02-02-2025

2404CMD303032240020 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1)

A wire elongates by ℓ mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and two
weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm):-

(1) ℓ
(2) 2ℓ
(3) Zero
(4) ℓ/2

2) A cylindrical tank of height 4 m is open at the top and has a diameter 0.16 m. Water is filled in it
up to a height of 0.8 m. How long it will take to empty the tank through a hole of radius 5 × 10–3 m in
its bottom (Approx):–

(1) 10.24 sec.

(2) 1 sec
(3) 2 m
(4) 0.102 sec.

3) A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much mass can be put on
the raft to make it just sink ?

(1) 120 kg
(2) 200 kg
(3) 40 kg
(4) 80 kg

4) Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform cross-section. Ratio of the radius at entry and exit
end of the pipe is 3:2. Then the ratio of velocities at entry and exit of liquid is :-

(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27
(4) 1 : 1

5) A cubical block of wood of side of 10 cm, floats at the interface between oil and water as shown in
figure with its lower face 2 cm below the interface. The density of oil is 0.6 g/cm3. The mass of the
block is
(1) 600 g
(2) 680 g
(3) 800 g
(4) 200 g

6) An aeroplane of mass 5 × 104 kg and total wing area of 200m2 in a level flight at some height. The
difference in pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of its wings in kPa is (g = 10 m/s2) : –––

(1) 2.5
(2) 5
(3) 10
(4) 12.5

7)

The relative velocity of two consecutive layers is 8 cm/s. If the perpendicular distance between the
layers is 0.1 cm, then the velocity gradient will be

(1) 8sec–1
(2) 80 sec–1
(3) 0.8 sec–1
(4) 0.08 sec–1

8) The bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8 × 108 N/m2. To what depth a rubber ball should be taken in a
lake, so that its volume is decreased by 0.1 % ?

(1) 1 km
(2) 25 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 200 m

9) Pressure at the bottom of tank of water is 3P, where P is atmospheric pressure. If the water is
drawn out it till the level of water is lowered by one fifth, then the pressure at the bottom of the tank
is :-

(1) 2P
(2) 13P/5
(3) 8P/5
(4) 4P/5

10) A stress of 6 × 106 N/m2 is required for breaking a material. The density of the material is 3 ×
103 Kg/m3. If the wire is to break under its own weight, the length of the wire made of that material
should be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 2000 m

11) At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg:-

(1) 10.3 m/s

(2) 2.8 m/s
(3) 5.6 m/s
(4) 8.4 m/s

12) There is no change in the volume of a wire due to change in its length on stretching. The
poisson's ratio of the material of the wire is –

(1) + 0.50
(2) – 0.50
(3) 0.25
(4) – 0.25

13) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of

inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The rotational kinetic energy of a rigid body of moment of inertia 5 kg-m2 is 10 joules. The
angular momentum about the axis of rotation would be :

(1) 100 kg m2/s

(2) 50 kg m2/s
(3) 10 kg m2/s
(4) 2 kg m2/s

15) The torque of force acting on a point about origin will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A solid sphere rolls down a fixed rough inclined plane of inclination θ and coefficient of static
friction 'μ'. If the sphere rolls without slipping then –

θ ≤ tan–1
(1)

θ ≥ tan–1
(2)

θ ≤ tan–1
(3)

θ ≥ tan–1
(4)

17) A ring and disc roll down an identical inclined plane from same height. The ratio of time taken by
them to reach bottom of the inclined plane is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a source of alternating current. If its frequency
is increased, while keeping the voltage of the source constant, then

(1) Bulb will give more intense light

(2) Bulb will give less intense light
(3) Bulb will give light of same intensity as before
(4) Bulb will stop radiating light

19) The voltage of an A.C. source varies with time according to the equation
V = 100 sin 100π cos l00πt where t is in seconds and V is in volts. Then :

(1) the peak voltage of the source is 100 volts

(2) the peak voltage of the source is 50 volts
(3) the peak voltage of the source is 200 volts
(4) the frequency of the source is 50 hertz

20) What will be r.m.s. value of given A.C. Voltage over one cycle.

(1) V0

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In pure inductive circuit, the curves between frequency f and reciprocal of inductive reactance
1/XL is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) If effective current in the given circuit is 2A, then what is the impedance of the circuit ?

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 75 Ω
(4) 150 Ω

23) An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 Ω. When an AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is applied
to the coil, the voltage leads the current by 45°. The inductance of the coil is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In the circuit shown in figure the current measured by ammeter is :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 3 A
(4) Zero

25) The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before insertion of the dielectric of εr = 16. After
inserting the dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :-

(1)

(2) 2f0

(3)

(4) 4f

26) Which of the following represents the quality factor of LCR circuit having resistance (R) and
inductance (L) at resonance frequency ( )?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A. If the wattless current be , what is the power
factor

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Modified ampere's circuital law holds good for :

(1) Conduction current

(2) Displacement current
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

29) Refractive index of a medium is given by (Symbols have their usual meanings)
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) If an electromagnetic wave propagating through vacuum is described by Ey = E0 sin (kx - ω t); Bz
= B0 sin (kx - ω t), then

(1) E0 k = B0 ω
(2) E0 B0 = ω k
(3) E0 ω = B0 k

(4)

31) The average energy density of an em wave in air given by, E = will be nearly
:-

(1) 0.25 × 10–6 J/m3

(2) 2.75 × 10–9 J/m3
(3) 10–8 J/m3
(4) 5 × 10–8 J/m3

32) If λv, λx and λm represent the wavelength of visible light, x rays and microwaves respectively,
then :

