Question Bank

TDC/TDPH 6TH SEMESTER EXAMINATION 2017

Subject – Human Rights and Gender Studies
(Soft Study Course)

1. In which year Sati was abolished

a) 4th December 1829
b) 4th December 1929
c) 4th November 1829
d) 4th November 1929

2.Who authored the book “The Origin of Family, Private Property and the state?
a) Karl Marx
b) Frederick Engels
c) Kamala Basin
d) Sharmila Rege

3. Which of the social reformer is associated with Brahma Samaj?

a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) swami Vivekananda
c)Annie Besante
d)Sarojini Naidu

4. The legislation of Hindu Widow’s Remarriage Act XV of 1856 which legalised marriage of widows was
by
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) swami Vivekananda
c) Annie Besante
d) Sarojini Naidu

5.Prohibition of child marriage came in

a) 1872.
b.) 1972
c).1772
d.)1961
6. Female infanticide is the practice of killing female infants immediately
a) after the birth
b) before birth
c) before marriage
d) after marriage
7. ‘Despatched on Education’ (1854) laid great stress on the need for female education is founded by
a) Charles wood’s
b) Raja ram mohan roy
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 c) Swami vivekananda
d) Annie besante
8. The Dowry prohibition Act-was passed in
a) 1961
b) 1930
c) 1929
d) 1829
9.Swami Dayanand the founder of Arya Samaj also advocated widow remarriage and high status for women
in the society founded in the year
a) 1875
b) 1775
c) 1975
d) 1675
10. The Sarda Act pushed up the age of marriage to 18 and 14 for boys and girls respectively was
legalised in
a )1830
b )1930
c )1929
d )1829
11. The first Indian Women’s University in 1916 was set up by
a) Prof. D.K. Karve
b ) Iravati Karve
c) Indira Gandhi
d )Sarojini Naidu
12. Who started Widow Remarriage Association(1861)
a) Prof. D.K. Karve
b ) Iravati Karve
c) Indira Gandhi
d) sarojini naidu

13. Biological characteristics distinguishing male from female is called---

a) Heterosexuality
b) Gender
c) Sex
d) Homosexuality

14. ------------------is striving for equal treatment of women and men and for abolishing inequality.
a) Feminism
b) Gender studies
c) Political science
d) Law

15. Gerontology is the study of --------------------

a) Human beings
b) Special groups
c) Aged and aging
d) All of these
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16. Which feminist perspective has patriarchy as its fundamental concepts in the explanation of Gender
inequality
a) Liberal feminism
b) Radical feminism
c) Socialist feminism
d)Marxist feminism
17. Economic Rights is-
a. Everyone has right to own property.
b. Everyone is to be assured right to work.
c. Everyone is to get equal pay for equal work.
d. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
18. Social rights define-
a. Men and women are equal rights of marriage.
b. Everyone has right to education.
c. The Family is the natural and fundamental units of society.
d. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
19. How Many Kinds of Legal rights?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.
Answer:B. Three.

20. Main features of Rights:

a. Rights exist only in society.
b. Rights are equally available to all the people.
c. Rights are inseparably related with duties.
d. All of these.
Answer: D. All of these.

21. The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 describes‘Human Rights’as relating to
a. Liberty.
b. Equality.
c. Dignity.
d. All of these.
Answer: D. All of these.

22. When the people of France brought about the abolishment of the absolute kingdom and set the stage for
the establishment of the first French Republic?
a. 1789.
b. 1748.
c. 1733.
d. 1889.
Answer:A. 1789.
23. Principles of human rights:
a. Universality.
b. Non-discriminatory.
c. Equality.
d. All of these.
Answer: D. All of these.

24. Characteristics of human rights:

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 a. Human Rights are associated with human dignity:
b. Human Rights are Universal,Human Rights are never absolute.
c. Human Rights are Dynamic.
d. All of these.
Answer: D. All of these.
25. The Supreme Court of India recognizes Fundamental Right as
a. Natural right
b. Political right.
c. Social right.
d. All of these.
Answer: B. Political right.
26. The Protection of Civil Rights Act
a. 1951.
b. 1955.
c. 1947.
d. 1950.
Answer: B. 1955.
27. Article17 abolishes the practice of
a. Brahmin system.
b. Owner system.
c. Untouchability.
d. None of these.
Answer:C. Untouchability.
28. ICESCR stands for-
a. Internal Covenant on Economic, Social and Political.
b. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
c. Both A & B.
d. None of these.
Answer: B. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
29. The United Nations General Assembly declared water and sanitation as human rights on
a. July 28, 2010.
b. July 10, 2011.
c. August 8, 2016.
d. Sept 2, 2014.
Answer: A. July 28, 2010.
30. ICPD stands for-
a. International Conference on Population and Development
b. Indian Council of Philosophy Day.
c. Indian court and political Development.
d. None of these.
Answer: A. International Conference on Population and Development
31. FGC and MGM Stands for-
a.
Foundation of Gender court and modern gender.
b.
Federation of gender council and modern group of men.
c.
Female Genital Cutting and Male Genital Mutilation .
d.
All of these.
Answer:C. Female Genital Cutting and Male Genital Mutilation .
32. Short form of International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights is
a. ICPR.
b. ICCPR.
c. Both A & B.
d. None of these.
Answer: B. ICCPR.
33. ICC Stands for-
a. International Law court.

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 b. International civil court.
c. International Criminal Court.
d. None of these.
Answer: C. International Criminal Court.
34. When did Tripura to set up human rights commission?
a. October 27, 2015.
b. October 27, 2014.
c. October 27, 2011.
d. October 27, 2010.
Answer:A.October 27, 2015.
35. The Tripura Commission for Women ACT
a. 1993
b. 1999
c. 2000
d. 2001
Answer:A. 1993

36. In India the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act.

a. 2001
b. 2005
c. 2010
d. 2000 Answer:B. 2005

34. When was the UDHR adopted by General Assembly?

a. 10th December 1948
b. 15th August
c. 25th April 1950
d. 28th July 1951
35. The third generation rights refer to
a. Civil and Political rights
b. Economic, Social and Cultural rights
c. Solidarity, development, environment rights
d. Habitation rights
36. The General Assembly proclaimed UDHR as
a. A Common Justice to all people in the world
b. A Common Standard life of all people
c. A Common Standard of achievement for all people and all nations
d. All of the above.
37. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 35
38. In which year UN General Assembly adopted the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees
a. 1951
b. 1948
c. 1993
d. 1986
39. International humanitarian law which is known as
a. The law of Armed Conflict
b. The law of Protection to Environment
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 c. The law of IDPs
d. The law of providing humanitarian assistances to people affected by natural disaster
40. When did the Indian Parliament pass the protection of Human Rights Act ?
a. In 1993
b. In 1950
c. In 2000
d. In 2001
41. How many SHRC in India ?
a. 20
b. 24
c. 25
d. 26
42. The National Human Rights Commission is a
a. Constitutional body
b. Statutory body
c. Executive body
d. NG
43. Name the Human Rights activist in India who is on hunger strike since 2nd November 2000 against Armed
Force Special Power act. ( AFSPA ).
a. Medha Pathkar
b. Shabnam Hashmi
c. Teesta setalvad
d. Irom Chanu Sharmila
44. Human Rights entitles mankind to
a. Comfort
b. convenience
c. Decent, civilized and dignified life
d. Guarantee of existence
45. The right to life, liberty and security of person under the ICCPR is contained in
a. Article 1
b. Article 2
c. article 3.
d. Article 4
46. When the Convention of the Rights of Child was adopted by the UN General Assembly?
a. On 18th March 1992
b. On 24th January 1982
c. On 20th November 1989
d. On 10th December 1999
47. Which of the following was the first international treaty having significant portents for International Human
Rights law ?
a. Congress of Vienna
b. Geneva Convention
c. League of Nations
d. treaty of Westphalia.
48. Bentham was supporter of the theory of
a. Natural rights
b. Historical rights
c. Moral rights

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 d. Legal rights
49. The International Criminal Court is located at
a. Paris
b. Geneva
c. Hague
d. Brussels
50. How does the NHRC ACT.
a. Under the Supreme Court of India
b. Under the High Court of state in India
c. Like as Chief Justice of India
d. Under the President of India
51. The monitoring body of CEDAW 1979
a. Torture Committee
b. Committee on Migrant workers
c. Women’s Committee
d. Committee on General Public
52. The domestic standards evolved to deal with the issue of IDPs are
a. The Disaster Management Act. 2005
b. Land Acquisition Amendment Bill
c. National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007 ( NRRP )
d. All of above.
53. How many countries are members of the Commission on Human Rights?
a. 53 b. 55 c. 50 d. 52

54. The murder of young brides by the husband and in-laws due to the demand of dowry is
called ______.
a. Dowry death
b. Murder.
c. Suicide.
d. None of the above.
.
55. Domestic violence involves

a. Physical violence only

b. Mental violence only
c. Violence inside the house

56. All of the above

Different strategies have been used in the women’s movement to

a. Spread awareness
b. Seek justice
c. Fight discrimination

57. All of the above

Select an example of pressure from the family and society

a. Unfair teasing
b. appreciation
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 c. demands from adults
d. both a and b

58. India has a census every ___ years

1. 5
2. 10
3. 18
4. 20

59. The notion that domestic violence is rooted in the society's laws and customs that reinforce
male dominance is known as the
a. Political model of domestic violence.
b. Medical model of domestic violence.
c. "Rule of thumb."
d. Battered wife syndrome.
60. Which type of domestic violence is as likely to be perpetrated by women and men toward
their partners?
1. Control.
2. Serious violence such as beating.
3. Situational violence.
4. Intimate terrorism

61. Treating batterers with counseling and therapy would be using which model of domestic violence?
1. Political.
2. Medical.
3. "Rule of thumb".
4. Public family.
62. Which social class has the highest rates of domestic violence?
a. The very wealthy.
b. The middle class.
c. The working class.
d. The lower class.
63. Which is true about the incidence of child abuse?
a. The rates in Colonial times were relatively low.
b. It is more likely to occur today in two-parent homes rather than in single-parent homes.
c. Most cases reported today involve neglect rather than abuse.
d. Using physical force was less common 100 years ago than it is today.
64. The perspective that explains individual domestic violence as a result of direct observation of
behavior and viewing of incidents in the media is the
a. Social learning perspective.
b. Frustration-aggression theory.
c. Social exchange perspective.
d. Political theory.
65. A hierarchical system in which cultural, political, and economic structures are dominated by males is
a ______________.
a. Elite model.
b. Patriarchy.
c. Pluralist model.
d. Gendered division of labour.
66. Gender studies refer to the academic study of the phenomena of

