11-05-2025

9610WMD801610250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find net force on charge Q placed on X-axis.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A charged metallic bob of mass m and charge Q is in equilibrium in presence of electric repulsion

by Q (fixed) as shown in fig. Find Q = ?

(1) (2π∈0mg) L
1/2

(2) (4π∈0mg) L
1/2

(3) (8π∈0mg) L
1/2

(4) None

3) Two small electric dioples, one of dipole moment at point A and the other of dipole moment
at point B, are as shown in the figure. The torque experienced by the dipole is :-
(1) Zero
(2) ∞
(3) Can't determined
(4) None of these

4) You are given two concentric charged conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 such that R1 > R2,
having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively and uniformly distributed over its surface. Calculate E and V

at point B whose distance from the centre is rB as shown in figure :-

(1)
E= ,V=

(2)
E= ,V=

(3)
E= ,V=
(4) E = 0, V = 0

5) A rod of length L has a total charge Q distributed uniformly along its length. It is bent in the
shape of a semicircle. Find the magnitude of the electric field at the centre of curvature of the
semicircle.

2
(1) Q/2∈0L
2
(2) Q/∈0L

(3)

(4) Zero

6) Eight equal charges q are placed at each corner of a cube of side a each. Work done in carrying a
charge –q from its centre to infinity is

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown in fig. Find EA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Linear charge density of a half ring varies with θ as λ = λ0 cosθ. then find total charge of ring.

(1) λ0R
(2) Zero
(3) λ0R
(4) 2 λ0R

9) As one moves towards the centre from surface of a uniformly charged metallic sphere, the electric
field strength E,

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains same as that of the surface
(4) is zero at all points

10) Which of the following systems of charges have zero electrostatic potential energy ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) 4 charges are placed each at a distance 'a' from origin. The dipole moment of configuration is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) none

12) Charge Q is spread uniformly over a circular ring of radius R, which gives electrical potential V1

at its centre. If an arc of length is removed from the ring (as shown in figure (ii)) keeping the net
charge Q on the remaining part constant. The relation between new potential V2 at the centre and V1
is

Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

(1) V1 > V2
(2) V2 > V1
(3) V1 = V2
(4) can’t determine

13) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric

potential at the centre of curvature is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A dipole is placed in uniform electric field such that potential energy of dipole is maximum (U).
The work done in rotating a dipole by 180° is :-

(1) U
(2) 3U
(3) –2U
(4) –U

15) The figures shows electrostatic lines of force, which pattern is incorrect :-

(1) a,c
(2) b,c
(3) only d
(4) c,d

16) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the
Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

17) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C

18) List I gives certain situations in which electric field is represented by electric lines of forces in x-
y plane. List II gives corresponding representation of equipotential lines in x-y plane. Match the
figures in List I with the figures in List II and indicate your answer.

(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(2) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(3) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

19) Two spheres of radius R & 2R having charge Q & 2Q respectively are placed far away from each

other. How much charge will flow when key 'k' is pressed ?

(1) Q

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

20) Two objects are rubbed against each other, the nature of electric force, when they are placed at
some distance is :

(1) Attractive
(2) Repulsive
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Either (1) or (2)

21) A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and
then released. The kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is -

(1) qEy2
(2) qEy
(3) qE2y
(4) q2Ey

22) 8 charged drops of mercury each of same radius and surface charge density σ are combined to
form a new drop. The new surface charge density becomes :-

(1) 8 σ
(2) 4 σ
(3) 2 σ
(4) σ

23)

A charged oil drop of mass 'm' and charge q is in equilibrium in air above another stationary charge
Q. Find the height 'h' from Q :-

(1)
h=
(2)
h=

(3)

(4) None of these

24) Six point charges are placed at corner of regular hexagon of side a then what will be net force on

charge placed at centre :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

25) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at eqilibrium which of the

following may be true :-

(1) q1 > q2 & m1 = m2

(2) q1 = q2 & m1 = m2
(3) q1 > q2 & m1 < m2
(4) q1 = q2 & m1 > m2

26) Two charge particles are shown in the diagram. Where should a third charge particle q0 be
placed so q0 will be in equilibrium :-

(1) x = 10 a
(2) x = 8 a
(3) x = 11 a
(4) x = 12 a

27) A charge q is placed at the mid-point of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of three
charges will be in equilibrium when q has the value :-

(1) Q/4
(2) Q/2
(3) –Q/4
(4) –Q/2

28) Figures below show regular hexagons, with charges at the vertices. In which of the following
cases the net electric force at the centre is not zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two point charges exert a force 20 N when placed in a free space. When this system is placed in
a medium has dielectric constant 5, then they exert the force on each other is :

(1) N
(2) 4 N

(3)

(4) 5 N

30) Two spherical conductors of radii 4 cm and 5 cm are charged to the same potential. If σ1 and σ2
be respective value of surface density of charge on both the conductors, then the ratio of σ1/σ2 will
be:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) A molecule with a dipole moment p is placed in an electric field of strength E. Initially the dipole
is aligned parallel to the field. If the dipole is to be rotated to be anti-parallel to the field, the work
required to be done by an external agency is :-

(1) –2 pE
(2) –pE
(3) pE
(4) 2pE

32) A ring of radius r carries a charge Q uniformly distributed over its length. A charge q is placed at
its centre will experience a force equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4) None of these

33)

Which of the following is true for the figure showing electric lines of force ?

(E is electrical field, V is potential)

(1) EA > EB, VA = VB
(2) EB > EA , VA = VB
(3) EA > EB, VA < VB
(4) EA > EB, VA > VB

34) Two point P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10V and –4V respectively. The work done
in moving 100 electrons from P to Q is :-

(1) –19 × 10–17 joule

(2) 9.60 × 10–17 joule
(3) –2.24 × 10–16 joule
(4) 2.24 × 10–16 joule

35) Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z =
0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment
vector of this charge assembly are :-

(1) qa along + y direction

(2) qa along the line joining points (x =0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(3) qa along the line joining points(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(4) qa along + x direction

36) An alpha particle and a deutron are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 1 kV then
the ratio of their speeds will be :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4)

37) A particle of mass m and charge q is thrown in a region where uniform gravitational field and
electric field are present. The path of particle

(1) may be a straight line

(2) may be a circle
(3) may be a parabola
(4) (1) and (3) Both

38) An electron is projected as in fig. with kinetic energy K, at an angle θ = 30° between two
charged plates. The magnitude of the electric field so that the electron just fails to strike the upper

plate, should be greater than–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Infinite

39) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed u. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed u/2, the closest

distance of approach would be :

(1) 4r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

40) Electric field at the equator of a dipole is E. If both dipole moment and distance is doubled then
electric field will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) E

41) An electric dipole of moment is placed at the origin along the x-axis. The electric field at a
point P, whose position vector makes an angle θ with the x-axis, will make an angle :

with the x-axis, where tan α = tanθ.

