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Without opening the paper seal take out Answer Sheet from this side.
Seria' No.
RNP 113137
..3Jq:[ 3ç4Jjq, ,ffl4j. 3J5
: 2014 A
*iiiii.-i ii.-t M.l—R1q)I GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & LAW
03 tt Time : 03 Hours
uuf 200 Maximum Marks : 200
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2. Who shall be the Chairman of the Council of States in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution of India?
(a) President of India (b) Vice-President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India (d) None of the above
4. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was enacted in India in the year:-
(a) 2014 (b) 2013
(c) 2012 (d) 2011
8. Who defined Neutrality as "The attitude of impartiality adopted by Third States towards belligerents
and recognized by belligerents, such attitude creating rights and duties between the impartial states
and the belligerents"?
(a) J. G Starke (b) L. Oppenheim
(c) J. L. Brierly (d) Hall
10. On whom the members of United Nations confer primary responsibility for the maintenance of
International peace and security?
(a) Security Council (b) International Court of Justice
(c) Secretary General (d) None of the above
Series-A 2 RNP
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2.
(a) nm i (b) ct'I 1—ltL1Rl
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RNP 3 Series-A
11. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961 came into force on:-
(a) April 18, 1961 (b) April 24, 1961
(c) April 24, 1964 (d) None of the above
1 5. Which of the following can enforce the judgement of the International Court of Justice?
(a) General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(b) Secretary General
(c) Security Council on the request of the International Court of Justice
(d) None of the above
16. National Human Rights Commission in India came into force from:-
(a) 281)1 September, 1993 (b) 18111 December, 1993
(c) 1 January, 1994 (d) I 2)1 October, 1993
19. Who among the following was hanged by the British Government in regard to the 'Kakori
Conspiracy'?
(a) Bhagat Singh (b) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(c) Ram Prasad Bismil (d) Batukeshwar Dutt
20. On whose recommendation amongst the followings the Constituent Assembly was constituted?
(a) Crips Mission (b) Webel Mission
(c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Cabinet Mission Plan
Series-A 4 RNP
11. 'M'-II1cb T'Ft T I 31ThffTZT, 1961 Tt 3TT—
(a) ti 18, 1961 (b) 3IT 24, 1961
(c) 3TT 24, 1964 (d) 1ctc1 cp' .i
18. fE i fir —
(a) 1I (b)
(c) (d) cii1ii-i ;:to o
RNP 5 Series-A
22. Power to constitute new states and its determination of boundary vests in:-
(a) Parliament (b) Vice-President
(c) Governor (d) None of the above
24. Carry Forward Rule' was held as ultra-vires in the case of:-
(a) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India (b) Devadasan Vs. Union of India
(c) Pradeep Tandon Vs. State of V.P. (d) None of the above
26. Dispute between states in India comes to the Supreme Court under:-
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction (b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction (d) None of the above
27. Which amendment under the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation in Panchayats to the
Women?
(a) 77thAmend ment (b) 75Ih1Amend rnent
(c) 74h Amendment (d) 73rd Amendment
29. In which organ of United Nations, the membership has been enlarged twice by amending
U.N. Charter-
(a) International Court of Justice (b) Security Council
(c) Trusteeship Council (d) Economic and Social Council
30. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on:-
(a) 9th December, 1946 (b) 1511 August. 1947
(c) 2611 November, 1 949 (d) I Oil January. 1 948
31. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
(a) Britain (b) United States of America
(c) Japan (d) China
Series-A 6 RNP
22. 9)T TfTt—
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30. Tf1TT T T
(a) 9 1946 (b) 15 &RE, 1947
(c) 26 -lc4l.1, 1949 (d) 10 [Link]'), 1948
RNP 7 Series-A
32. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Sri. B.N. Rau (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
34. Which of the following Amendments Act of the Constitution provided for the appointment of one
person as Governor of two or more states?
(a) 2dAmendment (b) 3rdA mendmeiit
(c) Amendment (d) 7th Amendment
35. Who amongst the following has drafted the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:-
(a) Mr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Mr. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mr. Vallabh Bhai Pate!
36. In which of the following subjects India has recently in 2014 signed an agreement with Russia:-
(a) Environment (b) Defence
(c) Atomic Energy Co-operation (d) Health
37. In which of the following countries 8th 'SAARC' summit was held in 2014?
(a) India (b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal (d) Pakistan
38. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under
Article 368 is a 'law' under Article 13?
(a) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajsthan (b) Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of India
(c) Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Keraf a (d) Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
39. Doctrine of Prospective over-ruling was approved for the first time in Constitutional interpretation in
the case of:-
(a) Kesvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kérala (b) Goloknath Vs. State of Punjab
(c) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras (d) Charanjitlal Vs. Union of India
40. The Genera! Assembly of the U.N. cannot be said to be a "World Parliament", because:-
(a) It cannot legislate for the States of the World;
(b) Its resolutions do not have binding force upon the member states;
(c) It cannot intervene in the matters of domestic jurisdiction of any state member;
(d) Alloftheabove
4 I. In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 the word
Domestic Violence' has been defined?