(1) λm > λx > λv

(2) λm > λv > λx
(3) λv > λx > λm
(4) λv > λm > λx

33) A conductor of cross-sectional area A and length L is made from material with conductivity .
when it is connected to constant potential difference V then current through it :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The resistance of a wire is R. If the length of the wire is doubled by stretching, then the new
resistance will be:-
(1) 2R
(2) 4R
(3) R

(4)

35) The equivalent resistance between A and B in the figure is :

(1) R
(2) (2/3) R

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B

1)

The Young's modulus of brass and steel are respectively 1 × 1010 N/m2 and 2 × 1010 N/m2. A brass
wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1mm under the same force; the radii of
brass and steel wires are RB and RS respectively. Then

(1) RS =
RS =
(2)

(3) RS = 4RB
RS =
(4)

2)

A metal ball B1 (density 3.2 g cm–3) is dropped in water while another metal ball B2 (density 6.0 g
cm–3) is dropped in a liquid of density 1.6 g cm–3. If both the balls have the same diameter and attain
the same terminal velocity, the ratio of viscosity of water to that of the liquid is :-

(1) 2.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 4.0
(4) Indeterminate due to insufficient data
3) The tension in the string holding a solid block below the surface of a liquid (ρliquid > ρblock) as shown
in the figure is T when the system is at rest. Then what will be the tension in the string if the system
has upward acceleration a.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Figure shows capillary tube C dipped in a liquid that wets it the liquid rises to a point A. If we
blow air through the horizontal tube H. What will happen to the liquid column in the capillary tube ?

(1) level will rise above A

(2) level will fall below A
(3) level will remain at A
(4) It is difficult ot predict

5) Two wires one of steel (Ysteel = 2 × 1011 N/m2) and the other of brass (Ybrass = 1011 N/m2) have same
volume. The area of cross-section of first wire is A and the area of cross-section of the second wire is
2A. If on applying a force F on the first wire the potential energy stored in it is U, then force
required to be applied on the second wire to store same amount of potential energy is :

(1) F
(2) 4F
(3) 6F
(4)

6) A wheel starting from rest is uniformly accelerated at 2 rad/s2 for 20 seconds. It is allowed to
rotate uniformly for the next 10 seconds and is finally brought to rest in next 20 seconds. The total
angle rotated by the wheel (in radian) is :-

(1) 600
(2) 1200
(3) 1800
(4) 300

7) A disc of mass m and radius r is free to rotate about its centre as shown in the figure. A string is
wrapped over its rim and a block of mass m is attached to the free end of the string. The system is

released from rest. The speed of the block as it descends through a height h, is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) What will be the value of maximum acceleration of the truck in the forward direction so that the

block kept on the back does not topple ?

(1) ag/h
(2) hg/a
(3) ag/2h
(4) h/bg

0
9) Current in a circuit is given by i= t at time 't' where i and T are constants representing current
and time. The average current in t=0 to t=T will be :-

(1) i0

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) At half power frequency reactance is equal to-

(1) zero
(2) R
(3) R
(4) ∞

11) The mean intensity of radiation on the surface of sun is about 108 W/m2. The rms value of the
corresponding magnetic field is closest to :-

(1) 102 T
(2) 10–4 T
(3) 1 T
(4) 10–2 T

12) Which of the following is not equal to drift velocity ? (Symbols have their usual meanings)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A current of 6 A enters one corner P of an equilateral triangle PQR having 3 wires of resistances

2Ω each and leaves from the corner R. Then, the current I1 and I2 are :-

(1) 2A, 4A
(2) 4A, 2A
(3) 1A, 2A
(4) 2A, 3A

14) For the given part of circuit calculate potential VP of centre point P.
(1) 10 V
(2) 11 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 12 V

15) In the adjoining circuit, when a certain current flows, the heat produced in 5 Ω is 4 J in time t.

The heat produced in the 2 Ω coil in the same time interval is :-

(1) 2.05 J
(2) > 4.5 J
(3) 2.84 J
(4) 4.5 J

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) For which reaction will Kp = Kc?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)

(2) H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
(3) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

2)

Select the correct statement among the following :

(1) Equilibrium constant changes with addition of catalyst

(2) Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction.
(3) The ratio of mixture at equilibrium does not changed by catalyst
(4) Catalyst are active only in solution.

3) For the gas phase reaction;

ΔH = – 32.7 kcal carried out in a closed vessel, the number of equilibrium moles of C2H4 can be
increased by :

(1) Increasing temperature

(2) Decreasing pressure
(3) Removing some amount of H2
(4) All of these

4) Based on the following reaction which one oxide is more stable :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

5) A mixture of 2 mole of CO and 1 mole of O2 in a closed vessel is ignited to convert CO into CO2.
Then :

(1) ΔH = ΔU
(2) ΔH > ΔU
(3) ΔH < ΔU
(4) The relationship depends upon the capacity of the vessel

6) Calculate ΔU for a gas, if enthalpy change is 40 atm-L for the state change (5 atm, 10 L) to (3 atm,
15 L) :

(1) 45 atm-L
(2) 35 atm-L
(3) 30 atm-L
(4) 40 atm-L

7) For an reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 1 dm3 to 4 dm3 at 27°C,
the value of q is :

(1) 57 cal
(2) 831.9 cal
(3) 13 cal
(4) 0

8) When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half of its initial volume and simultaneously
heated to twice of its initial temperature, the change in entropy of gas (ΔS) is :-

(1) (Cp, m)ℓn2

(2) (Cv, m)ℓn2
(3) R ℓn2
(4) (Cv, m – R)ℓn2

9) The enthalpy of combustion at 25°C of H2, cyclohexane (C6H12) and cyclohexene (C6H10) are –241,
–3920 and –3800 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Heat absorbed in the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is 182 kJ. Bond energies of H–H = 430
kJ/mole and Cl–Cl = 242 kJ/mole. The H–Cl bond energy is.