(1) α
(2) θ
(3) θ + α
(4) 2θ + α

42) A negative charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field. The electric
potential energy of charge :-

(1) Remains constant because of uniform electric field

(2) Increases because charge moves opposite to electric field
(3) Decreases because charge moves against electric field
(4) Decreases because charge will move along electric field

43) When we taken an electron slowly away from the fixed nucleus, the external work done is :
(1) +ve
(2) –ve
(3) zero
(4) sometimes –ve

44) The charge q is projected into a uniform electric field E, maximum work done when it moves a
distance Y is :-

(1) qEY

(2)

(3)

(4)

45)

Maximum torque experienced by an electric dipole of dipole moment 2 Cm, placed in a uniform
electric field, is 4 × 103 Nm. The strength of uniform field is :-

(1) 8 × 103 N C–1

(2) 4 × 103 N C–1
(3) 2 × 103 N C–1
(4) 1 × 103 N C–1

CHEMISTRY

1) Magnetic moment of [Mn(CN)6]3– ion is 2.8 BM. Its geometry and hybridisation is respectively:-

(1) Octahedral, d2sp3

(2) Octahedral, sp3d2
(3) Octahedral, sp3d
(4) None of these

2) Match List I with list II.

List-I (Complex) List-II(Type of isomerism)

(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2NO2] (I) Solvate/Hydrate isomerism
(B) [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br (II) Linkage isomerism
(C) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] (III) Ionization isomerism
(D) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (IV) Coordination isomerism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(2) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
(3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(4) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

3) Number of chelating rings in [Fe(ox)(CN)4]3–

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

4) Choose the correct relation, According to CFT:-

(1)
Δt = Δ
0

(2) Δsp = 1.3Δ0

(3) Δsp > Δ0 > Δt
(4) All of these

5) Which of the following is/are true statement ?

In homoleptic complexes central atom is coordinated with only one kind of ligand, e.g.,
(1)
[Fe(CN)6]3–
2+
(2) [Fe(H2O)5NO] is a heteroleptic complex.
2+
(3) Oxidation state of Ni ion in [Ni(H2O)6] is +2
(4) All are true.

6) What is the oxidation state and coordination number of Al in the complex [Al(H2O)4(OH)2]+
respectively ?

(1) +1, 4
(2) +3, 6
(3) +2, 6
(4) None of these

7) Which of the following complexes obey EAN rule ?

–4
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
(2) [Ni(CO)4]
+4
(3) [Pd(NH3)6]
(4) All of these

8) The correct IUPAC name for complex ion [Au(CN)4]Θ :

(1) Tetracyanoaurate (III) ion

(2) Tetracyanoaurate (I) ion
(3) Tetracyanogold (III) ion
(4) Tetracyanogold (I) ion

9) Which of the following complexes (in solution) will have least value of molar conductivity ?

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(4) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2

10) Choose the incorrect statement regarding VBT.

(1) The ligand have atleast one σ-orbital containing a lone pair of electron.
Metal ligand bond arises by the donation of pairs of electrons by ligand to the empty
(2)
unhybridized orbitals of central metal atom/ion.
The d-orbital of metal atom/ion involved in the hybridisation may be either (n+1) d-orbitals or
(3)
nd orbital. (Where n refers to the outermost principal shell of central atom/ion.)
(4) Both (2) and (3).

11) How many compounds from following represents a double salt ?

(i) Carnallite (ii) Mohr’s salt (iii) Potash Alum (iv) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which orbitals is involved in synergic bonding in case of metal carbonyl complex ?

(1) Metal filled d-orbital, π orbital of carbonyl

(2) Metal vacant d-orbital, π* orbital of carbonyl
(3) Metal filled d-orbital, π* orbital of carbonyl
(4) Metal vacant d-orbital, π orbital of carbonyl

13) The correct relation between for stability or formation constant of [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and [Fe(ox)3]3– :
Given k1 = Formation constant for [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and k2 = Formation constant for [Fe(ox)3]3–

(1) k2 > k1
(2) k2 < k1
(3) k2 = k1
(4) None of these

14) Select correct statement for Cr.6NH3.Cl3 and Cr.5NH3.Cl3

(1) In both complex compounds secondary valency is satisfied by only NH3

(2) In both complex compounds Cl– are satisfying only primary valency
(3) In both complex compounds primary valency is satisfied by only Cl–
(4) In both complex compounds all Cl– are ionizable

15) For the complex [Fe(CO)5] what is wrong :-

(1) It is σ-π bonded organometallic compound

(2) It does not follow EAN rule
(3) In the complex CO is π-acid ligand
(4) It has trigonal bipyramidal shape

16) For the reaction, 2A + B → 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Consider the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g). The equality relationship between and

is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) What is the unit of rate of reaction whose rate law is given below:
Rate = k[A]3/2[B]–1

(1) sec–1
(2) mol L–1s–1
(3) mol1/2L–1/2s–1
(4) L1/2mol–1/2s–1

19) Which of the following is correct representation of the variation of half-life with initial
concentration of a zero order reaction ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) For the reaction, A + B → 2C + D, which one is the incorrect statement?