(a) Section - 4 (b) Section - 3
(c) Section - 6 (d) Section - 5
Series-A 8 RNP
32. T11T9 TflT * Tf115 1IcIclI 1)'-I 21?
(a) To o 3Ti0 lci (b) o 'iiIc'lIf
(c) ojoja* (di ro Wff
33. c çj9 _
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(c) ktni (d) b*ii.f
38. clIc '-1cT 1l'.lIei4 3T4TI1E fTI f5 368 3T T11TT TT9 1'jt
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39. PcrM J2J ii leI 11U1 T Rii'ci II clI c'1I' f5Z1T NE—
(a) lil -f- iii cic I's1 (b) Idcfr1IT i'1t'1 tj
(c) io *o 1qjcui -ti ici'i 'isi (d) 4\uI\Jc1 did 61 -ft9 TR1 -11
RNP 9 Series-A
42. By which amendment Act schedule-tX was inserted in Indian Constitution?
(a) 44th Amendment Act (b) 25th Amendment Act
(c) 42" Amendment Act (d) jSt Amendment Act
44. Which convention was related to Prisoners of War, cruelty and collective penalties and formulated for
providing medical and other facilities to the prisoners of war?
(a) Kellog-Briand Paris Pact -(1928) (b) Geneva Convention -(1929)
(c) Declaration of Paris -(1856) (d) Hague Conference -(1907)
45. Who has been awarded by highest award of Japan as "The Grand Carden of the order of Palonia
flowers" recently?
(a) Mr. Narendra Modi (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Mr. Nawaz Sharif (d) None of the above
46. "A person convicted by the court may be punished, only in accordance with the statute", is the meaning
of which maxim amongst the below?
(a) Nullum Crimen Sine lege (b) Nemo propria causajudex csse debet
(c) Nulla poena sine lege (d) None of the above
48. Which Articles amongst the following were added by the 97th Amendment Act of Indian
Constitution?
(a) Art 243(P) to Art 243 (ZG) (b) Art 243 (ZH) to Art 243 (ZT)
(c) Art 243 (A) to Art 243 (0) (d) Art 243 (ZG) to Art 243 (ZR)
49. In which of the following cases it has been observed that Prime Minister and Chief Ministers of the
States are subject to the Doctrine of Constitutional Trust?
(a) Dr. Subramaniyam Swami Vs. Director, CBI (2014)
(b) Manoj Narula Vs. Union of India (2014)
(c) AshrafKokur Vs. K.V. Abdul Qudir (2014)
(d) Vishwajeet Bhattacharya Vs. Union of India (2014)
Series-A 10 RNP
42. fT Tft19 TfftZPT ii - IX iid'1 Tf.11f IftI c
(a) ci1i1 tfii 3T1l1zp1 (b) 'iit1icii 1TI 3fzP1
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46. " 11c c-i1i l'Ild'I lI z 311l' t cI'sci fi irr 1ctc1l t I Z 1ii i1-Ii
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(c) '.ui'ii rrt fl (d) i'1cji cti i)
RNP 11 Series-A
Part - II
LAW
5 I. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the maxim "SALUS POPULI SUPREMALEX" is related to-
(a) Section 121 (b) Section 122
(c) Section 123 (d) Section 124
52. Which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not deal with the criminal
matters:-
(a) Section 23 (b) Section 27
(c) Section 53 (d) Section 133
53. The term "Judicial notice" under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, means:-
(a) Notice given by the court
(b) Information given to the court
(c) To ask for evidence
(d) To recognise without proof something as existing
54. Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on electronic record under Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 when it is:-
(a) 30 years old (b) 15 years old
(c) 5yearsold (d) l2yearsold
56. The contents of electronic records may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 in accordance with
the provisions of:-
(a) Section 65 C (b) Section 65 B
(c) Section 66 B (d) Section 66 C
57. Electronic record presented for inspection of the court under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is-
(a) Electronic evidence (b) Documentary evidence
(c) Oral evidence (d) Modern evidence
58. Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872-
(a) Refreshing memory : Section 158 (b) Identification parade: Section 10
(c) Admission : Section 24 (d) None of the above
59. "Written document must be proved by writing only", this maxim has been incorporated under which of
the following sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1 872-
(a) Section 87 (b) Section 91
(c) Section 121 (d) None of the above
60. Where the court has to form an opinion as to electronic signature of any person, the opinion of the
certifying authority which has issued the electronic signature certificate is:-
(a) Fact in issue (b) Relevant fact
(c) Proved fact (d) None of the above
61. Which kind of agreement can be presumed by the court under section 85-A of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872:-
(a) Written agreement (b) Oral agreement
(c) Electronic agreement (d) None of the above
62. Presumption of dowry death which is mentioned under section 1 13-B of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has
been incorporated by the Amendment Act of:-
(a) 1983 (b) 1984
(c) 2000 (d) 1986
Series-A 12 RNP
51. 1Nc1.1 TF8T 3lTffT. 1872 31c1'Icl zl'ct cfIUI cl 1T?FH cx1 fI *," 'Ii 1IT1 t—
(a) TRT 121 (b) mi 122
(c) .1wr iz (d) .1TT 124
60. IIc1 ct) 1b c4ki * c {cp tTi * ll TT 6I.1N 1 ci 1l1R1 q,ciI rlT5T c) I4
r
(a) fnT * (b) 11 Id
(c) 1I1cl f2T * (d) 341
61. 1id4 fIWZT & fkTTI 1872 * TRE 85— * 31cIId -'it4Ic4'-T Ni f91 ER * 3IJJVJ
i1T dcfl-
(a) rr ctI * (b) iiFct' *
(c) 1Icb ctI * (d) 311cic1 t q
62.