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 a. Gender.
b. Sex.
c. Patriarchy.
d. None of these.
67. What is meant by ‘sex’?
a. Fact of being either male or female,
b. Biological and physiological characteristics that define men and women.
c. Anatomical and physiological characteristics that signify the biological maleness and femaleness
of an individual.
d. All of the above.
68. Skirts, saris, salwar-kurtas are seen as
a. Feminine clothing.
b. Masculine clothing.
c. Transgender clothing.
d. None of the above.
69. Trousers, shirts, sherwanis, are seen as
a. Masculine.
b. Feminine.
c. Transgender.
d. None of the above.
70. From feminist perspective even Clothing is
a. Gendered.
b. Not gendered.
c. Generalized.
d. All of the above.
71. The origin of gender studies lie in
a. Feminism.
b. Patriarchy.
c. Women’s studies.
d. All of the above.
72. Gender emphasizes that masculinity and femininity are products of
a. Social factor
b. Cultural factor
c. Psychological factor.
d. All of the above.
73. Women give birth to babies, men do not. It is a matter of
a. Sex.
b. Gender.
c. Social.
d. All of the above.
74. Girls are gentle; boys are rough. It is a matter of
a. Sex.
b. Biological.
c. Gender.
d. None of the above.
75. Doctors are men; nurses are women. It is a matter of
a. Sex.
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 b. Psychological.
c. Gender.
d. All of the above.
76. Boys don’t cry. It is a matter of
a. Physiological.
b. Gender.
c. Sex.
d. None of the above.
77. Boys are good at math and science and girls are good at language and history. It is a matter of
a. Gender.
b. Sex.
c. Biological.
d. None of the above.
78. When one thinks of an engineer, one hardly ever thinks of a woman.
a. Biological.
b. Gender.
c. Social.
d. All of the above.
79. Women work two-thirds of the world’s working hours, produce half of the world’s food and yet earn
only 10% of the world’s income and own less than 1% of the world’s property. It is a matter of
a. Economical.
b. Gender.
c. Sociological.
d. All of the above.
80. A girl is expected to return home early while a boy can comfortably have a night-out with his
friends. It is a matter of
a. Culture.
b. Gender.
c. Social.
d. All of the above.
81. Gender stereotypes are simplistic generalizations about the gender
a. Attributes.
b. Differences.
c. The roles of individuals and/or groups
d. All of the above.
82. “Woman is more compassionate than man and has a greater propensity to tears… But the male… is
more disposed to give assistance in danger, and is more courageous than the female”. It is said by
a. Plato.
b. Aristotle.
c. Immanuel Kant.
d. None of them.
83. “To call woman the weaker sex is a libel; it is man's injustice to woman…if nonviolenceis the law of
our being, the future is with woman. Who can make a more effective appeal to the heart than
woman?” this statement is made by
a. B.R. Ambedkar.
b. Karl Marx.
c. Mahatma Gandhi.
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 d. None of the above.
84. _________ said, “A man will say what he knows, a woman says what will please.”
a. Machiavelli.
b. Jean Jacques Rousseau.
c. Aristotle.
d. John Locke.
85. Once ____________ said, “Man with the head and woman with the heart; Man to command and
woman to obey; all else confusion.”
a. Alfred Lord Tennyson.
b. Darwin.
c. Watson.
d. Russell.
86. The commonest female stereotypical role that is prevalent is of the
a. Weaker Sex.
b. Homemaker.
c. Compassionate.
d. None of the above.
87. Gender relations are the ways in which a culture or society defines
a. Rights.
b. Responsibilities.
c. Identities of men and women.
d. All of the above.
88. Gender roles are
a. Societal
b. Cultural.
c. Personal.
d. All of the above.
89. Patriarchy literally means the
a. Rule of the father.
b. Rule of the mother.
c. Rule of mother and father
d. None of the above.
90. Within gender studies, the term patriarchy refers to a social system wherein
a. Men dominate over women.
b. Greater rights given to men.
c. Resources like land and other assets are controlled by men.
d. All of the above.
91. In a patriarchal society a woman is seen more as
a. Supplementing and supporting a man
b. Bearing children
c. Taking care of household chores.
d. All of the above.
92. In matriarchal societies women are
a. Key decision-makers.
b. Hold the privileged positions.
c. Community leaders.
d. All of the above.
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93. _________ identifies six structures of patriarchy such as household production, paid work, male
violence, culture, state and sexuality.
a. Freud.
b. Walby.
c. William James.
d. Davidson.
94. International Women's Day is celebrated annually on
a. The 8th of March.
b. The 8th of May.
c. The 8th of April.
d. The 8th of July.
95. The German socialist and feminist,__________ , was the first to propose that women from every
country celebrate a day as Women's Day.
a. Rachael Carson.
b. Clara Zetkin.
c. Judith Thomas.
d. Elezabeth.
96. The first International Women's Day was celebrated in
a. 1811.
b. 1711.
c. 1911.
d. 1945.
97. _______________ was the first woman teacher in India.
a. SavitribaiPhule.
b. Sarojini Naidu.
c. Anne Besant.
d. None of the above.
98. Feminism has also examined the gendered nature of different types of economic systems such as
a. Capitalist.
b. Feudal.
c. Socialist.
d. All of the above.
99. Discrimination faced by a person because of their gender can be termed as
a. Gender Discrimination.
b. Caste discrimination.
c. Social discrimination.
d. Economic Discrimination.
Answer:(a) Gender Discrimination.
100. Discrimination based on gender may differ in different situations but the root lies in the
a. Ideology.
b. How people think.
c. Culture.
d. None of the above.
101. _____________________ are some examples of violent manifestations of discrimination that
are found across the cultures.
a. Pre-natal selection.
b. Female foeticide.
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 c. Dowry and physical harassment.
d. All of the above.
102. Different degrees of power are sustained and perpetuated through social stratification like a.
Gender.
a. Class.
b. Caste.
c. All of the above.
103. The mid _______ saw the term empowerment becoming popular in the field of development
especially in reference to women.
a. 1980s.
b. 1990s.
c. 1900s.
d. 1950s.
104. Empowerment of woman, in its simplest form, means the redistribution of power that
challenges
a. Patriarchal ideology.
b. Culture.
c. Economic system.
d. None of the above.
105. Gender equity is the process of being fair to
a. Women.
b. Men.
c. Women and men.
d. None of the above.
106. Gender equality does not mean that men and women become
a. The same.
b. Unequal.
c. Different.
d. All of the above.
107. The Constitution of India guarantees to all Indian women equality by
a. Article 21.
b. Article 9.
c. Article 14.
d. Article 8.

108. Which of the following categories of Fundamental rights incorporate ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?
a) Right to Equality b) Right to Freedom
c) Right to Religion d) Right to Education

109. UNDP stands for:

a) United Nations Directive Plan b) United Nations Development Programme
c) United Nations Divisional Plan d) None of these

110. In Indian Constitution fundamental rights are contained:

a) Article 12 to 35 b) Article 40 to 52
c) Article 64 to 75 d) None of these

111. Protection and improvement of environment is ensured in:

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 a) Article 29 b) Article 32
c) Article 45 d) Article 48

112. Amnesty International was founded in London in:

a) July, 1951 b) July, 1961
c) July, 1971 d) 1981

113. When and where Slavery Abolition Act was established?

a) 1742 China b) 1807 Britain
c) 1833 United States d) None of these

114. Who launched the ‘Chipko Movement’ in the hills of Garhwal during 1980s?
a) Sundarlal Bahuguna b) Baba Amte
c) Medha Patkar d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

115. The main thrust of ‘Copenhegen Summit’ was:

a) Food Security b) Air Pollution
c) Rehabilitation d) Climate Change

116. The ‘Rio Summit’ was declared in:

a) 1992 b) 1994
c) 1997 d) 1998

117. Right to Development is a:

a) Individual right b) Collective right
c) Political right d) Social right

118. The Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted in:
a) 1982 b) 1986
c) 1989 d) 1990

119. Protection of life and liberty of Indian Citizen is secured by:

a) Article 17 b) Article 21
c) Article 25 d) Article 29

120. Which article of Indian Constitution provides for prevention of bonded labour?
a) Article 19 b) Article 21
c) Article 23 d) Article 25

121. When has India ratified the ‘CEDAW’?

a) 1993 b) 1995
c) 1996 d) 1998

122. Environmental degradation and human rights was first placed in the International Agenda:
a) 1971 b) 1972
c) 1975 d) 1978

123. Who said ‘Swaraj is my birth right’?

a) Gandhi b) Ambedkar
c) Subhas Chandra Bose d) Tilak

124. The book ‘A Memory of Salferino’ was published in:

a) 1861 b) 1862
c) 1864 d) 1866
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125. Which Article of Indian Constitution contain a special provision for the advancement of any socially
and educationally backward classes of Indian Citizen?
a) Article 14 b) Article 15
c) Article 16 d) Article 17

126. The International Convent on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) came force from:
a) 3rd January, 1976 b) 7th January, 1976
c) 9th January, 1976 d) 12th January, 1976

127. The establishment of the International Committee of the Red Cross and International Humanitarian
Law was in the year:
a) 1864 b) 1964
c) 1764 d) None of these

128. The term of office of the Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) will be:
a) 3 years b) 4 years
c) 5 years d) 6 years

129. In which year, Mr. Francis Deng presented set of Guiding Principles on Internally Displaced Population
to the Commission on Human Rights?
a) In 1992 b) In 1994
c) In 1996 d) In 1998

130. When the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees of 1951 did came into force?
a) April 22, 1952 b) May 22, 1955
c) April 22, 1954 d) May 22, 1959

131. The International Court of Justice is located in:

a) New York b) Grneva
c) Hague d) London

132. Which of the following right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the
Constitution of India?
a) Article 14 b) Article 19
c) Article 22 d) Article 32

133. The right to free and compulsory education of Indian children is guaranteed in:
a) 19A b) 20A
c) 21A d) 22A

134. Who wrote ‘Development as Freedom’?

a) Ram Mohan b) John Mill
c) James Mill d) Amartya Sen

135. Which day is being celebrated as UN Day?

a) 24th October b) 26th October
c) 28th October d) 30th October

136. The National Human Rights Commission consists of the following members:
a) 5 b) 7
c) 8 d) 9

137. Legal rights are recognized and enforced by:

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 a) Society b) State
c) Association d) Public Opinion

138. The difference between sex and gender is

a) Both symbolizes the same meaning
b) Sex is biological determination & gender is socio-cultural construct
c) Sex and gender both are the biological identification
d) None of the above

139. Patriarchy means

a) A Male dominated society b) A equally control society
c) A female dominated society d) None of the above

140. Different strategies have been used in the women’s movement to:
a) Spread awareness b) Seek justice
c) Fight discrimination d) All the above

141. Patrilineal means

a) Two families having the common origin
b) A family counted for another branch of family
c) Family traces the lineage from the father side
d) Family traces the lineage from the mother side

142. Marriage to more than one wife is called

a) Polyandry b) Polygamy
c) Matrilineality d) Matrifocality

143. Who authored the book “The Origin of Family, Private Property and the State”?
a) Karl Marx b) Friedrich Engels
c) Kamala Basin d) Sharmila Rege

144. The term masculine and feminine refers to:

a) Sex b) Gender
c) Both A & B d) None of the above

145. Whose efforts led to Widow Remarriage Act of 1856?

a) Ram Mohan Roy b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c) Pandita Ramabai d) Jyotirao Phule

146. International women’s day is celebrated on

a) 8th March b) 10th March
c) 12th March d) 9th March

147. The venue of a world Conference on the issue of women was organized by the United Nations in 1975
is
a) Mexico b) Beijing
c) Copenhagen d) Nairobi

148. The liberal feminism was greatly strengthened by the writing:

a) On the Subjection of Women by John Stuart Mill
b) Gender and History by Susan Kingsley Kent
c) Women’s Human Rights by Nimah Reilly
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 d) Feminism or Womanism? A Personal History by Stephen Cynthia

149. The first Indian Women’s University in 1916 was set up by

a) Prof. D.K. Karve b) Iravarti Karve
c) Indira Gandhi d) Sarojini Naidu

150. Gerontology is the study of ____________.

a) Human beings b) Special groups
c) Aged and aging d) All of these

151. Bill on Protection of Women on Domestic Violence was passed in the year:
a) 1995 b) 2006
c) 1980 d) 2005

152. The activity among the following is not a part of Section 354A of the Indian Penal Code is:
a) Showing pornography against the will of a woman
b) Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation
c) A demand or request for sexual favours
d) Making sexually coloured remarks

153. The Fourth World Conference on Women was held in Beizing in:
a) 1994 b) 1995
c) 1996 d) 1997

154. CEDAW stands for:

a) Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women
b) Cooperation Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women
c) Coordination Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women
d) None of these

155. The Committee on ‘the Status of Women’ in India was formed in:
a) 1951 b) 1961
c) 1971 d) 1981

156. The Report of the Committee on the Status of Women was published in:
a) 1964 b) 1974
c) 1984 d) None of these

157. The book ‘A Vindication of the Rights of Women’ (1972) is written by:
a) Virginia Woolf b) Mary Wollstonecraft
c) John Stuart Mill d) Martha Nussbaum

158. One is not born, but becomes a woman was said by:
a) Judith Butler b) Simone de Beauvoir
c) Carol Gilligan d) Radhika Chopra

159. Gender Stereotypes are simplistic generalizations about the gender:

a) Attributes b) Difference
c) Sexual difference d) All the above

160. The liberal feminism believes that women’s emancipation is:

a) Possible within the existing system b) Not possible within the existing system
c) Already being at an advanced stage d) Never possible
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161. The idea of “Universal Sisterhood’ was advocated by
a) Socialist Feminists b) Radical Feminists
c) Liberal Feminists d) Monarchists

162. Gender Studies refer to the academic study of the phenomena of:
a) Gender b) Sex
c) Patriarchy d) None of the above

163 “World-historical defeat of the female sex” – meant for Friedrich Engels is both the transformation of
women into property and
a) Abolition of Right to Education for women b) Disappearance of mother right
c) Exclusion of women as voters d) None of these

164. Research in India shows that women’s risk of intimate violence is linked to:
a) Tolerance of violence against in the community
b) Lack of education in male partners
c) Poverty
d) None of these

165. The type of violence that occurs in intimate partnership can be physical, sexual and
a) Political b) Financial
c) Psychological d) Biological

166. In India, the pioneer of feminism (liberal) is

a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar b) Henry Derozio
c) Raja Rammohan Roy d) Rabindranath Tagore

167. Friedrich Engels suggested that for women to reclaim humanity they would have to necessary enter into
the realm of:
a) Cultural activities b) Agricultural works
c) Social production d) Fine Arts

168. Human Rights or Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted-

a. 10 Dec. 1948
b. 8 Dec. 1946.
c. 10 Aug. 1993.
d. None of these.
169. Universal declaration of Human Rights commission was first adopted in-
a. Paris by the United Nations General Assembly
b. U.S.A
c. India
d. All of these.
170. When human rights movement is developed?
a. Result of Second World War and the atrocities of -The Holocaust.
b. After independence of India.
c. Both of A & B.
d. None of Both.
171. 1st sentence of the Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is-
a. Discrimination and exploitation.
b. Inequality and injustice.
c. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.
d. All of these.