(1) Rate of disappearance of A = Rate of disappearance of B

(2) Rate of disappearance of A = Rate of appearance of D
(3) Rate of disappearance of B =2 × rate of appearance of C

(4)
Rate of disappearance of B = × rate of appearance of C

21) For the reaction,

The relation in between k1, k2 and k3 is:

(1) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3

(2) k1 = k2 = k3
(3) 2k1 = 4k2 = k3
(4) None of these

22) Assertion (A): The order of a reaction can have a fractional value.
Reason (R): The order of a reaction cannot be written from balanced reaction.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

23) In chemical kinetics generally we study about :

(1) Very slow reactions

(2) Very fast reactions
(3) Moderate reactions
(4) None of these

24) For the reaction:

2A + 3B → C, [A] is found to decrease at a rate of 2.0 M.s–1 . If the rate law is rate = k[A], how fast
does [B] decrease under the same conditions?

(1) 0.66 m.s–1

(2) 1.3 M.s–1
(3) 2.0 M.s–1
(4) 3.0 M.s–1

25) Statement-1: For the reaction : 2A + B C, the rate of disappearance of A is twice the rate
of disappearance of B.
Statement-2: For the reaction : 2A + B C,

Rate of reaction is .

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

26) Rate of reaction depends on :

(1) Temperature
(2) Presence of catalyst
(3) Presence of inhibitor
(4) All of these

27) For a reaction pA + qB → products, the rate law expression is r = k [A]l [B]m, then:
(1) (p + ℓ)< (ℓ + m)
(2) (p + q) > (ℓ + m)
(3) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (ℓ + m)
(4) (p + q) = (ℓ + m)

28) Point out incorrect statement.

(1) Rate law is an experimental value

(2) Law of mass action is a theoretical proposal
(3) Rate law is more informative than law of mass action for developing mechanism
(4) Rate law is always different from the expression of law of mass action.

29) The rate equation for the reaction 2A + B → C is found to be; rate = k [A] [B]. The correct
statement in relation to this reaction is :

(1) unit of k must be sec–1

(2) t1/2 is a constant
(3) rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
(4) value of k is independent of initial concentrations of A and B

30) A substance reacts with initial concentration of 'a' mol dm-3, according to zero order kinetics. The
time it takes for the completion of reaction is : (k = rate constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In a zero order reaction half life is 100 sec. After how much time 7/8 fraction of reactant will be
reacted?

(1) 300 sec.

(2) 200 sec.
(3) 175 sec.
(4) 25 sec.

32) Consider following two reactions:

A → Product,

B → Product,
k1 and k2 are expressed in terms of molarity (mol L–1) and time (s–1) as:

(1) s–1, Ms–1 L–1

(2) Ms–1 Ms–1
(3) s–1, M–1 s–1
(4) Ms–1, s–1

33) For a zero order reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) 3A → 2B, rate of reaction , equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) 3A → B + C
It would be a zero order reaction when :

(1) the rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A

(2) the rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
(3) the rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B and C
(4) the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is increased to double

36) Which of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?

(1) Order of reaction is always whole number

(2) Order can be determined only experimentally
(3) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants
Order of reaction is sum of power of the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of
(4)
reaction

37) For the reaction : R → P, the concentration of reactant decreases from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25
min. Calculate the average rate of reaction in mol L–1 s–1.

(1) 6.66 × 10–6 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 3.33 × 10–6 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 6.66 × l0–5 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 3.33 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1

38) Number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of reaction gives :

(1) order of reaction

(2) molecularity of a reaction
(3) fast step of the mechanism
(4) average life of reaction

39) For the zero order reaction A→B+C; initial concentration of A is 0.1 M. If A = 0.08 M after 10
minutes, then it’s half-life and completion time are respectively:

(1) 10 min; 20 min

(2) 2×10–3 min; 4×10–3 min
(3) 25 min; 50 min
(4) 250 min, 500 min

40) For an elementary process 2X + Y → Z + W, the molecularity is –

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) Unpredictable

41) For the zero order reaction :

A → P, k = 10–2 (mol/ litre) sec–1
If initial concentration of A is 0.3 M, then find concentration of A left after 10 sec.

(1) 0.5 M
(2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.1 M
(4) 0.15 M

42) Unit of rate of reaction is :-

(1) mol L–1 time–1

(2) mol–1 L time–1
(3) mol L–1
(4) s–1

43) Rate constant of a reaction is 175 litre2 mol–2 sec–1. What is the order of reaction?

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Zero
44) Consider the chemical reaction,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
The rate of reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivative of concentration of N2(g), H2(g) or
NH3(g ).
Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Observe the following reaction:

A(g) + 3B(g) → 2C(g)

The rate of this reaction is 3 × 10–3 mol litre–1min–1. What is the value of in mol litre–1
min–1?

(1) 3 × 10–3
(2) 9 × 10–3
(3) 10–3
(4) 1.5 × 10–3

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following is a specialised procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a
sperm is directly injected into the ovum?

(1) IUT
(2) ZIFT
(3) GIFT
(4) ICSI

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation
(1)
is called infertility.
(2) IVF is fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body
(3) The zygote or early embryos can be transferred into the uterus.
(4) Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube is called GIFT.

3) Statement-I : Amniocentesis is often misused.

Statement-II : Aminocentesis is being used to determine the sex of the foetes so that female may be
aborted
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

4) Statement-I : Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called MTP.
Statement-II : Medical termination of pregnancy is not legalised in our country.
Choose the correct option from the given statements :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

5) Statement-I : Though contraceptives are not regular requirements for reproductive health, one
is forced to use them to avoid pregnancy or to delay or space pregnancy.
Statement-II : Reproductive health refers to a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e.
physical, emotional, behavioral and social.
Choose the correct option from the given statements.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

6) Possible ill effects of contraceptives could be ?

(A) Nausea
(B) Break through bleeding
(C) Abdominal pain
(D) Breast cancer
(E) Irregular menstrual bleeding
Choose the correct answer from given options :-

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) A, B, C, E only
(4) B, E only

7) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Saheli was developed by scientists at CDRI in Lucknow.

(2) Barrier method prevents gametogenesis.
(3) Cervical caps are reusable.
(4) IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses

8) In periodic abstinence method

(1) Female has to take contraceptive pills periodically
(2) Couple should avoid coitus periodically
(3) Couple should avoid coitus for few months or years
(4) female do not ovulate for few months.