T-
(a) 1983 I (b) 1984 I'I
(c) 2000 ii (d) 1986 1'U
RNP 13 Series-A
63. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 a declaration made in course of business is admissible under:-
(a) Section 32 (7) (b) Section 32 (2)
(c) Section 32(4) (d) Section 32 (1)
64. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1 872 questions relating to a matter not relevant to the suit or proceedings
may be asked under:-
(a) Section 146 (b) Section 147
(c) Section 148 (d) Such questions cannot be asked
65. Which kind ofjurisdiction is not mentioned under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:-
(a) Probate (b) Admirality
(c) Insolvency (d) Revenue
66. Kaushal Rao Vs. State of Bombay A.l.R-1958 S.C. 22 is related with which topic of the law of
evidence:-
(a) Confession (b) Admission
(c) Dying declaration (d) Estoppel
67. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 does not expressly mention about:-
(a) Oral Evidence (b) Documentary Evidence
(c) Secondary Evidence (d) Circumstantial Evidence
68. The question is whether "A" was ravished? The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she
has been ravished is:-
(a) Relevant as conduct (b) Admissible as conduct
(c) Not relevant as conduct (d) A subject matter of enquiry
69. Where a document is executed in several parts, there:-
(a) each part is a primary evidence of the document
(b) each part cannot be primary evidence of the document
(c) each counter part is secondary evidence
(d) only main part is primary while rest is secondary evidence of the document
70. "Nothing in section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1 872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader,
attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence"
is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, under:-
(a) Section 127 (b) Section 128
(c) Section 129 (d) Section 126
71. The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872:-
(a) need to be proved (b) is optional to be proved
(c) need not to be proved (d) is better to be proved
72. As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is:-
(a) to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
(b) to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
(c) to define and amend the law of evidence
(d) to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
73. In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person, shall be:-
(a) Competent witness
(b) Incompetent witness
(c) Competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of other
(d) Competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of other
74. A contingent of police led by Sub-Inspector is on patrolling duty at night. They are attacked by two
criminals in which one constable is severely injured and criminals escaped with their property. Here, a
case can be made under Indian Penal Code 1860 for the offence of:-
(a) Theft (b) Dacoity
(c) Robbery (d) Mischief
75. Revealing the identity or name of victim of rape is punishable under which of the following
sections of the indian Penal Code 1860:-
(a) Section 354 D (b) Section 376 E
(c) Section 229 (d) Section 228 A
Series-A 14 RNP
63. iic1'i TT & TfR1TT 1872 cpij)€ii 3ci -i'1i'ii ThZT_(311VI) t—
(a) TT 32 7 3ic14c1 (b) -1TI 32 (2) 3c14ci
(c) TRI 32 4 31'-cl4cl (d) -TRT 32 (i) 31-c14c1
64. 1I'cI 9T & ifrzp 1872 \3'1 ñ cII4 ZIT 1i1 -i1 j(t'tci i) t
TT5l t—
____ ____
(a) TRI 146 31-cl4cl (b) ThT 147 314c1
(c) TR1 148 * 3frcl4cl (d) iEi ii ' 'ii iii
65. -II'cI I1T &ItZTTT 1872 -1T1 41 1ii WR it &fTE519T 5T 'e .1 fZlT I1I
RNP 15 Series-A
76. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity:-
(a) Time (b) Property
(c) Number (d) Place
77. "A" gave poisioned "Haiwa" (sweet dish) to "B" with intention to kill him. "B" ate one spoon and
kept it on the side. "C" who was sitting there, picked up and ate it. "C" dies. Here "A" is guilty of:-
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) Offence of murder of"C"
(c) Here "A" is not guilty of murder as he never intended to kill "C"
(d) Causing grievous hurt
79. The plea of "sudden and grave provocation" under Section 300 Exception (I) of the Indian Penal Code
1860 is a:-
(a) Question of law (b) Question of fact
(c) Mixed question of law and fact (d) Presumption under law
80. "Common Intention" and "similar intention" was distinguished in the famous case of-
(a) Barendra K. Ghosh Vs. King 1925 P.C. I
(b) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor 1943 P.C. II 8
(c) Kripal Singh Vs. State of U.P. 1954 S.C. 706
(d) Rishidev Pandey Vs. State of U.P. 1955 S.C. 331
81. The appropriate government" may commute the sentence of death of an accused person to any other
sentence:-
(a) With the consent of the accused
(b) With the consent of relatives of accused
(c) With the consent of advocate of the accused
(d) Without the consent of the accused
82. "Necessity" as a defence cannot be claimed when the act has been done:-
(a) With good faith (b) Without criminal intent
(c) With inherent risk of causing harm (d) For avoiding other greater harm
83. "X" who stole jewellery from ajeweller's shop caused fear of instant hurt to "Z" who tried to stop him
while carrying away the stolen watch. Here "X" can be held liable for the offence of:-
(a) Extortion (b) Robbery
(c) Theft (d) Dacoity
84. Transgender has been recognised as third gender with all rights and a right to reservation by the
Supreme Court in the case of:-
(a) NAZ Foundation Vs. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
(b) Baljit Singh Vs. State of Haryana
(c) NALSA Vs. Union of India
(d) Vajresh Venkatray Anvekar Vs. State of Karnataka
85. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is punishable offence under Indian Penal Code
1860, under:-
(a) Section 354 A (b) Section 354 C
(c) Section 354 B (d) Section 354 D
86. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code
1860, under:-
(a) Section 326 A (b) Section 326 B
(c) Section 228 A (d) Section 228
Series-A 16 RNP
76. IRIRSKI cfJ 9T cicti ç'j cp'I cjc cicfl
(a) '1 (b) 'w.4i si
(c) 'si r (d) iTr m
77. "A" ii')cii e1clE B c 9TT 3tFT4 lii "B" T l tl4 sI1I iiei fZEI I "C"
ci tR ii 3tT 211 afr i1 ci ii ii T ftTzrr 3fr 3*c t i41i "A" t—
(a) T&l I.iij451
(b) "C" ci) ciE i
(c) A i* cii'i1b cpI "C" 4t cII 451 3TtT4 '1 1
(d) '1( ctIIc1 c 45T
79. Ici) 4 *lIclI 1860 4) 1R[ 300 3Tt1T (i) 1 Wcl1 I&Ic1el '1i1 4 31t11'lcp 1cP'1lM 451 311TT *
80. "1I9N431TT4" 4 '11I'i 3IT" 1Ii f i1i C1Kt fI' fffi1 [Link] 211—
(a) 114 0 14 40 f5T 1925 i t (b) [91 1T 40 1-1 1943 118
(c) cl'.lIc'l ftT 40 3010 1954 010 706 t (d) PTi i?i 40 301T0 1955 0ql0 331
RNP 17 Series-A
87. Which of the following is an offence of continuing under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(a) Rape (b) Theft
(c) Abetment (d) Abduction
88. The offence of destruction of electronic record to prevent it's production as an evidence is
punishable under Indian Panel Code 1860 under-
(a) Section 201 (b) Section 204
(c) Section 203 (d) Section 202
• 89. The term "Harbour" defined under Indian Penal Code 1860, does not include-
(a) Supplying a person with shelter
(b) Supplying a person means of conveyance
(c) Assisting a person to evade apprehension
(d) Prior to the commission of the offence, facilitating the commission therof
90. "A" incites a dog to spring upon "Z" without "Z" consent with intention to annoy "Z". Here "A" has
committed the offence of:-
(a) Criminal force (b) Assault
(c) Attempt to cause hurt (d) Defamation
91. "A" a police officer tortures "Z" in order to induce "Z" to confess that he has committed a crime. Here
"A" is guilty of the offence of:-
(a) Assault (b) Causing hurt to extort confession
(c) Causing criminal fdrce (d) Attempt to cause hurt
92. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1 860 by the
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:-
(a) Section 376 A (b) Section 376 B
(c) Section 166 A, 166 B, 354 C (d) All of the above
93. The right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender, in which of the following
offences:-
(a) Rape (b) Kidnapping
(c) Gratifying un-natural lust (d) Causing miscarriage
94. When a women was taking bath in her bathroom, "X" captures the image in his mobile and upload it on
her facebook page. What offence has been committed by "X":-
(a) exua1 assault (b) Insulting the modesty of a woman
(c) Voyeurism (d) Stalking
95. Which of the following is not a "sine qua non" for making a person criminally liable:-
(a) Actus reus (b) Mens rea
(c) Motive (d) All the above
96. "A" under the influence of unsoundness attempt to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself
caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:-
(a) "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for causing hurt
(b) "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
(c) "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to murder
(d) Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
97. Statements under section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 are recorded by the police:-
(a) During trial (b) Before investigation
(c) During investigation (d) During inquiry
98. Under section 190 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, cognizance of offence is taken by the:-
(a) Judicial Magistrate (b) Session Judge
(c) High Court (d) District Magistrate
Series-A 18 RNP
87. 1IcT TIc11 1860 TI lci (c'I'!cIl) rRt 3iii -
100. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, charges may be added or altered under:-
(a) Section 211 (b) Section 212
(c) Section 21 5 (d) Section 216
101. Under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in a warrant case instituted on police-report, the trial begins
when:-
(a) Charges are framed (b) Accused appears
(c) Witnesses are examined (d) None of the above
102. In which of the following trials under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, hearing of the accused on
sentence is not necessary:-
(a) In Session Trial (b) In trial of warrant case
(c) In trial of summon case (d) In all of the above
I 03. "A" commits robbery on "B" and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him. Whether 'A" may be
separately charged under section 323, 392, and 394 of the Indian Penal Code 1860?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) With the permission of Session Court (d) Depends upon the discretion of the court
104. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 201 3, came into effect on:-
(a) 6th April 2013 (b) 3rd February 2013
(c) 7n11 January 2013 (d) 5th March 201 3
105. Any dispute relating to the possession of immovable property under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
is decided by the-
(a) Judicial Magistrate (b) High Court Judge
(c) Session Judge (d) Executive Magistrate
106. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the Code of Criminal
Procedure 1973, in:-
(a) Section 312 (b) Section 313
(c) Section 31 5 (d) Section 316
107. The classification ofoffences has been given under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, under:-
(a) Section 320 (b) I Schedule
(c) II Schedule (d) Section 482
108. Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, does not apply to:-
(a) The complainant
(b) The witness
(c) The accused
(d) A person who is neither a complainant or accused or a witness
109. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973,
by:-
(a) Any police officer (b) The station police officer
(c) The police officer investigating the case (d) None of the above
110. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a District Magistrate or
Sub-Divisional Magistrate may prevent environmental pollution?