18
172. The Basic Form of Human Rights are-
a. Equality.
b. Justice.
c. Peace.
d. All of these.
173. The establishment of the International Committee of the Red Cross and International humanitarian
law is-
a. 1864.
b. 1964.
c. 1764.
d. None of these.
174. The meaning of Human rights-
a. Equal rights and justice for everyone.
b. All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.
c. Concepts of social, political and economic Rights for everyone.
d. All of these.
175. The full Form of UDHR-
a. Universal Development of Human Rights.
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
c. Universal development of Human Resource.
d. All of these.
176. The types of Human Rights-
a. Natural Rights.
b. Moral Rights.
c. Legal Rights.
d. All of These.
177. The past documents of human rights-
a. Constitution of Medina (622), Al-Risalah al-Huquq (659-713), Magna Carta (1215), the Twelve
Articles of Memmingen (1525)
b. The English Bill of Rights (1689), the French Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the
Citizen (1789).
c. The Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution (1791).
d. All of the above.
178. 17th-century English philosopher John Locke discussed natural rights in his work, human being are
identifying-
a. Life, liberty, and estate (property).
b. Slavery.
c. Discriminate.
d. None of these.
Answer: A. Life, liberty, and estate (property).
179. France Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen approved-
a. By National Assembly of France, August 26, 1789.
b. August 10, 1889.
c. Both A & B.
d. None of these.
180. Where and when human rights become a central issue of slavery?
a. 19th century, England.
b. 16 century, Paris.
c. 20 century, India.
d. All of these.
181. When and where Slavery Abolition Act. Was established?
a. 1742, America.
b. 1807, Britain.
c. 1833, united states.
d. None of these.

19
182. Slave trade Act. Was established-
a. 1689.
b. 1814.
c. 1833.
d. 1807.
183. The foundation of International Humanitarian Law was-
a. 1947.
b. 1950.
c. 1864.
d. 1833.
184. Who fought for rights of Harijan and untouchable people?
a. M.K Gandhi.
b. Swami Vivekananda.
c. S .Radhakrishnan.
d. Vidyasagar.
185. Who fought for rights of dalits and lower caste people-
a. M.K. Gandhi.
b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
c. S. Radhakrishnan.
d. Raja Rammohan Roy.
186. The Number of articles in Universal Declaration of Human Rights are-
a. 30.
b. 19.
c. 25.
d. 28.
187. The Human Rights observed Day is-
a. 8 December.
b. 10 November.
c. 10 December.
d. 8 April.
188. The slogan adopted in Universal Declaration of Human Rights-
a. All Human Rights for All.
b. Equal justice for all.
c. Socio-economic rights for everyone.
d. All of these.
189. How many countries are members of the Human Rights commission?
a. 54 countries.
b. 53 countries.
c. 44 countries.
d. 56 countries.
190. CEDAW stands for-
a. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women.
b. The Committee on the Elimination of Discrimination Against Women.
c. The Council of Educational Discrimination Against Women.
d. The committee of economic injustice Against Women.

191. The most recent time human rights treaty adopted by the General Assembly-
a. The Protection of Migrant worker.
b. The protection of socio-economic status of migrant workers.
c. The International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of all migrant workers and members of
their families, adopted in 1990 but yet to go into force.
d. All of these.
192. 25. The year 1985 was designated as International Year of-
a. Youth.
b. Peace.

20
 c. Tolerance.
d. None of these.
193. The year 1995 was designated as International Year of-
a. Youth.
b. Tolerance.
c. Justice.
d. All of these.
194. The indian national congress, espoused the cause of basic rights for the Indian masses-
a. 1885.
b. 1991.
c. 1898
d. 1888
195. The Human Rights Act was effected-
a. 1966.
b. 1991.
c. 1951.
d. 1989.
196. Who said ‘Swaraj’ as Indian’s birth right-
a. Gandhi.
b. Ambedkar.
c. Tilak.
d. Swami Vivekananda.
197. The established on Rowalt Act in India-
a. 1909.
b. 1919.
c. 1819.
d. 1991.
198. When Human rights had deep impact the framing in Indian Constitution-
a. 10 December 1945.
b. 10 December 1948.
c. 15 August 1947.
d. 8 September 1949.
199. Civil rights means-
a. All human being are born free and equal in dignity and rights.
b. Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security to persons.
c. Everyone has the right to freedom of thought, conscience and religion.
d. All of these.

200. The concepts of political rights-

a. Everyone has the right to public services in the country.
b. Everyone has the equal right to vote.
c. Everyone is entitled to right to nationality.
d. All of these.

******

NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.

21
22
 QUESTION BANK
DISASTER MANAGEMENT (SOFT STUDY COURSE)

1. Which of the following is an Anthropogenic Hazard?

(a) Earthquake (b) Tsunamis (c) Wars (d) Drought
Answer: (c) Wars

2. Which is the correct match?

Column A Column B
(1) Geophysical Disaster (i) Floods, Tsunamis.
(2) Meteorological Disaster (ii) Earthquakes, Volcanoes, Mass Movements.
(3) Hydrological Disaster (iii) Industrial accidents, Wars, Epidemics.
(4) Man-made Disaster (iv) Cyclones, Drought, Wildfire.

Correct Options:
(a) 1 and ii; 2 and iii; 3 and i; 4 and iv
(b) 1 and iv; 2 and ii; 3 and iii 4 and i
(c) 1 and ii; 2 and iv; 3 and i; 4 and iii
(d) 1 and i; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and iii
Answer: (c) 1 and ii; 2 and iv; 3 and i; 4 and iii

3. Which of the following is an example of fertile volcanic soil?

(a) Soils of Deccan Plateau (b) Chhotanagpur Plateau (c) Thar Desert (d) Gangetic Plains
Answer: (a) Soils of Deccan Plateau

4. Which of the following statements are correct?

i. Volcanoes are caused by radio-active substances inside the earth which generates a lot of
heat through decomposition and chemical reactions.
ii. Because of high pressure in the earth’s interior, the magma and gases escape with great
velocity.
iii. Collision of Oceanic plate and Continental plate also caused volcano.

Correct Options:
(a) Only ii and iii are correct.
(b) Only i and ii are correct.
(c) Only i and iii are correct.
(d) All i, ii, and iii are correct.
Answer: (d) All i, ii, and iii are correct.

5. The Tsunami of Indian Ocean of Sumatra in Indonesia occurred on _________________.

(a) 24th November 2004 (b) 30th December 2004 (c) 26th December 2004 (d) 17th December
2004
Answer: (c) 26th December 2004

6. The wind blows in anti-clockwise direction in the ______________ hemisphere.

(a) Northern (b) Eastern (c) Southern (d) Western
Answer: (a) Northern

7. Bubonic Plague or Black Death is spreaded by -----

(a) Rats (b) Mosquitoes (c) Fleas (d) Housefly
Answer: (c) Fleas

2. Which state was hit by the strongest cyclone in the cyclonic history of India on 29 th October
1999?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal (c) Kerala (d) Odisha
Answer: (d) Odisha

8. Failure of what results in drought in India?

(a) Irrigation (b) Global Warming (c) Monsoon (d) None of these.
Answer: (c) Monsoon

9. Which chemical is leaked during Bhopal Gas Tragedy in 1984?

(a) Methyl Isocyanate (b) Chlorine Pentafluoride (c) Tetra-ethyl Pyrophosphate (d) Selenium
Hexafluoride.
Answer: (a) Methyl Isocyanate

10. Which is the most common epidemic in Tripura?

(a) Cholera (b) SARS (c) Ebola (d) Malaria
Answer: (d) Malaria

11. India is the country with highest burden of which disease?

(a) Malaria (b) Cholera (c) Tuberculosis (d) AIDS
Answer: (c) Tuberculosis

12. What is the name of Fly-over Bridge which collapsed on 31st March, 2016?
(a) Vivekananda (b) Sonar Bangla (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (d) Vidyasagar
Answer: (a) Vivekananda

13. What is the approximate number of Jews killed during World War II?
(a) 5 Millions (b) 6 Millions (c) 7 Millions (d) 8 Millions
Answer: (b) 6 Millions

14. How many members of terrorists were involved in Mumbai Attack on 26th November, 2008?
(a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 7 (d) 10
Answer: (d) 10

15. How many people died in 9/11 attack in America in 2001?

(a) 2560 persons (b) 2336 persons (c) 2996 persons (d) 3570 persons
Answer: (c) 2996 persons

16. Which of the following statements is true-?

i. Mitigation is the effort to reduce loss of life and property by lessening the impact of
disasters.
ii. Public Mitigation measures are those actions taken by the Society to prevent and reduce
risks to life and property.
 iii. Community mitigation measures are those actions taken by the Government to prevent and
reduce risks to life and property.

Correct Options:
(a) Only i and ii are true
(b) Only i and iii are true
(c) Both ii and iii are false
(d) All i, ii, and iii are false
Answer: (c) Both ii and iii are false.

17. Choose the correct match in relation to Public Mitigation measures.

Column A Column B
(1) Administrative measures (i) Prime Minister’s Disaster Relief Fund.
(2) Economic measures (ii) National Disaster Management Authority.
(3) Regulatory measures (iii) Mock Drills.
(4) Promotional measures (iv) Bureau of Indian Standards.

Correct Options:
(a) 1 and iii; 2 and i; 3 and ii; 4 and iv
(b) 1 and ii; 2 and i; 3 and iv 4 and iii
(c) 1 and i; 2 and ii; 3 and iii; 4 and iv
(d) 1 and iv; 2 and iii; 3 and i; 4 and ii
Answer: (b) 1 and ii; 2 and i; 3 and iv 4 and iii

18. Complete the sequence of Disaster Management Cycle with the appropriate option.
Mitigation--->Preparedness---> __________ ---> Recovery
(a) Relief (b) Awareness (c) Rehabilitation (d) Response
Answer: (d) Response

19. Spreading awareness and preventive actions by villages and Gram Panchayats is _______
strategy.
(a) Public Information mitigation (b) Community mitigation (c) Legal mitigation (d) None of
these.
Answer: (b) Community mitigation

20. Where is the headquarter of National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)?

(a) Kolkata (b) New Delhi (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
Answer: (b) New Delhi

21. Choose the correct match

Column A Column B
(1) Economic Rehabilitation (i) First Aid, rope, ladder, etc.
(2) Search and Rescue (ii) World Health Organisation.
(3) Psychological Rehabilitation (iii) MNREGS.
(4) Rescue Kit (iv) NGOs, Fire Service, etc.

Correct Options:
(a) 1 and iii; 2 and iv; 3 and i; 4 and ii
 (b) 1 and iv; 2 and ii; 3 and iii 4 and i
(c) 1 and iii; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and i
(d) 1 and i; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and iii
Answer: (c) 1 and iii; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and i

22. The epicenter of latest earthquake in Tripura which occurred on 3rd January, 2017 was in ---
(a) West Tripura (b) Khowai (c) Dhalai (d) Unokoti
Answer: (c) Dhalai

23. Which is the correct match?

Column A Column B
(1) The Longai River (i) Udaipur.
(2) The Manu River (ii) Agartala.
(3) The Haora River (iii) Damcherra.
(4) The Gumti River (iv) Kailasahar.

Correct Options:
(a) 1 and iv; 2 and iii; 3 and i; 4 and i
(b) 1 and ii; 2 and iv; 3 and iii; 4 and i
(c) 1 and iii; 2 and ii; 3 and i; 4 and iv
(d) 1 and iii; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and i
Answer: (d) 1 and iii; 2 and iv; 3 and ii; 4 and i

24. Which type of cultivation is most common in Tripura?

(a) Irrigation Farming (b) Hill Cultivation (c) Commercial Agriculture
(d) Plantation Agriculture
Answer: (b) Hill Cultivation

25. Dr. R.D. Oldham is known as The Father of modern ______________.

(a) Montology (b) Potamology (c) Seismology (d) Astrology
Answer: (c) Seismology

26. Major damages caused by Cyclone in Tripura can be found or traced in ---
(a) North District (b) Sepahijala District (c) West District (d) Dhalai Disttrict
Answer: (d) Dhalai Disttrict

27. Which one of the following is the most dangerous and destructive natural hazard
(a) Floods
(b) Earthquake
(c) Lightening
(d) Rainfall

28. The magnitude of energy released by an earthquake measured by

(a) Seismograph
(b) Seismo scale
 (c) Richter scale
(d) Richter graph

29. In Tripura, the principal rivers flowing towards west serially from north to south are
(a) Haora, Gumti, Muhuri and Fenny
(b) Longai, Juri, Deo and Manu
(c) Haora, Khowai, Manu and Dhalai
(d) Juri, Fenny, Muhuri and Gumti

30. In Tripura, which nodal agency play crucial role in organising community capacity
building programmes and conducting mock drills at State, District and Block levels
(a) National Disaster Response Force
(b) National Informatics Centre
(c) District Disaster Management Authority
(d) Tripura Disaster Management Authority

31. Indian Meteorological Department declared “Super Cyclone”

(a) When the wind blows at a speed of more than 216 kmph
(b) When the wind blows at a speed of more than 220 kmph
(c) When the wind blows at a speed of more than 194 kmph
(d) When the wind blows at a speed of more than 172 kmph

32. The toxic gas released from Bhopal Gas Tragedy was
( a) Methyl Isocyanate
(b) Potassium Isocyanate
(c) Sodium Isocyanate
(d) Methyl Isothiocyanate
33. Volcanoes which are currently inactive but there is a possibility that it can erupt again in
future are called
(a) Dormant Volcanoes
(b) Semi- Dormant Volcanoes
(c) Extinct Volcanoes
(d) Dead Volcanoes

34. Tsunami in the Indian Ocean occurred in the year

(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

35. ITCZ stands for

(a) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
(b) Intra Tropical Convergence Zone
(c) Inter Tectonic Convergence Zone
(d) Inter Temperate Convergence Zone

36. Which of the following group of people are more vulnerable in the event of a disaster
(a) Men, boys, old people
(b) Men, Women, boys
(c) Women, children, Old people
(d) None of these

37. High vulnerability and high hazard are associated with

(a) low disaster risk
(b) medium disaster risk
(c) high disaster risk
(d) None of these

38. The place of origin an earth quake is called

(a) Focus
(b) Epicentre
(c) Centre
(d) Core

39. The instrument which records earthquake wave is called

(a) Climograph
(b) Seismograph
(c) Hythergraph
(d) None of the above

40. The word disaster owes its origin from

(a) Greek word
(b) Latin word
(c) French word
(d) German word

41. When magma reaches the surface of the earth, is called

(a) Lava
(b) Crater
(c) fissure
(d) clay

42. A disease is called pandemic when it is

(a) within a region
(b) within a country
(c) within a continent
(d) none of these

43. The flood caused in Uttarakhand due to

(a) cloud burst
(b) land slide
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of these

44. Which of the following is not an epidemic

(a) Cholera
(b) Samall pox
(c) Plague
(d) HIV-AIDS

45. Tenorist attack known as 9/11 took place in

(a) India
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) None of the above.