9) Consider the following statements:

(a) Natural method of contraception is a traditional method to prevent pregnancy.
(b) The basic principle of natural method of contraception is to avoid the contact between ovum and
sperms
Select the correct option.

(1) a is true, b is false

(2) a is false, b is true
(3) Both a and b are true
(4) Both a and b are false

10) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Emergency contraceptive cannot be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape.
(2) Failure rate of lactational amennorrhoea is very low.
(3) Lippes loop increases the phagocytosis of sperm in uterus.
(4) Male & female condoms inhibits the ovulation and implantation.

11) The chemical method of contraception includes

(1) Jellies only

(2) Creams and foams
(3) Spermicides
(4) All of the above

12) Select the option with correct identification of the given contraceptive measure and the hormone
essentially present in it.

(1) CuT - Progesterone

(2) Lippes loop - Oxytocin
(3) Subcutaneous implant - Progesterone or Progesterone estrogen combination
(4) Oral pill - Mainly estrogen

13) Select the correct pair of copper releasing IUDs :-

(1) Lippes loop, LNG-20

(2) Cu-T, Multiload 375
(3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) Cu-T, Lippes loop

14) Which of the following contraceptive methods do not involve a role of hormone ?
(1) Barrier method, emergency contraceptive, pills
(2) CuT, Saheli, periodic abstinence.
(3) Pills, lactational amenorrhea, barrier method.
(4) IUDs, pills, natural method

15) The female condom covers ____(A)_____ and ____(B)_____ prevent from STDs but it is ____(C)_____
Find out correct option for A, B and C :

(1) A - Vagina, B - Cervix, C - Reusable

(2) A - Vagina, B - Fallopian tube, C - Reusable
(3) A - Vagina, B - Uterus, C - Not reusable
(4) A - Vagina, B - Cervix, C - Not reusable

16) Choose incorrect about menstruation.

(1) Ovulation occurs due to rupture of primary follicle

(2) Lack of menstruation is not a definite indicator of pregnancy
(3) Menstruation occurs if released ovum is fertilized.
(4) Menstrual flow is due to breakdown of endometrial lining.

17) Which of the following is not a copper based IUD ?

(1) Multiload 375

(2) Cu-7
(3) LNG-20
(4) CuT

18) Choose incorrect statement.

(1) LH acts on Leydig's cells

(2) LH causes secretion of androgens
(3) LH stimulates spermiogenesis
(4) LH acts on interstitial cells

19) Which of following statement is incorrect about cleavage?

(1) It starts before fertilization.

(2) It does not occur in asexual reproduction.
(3) It increases number of cells in embryo.
(4) Its not like normal meiosis.

20)

Match the column I and column II correctly.

Column -I Column-II
 A Ovary i. Child care

B Uterus ii. Ovulation

C Mammary gland iii. Foetus bearing organ

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

21) Which hormone acts on the uterine muscles and causes stronger uterine contractions ?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Relaxin
(3) Cortisol
(4) Progesterone

22) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called ___A___ and an inner
group of cells attached to trophoblast called the ___B___.
Here A and B are respectively ?

(1) A - trophoblast, B - inner cell mass

(2) A - inner cell mass, B - chorionic villi
(3) A - placental villi, B - inner cell mass
(4) A - trophoblast, B - chorionic villi

23) Which of the following individuals are at high risk of getting infected with HIV?

(1) From mother milk

(2) Patients with cough
(3) From mother to baby through placenta
(4) Both (1) and (3)

24) Menstrual cycles involves cyclic changes in -

(1) Uterus and vagina

(2) Vagina and ovary
(3) Ovary and uterus
(4) Vagina only

25) Statement-I : The sperm head contains an elongated haploid nucleus.

Statement-II : The acrosome filled with mitochondria that help in fertilization of ovum.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct & Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is correct.
26) Which of the following duct is/are present completely outside the testis?
(i) Rete testis
(ii) Vasa efferentia
(iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Epididymis

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

27) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Process of formation of female gamete is called spermatogenesis

During embryonic development stage, a couples of million oogonia are formed with in each fetal
(2)
ovary.
(3) Coitus interruptus is a natural method of conception.
(4) Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic development.

28) How many of the given cells are haploid during gametogenesis-
Spermatogonium, Spermatid, Spermatozoa, Secondary spermatocyte, Secondary oocyte, Primary
oocyte, oogonia

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

29) Hormones secreted by ovary to maintain pregnancy are :-

(1) HCG, HPL, Progesterone, Prolactin

(2) HCG, HPL, Estrogen, Relaxin, Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone and estrogen
(4) HCG, Progesterone, Estrogen

30) Match the items given in column-I with those in column-II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Secondary follicle (i) Secondary oocyte

(b) Tertiary follicle (ii) Progesterone

(c) Corpus luteum (iii) Theca layers

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)

31) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Spermatogenesis and oogenesis start at the age of puberty.
Reason (R) : There is significant increase in the secretion of GnRH from hypothalamus at the age of
puberty.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) What is the function of the seminal vesicles in the male reproductive system?

(1) Produce sperm

(2) Store sperm
(3) Produce seminal fluid
(4) Transportation of sperm in the urethra

33) Assertion : Parturition is a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.

Reason : Parturition involving many hormones like cortisol, estrogens, oxytocin etc.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

34) Which of the following depicts the correct sequence of ovarian follicle and luteal phase

(1) 2°– follicle → 1°– follicle → mature graafian follicle → corpus albicans.
(2) 3°–follicle → 2°–follicle → mature graafian follicle → corpus albicans.
(3) 3°– follicle → mature graafian follicle → corpus luteum → corpus albicans
(4) Corpus albicans → corpus luteum → mature graafian follicle → 3° – follicle.

35) Assertion : Disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation.

Reason : In the absence of fertilisation the corpus luteum degenerates.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is Not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of A

36) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.
(2) Ovarian follicles in different stages of development are embedded in the stroma.
(3) Each fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm long.
(4) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 30-40 mammary lobes.

37) Hymen can be broken by

(1) Sudden fall

(2) Horseback riding
(3) Insertion of vaginal tampon
(4) All of these

38) At puberty, how many primary follicles are left in both ovary ?