(a) Under section 15 1 (b) Under section 133
(c) Under section 145 (d) Under section 107
Ill. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 by
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, under:-
(a) Section 198 B (b) Section 357 B
(c) Section 357 C (d) None of the above
20 RNP
Series-A
99• jpu * fli'i - Nk't1 kF ',ct 3ftM * 2FI1 1'1 3Tf1fTfEiT f5TT iiIc11 M1blI 'dIc1I 1973
100. i1bi 'HIclI 1973 * 3Tt9 3TTTt11 T '.siki ?TT ii)Id fH iIT '1ctcIT -
102. cUS w1b'ii -lIc1I 1973 * 3Tt1 1ii t f5T 1khtJI I' 3?T q)' 4U t9 tR j -tI '.1N1 Ic1Ic1
(d) Iiic'i-1 * ft ci
105. !,l1b1I *1Ic1I 1973 '-t"-Ri * ff1T1 t 1I4 cp'I Pifci fz \11d1
(a) 1l*c * ii (b) itr iIe1 * Q1TZl1 T * I'I
(c) rrr rr1T * i't (d) cpl&c'icp i*c *
106. cU,5 1bii HIc1I 1973 * 31HI p 3TIM &tF r1I T& TT 1 'x1I
(a) ITT 312 (b) TRI 313
(c) RT 315 (d) 1TT 316
109. !,41b.-1I *1Ic1I 1973 cf TTT 160 ip ciRki cp'1 TI *' T i iiii 1T icicii
(a) '4 1ii ii
(b) iirrTzmt ii
(c) i'i 1i'-i &1i ii ii i cp
(d) ti c'I .i)
110. i1bii 'HIc1I 1973 c [4-.- f fl[ jLU fl McVI I5T fIk'I
c *tcl,cfl
(a) mi mi (b) 1TT 133
(c) 1T1 145 (d) iii 107
111.• i1bi *iFcii 1973 c) f5f TFT )1ci'1 * 1I" &iffl (TñT9) 3ffIZiT1 2013
11 *—
(a) 1Ii98B (b) flT357B
(c) 1TT 357 C (d) ch i)
RNP 21 Series-A
112. In a First-Information-Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non-cognizable, the whole case
shall be deemed to be:-
(a) Cognizable
(b) Non-Cognizable
(c) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(d) It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
114. The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and
XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following:-
(a) State of Tripura (b) State of Assam
(c) State of Meghalya (d) State of Nagaland
115. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge shall be written in the:-
(a) Language which accused understands (b) Language which witnesses understands
(c) Language of the Court (d) Hindi language
116. What is the maximum default sentence that can be awarded in case of non-payment of
compensation under section 358 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:-
(a) 60 days (b) 30 days
(c) 90 days (d) 120 days
117. An order passed by a Magistrate under section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, is
appealable to:-
(a) Session Judge (b) District Magistrate
(c). '-ugh Court (d) Supreme Court
118. If a person against whom an order under section 133 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is made,
appears and show cause against the order, the Magistrate shall:-
(a) Take evidence in the matter as in a summon case
(b) Take evidence in the matter as a warrant case
(c) Take evidence in the matter as an extraordinary case
(d) Take no evidence
119. Which of the following is not an essential procedural requirement of section 164 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 namely:-
(a) Warning to the accused
(b) Confession to be made voluntarily
(c) Recording of statement in presence of advocate of the accused
(d) Memorandum at the foot of confession
120. Which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, provides for confirmation by the High Court
an order of death penalty passed by Session Court prior to it's execution:-
(a) Section 366 (b) Section 371
(c) Section 369 (d) Section 368
122. Under section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, "Second appeal" lies to the High Court only on the
ground of:-
(a) Question fact (b) Substantial question of law
(c) Both on question of fact and law (d) Mixed question of law and fact
Series-A 22 RNP
112. f5 i—fti 3P1 3fl1T TZT W-1T TT 3I1I *, It 'ffl IT1 t *191I ilIIflI—
(a) (b)
(c)
____
113.
__
114. 4U w1bi 1Ic1I 1973 3TZHZE VIII, X, XI TEi 1T 11?JTFE 1i-i cPI eiI ii i'—
116. M1bLH HIc1I 1973 c 358 31c14c1 1ift I5T IcIh1 c q aTrr ck'cp14 151
cOSIl trFII fT tiff -1cPc1I
(a) 60 1-f 5T (b) 30 1~-i 5T
(c) go 1i T (d) 120 1-I 15T
117. !,1ibIi '(-IIc1I 1973 ct'1 1WT 446 * 31IIcI Icl-) I* I'1 lltfT TrIT arr 1 f
PTT 31'lQ II-
(a) m izuT * (b) fiiii 1rt
(c) ti '-.i1'IIc'i4 (d) -cI'tJ IIIcf
118. i1 ct c?J11 1jjcj, {1 cU 1I 'dIc1I 1973 ct 1TT 133 3thT &rT fi ii *, tifi
'llcfl t 3t) 3ITT cPN°I fi cp'ciI 1-lIyN—
(a) i'i ct- i ii ci iii -ii-sii
(b) 1P11 th1 TiR ITTT Iii c1 c1I' 411'lc'II
(c) ii iici
(d) t'1 ii i Ii
119. ct-f ThT 164 11ii i1cii 1973 cf 14biI * fr [Link] dccl .ii
(a) aTfM t ciici41 ii
(b) 1c1 *1ci c w1t tn1?