(1) 763 kJ/mole

(2) 245 kJ/mole
(3) 336 kJ/mole
(4) 154 kJ/mole

11) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction) (Process)

A. C(s) + ½O2(g)→CO(g) P. Combustion

B. CO(g) + ½ O2(g)→CO2(g) Q. Neutralization

C. NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) →NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) R. Formation

D. H2(g) + ½O2(g) → H2O(l) S. Used in fuel cell

(1) A–R; B–P; C–Q; D–P,R,S
(2) A–P; B–R; C–Q; D–P,R,S
(3) A–S; B–Q; C–R; D–P,Q,S
(4) A–R; B–P; C–P; D–P,R,Q

12) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → 2NO2 ; ΔH + x kJ

2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g) ; ΔH + y kJ
The enthalpy of formation of NO is -

(1) (2x – 2y) kJ/mol

(2) (x – y) kJ/mol

(3)
(y – x) kJ/mol

(4)
(x – y) kJ/mol
13) On heating with soda-lime, salicylic acid gives :-

(1) Phenol
(2) Benzoic acid
(3) Sodium salicylate
(4) Benzene

14) Which of the reactants given below is/are suitable for the preparation of Methoxybenzene ?

(x)

(y)

(1) Only x
(2) Only y
(3) Both x and y
(4) Neither 'x' nor 'y'

15) Which of the following alcohol is not oxidised by PCC :

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) sec-butyl alcohol
(3) iso-butyl alcohol
(4) ter-butyl alcohol

16) Product A is :- (A)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The compound which does not treat with is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

(1) Glucose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose
(4) Lactose

19) Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive.

(1) Lysine
(2) Glutamine
(3) Serine
(4) Glycine

20) Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared is :-

(1)
+ CrO2Cl2 in CS2 followed by H3O+

(2)
+ H2 in presence of Pd-BaSO4

(3)
+ CO + HCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

(4)
+ Zn/Hg and conc. HCl

21)

Least reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following reagents should be

used to carry out the above conversion :-

(1) LiAlH4
(2) NaBH4
(3) Ni, H2
(4) Zn–Hg/HCl

23) + CO2
The above reaction is

(1) Kolbe's electrolysis

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Etard Reaction
(4) Kolbe Reaction

24) Assertion :- Carbylamine reaction involves chemical reaction between 1° amine and chloroform
in basic medium.
Reason :- In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group changes into –NC group.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct.

(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

25) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

26) In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2

(2) It has NO+ as ligand
(3) Both are correct
(4) None is correct

27) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

28) Which of the following does not give chromyl chloride test?

(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) NH4Cl
(4) HgCl2

29)

Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?

(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

30) The oxidation no and coordination no. of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– :-

(1) +1, 3
(2) +2, 4
(3) +3, 6
(4) +2, 5

31) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

32) Which complex is most stable ?

Where kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

33) In which of the following pair, the EAN of central metal atom is not same :-

–3 +3
(1) [Fe(CN)6] and [Fe(NH3)6]
+3 –3
(2) [Cr(NH3)6] and [Cr(CN)6]
–3 –3
(3) [FeF6] and [Fe(CN)6]
–2
(4) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]

34) Which of the following is true about CO ligand :-

(1) Carbon is the main donor as it contain low energy non bonding e– than O
(2) Carbon is the main donor as it contain high energy non bonding e– than O
(3) Carbon is the main donor as it contain high energy bonding e– than O
(4) O is the main donor as it contain high energy non bonding e– than C

35) The element which does not form mononuclear carbonyl is :-

(1) Fe
(2) Mn
(3) Ni
(4) W

SECTION - B

1)

At 527°C, the reaction given below has KC = 4

NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g)

What is the Kp for the reaction ?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(1) 16 × (800 R)2

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

2) For the reaction : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured
by :-
(a) Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
(b) Introducing inert gas at constant volume
(c) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
(d) Introducing Cl2 at constant volume

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, d

3) 5 moles of an ideal gas in a rigid container are heated from 200 k to 400 k. ΔS for
the ideal gas is :-

(1) 1.25 R
(2) 7.25 R
(3) 3.75 R
(4) 8.63 R

4) The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are - 15.89 and 2.80 Kcal
mol–1 respectively, What will be heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4?

(1) –18.69 Kcal

(2) 18.69 Kcal
(3) –28.96 Kcal
(4) 28.96 Kcal

5) Statement-I : Heat evolved in the neutralization of either 1 mole of HCl or 1 mole of H2SO4 with
NaOH is same.
Statement-II : Both HCl and H2SO4 are strong acids.

(1) Both statement are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I
(2) Both statement are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

6) The reaction
 + CH3–CH2–Cl is called :-

(1) Williamson continuous etherification process

(2) Etard reaction
(3) Gatterman-Koch reaction
(4) Williamson synthesis

7) Reaction correctly matched with it's name ?