(1) 60000 - 80000

(2) 120000 - 160000
(3) 6000 - 8000
(4) 12000 - 16000

39) Arrange the sequence of embryonic development and choose the correct option-
(I) Morula (II) Zygote
(III) Gastrula (IV) Blastula
(V) Foetus

(1) II → I → IV → III → V
(2) II → I → III → IV → V
(3) II → III → I → IV → V
(4) II → V → IV → III → I

40) Several mammary duct join to form a wider __'A'__. Which is connected to 'B' through which milk
is ejected out.
Identify the A & B :-

(1) A-Mammary ampulla, B-Nipple

(2) A-Lactiferous duct, B-Mammary ampulla
(3) A-Mammary tubule, B-Mammary ampulla
(4) A-Mammary ampulla, B-Lactiferous duct

41) There are three layers present in uterus, one of them is thick muscular, second is thin visceral
peritoneum and third glandular layer.
Layers are respectively :-

(1) Perimetrium, Myometrium, Eudometrium

(2) Endometrium, Myometrium, Perimetrium
(3) Myometrium, Perimetrium, Endometrium
(4) Myometrium, Endometrium, Perimetrium
42) Which statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin & pubic hair.
(2) Labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue.
(3) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening.
(4) Hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

43) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): After nine months of pregnancy, the fully developed foetus is ready for delivery.
Reason (R): The process of childbirth is called parturition which is induced by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

44) Given below are two statement –

Statement-I : The blastomere in the blastocyst are arranged into an inner layer called trophoblast
and an outer group cell attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
Statement-II : The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomere is called blastula.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(1) Both Statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

45) Which stage of follicle shows secondary oocyte inside the follicle ?

(1) Primordial follicle

(2) Primary follicle
(3) Graafian follicle
(4) Secondary follicle

46) The human uterus is ________ & it is also called ______.

(1) Single and womb

(2) Single and uterine cavity
(3) Single and fundus
(4) Double and womb

47) The first movement of foetus & appearance of hair are observed during ________ of pregnancy :-

(1) 2nd month

(2) 3rd month
(3) 5th month
(4) 6th month

48) Each ovary is connected to ______and uterus by ligaments.

(1) Oviducts
(2) Vagina
(3) Mammary glands
(4) Pelvic wall

49) The cellular layer that disintegrate and regenerate again and again in human is:-

(1) Endothelium of blood vessels

(2) Germinal epithelium of ovary
(3) Tunica propria of seminiferous tubules
(4) Endometrium of uterus

50) Human male ejaculate about 200-300 million sperm during a coitus. How many of them must
show vigrous motility ?

(1) 80-120 million

(2) 120-180 million
(3) 48-72 million
(4) 72-108 million

51) Which of the followings include in male sex accessory ducts ?

(1) Only Vasa efferentia, Epididymis and Vas deferens.

(2) Only Epididymis and Vas deferens.
(3) Rete-testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis and Vas deferens.
(4) Rete-testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Vas deferens and seminal vesicle.

52) What is true for seminal plasma :-

(1) Rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

(2) Secreted by paired seminal vesicles, paired prostate and paired bulbo urethral glands
(3) The seminal plasma along with the spermatogonia constitute the semen
(4) All of these

53) Statement-A :- Large amount of progesterone is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
Statement-B :- Thick endometrium is necessary for implantation.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement B is correct but statement A is incorrect
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
54) Statement-I : Oxytocin is a milk ejection hormone.
Statement-II : Relaxin causes strong contractions in uterine myometrium during parturition

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but II is correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect

55) What induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte ?

(1) Contact of the sperm with the zona pellucida layers of ovum
The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida & plasma
(2)
membrane
(3) Copulation
(4) Entry of sperm in ampullary - isthmic junction

56) Mark the incorrect statement.

(1) Polyspermy is prevented by depolarisation of the membrane is called as fast block.

(2) Implants contains hormones to prevent implantation.
(3) ZIFT is a in-vitro fertilization technique.
(4) If implantation occur anywhere in uterus it is called ectopic pregnancy.

57) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only:
(a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuro- endocrine mechanism
(b) During parturition, secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen increases from
placenta
(c) Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens are produced in women only during pregnancy
(d) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed
during the third month of pregnancy

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

58) A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is:-

(1) Formation of 1st polar body

(2) Formation of pronuclei
(3) First meiosis
(4) Second meiosis

59) Which statement is incorrect?

(1) Wind pollinated flowers often have single ovule in each ovary.
(2) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided in to 15–20 mammary lobes.
(3) The anther is a tetragonal structure.
40% sperm are normal in shape and size and 60% of them must show vigrous motility for
(4)
fertilization.

60) The signals for parturition originate from the :-

(A) Fully developed foetus (B) Placenta
(C) Uterus (D) Ovary

(1) A & B
(2) A & D
(3) C & D
(4) B & D

61) Father of Indian plant Embryology.

(1) P. Maheswari
(2) R.D. Mishra
(3) R.K. Singh
(4) P.N. Singh

62) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

63) Monoecious plants with unisexual flowers will prevent :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

64) Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Main plant body of angiosperm is a gametophyte.
(ii) Flower is a modified shoot.
(iii) Nodes and Internodes are absent on thalamus. (iv) Wheat is an annual and monocarpic plant.

(1) i, iii
(2) Only ii
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

65) List of some plants is given below.

Papaya, Date palm, Castor, Coconut, Maize
How many are dioecious plants?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

66) Amorphophallus flower provide floral rewards to the pollinator in the form of :-

(1) Beautiful colour

(2) Providing safe place to lay eggs
(3) Nectar
(4) Providing safe place for asexual reproduction

67) The sequence of developments of embryo sac.

(1) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

(2) Archesporium → Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(3) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Microspore → Embryo sac.
(4) Archesporium → Microspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

68) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

69) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

70) The cells of tapetum become polyploid due to :-

(1) Free nuclear division

(2) Endomitosis
(3) Amitosis
(4) Meiosis

71)

Which of the following is/are not correct with respect to megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis
?
(A) Ovules refer to microsporangium.
(B) In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspore is functional.
(C) During the formation of 8 nucleated structure mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear.
(D) During the formation of 7 celled structure six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls.