46. An important water contaminant is:

(a) Heavy metals
(b) Nitrogen oxides
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) NO2 and SO2

47. An extreme natural phenomenon capable of causing disaster leading to loss of lives or
damage to property is known as-
(a) Natural hazard
(b) Hazard calculation
(c) Desertification
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Natural hazard

48. The process of identifying the probability of occurrence of a natural hazard of a given
intensity at a specific location based on an analysis of natural processes and site conditions is
termed as-
(a) Disaster calculation
(b) Hazard Assessment
(c) Hazard calculation
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Hazard Assessment

49. The type and degree of flooding is influenced by many factors, such as
(a) Climatological
(b) Hydrological and environmental conditions
(c) Local geomorphology of the flood plain
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above

50. The National flood Commission in India was set up in

(a) 1980
(b) 1985
(c) 1995
(d) 1980
Ans: (a) 1980
 51. Earthquake is-
(a) A sudden shaking or vibration of ground
(b) Disturbances in the earth’s crust
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) (c) Both (a) & (b)

52. An enormous amount of energy is released during an earthquake as seismic waves

which are of
(a) Primary or pressure waves(P-waves)
(b) Secondary or transverse waves(S-waves)
(c) Long waves or surface waves(L-waves)
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above

53. What is the point or place that is the first to record the seismic waves?
(a) Seismic point
(b) Epicenter
(c) Focal point
(d) Epipoint
Ans: (b) Epicenter

54. Seismic waves during earthquake are recorded and studied with the help of an
instrument called as
(a) Richter scale
(b) Seismograph
(c) Lithograph
(d) Cardiograph
Ans:(b) Seismograph

55. The magnitude of energy released by an earthquake is usually measured on Richter

scale which ranges between
(a) 0 to 7
(b) 0 to 8
(c) 0 to 9
(d) 0 to 12
Ans: (c) 0 to 9

56. Sometimes there are some indications that would indicate that perhaps an
earthquake would occur. Such indications are called
(a) indicators
(b) precursors
(c) Signal
(d) anticipations
Ans: (b) precursors
 57. Special consideration in order to mitigate earthquake earthquake like disasters is given also
to protect
(a) Heritage buildings
(b)Buildings of cultural and historical importance
(c) Scientific and Technological laboratories
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above

58. Special consideration in order to mitigate earthquake earthquake like disasters is

given also to protect
(a) Heritage buildings
(b) Buildings of cultural and historical importance
(c) Scientific and Technological laboratories
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above

59. Which one is a major environmental and safety hazard for the people in hilly areas in
Tripura which can be considered as “cancer of hill slopes”
a) Flood
(b) Landslide
(c) Earthquake
(d) Desertification
Ans: (b) Landslide

60. Which zone is considered the highest vulnerability zone of the seismic zonation map of
India?
(a) Zone-IV
(b) Zone-V
(c) Zone-III
(d) Zone-II
Ans: (b) Zone-V

61. Tsunami is a
(a) Japanese origin word
(b) Latin origin word
(c) Greek origin word
(d) Portuguese origin word
Ans: (a) Japanese origin word

62. In which earthquake, the stones on the roads of Shillong as said to have “vibrated like peas
on a drum”?
(a) Cachar Earthquake
(b) Latur Earthquke
(c) Great Earthquake of Assam
(d) Bhuj Earthquake
Ans: (c) Great Earthquake of Assam
63. The sudden release of hot materials (lava, ash, gas etc.) from volcanoes is called
(a) Volcanic eruption
(b) Ash showers
(c) Pyroclastic flows
(d) Hot mud flows
Ans: (a) Volcanic eruption

64. Which volcanic belt is commonly called “Ring of Fire”?

(a) The Mid-Continental Belt
(b) The Circum-Pacific Belt
(c) The Mid-Atlantic Belt
(d) The Circum- Continental Belt
Ans: (b) The Circum-Pacific Belt

65. Latur earthquake occurred in

(a) 30 September, 1993
(b) 30 November, 1993
(c) 21 April, 1993
(d) 15 April, 1993
Ans: (a) 30 September, 1993

66. Bhuj earthquake occurred in

(a) 23 January, 2001
(b) 26 January, 2001
(c) 31 January, 2001
(d) 29 January, 2001
Ans: (b) 26 January, 2001

67. Tsunami is also known as

(a) Tectonic Sea waves
(b) Seismic Sea waves
(c)Plactonic Sea waves
(d) Systonic Sea waves
Ans: (b) Seismic Sea waves

68. A flash flood is a flood that:

(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Ans. c

69. A flood can vary in:

(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Ans.d

70. When a river’s water level reaches 10 metres, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 metres above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 metres above mean sea level or an arbitrary 'zero' level
(d) it will flood.
Ans.c

71. The size of a flood is measured by:

(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Ans.d

72. Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?

(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Ans.c

73. Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?

(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Ans.d

74. In Australia, the average annual cost of floods is around:

(a) $3.8 million
(b) $38 million
(c) $380 million
(d) $3.8 billion.
Ans.c

75. In Australia, the most expensive natural disaster is:

(a) drought
(b) floods
(c) bushfires
(d) cyclones.
Ans.b

76. Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?

(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Ans.d

77. Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood,
based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Ans.b

78. The Disaster Management Act was made in

(a) 2006
(b) 2003
(c) 2005
(d) 2009

79. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National Centre for
Ocean Information Sciences is located in
(a) Chennai
(b) Goa
(c) Kochi
(d) Hyderabad

80. Latur Earthquake occurred in

(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c)1993
(d) 1994

81. The name of the largest active volcano is

(a) Mauna Lao in Hawaii
(b) Mount Washington in USA
(c) Mount Fuje in Japan
(d) Barren Island in India

82. What are the three phases of disaster management planning?

(a) Evacuating, Rebuilding and Re-branding
(b) Preparation, Planning and Perception
(c) Planning, Evacuating and Recovery
(d) Preparation, Response and Recovery

83. IPCC means

(a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climatic Condition
(c) Intergovernmental Programme on Climate Change
(d) International Panel on Climate Change

84. Which of the following emits dangerous radioactive wastes forcing the government to
eliminate its use?
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Water energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Solar energy

85. Which of the following is related to acid rain?

(a) Carbon-dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Carbon Monoxide

86.The Richter Scale is used for measuring of -

A) Density of liquids B) Speed of Aeroplane
C) Intensity of earthquakes D) Depth of mines.
2. Landslides occur because of-
A) Rainfall B) Steep slope
C) Deforestation D) All of the above.

87. Passageway which joins vent to crater of volcano is known as

A. Vent
B. Cone
C. Pipe
D. Crater

88. The term Tsunami is coined from

A) Chinese term B) Indian term
C) German term D) Japanese term
89. What is cyclone-?
(a) A low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
(b) A high pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
(c) A low pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
(d) A high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
90. The term “Disaster” is derived from which of the language
(a) French (b) Arabic (c) Latin (d) Greek
91. From the following, which one is the natural hazard?
A) Earthquake B) Cyclone
C) Landslide D) All the above
92. A hazard:
A). is a potentially damaging physical event, phenomenon, or human activity
B). may cause the loss of life or injury, property damage,
C) may generate social and economic disruption or environmental degradation.
D). all of the above
93. Earthquake is a :
a) Geophysical disaster b) Hydrological disaster c) Meterological disaster
d) Compound disaster
94. Mt. Etna is a:

a) Extinct volcano b) Dormant volcano c) Active volcano

d) None of these
95. Which gas caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(a) Methyl Isocyanate (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen (d) Methane
96. The Civil War can arise due to conflict between different groups of –
(a) Ethnic, tribes and races (b) Religion (c) Political group of ideas (d) All the above.
97. H1N1 virus is:
(a) Bird flu (b) Swine flu (c) Cattle flu (d) None of the above.

98. The primary goal of a disaster preparedness plan is:

A) To protect the population B) To protect valuable resources C) To keep communications

lines open D). To protect environmental health personnel E). To procure needed
funding.
99. Priority environmental health concerns during a natural disaster are providing victims
with:

A). food, radio, water, portable generator B). Food, fuel, refrigeration, shelter

C). water, food, shelter, sanitation D). water, heat, clothing, medicine

E). water, food, medicine, electricity

100. Disaster management covers-

A)Maintaining control over disasters B) Reducing the effects of disasters

C) Briefing of govt. Officials about disasters D) All the above

101. The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority is

A) Home Minister C) Vice President
B) Prime Minister D) Governor
102. National Institute of Disaster Management is located at
A) Poona B) Guwahati
C) Kolkata D) New Delhi
103. Cyclone is Tracked through which Satellite?
A) INSAT C) IRS
B) Ocean SAT D) None of these
104. The hot molten Material erupted rom a volcano is called
A) Magma C) Pyroclast
B) Lava D) None of theser
105. Draught prone area in India is
A) 10% C) 30%
B) 20% D) 40%
106. The river which causes tremendous floods in Assam is
(A) Ganga (B) Brahmaputra (C) Godavari (D) Barak
107. International Tsunami information Center is located in
(A) Honolulu (B) Goa (C) Jakarta (D) Puducherry
108. Using science and technology damage caused by Natural Disaster like Hurricane,
Earthquake can be
(A) Prevented (B) Reduce (C) Enhanced (D) Raised
109. Terrorism involves:
(A) Killing (B) Frightening (C) destruction of structural civilization and peace in the
society (D) All the above.
110. The Disaster Management Act was enacted in India in the Year
A) 2006 B) 2005
C) 2008 D) 2007
111. Disaster management activities may be conducted
(A) Before disaster (B) After disaster (c) During disaster (D) All of above
112. Which o the following is not part of the preparedness cycle?
(A) Develop the emergency plan (B) Test the plan (C) Develop and provide training (D)
Determine a plan leader.
113. When was the National Cadet Crops, a body (NCC) formed?
(A) 1942 (B) 1946 (C) 1948 (D) 1950
114. In which month in India, floods are likely occur?
(A) Jan-May (B) May-Oct (C) June-Sept (D) April-June
115. State crisis Management Committee is charied by?
(A) Chie Secretary (B) Chief Minister (C) Finance Secretary (D) Finance Minister
116. The term “Nife” Refers to?
(A) Earthquake (B) Core of the Earth (C) Crust of the earth (D) Ocean beds
117. Which of the following is running training programmes on Disaster Management?
(A) National Policy Academy (B) Forest Research Institute (C) National Institute of
Nutrition (D) National Fire Fighting Academy

118. Zika virus is spread by:

(a) rat. (b) mosquito. (c) fly. (d) pig.
119. The two atom bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan by US was during
–
(A) World War I (B) World War II (C) Vietnam- US War (D) American Civil War.

120. Which country is known as the most forest fire-prone country in the world
A) Uganda C) India
B) Canada D) Australia
121. What is it called when a large number of people in a community get a disease at the
same time?

