bilateral Pseudocoelomate
(4) Annelids Radial Coelomate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following is incorrect matching of the phylum, their alimentary canal and
metameric segmentation?

Alimentary Metameric
Phylum
Canal Segmentation
(1) Annelida Complete Present
(2) Arthropoda Complete Present
(3) Mollusca Complete Absent
(4) Platyhelminthes Incomplete Present
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II
a. Cnidoblasts i Mollusca
b. Comb plates ii Echinodermata
c. Parapodia iii Coelenterata
d. Radula iv Ctenophora
e. Water Vascular System v Annelida
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - v, e - ii
(2) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - i
(3) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i, e - v
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - v, d - i, e - ii

13) The cross section of animal body is given below: Which of the following
group will possess the above cross section :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Annelida

14)

Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Ciliated epithelium (i) Air sac of lungs

(b) Columnar epithelium (ii) Gland & tubular part of nephron

(c) Cuboidal epithelium (iii) Bronchioles & fallopian tube

(d) Squamous epithelium (iv) Stomach & intestine

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

15)

Match the column-A with column-B.

Column-A Column-B

White
i. tip of nose a. fibrous
cartilage

Hyaline
ii. Ear pinna b.
cartilage

between
two elastic
iii. c.
adjacent cartilage
vertebrae

Yellow
Ends of
iv. d. fibrous
long bone
cartilage
(1) i-(c), ii-(d), iii-(b), iv-(a)
(2) i-(c), ii-(d), iii-(a), iv-(b)
(3) i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a)
(4) i-(a), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(d)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 4 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 1 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 3 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 1 4 2 4 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 2 1 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 3 1 4 4 4 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

as m is same PA = PB = PC

2)

Difference of pressure between sea level and the top of hill

ΔP = (h1 – h2) × ρHg × g
= (75 – 50) × 10–2 × ρHg × g .....(i)
and pressure difference due to h meter of air
ΔP = h × ρair × g .....(ii)
By equating (i) and (ii) we get
h × rair × g = (75 – 50) × 10–2 × ρHg × g

∴ h = 25 × 10–2 = 25 × 10–2 × 104 = 2500m

∴ Height of the hill = 2.5 km.

3) Ans: 2 × 104 cm2

4)

P + ρgh ⇒ P1
⇒ P1 – P = ρgh
⇒ P1 > P

5)

Velocity of ball when ball enter in water

v=
in water constant retardation

a=g
from 3rd equation of motion
v2 = u2 + 2as
 0 = 2gh – 2g h'

h' =
= 6 cm

6)

For floating mg = ρVg

⇒ V= since volume is independent of 'g' so fraction of volume will remain same.

7) Ans: (2)
3, 3/2

8) PA = PB
P0 + hwρwg = P0 + h0ρ0g
h1 × 1 × g = 20 × 0.9 × g
h1 = 18 cm

9)

T = V (σ – ρ)g = B – mg or mg = B – T
mg = 0.65 × 103 × 10 – 900 = 5600 N
or M = 560 kg

10)

A1v1 = A2v2
(8 × 10–4) = (40 × 10–8)(v)
v = 5 ms–1

11)

In Bernoulli`s theorem

Velocity head = 1.25 m

12)

The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant.

13)

because applied force is greater than the weight of block, so block looses the contact from surface
and normal reaction becomes zero.
 14)

A will take more time to complete the journey & ΔP = FΔt

15)

= =
NA = 60 N NB = 80 N

16)

17)
2T – 2g = 2a
40 – 20 = 2a
20 = 2a
a = 10 m/s2

18)

Answer will be T/g

where T is tension in string
Calculating T by making

FBD of m1
m1g – T = m1a

and
so

and

19)

N = m(g + a) cos θ

W = N = 60(10 + 2) = 360 N

20)

FBD of block
From diagram

To start upward motion

Fsin37º = 10g + μN

Therefore,
⇒ F = 500 newton

21) For minimum value of F for block will start moving

F = fS ⇒ 4t = µN ⇒ 4t = µmg

⇒ t= ⇒t= = 10 sec

22)
 fs = 0

27)

The radius of gyration is given by

For given problem

But Idisc (about its axis) =

and Iring (about its axis) = MR2
Where R is the radius of both bodies.
Therefore, Eq.(i) becomes

29)

30)

= 0.2 AcW

36)

By law of floating
Mg = ρ1V1g + ρ2V2g ⇒ M = ρ1V1 + ρ2V2
M = 0.6 × 102 × 4 + 0.4 × 102 × 6 = 480 gm
Hence option (3)

37)
The pressure at the free surface of the liquid and also at outside of point P is atmospheric pressure.
Hence there will be no effect of atmospheric pressure on the flow of liquid from hole P. The liquid on
the free surface has no kinetic energy but only potential energy. On the other hand the liquid coming
out of the hole has both kinetic and potential energies. Let v be the velocity of efflux of the liquid
coming out from the hole. According to Bernoulli’s theorem.

P + 0 + ρgH = P + ρg(H − D) +
(1)
After coming from the hole the liquid adopts a parabolic path. If it takes t sec in falling through a
vertical distance (H – D), then

(H − D) = or (2)
From Eqs. (1) and (2),
x = vt = 2

38) Pressure at the bottom of tank

P = hρg = 3 × 105 N/m2
Pressure due to liquid column
P1 = 3 × 105 – 1 × 105 = 1 × 105
and velocity of water v =

or v = m/s

39)

If H is the height of the liquid surface, then for same range

H = h 1 + h2
And for maximum range

40) The height of water in the tank becomes maximum when the volume of water flowing into
the tank per second becomes equal to volume flowing out per second.

41)

acts down wards.

acts opposite to the direction of motion.
Now let us see how acts.
Wings of helicopter will push the air perpendicular to their plane of rotation as shown in figure (a).
From third law, air will apply force on the wings as shown in figure (b).
There is no force ma. Basically ma is the resultant of all the forces acting on a body. moreover, here
a is zero because velocity of helicopter is constant.

42)

T1sin30° = T2cos30°
T2sin30 + T1cos30° = mg

43)

T1 – 10g = 10(1)
T1 = 110

T1 + 15g – T2 = 15(2)
110 + 150 – T2 = 30
T2 = 230 N

44)

amax =

F – 1200 = 3 × 600
 F = 3000 N

45)

Let acceleration of blocks w.r.t. lift be a1

then a1 = = (g–a)
Acceleration of block A w.r.t. ground

aA = =

47)

KERolling = PE

or
Hence body is solid sphere

49)
CHEMISTRY

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Same number of shell

At. size ∝

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x z y

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