(E) Synergids have special cellular thickenings at the chalazal tip, they are called filiform apparatus.
(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and E

72) The incorrect statements are:

(A) Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of students and teachers.
(B) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen
(196°C).
(C) In some cereals pollen grain lose viability within months of their release.
(D) Parthenium came into India as a contaminant with exported wheat has become ubiquitous in
occurrence and causes pollen allergy.

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

73) One advantage of cleistogamy is :-

(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity

(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(4) Each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

74) Why are hybrid varieties extensively cultivated?

(1) They require less water

(2) They have higher resistance to pests
(3) They have tremendously increased productivity
(4) They grow faster than non-hybrid varieties

75) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

76) Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by :

(1) Birds
(2) Wind
(3) Bees
(4) Butterflies

77) The provided figure represents cross section of an

unripened anther, correctly identify the labelled structure?

A B C D
(1) Connective Endothecium Tapetum Epidermis
Sporogenous
(2) Vascular tissue Exodermis Epidermis
tissue
Sporogenous
(3) Connective Endothecium Epidermis
tissue
(4) Sporogenous tissue Endothecium Connective Exodermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Which of following is correct option with respect to given

diagram?

(1) Immature female gametophyte

(2) Developed male gametophyte
(3) Partially developed male gametophyte
(4) Microspore

79) If the female parent bears bisexual flowers then in case of artificial hybridisations the step
involved are:-
(I) Bagging (II) Emasculation
(III) Rebagging (IV) Dusting
Their correct sequence is :-

(1) I-II-IV-III
(2) II-I-IV-III
(3) III-IV-II-I
(4) II-I-III-IV

80) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

81)

The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify the types of pollination indicated
at p1 p2 and p3.

P1 P2 P3

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
1 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically
cross pollination
cross pollination

Genetically
Genetically,
self pollination,
2 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically cross
cross pollination
pollination

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
3 ecologically self Self pollination
ecologically
pollination
cross pollination

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
4 ecologically cross Self pollination
ecologically cross
pollination
pollination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) A typical angiospermic anther is :-

(1) Dithecous and disporangiate

(2) Monothecous and monosporangiate
(3) Dithecous and bisporangiate
(4) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate

83) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-

A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) In Angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :-

(1) Embryo
(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo sac
(4) Ovule

85) Arrange the following wall layers of anther in correct sequence :

(A) Endothecium (B) Epidermis
(C) Middle layers (D) Tapetum

(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, A, D, C
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

86) Assertion :- Endothecium becomes hygroscopic in nature due to presence of fibrous thickening.
Reason :- The dehiscence of anther takes place only from tapetum.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

87) Statement-I: Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination and genetically self-pollination.

Statement-II: Geitonogamy involves pollinating agent but pollen grains come from same plant.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

88) Statement-I : Some angiosperms produce more than one embryo in their seed.
Statement-II : Apomixis do not have any advantage in horticulture and agriculture.

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Both Statements are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

89) Assertion : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce
nectar.
Reason : Majority of the insect pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Given below is the diagrammatic view of an embryo of grass. Identify the parts labelled (A),(B),
(C) and (D) and select the right option about them.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Epiblast Coleorhiza
(2) Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast
(3) Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast Coleoptile
(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 3 4 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 3 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 4 2 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) FNet =

F1 = F2 =

FNet =

2) Tcos60° + Fesin30° = mg ........ (1)

Tsin60° = Fecos30° ........ (2)
Solving (1) and (2)

mg = Fe : Since Fe =
⇒ Q = (4π ∈0 mgL2)1/2
or
By lami's theorem

mg = Fe

mg =

3) Torque then torque on due to

= but angle between and is 180°
so

4) by Gauss' law,

V=

5)

6) Vcentre = 8

W = – q [v∞ – vcentre] =

7)
Enet = 2E cos 60° + E' = E + E'

8) Let us assume an element at angle 'θ' & angular width 'dθ'

Q = Linear charge density × length
so charge on element
dQ = λRdθ = λ0 cos θ Rdθ
⇒ Q = λ0 R [sin π – sin 0 ] ⇒ [Q = 0]

9)

10) U= =0

11)
+ (3q) (0)

+ (3q)

12) V1 = V2 as charge remains same.

13) V =

14) Max. P.E = +pE = U (θ = 180°)

W.D = pE [cos 180° – cos 0°]
= – 2 pE = – 2U

15) C & d are incorrect because electrostatic field lines never form closed loop & never cut
each other.

16) E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0

17)

18)

Explanation:
 We have to find out the suitable potential difference diagrams for given electric field line
patterns.

Concept:

(i) Electric field line moves from higher potential to lower potential
(ii) Equipotential surface are perpendicular to electrical field lines.

Formula:

Not required

Visual diagram:

Correct diagram of
Electric field lines
equipotential surface

(P) (4)

(Q) (3)

(R) (2)

(S) (1)

Calculation:

In all these four diagram of electric field line, we saw the direction of electric field. It is always
from higher potential to low potential with this equipotential surfaces (line) are perpendicular
to electric field lines.

19)

Potential of both spheres are same, so no charge will flow.

20)

When two objects are rubbed against each other, they undergo triboelectric charging, where :
One object gains electrons – becomes negatively charged (– q)
The other object loses electrons – becomes positively charged (+ q)
Since they acquire opposite charges, they will experience an attractive force due to
electrostatic interaction.

According Coulomb's Law, the electrostatic force between two point charges is

F=
where :
k is Coulomb's constant,
q1 and q2 are the charges on the objects,
r is the separation distance.
since q1 and q2 are of opposite signs, the force is attractive.
As per given condition, one object is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
Opposite charges always attract, meaning the nature of the force is attractive.