(A) Influx (B) Black death (C) Epidemic (D) Parasite

122. Tuberculosis disease generally effects the:

(A) Heart (B) Lungs (C) Eyes (D) Brain

123. The main objective of first Aid is

(A) to preserve life (B) to prevent the victims’ condition from worsening
(C) to promote recovery (D) None of these
124. Causes of Cholera do not include
(A) Poor sanitation (B) Unclean water (C) Genetic disorder (D) Infection Pathogen

126. Which of the following is not a man-made hazard?

(a) Leakage of Toxic waste
(b) Wars and Civil Strife
(c) Drought
(d) Environmental pollution

127. Tropical Cyclones occurring in Caribbean areas are called

(a) Typhoon
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Whirlpool
(d) None of the above

128. Which of the following is not and impact of drought?

(a) Reduced run-off
(b) Dried up rivers and lakes
(c) Decline in cropped area
(d) Rise in ground water table

129. Which of the following is not a natural cause of landslides?

(a) Weak composition of rock and soil on slopes
(b) Earthquake
(c) Deforestation
(d) Heavy rainfall

130. The Chernobyl Disaster of 1986 in Ukraine was a case of

(a) Epidemic Disaster
(b) Toxic Gas Disaster
(c) Nuclear Disaster
(d) None of the above

131. Which of the following organization is the apex authority of disaster management in India?
(a) NDA
(b) NDMA
(c) CDMA
(d) DMAI

132. Which of the following is not a component of disaster management cycle?

(a) Preparedness
(b) Response
(c) Construction
(d) Recovery

133. Which of the following rivers has a direct confluence with Bay of Bengal?
(a) Haora
(b) Gumti
(c) Deo
(d) Fenny

134. Which of the following is the largest river basin of Tripura?

(a) Haora
(b) Khowai
(c) Gumati
(d) Fenny

135. Which of the following is not a cause of river bank erosion?

(a) Nature of river bank material
(b) Steep bank angle
(c) Length of river
(d) Extraction of sand from river bed

136. Which of the following is an example of Anthropogenic Earthquake?

(a) Assam Earthquake 1950 (b) Koyna Earthquake of Maharastra, 1967 (c) Latur
Earthquake of Maharastra, 1993 (d) Bhuj Earthquake of Gujarat, 2001

137. The central low pressure area of a cyclone is known as its.

(a) Storm Surge (b) Eye (c) Heart (d) Gale Force

138. Influenza is caused by ------

(a) Bacteria (b) Protozoa (c) Virus (d) Fungi

138. Where do most active volcanoes occur?

(a) Devil’s Triangle (b) Pacific Ring of Fire (c) Sargasso Sea (d) Caribbean Islands

139. Who is the head of National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?

(a) President of India (b) Vice-President of India (c) Prime Minister of India (d) Attorney
General of India

140. Psychological Rehabilitation is done by which of the following bank?

(a) State Bank of India (b) Hong Kong Shanghai Banking Corporation (c) EXIM Bank (d) World
Bank

141. Where is the headquarter of International Federation of Red Cross?

(a) New York, USA (b) Montreal, Canada (c) Cannes, France (d) Geneva, Switzerland

142. Moving or Shifting people at risk to safer environment refers to -----

(a) Evacuation (b) Relocation (c) Resilience (d) Rehabilitation

143. Tripura is situated in which seismic zone?

(a) Seismic Zone I (b) Seismic Zone V (c) Seismic Zone III (d) Seismic Zone IV

144. High intensity and long duration of rainfall in Tripura causes ---
(a) Earthquakes (b) Floods (c) Landslides (d) Cyclone

145. Extraction of sand from river bed is very common in Tripura which causes ---
(a) River bank erosion (b) Cyclone (c) Floods (d) Landslides

146. Which National Highway connects Tripura with the rest of India?
(a) NH 53 (b) NH 10 (c) NH 108 (d) NH 8

147. Which of the following is called “Cancer of Hill Slopes”?

(a) Earthquake (b) Cyclone (c) Landslide (d) Flood

148. Man-made hazards are called

(a) quasi-natural hazards
(b) authropogenic hazards
(c) natural hazards
(d) earthquake hazards

150. Which is known as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean seal’?

(a) Vesuvius
(b) Stromboli
(c) Krakatoa
(d) Popa

151. The word ‘hazard’ has its origin in the language -

(a) British English and American English
(b) French and Arabic
(c) Hindi and Urdu
(d) None of the above
152. Which of the following statement about hazard is incorrect?
(a) A potentially damaging event that may cause loss of life and property
(b) A sudden disruptions resulting in substantial loss of life and property
(c) Are natural or human induced occurrences with a degree of predictability
(d) A process and a threat
153. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(a) Tropical Cyclones
(b) Landslides
(c) Wildfire
(d) None of the above
154. Which of the following is not a man-made hazard?
(a) Leakage of Toxic waste
(b) Wars and Civil Strife
(c) Drought
(d) Environmental pollution
155. Which of the following cannot be considered as Sudden Onset Hazards?
(a) Volcanic eruptions
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Floods
(d) Drought
156. Which of the following cannot be considered as Slow Onset Hazards?
(a) Famine
(b) Landslides
(c) Deforestation
(d) Pest Infestation
157. Which of the following statement about disaster is incorrect?
(a) A potentially damaging event that may cause loss of life and property
(b) A sudden disruptions resulting in substantial loss of life and property
(c) Are both natural and human induced event
(d) Grave events that happen to vulnerable people
158. Which of the following statement about earthquake is not correct?
(a) A violent tremor in the earth’s crust
(b) It is also referred as seismic activity
(c) Motion of tectonic plates causes its occurrence
(d) It is caused by Tsunamis
159. The place of origin of the earthquake inside the earth is called –
(a) Focus
(b) Epicenter
(c) Hypocenter
(d) Point of origin
160. The point where the seismic activity starts is normally referred to as –
(a) Focus
(b) Epicenter
(c) Hypocenter
(d) Point of origin
161. The two ways of measuring earthquake are –
(a) Intensity and density
(b) Magnitude and Intensity
(c) Magnitude and density
(d) None of the above
162. The original force of energy of an earthquake is measured on a –
(a) Magnitude scale
 (b) Density scale
(c) Intensity scale
(d) None of the above
163. Magnitude of the earthquake is measured on the –
(a) Modified Mercalli (MM) scale
(b) Richter scale
(c) Diagonal scale
(d) Seismic scale
164. Generally the number on Richter Scale ranges between –
(a) 0 and 6
(b) 0 and 9
(c) 1 to 5
(d) 1 to 12
165. The Intensity of an earthquake is measured by -
(a) Modified Mercalli (MM) scale
(b) Richter scale
(c) Diagonal scale
(d) Seismic scale
166. Generally the value on MM Scale ranges between –
(e) 0 and 6
(f) 0 and 9
(g) 1 to 5
(h) 1 to 12
167. The WMO uses the term tropical cyclone to refer to winds with a minimum velocity of – (Pg. 16)
(a) 50 kmph
(b) 63 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) None of the above
168. Tropical cyclones are called tropical cyclones because they form over the -
(a) Warm waters of tropical oceans
(b) Warm landmasses of tropical areas
(c) Cold waters of the tropical oceans
(d) None of the above
169. Tropical Cyclones occurring in Philippines and China Seas are called –
(a) Typhoons
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Whirlpool
(d) None of the above
170. Tropical Cyclones occurring in Caribbean areas are called –
(a) Typhoon
(b) Hurricanes
(c) Whirlpool
(d) None of the above
171. Which of the following is not a cause of floods?
(a) Heavy rainfall
(b) Tropical Cyclone
(c) Acid rainfall
(d) Cloud burst
172. Black Death is a disease transmitted by –
(a) Rabbits
(b) Dogs
(c) Flies
 (d) Rodents
173. Which of the following is not an epidemic?
(a) AIDS
(b) Ebola
(c) Anemia
(d) Encephalitis
174. Which of the following statement about the concept of vulnerability is wrong?
(a) The degree to which a system is susceptible to injury and damage
(b) Degree of vulnerability depends upon capability to cope with hazards
(c) If there is no vulnerability there will be no risk
(d) None of the above
175. Which of the following is not a stage of risk assessment?
(a) Identification
(b) Verification
(c) Estimation
(d) Evaluation
176. Tsunamis are caused by –
(a) Strong Tropical Cyclone
(b) Rise in sea level
(c) Cyclone generated high sea waves
(d) Earthquake generated high sea waves
177. In March 2014, Ebola virus disease had its first major outbreak in –
(a) Nigeria
(b) Brazil
(c) Guinea
(d) Liberia
178. Viral encephalitis primarily affect the –
(a) Liver
(b) Legs
(c) Brain
(d) Eyes
179. Small Pox is an infectious disease caused by a virus named-
(a) Bacteria
(b) Influenza
(c) Variola
(d) HSV infection
180. Viral Encephalitis are not caused by –
(a) Rabies Virus
(b) HSV infection
(c) Variola
(d) Polio virus

181. Which of the following natural disaster has occurred the most during the period 1994 -2013 in
the world?
(a) Flood
(b) Storm
(c) Earthquake
(d) Drought
182. Which of the following is not a category of volcanoes?
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Pro active volcanoes
 (c) Dormant volcanoes
(d) Extinct volcanoes
183. Which of the following belt of volcanoes is also called the Ring of Fire?
(a) The Mid-Continental Belt
(b) The Circum-Pacific Belt
(c) The Mid-Atlantic Belt
(d) None of the above
184. Which of the following is not a cause of earthquake?
(a) Faulting on the crust of the earth
(b) Tectonic shift of plates
(c) Volcanic eruptions
(d) Tsunami
185. Which of the following belt has more than 75 % of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes?
(Pg. 48)
(a) The Mid-Continental Belt
(b) The Circum-Pacific Belt
(c) The Mid-Atlantic Belt
(d) None of the above
186. Which of the following belt has 17 % of the world’s occurrence of earthquake?
(a) Alpine-Himalayan Seismic Belt
(b) Circum-Pacific Belt
(c) Mid-Oceanic Ridges
(d) None of the above
187. Tropical cyclone originates within the latitude
(a) 5⁰ North and South
(b) 5⁰ North only
(c) 30 ⁰ North only
(d) 30 ⁰ North and South
188. Which of the following condition is not essential for birth and growth of tropical cyclone?
(a) Quiet air
(b) Highly saturated atmosphere
(c) Intense heating of the air
(d) High winds
189. In India tropical cyclone originate both in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea mostly between
the latitude-
(a) 0⁰ North and 5⁰ North
(b) 0⁰ North and 10⁰ North
(c) 10 ⁰ North and 15⁰ North
(d) 10 ⁰ North and 30 ⁰ North
190. Which of the following is not a natural cause of flood?
(a) Heavy rain due to influence of south-west monsoon
(b) River bank erosion and silting of river
(c) Poor natural drainage
(d) Filled up of natural or artificial lakes
191. What percentage of India’s geographical area is prone to drought?
(a) 15 %
(b) 20 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 30 %
192. Which of the following state is not an extreme drought prone area?
(a) Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh
 (c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
193. Which of the following is not and impact of drought?
(a) Reduced run-off
(b) Dried up rivers and lakes
(c) Decline in cropped area
(d) Rise in ground water table
194. Which of the following in not a factor of wildfire hazard?
(a) Lightning
(b) El-Nino
(c) High winds
(d) High temperature
195. Which of the following is not a natural cause of landslides?
(a) Weak composition of rock and soil on slopes
(b) Earthquake
(c) Deforestation
(d) Heavy rainfall
196. Which of the following region in India is more prone to landslides?
(a) Deccan Plateau Region
(b) Coastal Regions
(c) Western Ghats Region
(d) Himalayan Region
197. Which of the following is not a type of human induced disaster?
(a) Industrial hazards
(b) Terrorism
(c) Wild fire
(d) Biological hazards
198. Which of the following is not a type of industrial hazard?
(a) Chemical hazards
(b) Physical hazards
(c) Biological hazards
(d) Manufacturing hazards
199. The Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 was caused by a toxic gas known as -
(a) Hydrogen selenide
(b) Methyl Isocyanate
(c) Nitrogen trioxide
(d) Phosgene
200. The Chernobyl Disaster of 1986 in Ukraine was a case of –
(a) Epidemic Disaster
(b) Toxic Gas Disaster
(c) Nuclear Disaster
(d) None of the above

*****

NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.
 Question Bank

E-Marketing (Soft Study Course)

1. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on are
taken to the advertiser?
a. Affiliate programs
b. Click-through
c. Spam
d. Conversion rate

2. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which
digital information can be stored?
a. Customer relationship management systems cards
b. E-government identity cards
c. FEDI cards
d. Smart cards

3. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business

strategy and IT?
a. Encryption
b. Decryption
c. firewall
d. all the above

4. Which of the following is an Internet-based company that makes it easy for one person to
pay another over the Internet?
a. electronic cheque
b. electronic bill payment
c. Conversion rates
d. Financial cybermediary

5. A combination of software and information designed to provide security and information

for payment is called a what?
a. digital wallet
b. Pop up ad
c. Shopping cart
d. Encryption

6. What is the name for direct computer-to-computer transfer of transaction information

contained in standard business documents?
a. internet commerce
 b. e-commerce
c. transaction information transfer
d. electronic data interchange

7. Digital products are best suited for B2C e-commerce because they:
a. Are commodity like product
b. Can be mass-customized and personalized
c. Can be delivered at the time of purchase
d. All of the above

8. What are materials used in production in a manufacturing company or are placed on the
shelf for sale in a retail environment?
a. Direct materials
b. Indirect materials
c.EDI
d. None of the above

9. If the threat of substitute products or service is low it is a(n):

a. Disadvantage to the supplier
b. advantage to the buyer
c. advantage to the supplier
d. None of the above

10. A business cannot be all things to all people. Instead, a business must:
a. Identify target customers
b. Identify the value of products/services as perceived by customers
c. all of the above
d. None of the above

11. A business competing in a commodity like environment must focus on which of the
following?
a. Price
b. Ease/speed of delivery
c. Ease of ordering
d. all of the above

12. In HTML, Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) is used to

a. To create a frame document
b. To create a image map in the webpage
c. To customize the image in the webpage
d. To identify a name or a resource on the internet

13. Which of the following protocol is not used in the Internet?

a. Telnet
b. WIRL
 c. HTTP
d. Gopher

14. Who invented World Wide Web (WWW)?

a. Blaise Pascal
b. Charlse Babbage
c. Herman Hollerith
d. Tim Berners-Lee

15. Which attribute is used to name an element uniquely?

a. class
b. id
c. dot
d. all of the above

16. The domain name system is maintained by

a. distributed database system
b. a single server
c. a single computer
d. none of the mentioned

17. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by

a. semicolons
b. dots
c. colons
d. none of the above

18. The ____________ domain is used to map an address to a name

a. generic
b. country
c. inverse
d. none of the above

19. When a company strives to appeal to multiple well defined market segments with a
strategy tailored to each segment, it is applying
a. undifferentiated marketing
b. differentiated marketing
c. concentrated marketing
d. the majority fallacy

20. Which of the following describes e-commerce?

a. Doing business electronically
b. Doing business
c. Sales of goods
 d. All of the above

21. Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the internet?
a. Books
b. PCs
c. CDs
d. All of the above

22. Paisa pay is facilitated in

a. eBay.co.in
b. amazon.com
c. flipcart.com
d. none of the above

23. Which form of e-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same industry?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Integrated
d. Inclined

24. Which type of ad appears on a top of a web page?

a. pop-under ad
b. pop-up ad
c. banner ad
d. discount ad

25. Which type of e-commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2Bs
d. C2C
26. Which is not a function of E-commerce
a. marketing
b. advertising
c. warehousing
d. none of the above

27. How the transactions occur in e-commerce?

a. Using e-medias
b. Using computers only
c. Using mobile phones only
d. None of the above

28. A webpage displays a picture. What tag was used to display that picture?
a. picture
b. image
 c. img
d. src

29. Trademark can be used as domain name

a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes in some cases
d. None of the above

30. What is the ingredient of product mix?

a. Advertising
b. Public relation
c. Personal selling
d. All of the above

31. “Place” in 4Ps mean same as

a. Promotion
b. People
c. Distribution
d. Demand

32. Which of the following factors is not considered when determining your quality score?
a. Cost-Per-Click (CPC) Bid
b. Click through Rate (CTR)
c. Ad Text and Keywords
d. Landing Page Relevance

33. For a website selling books, which is not effective negative keyword?
a. Free
b. Phone
c. Buy
d. Red

34. An online retail company is based in the United States but ships to customers all over the
world. If this company wants to serve Spanish language ads to Spanish-speaking users,
which targeting option should be refined?
a. Demographic targeting
b. Regional targeting
c. Language targeting
d. Ad scheduling

35. The maximum cost-per-click (CPC) bid is the

a. Most an advertiser is wiling to pay for each click on an ad.
b. Amount an advertiser must pay to outbid competitors.
c. Amount an advertiser is required to pay to achieve top ad position.
d. Actual amount an advertiser pays for each click on an ad.
36. Which of the following is an example of a sales touch point
a. Production operations
b. Call centers
c. Supply chain alliances
d. Warehouses

37. The evolution of customer relationship marketing has progressed from

a. Mass, target, customer, to one-to-one marketing
b. One-to-one, mass, target, to customer marketing
c. Customer, mass, target, to one-to-one marketing
d. Mass, target, one-to-one, to customer marketing
e. Customer relationship marketing has always existed

38. ___________ techniques can be used to learn more about current and potential
customers.
a. Strategic partnerships
b. Customer loyalty
c. Data mining
d. Efficient customer response (ECR)

39. What is virtual mart?

a. Framework
b. Content Management System
c. Platform
d. Cloud server

40. Which of the step is not involved in E commerce?

a. Web development
b. Web Hosting
c. Obtaining a Digital Certificate
d. Finding a Provider of Online Transactions

41. Which of the following is not a criterion for successful market segmentation?
a. there must be difference among consumers
b. each segment must be located within a geographical area
c. there must be consumer similarities within each segment identified
d. a segment must be large enough to cover costs

42. During which step of the marketing segmentation, targeting, and positioning process does
the firm “ develop a marketing mix for each segment?”
a. market segmentation
b. market targeting
c. market positioning
d. the firm does not go through the “development” during any of the above steps.
43. Branding is concerned with ________ component of four ‘P’
a. Promotion
b. Place
c. Price
d. Product

44. Readiness stage and attitude towards product are major segmentation variable in which
category?
a. Geographic
b. Behavioural
c. Demographic
d. Psychographic

45. In positioning statement, first thing that must be stated is

a. target segment
b. market segmentation
c. differentiation
d. positioning

46. Market segmentation based on where your target market lives.

a. demographics
b. psychographics
c. geographic
d. product benefits

47. Positioning is a choice of which of the following?

a. Retailer choice & store layout
b. The target market and marketing assets
c. The target market & differential advantage
d. Price & quality

48. There are three main operational processes involved in e-marketing. Which is the ODD
one out?
a. Customer conversion
b. Customer acquisition
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Customer retention and growth

49. Which of the following are online advertising methods through which advertisers attempt
to drive traffic to Internet sites
a. CPM
b.SEM
 c. Banner
d. SEO

50. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called

a. Feedback
b. Sponsored search-engine advertising
c. Search Engine Optimization
d. ICT indicators

51. Mobile marketers are able to reach audiences

a. Using a ‘pull’ strategy
b. Using a ‘push’ strategy
c. In real time
d. All of the above

52. Which is not a part of 4Cs in marketing?

a. Communication
b. Consumer
c. Cost
d. None of these

53. _________ is the best promotion tool in any type of marketing.

a. Creativity
b. Communication
c. Telecalling
d. Publicity

54. Knowledge of which is necessary for effective selling skill.

a. Promotional market
b. Related market
c. Digital market
d. Virtual market

55. ____________ is the unique product benefit that the competition cannot claim.
a. Unique selling preposition
b. Unique sales preposition
c. Unique selling price
d. Unique strategy promotion
56. Setting a low initial price to attract a large number of buyers quickly and cover the large
market share is known as
a. Skimming pricing
b. Going-rate pricing
c. Value based pricing
d. Penetration pricing

57. ______________ refers to the system that assists the organization in delivering the
service
a. Product
b. Process
c. Price
d. Promotion

58. What is a benefit an advertiser gets only if they have separate campaigns for the search
and the display network?
a. Target placements more precisely
b. Have more control over budget and spend across campaigns
c. Have separate bids for search network and display network ads Incorrect answer
selected
d. Control CPA bids more effectively

59. Site-targeted campaigns do not offer the ability to__________

a. include more characters in test ads
b. expand your ad to fill all space reserved for ads on a page
c. pay on a cost-per-thousand impressions (CPM) basis
d. choose which sites you want your ad to appear on

60. What form of marketing is particularly suited to generate awareness about a brand or
promotion?
a. E-mail marketing
b. Affiliate marketing
c. Viral marketing
d. Permission marketing

61. _____________ is an element of online PR that involves regularly udated posts about
company activities in a format similar to online services such as Blogger and Wordpress.
a. Online Press centre
b. Reputation management
c. Blogging
d. Link building
62. A referrer is…
a. An on-site search engine results page link
b. The type of site or traffic source that links to a site
c. The number of a site-specific phone number
d. The first part of the site URL

63. Cookies are used in digital advertising for

a. Modelling/ attribution of referrers
b. Serving different ad versions in a sequence of ads
c. Re-marketing/ Behavioural targeting
d. All of the above

64. Which of the following is an example of the advantages of CRM?

a. Decreases advertising costs
b. makes it easier to target specific customers
c. Allows greater competition based on service rather than price
d. all of the above

65. A company’s ability to link production, customer service, and other internal processes
with its customers is its
a. Functional relationships
b. Customer value measures
c. Strategic business units
d. Spanning processes

66. Using which CMS we can develop an E-commerce web application?

a. Joomla
b. Oscmax
c. Drupal
d. None of the above

67. What is the name of the card which can be used by the buyers during he time of purchase
and in which the amount will be immediately debited from the buyers account?
a. E-Distributor
b. Debit Card
c. Credit Card
d. Power Card

68. Electronic-commerce consists of:

 a. Selling and Buying
b. Exchanging Services
c. Trade conduction
d. All the three

69. EDI stands for:

a. Electronic Data Information
b. Electronic Data Interchange
c Exchange Data Interchange
d. Electronic Device Information

70. Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for
marketing outcome is classified as
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c branding website
d. viral website

71. Kind of e-marketing domain which is initiated by business to target consumers is

classified as
a. business to consumer domain
b. business to business domain
c consumer to business domain
d. consumer to consumer domain

72. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites and
blogs where people exchange opinions is classified as
a. inbound social networks
b. outbound social networks
c offline social networks
d. online social networks

73. Website used to build customer goodwill, supplement sales channels and collect customer
feedback is classified as
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c branding website
d. viral website

74. Within e-markets, marketplaces have become:

a. market regions
b. market zones
c market spaces
d. market dynamos
75. Company marketing mix that target market segments very broadly is called
a. mass marketing
b. segmented marketing
c niche marketing
d. micromarketing

76. In positioning statement, first thing that must be stated is

a. target segment
b. market segmentation
c differentiation
d. positioning

77. ____________ is the process of recreating a design by analyzing a final product.

a. Forward Engineering
b. Reverse Engineering
c Backward Engineering
d. None of the above.

78. Which of the following would be the most appropriate example of a transaction site?
a. Amazon.com
b. Yahoo
c AOL
d. eBay

79. Types of major online marketing domains includes

a. business to consumer
b. business to business
c consumer to business
d. all of above

80. Set of independent Electronic Stores can be generally labeled as

a. Electronic Shopping Mail
b. Electronic Wallet
c Electronic Stores
d. Generalized Stores

81. Website built to engage customers from different places to move them closer for
marketing outcome is classified as-
a. corporate website
b. marketing website
c branding website
d. viral website

82. Which of the following type of business relationships can be facilitated via e-marketing
a. B2B
b. B2C
 c C2C
d. all the above

83. Which of the elements are not e-marketing?

a. marketing over IP
b. interactive marketing
c mobile marketing
d. printing media marketing

84. A combination of software and information designed to provide security and information
for payment is called -
a. digital wallet
b. pop up ad
c shopping cart
d. encryption

85. What is a model of a proposed product, service, or system?

a. Prototyping
b. Prototype
c Selling prototype
d. None of the above

86. Which factor represents a system’s ability to change quickly?

a. Flexibility
b. Performance
c Capacity Planning
d. Benchmark

87. Which is a function of ERP?

a. Warehousing
b. Sales
c Scheduling
d. all of the above

88. What floods a website with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?
a. Computer virus
b. worm
c Denial-of-service attack
d. None of the above

89. Which of the following captures screen image?

a. Key logger
b. Packet sniffer
c log analysis tools
d. screen capture software
90. What is the name of the new anti-spam bill?
a. No-spam
b. Can-spam
c spam-away
d. stop spam

91. Paisa Pay is offered only by -

a. Homeshop18.com
b. eBay.in
c Amazon.com
d. None of the above

92. Which one is the component of cyber cash payment system

a. CC user software
b. CC merchant software
c CC Server software
d. All of the above.

93. The presence of ________ make the smart card smart

a. Memory
b. Microchip
c E-cash
d. None of the above

94. Which is used to identify mobile money?

a. MCID
b. MMID
c RSID
d. None of the above

95. Which one is a client level threat?

a. Malicious code
b. viruses
c Active contents
d. all of the above

96. Which one is a threat for E-marketing

a. Trojan horse
b. firewall
c encryption
d. None of the above

97. Many business buyers prefer to bery a total solution to their problem from one seller,
This is referred to as what?
a. Integrated selling
 b. Systems selling
c Systems buying
d. Integrated buying

98. _____ are specific measures designed to determine web site success.
a. Segmentation variables
b. Metrics
c ESP model
d. Site stickiness

99. What is the new content management tool for SWEET?

a. Sitecore
b. CMS Lite
c Sharepoint
d. Sweetyness

100. What does SEO stand for?

a. Site engine Optimization
b. Search Engine Optimization
c Site Efficiency Optimization
d. None of the above

101. Which of the following marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?
a. Pay per click advertising
b. Using social media marketing strategies
c posting press release
d. article marketing

102. Private Key cryptography is also known as ________ cryptography.

a. Public Key
b. Symmetric
c Asymmetric
d. None

103. During E-marketing transaction we should ensure ______

a. Integrity
b. Security
c Confidentiality
d. All of the above

104. Short term encouragements offered to persuade a trader to stock up on goods is

a. trade allowances
b. push money
c trade contest
d. price deal
 105. Unique value auction is mainly applies to-
a. New products
b. Second hand Products
c Engineering products
d. None of the above

106. A marketer need to understand that some ‘general traits’ of a brand name are :
a. Easy to recognize
b. Easy to pronounce
c Easy to memorize or recall
d. All of the above

107. ___________ includes two aspects of a brand – its associations and its
personality.
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand positioning
c Brand relationship
d. Brand image

108. Meaning of E-marketing refers to

a) The increase in sales of mobile phones induces marketers in seeing mobile communication as the
future scenario for marketing activities.
b) Buying and selling on the spot. c) This is a marketing system occurring between two parties
d) None of the Above.
Ans. (A)

109. Intranet means

a) A network within a single company b) Between different groups
c) Communication between customers and sellers d) Cannot say
Ans. (A)

110. IP is the full form of

a) Internet Provider b) Internet Protocol
c) Internet Password d) Do Not Know
Ans. (B)