(c) 3T1N1 &11T cT 3*Tf l T52T9 T 3Tfl9
(d) cciRi 3I1 l 1I'41 111 'ilNi
120. 11bB 'd1c1I 1973 ct) tiT 1TT * 31-c14c1 3r4 IRIFc14 tT9 I'1It4 3fl[ (
122 R-t1Id !.4bi -lIc1I 1908 c T1 100 3frcIId &T '3vc1 I1Ic'I4 311-U tR )
'ill *—
(a) (b) fI1T iicii
(c) 3t4 (d) 3ItT
RNP 23 Series-A
123. Which of the following person may not file an application for execution under Civil Procedure Code,
1908 namely:-
(a) A decree holder
(b) Legal representative, if the decree holder is dead
(c) A person claiming under decree holder
(d) Judgement-debtor
124. Who may apply for reference under section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:-
(a) A party to Suit (b) Court
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
125. "It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted". It is called as:-
(a) Affidavit (b) Written-statement
(c) Counter-claim (d) Plaint
126. Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 deals with the:-
(a) Appeal to Supreme Court (b) Appeal by indigent person
(c) Appeal from appellate decrees (d) Appeal against orders
127. Which one of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code 1908 is related to affidavit:-
(a) Order 17 (b) Order 19
(c) Order 26 (d) Order 39
128. Under which provision of CPC a plaint is rejected by the courts in the absence of cause of action:-
(a) Order 7 Rule 11(a) (b) Order 7 Rule 11(b)
(c) Order 7 Rule 11(d) (d) Order 7 Rule 11(c)
129. A "Caveat" shall not remain inforce after the expiry of:-
(a) 30 days of it's filing (b) 60 days of it's filing
(c) 90 days of it's filing (d) 120 days of it's filing
130. Under which provision of CPC attachment before judgement is provided:-
(a) Order 39 Rule 1, 2 (b) Order 40 Rule I
(c) Section 96 (d) Order 38 Rules 5-13
131. Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is
provided under Civil Procedure Code 1908, under:-
(a) 0rder21 Rule 30 (b) 0rder21 Rule 31
(c) Order 21 Rule 32 (d) Order 21 Rule 34
132. Maximum amount which a court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or
vexations claims or defences under Civil Procedure Code 1 908, is:-
(a) Rs 10,000/- (b) Rs. 3,000/-
(c) Rs. 25,000/- (d) Any amount
133. A "Garneeshe order" under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to:-
(a) Judgement debtor (b) Judgement debtor's creditor
(c) Decree holder (d) Judgement debtor's debtor
134. Which of the following order of CPC is related to "Set-offi' and "counter-claims":-
(a) Order VI (b) Order VIII
(c) Order VII (d) Order IX
135. Which of the following is not correctly matched according to Civil Procedure Code, 1908:-
(a) Legal Representative : Section 50 (b) Letter of Request: Section 77
(c) Notice : Section 80 (d) Res-Sub-Judice : Section 11
136. Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act 2002, was enforced from:-
(a) I April, 2002 (b) l June, 2002
(c) 15t July, 2002
(d) 6111 June, 2002
Series-A 24 RNP
123. 1-iR1ei [Link] 1Ic1I 1908 * 3c14c1 P1I-I i'1 1T cR1ci 1IcT fT1 31Il4l j c 'cPc1I—
(a) ti't lrc1 q cjJçj (l.1T5)
(b) tr f*ii
(c) ft 3114c1 1c1E cileil
(d) fu ju1
124. TRI 113I-tIeI !l1I 1Ic1I 1908 3T.19 fki f ct)'-f 3lci c '1cU
(a) Wl T (b) 1I11et4
(c) cH (a) ru (b) (d) j4.i1ctv1 cI'1 1
125. P cJ J T9 cl dt1T r1C f I
(a) iii (b) lI4—cIc1I
(c) i-cii (d) Z1T t
132. fZTE 11 PT c1 cIc ici), ZIT t1T31'1 * cIc9ct ThlIei4 Ri11c'i [Link] 1IclI, 1908
3T9 31IT 1bd TfT fT 3BT '1cbcII
(a) 10,000/- tr (b) 3,000/-
(c) 25,000/- trt (d) cp'h
133. r1ei 1II 'iIcII 1908 3T-19 '..ct "INPI1 3TIkT" fU iIIc1E —
(a) Pi1ci (b) Pi1ci z 1i') c)
(c) aiRi 1 (d) PI11ci WU'1 c)
134. ft11ei .i1ii dIc1I 1908 3T9 11RAc1 cl T 31TT T TT 'kIicii TTtTT —
(a) 31TT VI (b) 3IIT VIII
(c) 31TT VII (d) 31TkT Ix
135. 1iRki MIbl '-i1cii 1908 3i4c1 'i1iRsici c 1ici ii
(a) 1f5 11uI : TRJ 50 (b) i: ]T 77
(c) 'z1-II ITT 80 (d) nrtr clIc : TRi 11
136. IiIIci !11fl-1I HIc1I ([Link]) 3TffN 2002 31T QIT—
(a) 1 2002 (b) 1 2002
(c) 1 2002 (d) 6 2002
RNP 25 Series-A
137. During proceedings for execution of a decree, if question arises as whether any person is or is not the
representative of a party, such question must be determined by:-
(a) The court which passed the decree (b) The court executing the decree
(c) The appellate court (d) None of the above
138. Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include:-
(a) Arrest before judgement (b) Attachment before judgement
(c) Temporary injunctiojn (d) Appointment of executor
139. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Foreign Court" means:-
(a) A court situated outside India
(b) A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
(c) A court situated in India, applying foreign law
(d) Alloftheabove
140. "Guardian at litem" used under Civil Procedure Code, I 908 means:-
(a) A local commissioner
(b) A court
(c) A person defending a suit on behalf of a insane person
(d) A person defending a suit on behalf of a minor
141. Under which of the following section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, divorce by mutual consent has
been provided:-
(a) Section 13 A (b) Section 13 B
(c) Section 11 (d) Section 1 5
142. In which of the following reports, the Law Commission recommended the "Breakdown Principle" to
be accepted as the additional ground for divorce:-
(a) In 70th report (b) In 72nd report
(c) In 71th report (d) In none of the above
143. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted, the adopter must be senior to it in age by at
least:-
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years
(c) 16 years (d) 14 years
144. Under Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956 mandatory requirement for adoption of a child is:-
(a) Giving and taking (b) Duttak homan (Hawan)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
145. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:-
(a) Insanity (b) Leporsys
(c) Epilipsy (d) Veneral disease
146. According to court rulings, custody of a Hindu child upto the age of 5 years shall ordinarily be with
the:-
(a) Father (b) Sister
(c) Grand Father (d) Mother
147. During the pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce, the parties:-
(a) Are competent to solumnise second marriage
(b) May contract another marriage with the leave of the court
(c) Are not competent to contract another marriage and their incapacity to do so is absolute
(d) None of the above
Series-A 26 RNP
137. Ii f1I t 'i i cit * 1b c{1 lcb IT T 11i1i * Zff '.1,
cj fP II1ci'1 PT fii iiii I
(a) i l- Ic1 tft cj) th
(b) cis 'ciiieii ii fT ci)') I.iIIc1 c1,' i
(c) c'i -lR1lell RT
(d) 1cti ct .ii
138. r1kl MI1I 'dIc1I 1908 c 1TT 94 c 9ct pi1cii 1Ie1c1 i) c1I *—
(a) fqcj) (b) uic1 3W1
(c) cciii (d) flcct c Piji
139. [I1cI 1bI 'H[clI 1908 Z 3TT '1I11 1I1Ie1-1 3IT!T *—
(a) si) W *
(b) iII rcm fr * cpI icti fi ir
(c) iwr t ij 1t ft1 ii cii
(d) iri
140. ft11d 1ii 1Ic1I 1908 ct1 i&icic11 '1T1 3T1T *—
(a) 1TZT 3Bcf:1
(b) kcI) '- 4RiMLi
(c) cr c,LI11 1 '-HIQ1 [Link] ctcll
(d) icp cci1i ?i ci ciic cclj
142.