Correct Answer is 1

21)

22)

23)

For equilibrium, FE = qE = mg

24)

Force due to any charge will be cancelled by just opposite charge so

25)

Concept Based:
• Electrostatic Force: The repulsive force between two charged bodies due to their charges.
• Tension in the Strings: The force exerted by the strings the balls, which has both
horizontal vertical components.
• Equilibrium of Forces: Conditions for horizontal vertical forces to balance in a static
system.
Formula :
• Horizontal equilibrium:
The electrostatic force Fe must balance the horizontal Component of tension:

Fe = T1sin(α) for ball and Fe = T2 sin(θ) for ball 2

Vertical equilibrium:
The vertical forces (gravitational forces) are balanced by the vertical components of the
tension:
m1 = T1cos (α) for ball 1 and m2g cos(ß) for ball 2
Calculation:
• Horizontal equilibrium:
Since a > b this implies sin (a) > sin (b), so the tension T1 in the string of ball 1 must be than
the tension T2 in the string of ball 2. Therefore, We have:

T1 < T2
This means that the tension in the string of ball 1 is less than the tension in the string of ball 2.
• Vertical equilibrium:
Since T1 < T2 and cos(a) < cos(ß), it follows that the mass m1 of ball 1 must be less than the
mass of m2 of ball 2.
Hence:

m 1 < m2
• Relating the charges:
The greater horizontal displacement of ball 1 implies that the electrostatic force on ball 1 is
larger. This can only happen if q1 ≥ q2 (the charge on ball 1 is greater than to the charge on
ball 2).

From the analysis, we conclude the correct answer is Option 3: q1 > q2 ​ & m1 < m2

26)
For q0 to be in equilibrium

taking square root both sides

72a – 4r = 5r
8a = r
x = 10a

27)

28) 1. Question Explanation

We are given multiple cases with charges placed on the vertices of a hexagon. We need to
determine in which case the net electric force at the center is non-zero.
2. Concept Based
Electric field forces cancel out at the center of a hexagon if the charge distribution is
symmetric. Asymmetric or unequal charges create a non-zero net force.
3. Formula Used
The electric field E due to a point charge is given by:

4. Calculation
For a regular hexagon:
If the charges are equal and symmetrically placed at the vertices, the net electric force at the
center will be zero because the forces from opposite charges will cancel each other out.
If the charges are unequal or arranged asymmetrically, the symmetry is broken, and the net
electric force at the center will be non-zero.
Final answer :
The net electric force at the center will not be zero in option

29)

30) V ∝ or V ∝ σR
V1 = V2
∴ σ1R1 = σ2R2

⇒
 31) Work done in rotating the dipole
W = pE(cosθ1 – cosθ2)
= pE(cos 0° – cos 180°)
= pE[1– (–1)] = 2pE

32) Question Explain:

The question asks to find the force experienced by a charge q placed at the center of a
uniformly charged ring with charge Q distributed over its length.
Concept: This question is based on the symmetry of the electric field produced by a uniformly
charged ring. The electric field at the center of a charged ring is zero due to the cancellation
of the field components from all parts of the ring.
Explanation:

A. The charge q is placed at the center of a uniformly charged ring.

B. Due to the symmetry of the ring, the electric field at the center due to each small charge
element on the ring cancels out resulting in no net electric field at the center.
C. Since force is given by F = q • E (where E is the electric field), and E = 0 at the center, the
force on the charge q will also be zero.

Answer: Option 3: Zero.

33) At point A the field lines are much closer the B. Hence work done by external force in
direction of field lines is negative.

34)

W = q(VQ – VP)
= – 100e (–4 – 10)
= 14 × 1.6 × 10–17
= 2.24 × 10–16 J

35)
from the figure
p = qa

pnet
= along bisector (θ = 45°)
for θ = 45° straight line joining from origin (0,0,0) to x = a , y = a, z = 0.

36)
Speed =

Speed if potential difference is same. For alpha particle and deutron

is same
So, ratio of their speed is 1.

37) If electric field and gravitational field will be in same line then the path may be straight
line otherwise parabola.

38) If particle will loose KE (in that direction) against work done by electric field = qEd ⇒ E

39)

Applying law of energy conservation,

T.KE = T. EPE

...(i)

...(ii)
(i) ÷ (ii)

40)
If now p1 = 2P, r1 = 2r then

41)

By theory

42)

–ve charge will accelerate opposite to electric field kE U

43) Work done will be positive

44) In uniform field, charged particle experiences constant force (F = qE)

 ∴ Work done of this constant force

Wmax = FS = qEY

45)

τmax = PE

CHEMISTRY

46)
= 2.8 BM.
So, n = 2 ie. unpaired e¯
Mn+3 ⇒ 3d4, CN¯ is strong field ligand, so, it pairs up only one e¯

So, d2sp3 & octahedral.

47)

(A) → Shows linkage isomerism because NO2– is ambidentate ligand

(B) → Shows ionization isomerism
(C) → Shows coordination isomerism
(D) → Shows solvate isomerism

48) Number of chelating ring = Denticity –1 = 2 – 1 = 1

49) Δsp > Δ0 > Δt (CFT order in different geometries).

50) Homoleptic complex have only one type of ligands and heteroleptic complex have different
type of ligands attached to central metal atom.

51) Coordination number of Al in the complex [Al(H2O)4(OH)2]+ is 6.

H2O is neutral and charge on OH¯ is –1.
So oxidation state of Al in [Al(H2O)4(OH)2]+ is +3.
[Al(H2O)4(OH)2]+
x + 0×4 + (–1)×2 = +1

52)
 EAN = Atomic number – Oxidation State of metal ion + 2 × coordination number.

EAN
[Fe(CN)6]–4 26 – 2 + 2 × 6 = 36
[Ni(CO)4] 28 – 0 + 2 × 4 = 36
[Pd(NH3)6]+4 46 – 4 + 2 × 6 = 54

53)
x + 4(–1) = –1 ⇒ x = +3
Tetracyanoaurate (III) ion

54)

Molar conductivity depends on number of ions in solution.

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] → 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4– 5 ions
+ 3–
(2) K3[Fe(CN)6] → 3K + [Fe(CN)6] 4 ions
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] → No ions. 0 ions
2+ –
(4) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl2 → [Pt(NH3)4] + 2Cl 3 ions

55) Orbitals used in bonding are hybridised orbital of central atom/ion.

The d-orbital of metal atom/ion involved in hybridisation may be either (n–1)d orbital or nd
orbital (where n = principal shell of central atom/ion)

56) Double salts such as carnallite, KCl.MgCl2.6H2O, Mohr’s salt, FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O,

potash alum, KAl(SO4)2.12H2O, etc. dissociate into simple ions completely when dissolved in
water. However, complex ions such as [Fe(CN)6]4– of K4[Fe(CN)6] do not dissociate into Fe2+
and CN– ions.