(1)
+ CO + HCl = Sandmayer reaction

(2)
+ CrO3 = Schotten–Baumann reaction

(3)

Hoffmann Bromamide degradation reaction

(4) All of these

8)
A Reagent is Required in above conversion

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3PO4
(3) Et–OH
(4) Both 1 and 3

9) β-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose are:

(1) Anomers
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Tautomers
(4) None of these

10) The following reaction is known as -

(1) Sandmaeyer reaction

(2) HVZ reaction
(3) Swart reaction
(4) Baeyer reaction

11) Which has maximum coordinating (donor) points ?

(1) DMG–
(2) EDTA4–
(3) en
(4) Py

12) The oxidation number and co-ordination number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is :-

(1) +1, 4
(2) 0, 4
(3) –1, 8
(4) –1, 4

13) Ammonia acts as a ligand but ammonium ion does not form complexes because

+
(1) NH3 is a gas while NH4 is in liquid form
3 + 3
(2) NH3 undergoes sp hybridisation while NH4 undergoes sp d hybridisation
+
(3) NH4 ion does not have any lone pair
+
(4) NH4 ion has one unpaired electron while NH3 has two unpaired electrons.

14) Consider the following Complex : [CO(NH3)5CO3]ClO4

The Coordination number, oxidation number, no: of d-electrons and number of unpaired d-electrons
on the metals are respectively.

(1) 6, 2, 7, 3
(2) 7, 2, 7, 1
(3) 5, 3, 6, 4
(4) 6, 3, 6, 0

15) Synergic bonding involves :-

(1) Transfer of electron from ligand to metal

(2) Transfer of electron from filled metal orbitals to anti-bonding orbitals of ligands
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of above

BOTANY

SECTION - A
1) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

2) In the cross given below :

AaBbccDd ×AabbCCDd
What percentage of progeny will have genotype aaBbCcDD?

(1) 6.2%
(2) 3.1%
(3) 12.4%
(4) 25%

3) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotype and phenotype will be obtained :-

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

4) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 6 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 64

5) Morgan's experiment the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is due to :-

(1) Independent assortment

(2) Segregation
(3) Linkage
(4) Dominance

6) Which of the following is true for test cross -

(A) It produces same genotypic and phenotypic ratio.
(B) It is used to determine purity and impurity of recessive trait.
(C) In test cross F1 hybrid is crossed with dominant parent.
(D) It can be the type of back cross.

(1) A, B and C
(2) Only A
(3) A and D
(4) A, B, C and D

7) Modified allele could be responsible for production of -

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) No enzyme
(3) Non-Functional enzyme
(4) All of these

8) In which of the following disorders, mental retardation is a common feature

(1) Thalassemia and Turner’s syndrome

(2) Phenylketonuria and Down’s syndrome
(3) Haemophilia and phenylketonuria
(4) Cystic fibrosis and Turner’s syndrome

9) This is the pedigree for autosomal recessive disease albinism (aa). What is the probability of II-I

homozygous normal?

(1) 1/3
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/3
(4) 1/4

10) Find out the correct statement.

(1) Genetic makeup of the egg determines the sex of the child in human.
(2) Genetic makeup of the sperm determines the sex of the child in human.
(3) XO and XY type of sex determination is an example of female heterogamety.
(4) Henking (1891) could trace a specific nuclear structure all through oogenesis of few insects.

11) Why Drosophila melanogaster is suitable for the study of genetical variation?

(1) Could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory.

(2) Complete life cycle is 2 weeks and single mating produces a large number of progeny flies.
 Clear sexual dimorphism is present and many types of heredity variation can be seen with low
(3)
power microscope.
(4) All of these

12) The map distance between genes A and B is 6 units, between B and C is 20 units and between C
and A is 14 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map constructed on the above data would
perhaps be

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, B
(3) B, C, A
(4) B, A, C

13) Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with
normal skin pigmentation was an albino. What is the probility for their second child towards
albinism?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

14) Find out the total number of Mendelian disorder from the following:
Cystic Fibrosis, Haemophilia, Sickle cell anaemia,Colour blindness, Thalessemia, Phenylketonuria

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

15) Study the pedigree chart given below : What does it show ?

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

(2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

16)

Skin colour in human is a quantitative trait which is controlled by 3 gene pairs. How many progenies
in F1 will resemble either of the parent whose genotype is AABBCC and aabbcc ?

(1) 2/64
(2) 1/64
(3) 4/64
(4) None

17) Match the following and choose the correct option:

(i) Many genes controlling one

(a) Pleiotropic gene
character

(ii) Single gene controlling many

(b) Multiple alleles
characters

(c) Polygenic
(iii) Different forms of a gene
Inheritance
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i

18) In a plant, seed colour and seed shape genes are linked. On test cross of this plant the ratio of
parental and recombinants is 18 : 2. Distance between these genes is:

(1) 4 Centimorgan
(2) 5 Centimorgan
(3) 20 Centimorgan
(4) 10 Centimorgan

19) In this given pedigree what is the mode of inheritance:

(1) Autosomal dominant

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked dominant
(4) X-linked recessive

20) Identify correct option for cross A and B in Morgan experiment:

 Cross-A Cross-B

Tightly linked
(1) Loosely linked genes
genes

Independent
(2) Linkage
assortment

Independent
(3) Linkage
assortment

More
(4) Less recombination
recombination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) If E.coli containing N15-N15 DNA was allowed to grow for 80 minutes in medium containing N14
then, what would be the percentage of light density and hybrid density DNA molecule ?

(1) 87.5% light density ; 12.5% hybrid density

(2) 75% light density ; 25% hybrid density
(3) 25% light density ; 75% hybrid density
(4) 12.5% light density ; 87.5% hybrid density

22) A segment of DNA molecule contains 20,000 base pairs. What is the number of phosphate
molecule in this DNA molecule ?