111. The meaning of Extranet is

a) Global information system b) Sharing devices update
c) Windows for selling
d) A private network system to securely share part of business information with their clients.
Ans. (D)
112. E-marketing strategies includes
a) Search Engine Market b) Online Public Relation
c) Email- marketing d) All of the above.
Ans. (D)

113. Example of online Public Relation is

a) Blogs b) Website
c) Opening Membership Account d) None of the above.
Ans. (A)

114. Banner advertisement is called as

a) Placement of advertise on website for a fee. b) Tools of communication
c) Platform of Competition d) None of the Above
Ans. (A)

115. Benefit of E-marketing is

a) Extremely low risk b) Reduction in cost
c) Faster response d) All of the above
Ans. (D)

116. Portal is a system of

a) A gateway to information or news about a range of services b) Communication Medium
c) Medium of exchange d) Online payment medium
Ans. (A)
117. Step to begin E-marketing include
a) Building effecting website b) Designing Compelling messages
c) Online advertising d) All are corrects.
Ans. (D)

118. E-commerce refers to

a) All electronically mediated information exchanges between organisation and
stakeholders.
b) This is only web design c) Web application
d) None of the above
Ans. (A)

119. Major internet economy contributor is/are

a) Google b) Apple
c) Facebook d) Above all are included
Ans. (D)

120. Which of the following is not included in 4Ps of e-marketing

a) Product b) Price
c) Process d) Place
Ans. (C)
121. Which of the following is not included in 3Ps of e-marketing
a) Promotion b) People
c) Process d) Physical evidence or environment
Ans. (A)

122. Which of the following do not corresponds to 4Ps of e- marketing

a) Cost b) Customer Value
c) Controlling d) Communication
Ans. (C)

123. The Product Life Cycle has ______________ stages or phases.

a) 7 (Seven) b) 9 (Nine)
c) 5 (Five) d) 3 (Three)
Ans. (C)

124. In which stage or phase of Product Life Cycle, Sales Volume is at Peak Point
a) Growth b) Saturation
c) Maturity d) Decline
Ans. (B)

125. The technique of increasing sales of present or existing products in present or existing markets by
selling more to present customers or gaining new customers is called -
a) Market Development b) Market Segmentation
c) Market Penetration d) None of the above.
Ans. (C)

126. The pricing method in which the selling price of the product is fixed by adding a margins to
the cost price is called
a) “All the traffic will Bear pricing” b) Skimming Price
c) Penetration pricing d) Mark-Up pricing
Ans. (D)

127. When a firm seeks to enter a new market with a completely new product then it is known as
a) Product Development b) Product Diversification
c) Product Division d) None of these
Ans. (B)

128. The strategy of offering a different product charging a different price and using different
promotion and distribution process is called
a) Market segmentation b) Market Penetration
c) Market Development c) None of these
Ans. (A)

129. The technique of charging high price and high profits at the initial stage of marketing the
product is called
a) Skimming pricing b) Penetration pricing
c) Mark-up pricing d) “What the traffic can bear” pricing
Ans. (A)

130. The device which create significant opportunities for marketer to use and increase their
awareness and build connection between them and customers is known as
a) E-mail marketing b) Viral marketing
c) Mobile marketing d) E-business
Ans. (C)

140. The use of email to transmit a promotional message to another potential customer is
called as
a) Blog marketing b) Viral marketing
c) Logo d) None of these
Ans. (B)

141. The process of creating all the visual aspects of the elements such as buttons and links is
a) Web design b) Digital development
c) Visual medium d) Above all are true
Ans. (A)

142. Good interface of website design involves

a) Navigation b) Layout
c) Headers d) Above all are true
Ans. (D)

143. The most prominent way to reinforce company brand identity on the website is known as
a) Designing b) Logo
c) Domain views d) None of these
Ans. (B)

144. HTML is the full form of

a) Hyper Text Markup Language b) Hyper Technology Marked Line
c) Hyper Text Markup Link d) Cannot say
Ans. (A)

145. Domain names are part of

a) Universal Resource Locator b) Cascading Style Sheets
c) Extensible Markup language d) Above all are included
Ans. (A)

146. The safeguarding brand include/s

a) Discover b) Identity
c) Monitor d) Above all are included
Ans. (A)
147. The first step in the process of product promotion refer to
a) Diversification b) Identification
c) Segmentation d) Advertising
Ans. (C)

148. The top level domain used by non-profit organisations is

a) .com b) .gov
c) .ac d) .org
Ans. (D)

149. Frameworks for selecting target markets is/are follow as

a) Demographic information b) Product market
c) Marketing model drivers d) All are included
Ans. (D)

150. Locating a brand in consumer’s minds over and against competitors in terms of attributes and
benefits is known as
a) Positioning b) Branding
c) Mapping d) Infusion
Ans. (A)

151. Examples of social media are

a) My Space b) Facebook
c) YouTube d) All are corrects
Ans. (D)

152. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) model is an organised approach of developing,

managing and maintaining a profitable relationship with customers.
a) True b) False
c) Cannot say d) None of these
Ans. (A)

153. Social Media Marketing means

a) Activity of driving website traffic b) Up-to-the-minute way to spread the news of company
c) Building a conversation between clients and consumers d) Above all are included
Ans. (D)

154. There are............types of Customer Relationship management (CRM)

a) Four b) Three
c) Seven d) Five
Ans. (A)

155. ...............................is a type of online advertising where you only pay when somebody clicks on
company ads.
a) Pay per click b) Use per visit
c) Give per login d) Payment per access
Ans. (A)

156. Under Web Content Management System duties are divided into
a) Content editors b) Content administrators
c) Content publishers d) All are included
Ans. (D)

157. Which of the following describe E-commerce?

a) Doing business electronically
b) Doing business
c) Scale of goods
d) All of the above
158. Which is a function of E-commerce
a) Marketing
b) Advertising
c) Warehousing
d) All of the above
159. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click
on an ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?
a) Affiliate programs
b) Click-through
c) Spam
d) All of the above
160. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chief
on which digital information can be stored?
a) Customer relationship management system cards
b) E-government identity cards
c) FEDI cards
d) Smart cards
161. If the threat of substitute products or services in low it is a/an ;
a) Disadvantages of the supplier
b) Advantages of the buyer
c) Advantages of the supplier
d) None of the above
162. If it is easy for competitions to enter the market, the threat of new entrants is
considered:
a) High
b) Low
c) More
d) Less
163. Which one is not an E-payment method used in India
a) Debit card
b) Credit card
c) E-cheque
d) None of the above
164. OPT stands for
a) One Time Password
b) On Time Processing
c) One Time Processor
d) None of the above
165. What is an arrangement made between marketing site that direct users from
one site to the other?
a) Spam
b) Viral marketing
c) Affiliate programs
d) None of the above
166. One of five features of promotional mix is-
a) Promotion
b) Sales promotion
c) Place
d) Product
167. A thing that persuade what a customer demands is
a) Product
b) Price
c) Place
d) Promotion
168. Sales advertising targeted at customer are called-
a) Consumer sales promotion
b) Trade sales promotion
c) a & b
d) None of the above
169. Charge dissimilar prices in diverse markets for some product is
a) Marketing mix
b) Psychographic factors
c) Price discrimination
d) Price skimming
170. A business cannot be all things to all people, instead, a business must
a) Identify target customers
b) Indentify the value of product/services as perceived by customers
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
171. Which type of products is lesser purchased using E-commerce?
 a) Automobile
b) Books
c) Software
d) None of the above
172. Which form of E-marketplace brings together buyers and sellers form the same
industry?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Integrated
d) Inclined
173. Which types of ad appears on a web page?
a) Pop-under ad
b) Pop-up ad
c) Banner ad
d) Discount ad
174. What is the name for direct computer to computer transfer of transaction
information contained in business document?
a) Internet commerce
b) E-commerce
c) Transaction information transfer
d) Electronic data interchange
175. Which factor determines when your IT system will be available for knowledge
worker to access?
a) Availability
b) Accessibility
c) Reliability
d) None of the above
176. Which will not harm computer resources?
a) Virus
b) Trojan horse
c) Firewall
d) None of the above
177. Which process is used to reinstall data from a copy when the original data has
been lost?
a) Backup
b) Recovery
c) Benchmarking
d) Data cleansing
178. Who protects system from external threat?
a) EDI
b) ERP
c) Firewall
 d) Script kiddies
179. ERP stands for
a) Enterprise resolution planning
b) Enterprise reveres planning
c) Enterprise resource planning
d) None of the above
180. All of the following are considered biometrics, except
a) Finger print
b) Retina
c) Password
d) Voice
181. Which of the following applies to the implementation of an idea?
a) Copyright
b) Intellectual property
c) Patent
d) Denial of service attack
182. What type identity thieves do with your identity?
a) Apply for and use credit cards
b) Apply for loan
c) Change their identity
d) All of the above
183. Unsolicited e-mail is called
a) Junk mail
b) Spam
c) Extra mail
d) None of the above
184. What is an electronic representation of cash?
a) Digital cash
b) Electronic cash
c) E-cash
d) All of the above
185. Smart card is better protected than other card using
a) Encryption
b) Firewall
c) Hub
d) All of the above
186. Which one is also known as plastic money?
a) Credit card
b) Debit card
c) Paper cash
d) All of the above
187. E-cheque are
 a) Prepaid
b) Postpaid
c) Both prepaid & postpaid
d) Spot paid
188. Which is not a feature of e-commerce?
a) SCM
b) EDI
c) WWW
d) BPR
189. Which one is the third party payment providers who offer digital wallets for E-
merchants?
a) Oxi cash
b) Pay mat
c) Pay pass
d) All of the above
190. Which one is a communication channel threat?
a) Sniffer programs
b) Cyber vandalism
c) Integrity threats
d) All of the above
191. E-banking is also known as
a) ATMs
b) Net banking
c) Traditional banking
d) None of the above
192. The basic elements of website is
a) Home page
b) Web page
c) Links & banners
d) All of the above
193. Which one is not an offline payment mode?
a) Cash on delivery
b) Cash before delivery
c) Demand draft
d) E-cheque
194. Which one is not online payment mode?
a) Cash on delivery
b) Debit card
c) Credit card
d) E-cheque
195. Which of the following elements are not parts of e-marketing?
a) Marketing over IP
 b) Interactive marketing
c) Mobile marketing
d) Print media marketing
196. ________is the subset of e-commerce focused on transaction.
a) E-business
b) E-marketing
c) Digital technology
d) Environment, strategy, performance(ESP)
197. The________is a blueprint that links the firms e- business strategy with
technologty driven marketing strategies.
a) E-marketing plan
b) Business model
c) Situation analysis
d) Strategic plan
198. The strategy of applying different price vleves for different customers or
situation is known as ______.
a) Dynamic pricing
b) Online bidding
c) Direct marketing
d) Agent e-business model
199. E-marketers working in emerging economics should know and understand
_____.
a) How many credit cards are in circulation
b) Consumer attitude towards credit card purchase
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
200. Considering non personal communication channels, social networking sites,
email and company websites are considered as
a) Broadcast media
b) Display media
c) Online media
d) Print media

******

NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.
 Question Bank

(Soft Study Course)

Subject- Indian Constitution Planning
6th Semester

1. The constituent Assembly formed the drafting committee of India constitution on:
a) 29th August 1947 b) 20th July 1948
c) 11th August 1949 d) 29th August 1950

2. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?
a) British Constitution b) U.S. Constitution
c) The Government of India Act, 1935 d) Irish Constitution

3. Who among the following is/are not appointed by the President of India?
(a) Governors of the States (b) Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts
(c) Vice-President (d) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme Court

4. What is known as the “Little India”?

(a) City (b) Town (c) Village (d) State

5. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or Not?

a) President b) Chairmen of Rajya Sabha
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha d) Minister of Parliamentary affairs

6. A federal structure of India was first put forward by the

(a) Act of 1909 (b) Act of 1919 (c) Act of 1935 (d) Act of 1947

7. First woman judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:

(a) Rani Jethmalani (b) Anna George Malhotra
(c) M. Fathima Beevi (d) Leila Seth

8. Right to property, according to Constitution of India, is a -

a) Fundamental Rights b) Directive Principle
c) Legal Right d) Social Right

9. The first Five-Year Plan in India was launched in the year?

a) 1951 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1949

10. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?
a) Bill bringing a State under the President's rule
b) Money Bill
c) Bill pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment
d) Bill proclaiming all the State of emergency arising out of war or external aggression.
11. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented?
(a) Monsoon session (b) First session (c) Winter session (d) None of the above

12. The judges of the High court of a state are appointed by ?

a) President b) Governor c) Chief Justice of India d) Vice-President

13. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution?
(a) Federal State (b) Commonwealth State
(c) Nation (d) Any State other than India

14. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj?

(a) 243 O (b) 243 A (c) 243 (d) 243 I
15. How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by President of
India ?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 18

16. Under the Panchayati Raj System Gram Sabha consist of ?

a) Elected executives of a village
b) Persons who is registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village
c) Elected executives of a village and officials nominated by him/Her
d) The village surpanch ad the persons nominated by him/Her.