57)

58) The formation constant of [Fe(ox)3]3– is greater than [Fe(H2O)6]3+ because :

[Fe(ox)3]3– have chelating ligand so more stable.
59) Cr.6NH3.Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
Secondary valency ‘6’ satisfied by only NH3, all Cl– satisfy only primary valency.
Cr.5NH3.Cl3 → [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
Secondary valency ‘6’ satisfied by five NH3 and one Cl– while all three Cl– satisfy primary
valency.

60)

[Fe(CO)5] EAN = Z–(O.S.) + 2 × CN

= 26 + 10 = 36
Follow EAN rule.

61)

62)

63)

Unit of rate = mol L–1s–1

64)

We know,
n = order of reaction
= 0 (for zero order)
∴ t1/2 ∝ a
Thus, half-life will increase linearly with initial concentration 'a' of the reactant.

65)

66)

rate =

∴
or 2k1 = k2 = 4k3
69) ⇒

70)

73)

Rate law is an experimental concept whereas Law of mass action is a theoretical concept.
Experimental concept is always more realistic and more informative.
In Elementary reaction, rate law and law of Mass action give same rate expression.

74)

75)

For zero order reaction

x=kt
For completion of reaction, x = a

76)

77)

Unit of
for zero and first order the unit of 'k' will be M s–1 and s–1 respectively

78)

n = 0 for zero order reaction.

∴ t1/2 ∝ a

79)

80)
 Rate = k[A]α
α = 0, for zero order reaction
∴ Rate = k
Thus, rate will be independent of the concentration of reactant.

81) Order of a reaction may be fractional.

82)

84)

85) For an elementary reaction molecularity is sum of stoichiometry coefficient of reactant.

So molecularity of given reaction is 3.

86)

zero order reaction

88)

...(i)
2 –2 –1
Given unit of k = litre mol sec ...(ii)
Comparing the unit of litre,
n–1 = 2
n=3

90)

∴
= 9 × 10–3 mol litre–1 min–1

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 48

ICSI - Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection.

92) NCERT, Pg. # 47, 48

93) NCERT Pg # 42

94) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 49

Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country to check illegal female foeticides.

95) NCERT-XII Pg. # 49

96) NCERT-XII Pg#46

97) NCERT-XII Pg. # 44

Barrier method prevents conception (Fertilization).

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

100)

New NCERT XII Pg. # 44,45

101) NCERT Page no. 60

102) NCERT Page no. 61

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

104) NCERT Pg.# 59, 60

CuT - Copper ion
Saheli - Non-hormonal pill
Periodic abstinence - Natural method

105) NCERT Pg .# 44

106) NCERT Page no. 50

Menstruation occurs if released ovum not get fertilized.
107) NCERT, Page No: 44
LNG-20 - Hormonal IUD

108) NCERT Page no. 31

FSH stimulates spermiogenesis

109) Module

110) NCERT Page # 30, 31

111) NCERT Pg. # 38

112) NCERT Pg. # 36

113) NCERT Pg 138

114) NCERT Pg # 33-34

115) NCERT Pg. # 32

The acrosome filled with enzymes.

116)

NCERT - XII Pg. # 27

117) NCERT Pg # Eng.-32, Hin.-35

118) NCERT Pg. # 47

Spermatid, Spermatozoa, Secondary spermatocyte, Secondary oocyte.

119) NCERT Pg. # 34

120) NCERT Pg. # 32, 35

121) NCERT XII (old) Page No. P. No. 47, 48

Oogenesis start at intrauterine life.

122)

NCERT Pg # 30
123)

NCERT XII Pg. # 54

124) NCERT Pg.# 50

125)

NCERT Page - 51

126)

NCERT Pg # 28,29,31

127)

NCERT Pg # 30

128) NCERT Pg. # 32

129) NCERT Pg. # 36

130) NCERT Pg. # 31

131) NCERT Pg. # 30

132) NCERT Pg. # 30

133) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 38,39

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 32

136) NCERT Pg # 46

137) NCERT Pg # 54

138) NCERT - XII, Pg.# 44

139)
NCERT Pg # 30

140) NCERT, Pg. # 32 [New]

200 - 300 million
↓ 60% with normal morphology
120 - 180 million
↓ 40% with vigrous motility
48 - 72 million

141) NCERT Pg .# 43

142) NCERT XII, Pg. # 44

143) NCERT-XII, Pg # 51

144) NCERT(XII) Pg. # 53-54

Relaxin dilates the cervix and increase the flexibility of pubic symphysis.

145) NCERT XII Biology Para ___ Page No. __

146) If implantation occur apart from uterus it is called ectopic pregnancy.

147) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 53, 54

148) XIIth NCERT Pg. No. 52

149)

NCERT Pg. # 48
60% of sperm must have normal shape and size and at least 40% of them must show vigrous
motility.

150) NCERT Pg.# 38 (E)

151)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 02

152)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07
 153)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 15

154) Answer: 3. (ii), (iv)

Solution:

A. (i) Incorrect: The main plant body of angiosperms is a sporophyte, not a gametophyte. The
gametophyte generation is highly reduced and exists as the male and female gametophytes
(pollen grain and embryo sac).
B. (ii) Correct: According to NCERT, the flower is a modified shoot where the internodes are
condensed, and floral whorls arise from nodes.
C. (iii) Incorrect: The thalamus is part of the flower that has condensed nodes and internodes;
they are not entirely absent.
D. (iv) Correct: Wheat is an annual plant (completes its lifecycle in one season) and is
monocarpic (flowers and produces seeds only once in its lifetime).

The correct answer is (ii), (iv)

155) Hint :- Date palm & Papaya

156)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 14

157)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 23

158)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 08

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 05

161)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 05

162)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07

163)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

164)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 17

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

167)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 06

168)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 17

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 08

171) P1 is a self pollination, P2 is genetically self pollination but ecologically cross pollination,
P3 is Genetically and ecologically cross pollination

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 05

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 10
178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 23

179)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12