(1) 20,000
(2) 40,000
(3) 10,000
(4) 5,000

23) In a phosphodiester bond formation a phosphate group is bonded with

(1) 5'–OH of one sugar and 2'–OH of next sugar

(2) 3'–OH of one sugar and 5'–OH of next sugar
(3) 3'–OH of one sugar and 2'–OH of next sugar
(4) 5'–OH of one sugar and 1'–OH of next sugar

24)
(A) Histone octamer is made up of 5 types of histone protein
(B) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix
(C) Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called as histone octamer
(D) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a
structure called nucleosome.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

25) In a segment of DNA molecule there occurs 200 molecules of adenine nitrogen bases and 200
molecules of cytosine nitrogen bases. What will be the total number of purine nitrogen bases in this
segment ?

(1) 800
(2) 400
(3) 100
(4) 200

26) A molecular biologist analysed a nucleic acid sample and found that it contain N2 bases in
following proportion A = 20%, T = 15%, C = 35%, G = 30%. This data indicates that –

(1) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded DNA

(2) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded DNA
(3) Nucleic acid in the sample is double stranded RNA
(4) Nucleic acid in the sample is single stranded RNA

27) Deoxythymidylic acid is :-

(1) Ribonucleotide
(2) Deoxyribonucleotide
(3) Ribonucleoside
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside

28) In a segment of DNA 6.4 kilo base pairs are present. If DNA segment has 1640 Adenine
molecules, then what will be the number of cytosine ?

(1) 1560
(2) 1640
(3) 4760
(4) 1500

29) Which one of the following is the diagrammatic representation of a nucleotide ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) 5-methyl uracil is :-

(1) Double ring N-base

(2) Single ring N-base
(3) Present in RNA
(4) Both (2) & (3)

31) Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) In C4 plants, bundle sheath cells always form single layer around vascular bundle
(B) C4 plants show response to high light intensity
(C) C4 plants have a mechanism that increases concentration of O2 at working place of RuBiSCO
(D) Continued oxidation of acetyl-CoA via TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment of
oxaloacetic acid.
How many of the above statements are wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

32) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Four redox
equivalents are
(i) Glycolysis Cytoplasm removed from
one molecule of
glucose

(ii) Photorespiration Glycolate metabolism Peroxisome

First dicarboxylic
Two decarboxylation
(iii) Citric acid cycle acid produced is
steps
a-ketoglutarate

Bundle sheath Catalytic site of

(iv) PS-I absent
cells RuBisCO

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

33) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Grana of chloroplast i. Krebs cycle

B. Stroma of chloroplast ii. Light reaction

C. Cytoplasm iii. Kelvin cycle

D. Mitochondrial matrix iv. Glycolysis

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

34) Phosphorylation in mitochondria and chloroplast differ on the basis of requirment of:-

(1) A membrane
(2) ATPase
(3) Proton gradient
(4) Light

35) In which of the following process maximum number of NADH + H+ are formed :-
(1) 1 mol glucose → 2 mol pyruvic acid
(2) 1 mol pyruvic acid → 1 mol acetyl CoA
(3) One round of krebs cycle
(4) One round of hatch and slack cycle

SECTION - B

1) If chlorella alga using (C14) Radiolable CO2 in photoynthesis which of the following compound will
be radiolabel (C14) during glycolysis in that chlorella cell–

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH2
(3) 3-PGAL
(4) All of the above

2)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Glycolysis (1) Stroma

(b) Kreb's cycle (2) Grana

(c) Calvin cycle (3) Cytosol

(d) Photolysis of water (4) Mitochondrial matrix

(e) ETS (5) Inner mitochondria membrane

(1) a-3,b-4,c-5,d-1,e-2
(2) a-4,b-3,c-5,d-2,e-1
(3) a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2,e-5
(4) a-1,b-2,c-3, d-4,e-5

3) Select the correct statements ?

(A) F0 is peripheral membrane protein complex that forms the channel through which protons cross
the inner membrane of Mitochondria.
(B) The F1 headpiece is an integral membrane protein complex and contains the site for synthesis of
ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate in Mitochondria.
(C) CF0 is embedded in the thylakoid membrane and forms a transmembrane channel in
Chloroplast.
(D) CF1 protrudes on the inner surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the lumen.

(1) (A) , (B) , (C), (D) all are correct.

(2) (C) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (C) and (D) only

4) During respiration 3C acid is formed in :-

(1) Mitochondrial matrix
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell
(4) Inner membrane of mitohondria

5) Area of leaf A was 10 cm2 and that of leaf B was 25 cm2. After unit time, area of leaf A became 17
cm2 while that of leaf B became 32 cm2. What is the difference between relative growth rate of leaf A
and B :-

(1) 42%
(2) 30%
(3) 28%
(4) 7%

6) The process in which newly form cells from primary meristematic tissue derived to perform
specific function is known as :-

(1) regeneration
(2) dedifferentiation
(3) redifferentiation
(4) differentiation

7) Plants follows different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different
kinds of structures. This ability is called :-

(1) Deffertiation
(2) Plasticity
(3) Growth
(4) Maturation

8) A phase of growth of an S-curve which is the maximum and fastest ?

(1) Lag phase

(2) Decline phase
(3) Log phase
(4) Stationary phase

9) (A) GA – Extend market period of fruits

(B) Ethylene – Increase surface area of absorption
(C) CK – Apical hook formation
(D) GA – Internodal elongation in deep water rice plant
How many matches are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

10) Which one of the following hormone play important role in seed development, maturation and
dormancy :-

(1) ABA
(2) IAA
(3) GA
(4) CK

11) Which of the following features are correctly matched ?