( 3j 1Ri) 61 3ilI c1 —
(a) 70lti (b) 72?ft1
(c) 71 ?f ftñ i (d) ctci 1 ii
143. ilf fI 111ci fflT cP'1 i'1 T i*clIc1 f5zrE IIcll * ??t I')c c clk'II [Link] fr
3TT 3{Jc1: )Ii z4lf—
(a) 18 ci (b) 21
(c) 16 cit (d) 14 clt
144. cicP J UJ &1ffRP 1956 31-cl4cl P-i cc1ct IT f iciici
(a) cHi ru (b) c1cp '1-i (c1.T)
(c) ck'T (a) 31t (b) (d) 3cfç1 cl 1
(a) _
(b) ii1Rici
(c) ciIctcP -1;?t c)
(d) c iiith
RNP 27 Series-A
l49. Laxmikant Pandey Vs. Union of India. A.I.R. 1984 S.C. lays down the rule regarding:-
(a) Inter-country adoption (b) Inter-caste marriage
(c) Inter-religion adoption (d) Rights of maintenance
150. Registration of marriage has been made compulsory by Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under:-
(a) Section 12 (b) Section 14
(c) Section 8 (d) Section 6
151. Section 14 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban for filing petition for:-
(a) Judicial Separation (b) Divorce
(c) Viodable marriage (d) Void marriage
152. Every appeal from decrees or orders under section 28 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be preferred
within how many days from the date of decree or order:-
(a) Within 90 days (b) Within 60 days
(c) Within 45 days (d) Within 30 days
154. Which of the following ceremonies is/are obligatory under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for a valid
marriage:-
(a) Kanyadan
(b) Saptapadi
(c) Customary rites and ceremories of either party
(d) Allof the above
155. Children born out of void or voidable marriage under sections 11 and 12 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
are deemed to be:-
(a) Illegitimate
(b) Illegitimate but can inherit the property of their parents
(c) Legitimate and can inherit all family property
(d) Legitimate but can inherit the property of their parents only
156. A 'Divorced" Hindu wife can claim maintanence under which of the following Acts:-
(a) Hindu Marriage Act only
(b) Hindu Marriage Act and Criminal Procedure Code 1973
(c) Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956 and Hindu Marriage Act
(d) In all of the above
157. Rules relating to 'Sapinda relationship" are based on the principle of:-
(a) Endogamy (b) Exogamy
(c) Polygamy (d) Monogamy
158. The 'Breakdown theory" of divorce is reflected by which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:-
(a) Section 13 (1) (b) Section l3 (2)
(c) Section 13 (IA) (d) Section 13 B
159. The petition for divorce by mutual consent may be presented according to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955,
if the spouses have been living separately for a period of:-
(a) I year (b) 2 years
(c) 3 years (d) None of the above
160. The property of a Hindu woman dying intestate shall devolve firstly upon:-
(a) Heirs of mother (b) Heirs of father
(c) Hiers of husband (d) Sons and daughters and the husband
161. Contingent interest in the property becomes a vested interest, on the happening of an uncertain event or
when the happening of the event becomes:-
(a) Possible (b) Impossible
(c) Probable to happen (d) All of the above
Series-A 28 RNP
149. f5crNc1 0 11T1 1984 0 )o 5T cii c'-J 1T I1cld Ak14l1cl CblI
(a)
(b) I dl ufi
(c) i--jrl u1-j cvjct or 15J
(d) roT 3T11- r TfT1 15T
150. 3TfRT 1955 fIT * 1ti cP) 31PI[P GNR1I I1I
(a) TR112 (b) .ThT14t
(c) TR18 (d)
151. 3TfftZP 1955 i) TT 14 1Iic .iiRicpi TZT C4Q q ç.jç) —
(a) - i[c 6) (b) fn—i
(c) cpu) 11cii ct) (d) 1RJ f11T /)
163. Which one of the following section of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, deals with the "direction for
accumulation":-
(a) Section 14 (b) Section 17
(c) Section 19 (d) Section 18
164. Transfer of ownership of immovable property in exchange for a price paid or promised or partly paid or
partly promised is called as:-
(a) Mortgage (b) Lease
(c) Sale (d) Exchange
166. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is:-
(a) Voidable (b) Valid
(c) Illegal (d) Void
167. Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not apply to transfers of property under:-
(a) Christian Law (b) Parsi Law
(c) Mohemmadan Law (d) Hindu Law
168. Which one of the following is not a ground for determination of a lease:-
(a) Effuse of the time limited
(b) Implied surrender
(c) Expiration of notice of determination of lease
(d) Death of the lessee
169. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for applicaton of rule of"lis pendens" under
Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882:-
(a) Pendency ofa suit or proceeding
(b) Pendency in a competent court
(c) Suit must be collusive
(d) Alienation must affect the rights of other party
171. The Transfer of Property Act, I 882 came into force on:-
(a) 1 August 1882 (b) July 1882
(c) 1st September 1 882 (d) I' October 1 882
172. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the term iiving person" includes:-
(a) A human being only
(b) Only important company or associations
(c) Company or associations or body of individuals
(d) None of the above
173. Which one of the following condition is invalid according to Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act,
1882:-
(a) A condition not to sell outside the family
(b) A condition not to sell during the lifetime of the transferor
(c) A condition not to sell to a person of different religion
(d) A condition restraining sub-letting of leased property
Series-A 30 RNP
162. w'-iRi 311Ut 3Ii1ffZP1, 1882 cT) 9TT 12 I ii .ii r'ft. iI—
rc u I RIc'.i TT 3U (b) çUJ cI-1 TS T 31T
(a)
(c) 3-çj'U 1P-P-T i'i &E (d) 3ciI tR I'I 3IT
163. I1I 31-c1°I &f -tTT 1882 cj 1I ctj -) * trL li" T5T T5
(a) 1TT14 (b) .ii- ri
(c) .mTi9 (d) mria
t
IT R1cPI cfh 1TTF iii 3ft f4 i ceiicii
(a) r€T (b) -cI
(c) f (d) 1I{ 41
167. 'dIi 3I-c1I 3IffVN 1882 5T 3TIT? VII '31 1-1i d1 N cI9 c1I t 34-cl4cl 1—
(a) 1M1!.i-r f1I (b) tri tr1
(c) 1cl1i fili (d) f ff
169. .TRT 52 1I 31c1I 3Ttfk1N 1882 ffTT 'TfT cuc" ft' fF1 I cti.i t 3lIcll,
lc1 i) *— ____
(a) c1ic z1F cpIl) c clIc1 )-ii
(b) TI 1Ilc clici .1I
(c) ii m 4jc4 ') j
(d) 1ctliiul 5T 3IT I1 &f1TST TTfRT cfrlI
170. 3T 'dTh —
___
(a) i -r iklci frrr ftii iIIIccl qj
(b) cI-i, c1cll cIlcpIci t ki{ci '1 -ii ETTf
(c) i1 31IcIc1I i1i * ft cj- v 'jilcil *
(d) i-i z4 14 -1RI 5T 1 *iii
172. 114.l1?I 31c1Ul 3T1fRN 1882 c .11T 5 1qct1 'jici ci{ki IG4 Icc'1) f i1icici *—
(a) c1c1 41l1cl
(b) ciet 10 ct) u
(c) 4l, z c{1ci i5T 14T ?4I
(d) cfj c
178. iii 31-cll 3TffRT 1882 c fFT cl 1TT " N" T 3tFT
(a) !TT 127 (b) 124
(c) 125 (d) ThT 126
179. I1i 3l1l (T) Tfi, 2003 -MJj 3uI 3rf1Tf1ZR 1882 ct f ii
fz1T t—
(a) TT 107 (b) 1TT 106
(c) .TNT 108 (d) ThT ix
180. 311'sl cj €l1 i1k ii cI1 cP1 '3'l T1t cl[ccI) 3ft '1I 3TZ12f9 ii [Link] 3TZf c1
([Link]'cb) d'-f E1I 211—
(a) uic)ftfi__ (b)
(c) 31I 15 f '-lzllcl (d) 3.- ui * i f Tk
181. 1.4RI 31-c1'l 311ZPT 1882 c61 -1T1 52 . j5ç —
(a) aic1'l uc affTu cf) (b) T9 31f5T1 c'
(c) ~TfI (i 1wiii) 3Tf1v cl' (d) dlcrl1icl TITf ct
182. 1I 1c141 TT3I 1 f5T "1T fT' ct 9l'- c1l I'1 —
(a) -'Nl HITS11 (b) rrmu
(c) iie1 TTT (d) T9T 31II1I fE1TTh1
183. LcP ciRci rll Picpi ctclRU i1 '3Icl '1 t 1lC)I l5T 1T 1TT fR1T 'lIIH
(a) ki ii (b) .ic'4)
ii
(c) ri (d) 1Tf5 TT
184. [Link] tjReii TT[1 "ccc1 cMel ,rl: iii cl *, I"1 i fiii —
(a) ii (b) iftcl
(c) iikiei (d) qcj cj
___ ___
(a) 3 (b) 6 *
(c) 9 (d) 10
190. T3 —
(a) I)ci'iini r f1ctq (b) l,cp çp
(c) (d) fii
191. 1Ii fi 11kc 31TIPI, 1939 fii IIc * 3 3rIThT c1) f1 cfrc11 t 'il'l '3'-ld&T —
(a) '.ikl 3fr t# (b) M qf
(c) cpT4 (d)
197.
Series-A 36 RNP
Space ForRough Work/ i'i
RNP 37 Series-A
Space ForRough Work/ 11i ci4
Series-A 38 RNP
Space For Rough Work/''b i4 * { i 'i'i
RNP 39 Series-A
Space ForRough Work/ 't'14
Series-A 40 RNP