(a) Causes elongation of apple and improve its shape
(b) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(c) Increases length of sugarcane stem
(d) Promotes bolting in beet
(e) Causes lateral shoot growth

(1) a, c, d - Gibberelins
(2) b, d, e - Auxin
(3) a, c, e - Cytokinin
(4) a, b, c - Ethylene

12) Identify the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

Nutrient
(i) Ethephon (a)
mobilisation

Hastens
(ii) ABA (b)
fruit ripening

(iii) Cytokinin (c) Bolting

(iv) Gibberellin (d) Dormin

(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

13) Which is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit set in pineapples?

(1) Auxin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) ABA

14) (i) Promote nutrient mobilisation

(ii) Overcome the apical dominance
(iii) Lateral shoot growth
All the above physiological effects are related to which of the following plant growth regulators?

(1) Auxins
(2) Gibberellins
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Cytokinins

15) Internode elongation just prior to flowering in rosette plants like cabbage and beet is promoted
by:-

(1) Auxins
(2) Ethylen
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Gibberellins

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Assertion : Copper releasing IUD prevent fertilization.

Reason : Copper ions inhibit motility of sperms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Family planning in India was started in:

(1) 1851
(2) 1947
(3) 1952
(4) 1951

3) Statement-I :- ZIFT-The zygote or early embryo (upto 8 Blastomere) could be transferred into
the fallopian tube.
Statement-II :- IUT-More then 8 blastomeres stage could be transferred into the fallopian tube.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

4) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults prevent conception by :-

(1) Increasing phagocytosis of sperms within uterus
(2) Suppressing sperm motility
(3) Inhibiting ovulation and implantation
(4) Blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix

5) Choose the incorrect for MTP :-

(1) Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the India
(2) Government of India legalised MTP in 1971
(3) MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester
(4) It is also called induced abortion

6) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-

(1) Killing the sperms in uterus

(2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova.
(3) Preventing ovulation
(4) Killing the ova

7) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

8) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

9) Most widely accepted method of contraception in India is ?

(1) IUDs
(2) Surgical methods
(3) Terminal methods
(4) Condoms

10) Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects
and cactus seeds.
Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin's finches radiated out from South American
mainland to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free
new habitats.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

11) Statement-I : Wing of bat and flipper of whale are analogous organs.
Statement-II : Analogy is based on divergent evolution.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

12) Which theory can explain the origin of universe?

(1) Cosmic panspermia theory

(2) Theory of natural selection
(3) Big-bang theory
(4) Theory of special creation

13) Who experimentally disproved the theory of Abiogenesis generation?

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Oparin & Haldane
(3) Stanley Miller
(4) Hugo deVries

14) The life could have come from :

(1) Outer space with cosmic rays

(2) Dead and decaying matter
(3) Pre-existing non-living organic molecules
(4) Another planet in form of spores

15) What is the correct sequence of formation of various structures in order of origin of life?
I. Protobionts
II. Simple organic molecules
III. Eobionts
IV. Complex organic molecules

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, I, III, IV
(3) II, IV, I, III
(4) III, II, I, IV

16) The first living organisms on earth were:

(1) Chemoautotrophs, anaerobic

(2) Chemoheterotrophs, aerobic
(3) Photoautotrophs, aerobic
(4) Chemoheterotrophs, anaerobic

17) Experimental evidences in favour of chemical evolution were provided by:

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Haldane
(3) Stanley Miller
(4) Oparin

18) Which is not a property of protobionts?

(1) Colloidal drops like structures

(2) Able to grow in size
(3) Able to reproduce
(4) Clusters of macromolecules

19) Giraffe’s neck and forelimbs got elongated during the course of evolution due to :

(1) Inheritance of acquired character

(2) Natural selection
(3) Geographical isolation
(4) Convergent evolution

20) In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium :

(1) Frequency of dominant alleles equals to 1

(2) Sum of frequencies of all the alleles is zero
(3) Frequency of the alleles remain constant from generation to generation
(4) Frequency of dominant alleles and frequency of recessive alleles are equal

21) Which naturalist said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse of
organs?

(1) Lamarck
(2) Darwin
(3) Miller
(4) Wallace
22) S.L. Miller an American scientist, in his experiment, created electric discharge at 800°C in a
closed flask containing some gases with water vapour. These gases were :

(1) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

(2) Methane, Ammonia, Nitrogen
(3) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen
(4) Oxygen, Methane, Ammonia

23) What will be the age of a fossil recovered from a rock sediment containing 100 gm of radioactive
carbon (C14) and 300 gm stable isotope (N14) in a sample taken from the same rock and half life of C14
is 5730 years ?

(1) 11460 years

(2) 17190 years
(3) 818 years
(4) 40110 years

24) Evolution of four chambered heart from two and three chambered heart proves.

(1) Darwinism
(2) Recapitulation theory
(3) Lamarckism
(4) Neo-Darwinism

25) The change in gene frequency occured by chance is called as :-

(1) Gene migration

(2) Gene flow
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Mutation

26) Which factor is not responsible for the deviation in genetic equilibrium ?

(1) Gene migration

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Random mating

27) Which of the following structure help in fertilisation of sec. oocyte ?

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Acrosome
(3) Tail of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

28) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

29) If vas deferens is cut & tied then what will happen?

(1) Inhibits spermatogenesis.

(2) Motility of sperms will be reduced.
(3) Inhibits release of semen.
(4) Seminal plasma without sperms is released.

30) If a female can not produce labour pain during parturition, then what step should be taken by
doctor ?

(1) Wait and watch

(2) Oxytocin injections given
(3) Progesterone is given
(4) Cesarian done

31) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Epididymis – Maturation and storage of sperms

(2) Fallopian tube – Collection of secondary oocyte
(3) Seminal vesicle – Its secretions contain a sugar
(4) Corpus luteum – Secrete h.C.G. for maintenance of the endometrium

32) Fertilization most commonly occurs if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to

(1) Fimbriae-Infundibulum junction

(2) Infundibulum-Ampulla junction
(3) Ampulla
(4) Isthmus-Fundus junction

33) In uterus, endometrium proliferates in / response to

(1) Relaxin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oestrogen

34) Morula is :-

(1) Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres

(2) Embryo with 2 to 4 blastomeres
(3) Embryo with 4 to 8 blastomeres
(4) Embryo with more than 32 blastomeres

35) Signals for parturition originate from

(1) Foetal oxytocin

(2) Placenta and fully developed foetus
(3) Decrease in estrogen to progesterone ratio
(4) Hormone released from pineal gland

SECTION - B

1) Assertion (A):- Implants can be used as a good method of contraception.

Reason (R):- It releases estrogen which suppress sperm motility.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2)

Match the contraceptive methods given under column I with their examples given under column II.
Select the correct choice from those given below. :

Column I Column II

A Chemical p Tubectomy and Vasectomy

B IUDs q Copper-T and Loop

C Barriers r Condom and Cervical cap

D Sterilization s Spermicidal Jelly and foam

t Coitus interruptus and calendar method

(1) A = p, B = r, C = q, D = t
(2) A = s, B = q, C = t, D = p
(3) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
(4) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = p

3) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of it's

implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together:
 Contraceptive device Site of implant

(1) LNG – 20 Fallopian tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Implants Subcutanceous

(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Two statements given below :

Statement I : Due to very low sperm count in the ejaculation could be corrected by artificial
insemination (AI).
Statement II : Artificial insemination (AI) is the example of in-vivo fertilization.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II correct

5) Primary steps that can be taken towards attaining reproductive health are :-
(a) Counselling and creating awareness among
people about reproductive organs,
adolescence and associated changes.
(b) Safe and hygienic sexual practices
(c) Creating awareness about STDs including AIDS, etc
(d) Ban on MTP and amniocentesis

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

6) Medical assistance and care to people is required in reproduction related problems like:-
(a) Pregnancy (b) Delivery
(c) STDs (d) Abortions
(e) Contraception (f) Menstrual problems
(g) Infertility

(1) a,c,e, and f

(2) b,d and g
(3) a, b, c, d e and g
(4) a,b,c,d,e,f and g
7) Assertion : Natural selection is the outcome of differences in survival and reproduction among
individuals that show variation in one or more traits.
Reason : Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common; less adaptive ones become
less common or disappear.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8)

Match the columns-I and II and choose the correct options given :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Origin of earth (i) 4BYA

(b) Origin of life (ii) 4.5 BYA

Origin of first cellular

(c) (iii) 3 BYA
form of life

Origin of first non

(d) (iv) 2 BYA
Cellular form of life
(1) a-(i),b-(ii),c-(iii),d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii),b-(i),c-(iv),d-(iii)
(3) a-(iv),b-(iii),c-(ii),d-(i)
(4) a-(iii),b-(ii),c-(i),d-(iv)

9) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(a) Ernst Heckel (i) Biogeographical continental drift

(b) Louis Pasteur (ii) Supported embryological evidences

(c) Charles Darwin (iii) dismissed spontaneous generation

(d) Alfred Wallace (iv) Theory of Natural selection

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Statement-I : The fitness according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive
fitness.
Statement-II : Those who are better fit in the environment leave less progeny than others.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

11) Predict the organisms A, B, C related to family tree of dinosaurs, in the following diagram.

(1) A-Triceratops, B-Crocodilian, C-Brachiosaurus

(2) A-Archeopteryx, B-Crocodilian, C-Pteranodon
(3) A-Brachiosaurus, B-Tyrannosaurus, C-Tricerotops
(4) A-Crocodialian, B-Stegosaurus, C-Tricerotops

12) The thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita in the given figure does not show :

(1) Homology
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Common ancestory
(4) Vestigial structures

13) Which of the following statement correctly represent ovulation.

(1) Triggered by high level of oxytocin

(2) Ovulation occurs approximately 14 days of menstrual cycle
(3) Ovulation is triggered by copulation
(4) Ovulation occurs approximate 24 hours after copulation

14) Correctly matched pairs are :-

(a) Clitoris – Erectile tissue
(b) Colostrum – Secretion of cowper's gland
(c) Prolactin – Milk synthesis hormone
(d) Oxytocin – Milk synthesis hormone

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, c and d

15) The placenta is formed from the _______ of the embryo and the _______ of the mother.

(1) Uterus, Trophoblast

(2) Chorion, Endometrium
(3) Endometrium, Chorion
(4) Inner cell mass, Endometrium
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 4 2 3 1 2 4 1 2 1 4 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 2

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 4 1 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 3 4 3 4 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Since tension in wire in both caus is same. Elongation in length for same material wire in
same length will also be same.

2) t =

5)
mg = 0.6 × 8 × 102 g + 1 × 2 × 102 × g
m = 6.8 × 102 gram

6) (ΔP)·Area = mg

ΔP = 2.5 × 103 Pa

7)

8)

B=
ΔP = B (–ΔV/V)
hρg = B(–ΔV/V)
h × 103 × 9.8 = (9.8 × 108) × (0.1 × 10–2)
h = 100 m

9) 3P = P + ρgh

h= ..... (1)

P1 = P + ρg
from equation (1)

P1 = P + ρg
P1 =

12) ∵ Volume = constant

Y = 3K (1 – 2σ)

⇒ 1 – 2σ = ⇒

13) mass of each disk

m= M
so I = Isqure - 4Ihole

= MR2 – 10 mR2 [∵ ]

14) K =
L=
L=

15)

=
= (–6 – 2) – {3–(–2)} + (2 – 4)
=– – –
Hence option (2)

16)

18)

In R.C. circuit
Irms =

Irms =
If ω↑ then Impedance ↓ & Irms↑,
Power =
Power ↑ Brightness ↑

20) =
So Vrms = V0/2

22)

Apply
obtain Vrms
than apply Vrms = 12
where I = 2A

23)

tanϕ = ϕ = 45º

1= ⇒ XL = R
XL = 100
2πfL = 100
2π × 1000 × L = 100

L= H

25)

0
f =
∵ = 16

∴ C' = 16C

27)

Wattless current (I) = Irms sinϕ

= 2sinϕ
sinϕ =

Power factor (cosϕ) = cos60° =

31)

0
u= ε

= × 8.85 × 10–12 (25)2

= 2.75 × 10–9 J/m3

33)

R=

And i =

35) No current will flow in forthest Δ from terminal A & B ∴

Equivalent resistance =

36) =

RB = Rs or Rs =

37)

Vt =

38)
T = FB – Mg

T = mg _(1)

T1 = mgess _(2)

⇒ T1 = T

40)

U= × stress × strains × vol.

U= × × vol.
U = same ; Vol = same
(Stress)2 ∝ Y
F2 ∝ A2 Y

⇒ F′ = F

41) For acceleration

× 2 × (20)2 = 400 Rad.

ω = 0 + α t = 2 × 20 = 40 Rad/sec
For uniform motion
θ = ω × t = 40 × 10 = 400 Rad.
For retardation

θ= (ωi + ωf) = × 20 (40 + 0) = 400 Rad.

Total angle of rotation = 1200 Rad.
Hence option (2)

42) FBD of Block

mg – T = ma ..(1)
FBD of Disc
 T.R = I.α

T.R = I.

T= ..(2)
n
from eq (1) & (2)

mg –

a=

Hence, acceleration of the block =

so velocity v =

=
Hence option (3)

43)
Block will not topple if

45) XL – XC = R

46) I = C= C

Brms = 10–4 T
 47)

J = nevd

J = σE = nevd ⇒ nevd ⇒ vd =

J = nevd ⇒ vd =

J = σE = nevd ⇒

∴ vd =
So option 2 is not possible

49)
Apply KCL
i1 = i2 + i3

⇒ 60 – 6VP = 3VP – 18 + 2 VP – 10
11 VP = 88 ⇒ VP = 8 Volt

50)

i2 × 5 = 4

i=

P=

CHEMISTRY

51)

Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
If Δng = 0 Kp = Kc

58) ΔS =
 = Cvℓn2 – Rℓn2

59)

Eq.(i) + eq. (ii) – eq.(iii) gives

For

62)

Desired equation

64) (x) No reaction

Due to resonance C–Br bond acquires double bond character

(y) +CH3Br
(NCERT XII Pg.#304, 338, part II)

66)

Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.

68)

Ncert Pg No: 287

Edition-2023-24

73)

Fact based

75)

(1) Glycinato
 (2) Ethylenediamine

(3) Aqua H2O monodentate.

(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

79) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

81) Monodentate ligands do not show chelation.

83)

EAN
Ni(CO)4 36

[Ni(CN)4]–2 34

92)

Fact

94) NCERT XII II part Pg.# 355

95)

Halogenation at α-carbon of carboxylic acid called HVZ reaction.

96)

EDTA–4 ⇒ Hexadentate

98) NH4+ ion does not have any lone pair, so not used as ligand.
BOTANY

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

103) NCERT Pg. # 79

107)

NCERT-Pg.62

129) NCERT XI Pg.# 145 fig. 9.1

131) NCERT XI Pg. # 219, 220, 232

134) NCERT XI, Pg # 215

138) NCERT 11th Class : 11.6.3 Chemiosmotic Hypothesis and 12.4.2

Electron Transport System (ETS) and Oxidative Phosphorylation

140) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 244

142) NCERT Pg # 246

144)

NCERT XI Pg. # 249, 250

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 178

146)

NCERT XI, Pg # 249

149) NCERT XI Eng. Page no. # 250 (Ist para)

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44

153) NCERT-XII, Pg # 48 (E)

157) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60 (E) 66 (H)

159) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 60, para 3

160)

NCERT XII Pg. # 117

161) NCERT Page No. 131/143

170) NCERT(XII) Pg# 137 Para: 7.7

171) NCERT(XII) Pg# 134 Para: 7.5

172) NCERT(XII) Pg# 127 Para: 7.1

186)

NCERT Page No 45

188) Norplant is implanted subcutaneously and it works up to 5yrs approx.

189)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 48

192)

NCERT XII Pg. # 119

193)

NCERT Pg. # 127 & 128

194) NCERT Page No. # E-127, 129, H-139, 141

195) NCERT Page No. 129

197) NCERT(XII) Pg# 131 Fig: 7.3

198)

NCERT XII, Pg # 51