17. Abolition of Untouchability is mentioned in ……….. of Indian Constitution.

a) Article 13 b) Article 21 c) Article 27 d) Article 17

18. Who Is called the Father of Indian Planning?

a) M Vishveshwariah b) J.L. Nehru c) Gandhi d) B.R. Ambedkar

19. The provisions related to Directive Principles of State Policy are mentioned in ….
a) Part I b) Part III c) Part IV d) Part VI
20. Governor is Constitutionally authorized to act in his discretion according to Article ,…
a) 160 b) 161 c) 162 d) 163

21. States in India have

a)Planning Commission b) Planning Board
c)Planning Mission d) None of the above

22. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:

(a) Democratic-decentralisation (b) Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development
(d) Community development programme

23. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:
1. Article 356 2. Article 360
3. Article 352 4. Article 365
(a) only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
24. At what level does the Panchayat Samiti exists India-
(a) Village (b) Block
(c) Zilla (d) All of the above

25. Who is considered the father of local self- government in India?

(a) Lord Ripon(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Narashima Rao (d) Rajib Gandhi

26. The chairman of the Municipal Corporation is called:

(a) Deputy Mayor (b) Mayor
(c) Commissioner (d) Chief Minister

27. Which one of the following is often described as the ‘Mini Legislative Assembly’ of Tripura?
(a) AMC (b) UMC (c) KMC (d)TTAADC

28. When was the first Municipal Corporation set up in India?

(a) 1687 (b) 1689 (c) 1690 (d) 1691

29. The Constitution of India provides for a

a)Unitary Government b)Federal Government
c)Centralized Government d) None of the above

30. The Architect of India’s Second Five Year Plan model is

a) Mahalanobis c) Nehru c) Bramanandha d) None of them

31. National Development Council consists

a) Planning Commission members b) Chief Ministers of States
c) Governors of State d) a and b

32. Who presides over the National Development Council?

a) Home Minister b) Prime Minister c) President d) RBI Governor
33. The main aim of First Five Year Plan in India
a) Agriculture b) Industry c) IT d) None of the above

34. NITI Aayog came into effect from

a) January 2015 b) January 2016 c) January 2014 d) January 2017

35. Which part of the constitution deals with the Panchayats?

a) Part IX b) Part X c) Part XI d) Part XII

36. NITI Aayog is planning a new framework for

a) Five-Year Plan b) Budget c) Finance Commission d) All of the above
37. Five year plan is also known as
a) Short term plan b) Perspective Plan c) Design Plan d) None of them
38. Which of the following are areas identified by NITI Aayog to engage in?
a) Land leasing b) Land Titling
c) Right to Education Act d) All of the above

39. What is the period of first five year plan?

a) 1950-1955 b) 1955-1960
c) 1951-1956 d) 1952-1957

40. Which Five Year Plan is also known as ‘Gadgil Yojana’?

a) First Five Year Plan b) Second Five Year Plan
c) Third Five Year Plan d) Fourth Five Year Plan

41. The Prime Minister of India is appointed by the

a.Chief Justice of India b. President of India c. Speaker of the Lok Sabha d. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans-b
42. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
a. 26th November,1949 b. 26th November, 1950 c. 26th January, 1949 d. 26th January 1950
Ans- a
43. The Preamble to the Constitution of India describes as
a. Sovereign, democratic and republic b. socialist, democratic and republic c. sovereign, secular, democratic
and republic d.sovereign,socialist,secular, democratic and republic
Ans- d
44. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
a. Sarder Patel b. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar d. Mahatma Gandhi
Ans- c
45. The word ‘socialist’ was inserted in the Preamble to the Constitution of India in the year
a. 1947 b.1976 c.1978 d. 1975
Ans- b
46. Federal features of the Indian Constitution does not include
a. Dual citizenship b. division of powers between the centre and the states c. written constitution d.
independent judiciary
Ans-a
47. The nature of Indian Constitution is
a. Very flexible b. very rigid c. neither rigid nor flexible, but a mixture of both d. all of the above
Ans- c
48. Article 368 deals with
a. Fundamental Rights b. Fundamental Duties c. Voting Rights d. Amendment of the Constitution of India
Ans. D
49. Fundamental duties were introduced in the Constitution by the
a. 44th Amendment b. 42th Amendment c. 43th Amendment d. 40th Amendment
Ans-b
50. Zilla Parishad exists at
a. Village level b. Block level c. District level d. State level
Ans- c
51. The retirement age of the judges of the Supreme Court in India is
a. 60 years b. 68 years c. 70 years d. 65 years
Ans- d
52. The Vice President of India is elected by
a. the members of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha b. the President c. the members of the Rajya
Sabha d. the members of the Lok Sabha
Ans- a
53. The Money Bill can be introduced only in
a. The Rajya Sabha b. the Lok Sabha c. either House of the Parliament d. None of the above
Ans- b
54. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every
a.five years b.four years c.three years d.two years
Ans- d
55. The judges of the High Court are appointed by
a. the Governor b. the Prime Minister c. the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court, Chief Justice of the High Court and the Governor of the State d. the Chief Justice of India
Ans- c
56. Who is the guardian of the Indian Constitution ?
a. The President of India b. The Prime Minister of India c. The High Court d. The Supreme Court of India
Ans-d
57. The Prime Minister of India is
a. Leader of the Lok Sabha b. leader of the Rajya Sabha c. leader of the masses d. None of the above
Ans- a
58. The maximum gap between the two session of the Parliament is
a. two weeks b. two months c. three months d. six months
Ans-d
59. Who is the real Executive Head of India?
a. The President b. The Chief Minister of State c. The Prime Minister d. The Governor of State
Ans- c
60. The President of India is elected by
a. the Prime Minister b. the members of the Lok Sabha c. the members of the Rajya Sabha d. an Electoral
College
Ans- d.

61. Who among them can cast their vote in Presidential election?

a) Member of Parliament & Member of State Legislative Assemblies

b) Member of Union Public Service Commission
c) Governor
d) None of the above
Ans. (A)

62. Which is not correct regarding the eligibility of Indian President?

a) Be a citizen of India
b) Completed the age of 35 years
c) Must not hold any office of profit
d) Must be below 65 years
Ans. (D)

63. How many procedures are there to amend the Indian Constitution?

a) 1 (One) b) 2 (Two) c) 3 (Three) d) 4 (Four)

Ans. (C)

64. Who appoints Governor of an Indian State?

a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Justice
d) Chief Minister
Ans. (B)

65. In which year the Constituent Assembly was formed?

a) 1948 b) 1947 c) 1946 d) 1945

Ans. (C)

66. If the office of the President of India is lying vacant, who would act as a President?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Vice President of India
c) Governor
d) None of these
Ans. (B)

67. In which List the subject ‘Currency and Coinage’ is put in the distribution of powers between Union and
State?

a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) None of this
Ans. (A)

68. In which amendment ‘Right to Property’ was removed from Fundamental Right?

a) 41st Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 43rd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment
Ans. (D)

69. In which articles of the Indian Constitution ‘Right to Freedom’ is found?

a) 14-18 b) 19-22 c) 23-24 d) 25-28

Ans. (B)
70. How many types of ‘Emergency Powers’ are vested with the Indian President?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. (C)

71. A Judge of the Supreme Court holds office until the age of-

a) 65 b) 64 c) 63 d) 62
Ans. (A)

72. A Judge of the High Court may be removed within his tenure by the President on a resolution passed by
both houses of parliament supported by a –
a) Simple majority
b) 2/3 Majority
d) 1/3 Majority
d) None of these
Ans. (B)

73. In which year TTAADC officially got elected body?

a) 1987 b) 1986 c) 1985 d) 1984

Ans. (C)

74. Who appoints Chairman and Members of UPSC?

a) Prime Minister
b) Attorney General
c) Chief Justice
d) President
Ans. (D)

75. Which is the highest stage of Panchayati Raj System?

a) Zilla Parisad
b) Panchayat Samity
c) Gram Panchayat
d) None of these
Ans. (A)

76. What are the two kinds of Government Bills introduced in parliament?
a) Ordinary Bills & Private Bills
b) Money Bills & Ordinary Bills
c) Private Bills & Government Bills
d) None of these
Ans. (B)

77. Who is the in-charge of Election Commission of India?

a) Election Commissioner
b) Chief Election Commissioner
c) Both of the above
d) None of this
Ans. (C)

78. Who is in-charge of Union Executive in the Indian Parliamentary system?

a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Chief Justice
d) None of these
Ans. (A)

79. In which List ‘Education’ is found in the distribution of power between Union & State?

a) Union List
b) b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) All of these
Ans. (C)

80. Directives Principles could be broadly classified in to three categories?

a) Socialistic, Gandhian, Capitalism

b) Socialistic, Marxian, Gandhian
c) Liberalism, Capitalism, Marxian
d) None of these
Ans. (D)

81. Planning refer to

a) Path of actions in terms of policy measures b) Choice of science
c) Selection of economic sectors d) Cannot say
Ans. (A)

82. The Planning Commission started in

a) 1950 b) 1951
c) 1949 d) 1955
Ans. (A)

83. The aims of planning is

a) Rising price level b) Unemployment
c) Rapid economic growth d) Democratic election
Ans. (C)

84. Who is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog

a) Dr. Manmohan Singh b) Narendra Modi
c) Donald Trump d) Arun Jaitley.
Ans. (B)
85. When was NITI Aayog launched?
a) 8 February, 2015 b) 1 February, 2015
c) 1 April, 2015 d) 31 March, 2015
Ans. (A)

86. The difference between the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog is
a) North East India is given top priority b) All the Chief Ministers of the states are included
c) Inclusion of Foreign members d) None of these
Ans. (B)

87. India is following which type of Planning?

a) Six Year Plan b) Ten Year Plan
c) Five Year Plan d) Seven Year Plan
Ans. (C)

88. Rolling Plan refers to

a) A plan at intervals of usually one year b) A type of regional planning c) A system of
choice based planning d) Contents of plan are fixed
Ans. (A)

89. Planning by direction or command is called as

a) Functional planning b) Structural planning
c) Imperative planning d) Indicative planning
Ans. (C)

90. Decentralised planning is a system of

a) All decision taken by the Central authority b) Market incentives planning c) Empowers
people as planning operates from bottom to top d) Control Plan
Ans. (C)

91. Significant features of Indian Five Year Plan includes

a) Totally Democratic b) Decentralised planning
c) Both are false d) Both are correct
Ans. (D)

92. Mobilising resources and shifting resources from have area to have-not area is known as
a) Optimisation planning b) Development planning
c) Economic planning d) None of these
Ans. (B)

93. Short-term problems involve in development planning process is

a) Lack of proper planning b) Refugee Rehabilitation
c) Food Crisis d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
Ans. (D)
94. The concept of participatory was started by
a) Indra Gandhi b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Nelson Mandela d) Aung San Suu Kyi
Ans. (B)

95. The Prime focus of development planning is/are

a) Rural health b) Self reliant economy
c) Drinking water d) Above all are the top priorities
Ans. (D)

96. Participatory development is an attempt at grassroots involvement in social, political and economic
transformation
a) True b) False
c) Not imply d) No idea
Ans. (A)

97. Article 40 of the Indian Constitution provides a directive that the state shall strive to organise
a) District election b) Municipal election
c) Gram panchayat d) None of these
Ans. (C)

98. The first State to start Panchayati Raj Institution is

a) Tripura b) Assam
c) Karnataka d) Rajasthan
Ans. (D)

99. The state in which there is no Panchayati Raj Institution is

a) Jammu & Kashmir b) Sikkim
c) Tripura d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (A)

100. Tripura State Planning Board was set up in

a) 1972 b) 1971
c) 1978 d) 1985
Ans. (C)

101. Which of the following is often described as the ‘ Mini Legislative Assembly’ of Tripura?
a) AMC
b) UMC
c) KMC
d) TTADC
102. Which of the following exercises a ‘coasting note’?
a) Speaker of Lok sabha
b) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
 c) Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha
d) None of the above
103. Who coined the term ‘Hindu’ rate of growth?
a) Professor Roy Harrod
b) Prof. John Hicks
c) Prof. Amartya Sen
d) Prof. Raj Krishna
104. The Election of Lok sabha first took place in
a) 1950
b) 1951
c) 1952
d) 1954
105. Who is called the father of Indian Planning?
a) M Vishneshwariah
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Gandhi
d) B. R Ambedkar
106. The nationalization of banks took place during :
a) Second five year plan
b) third five year plan
c) Fourth five year plan
d) fifth five year plan
107. Mahalouobish Committee wsa appointed on
a) Poverty estimation
b) Introduction of sica
c) National Income
d) Industrial sickness.
108. The bill passed by both house of parliament becomes a law after
a) The prime minister assent
b) The Speaker assent
c) The governor’s assent
d) The President assent
109. The term of office of a member of Rajya Sabha is
a) Two years
b) Five years
c) Six years
d) ten years
110. Which of the following is part of the basics statement of the Indian constitution?
a) Limited power of parliament to amend the constitution
b) Effective access to justice
c) Reasonableness
d) All of the above
111. What is the meaning of foreign state as given in our Indian constitution?
a) Federal state
b) Commonwealth state
 c) Nation
d) Any other state than India
112. What is known as the “Little India”?
a) Lity
b) Town
c) Village
d) State
113. The peoples campaign for Decentralized planning was launched in 1996 in Indian state of
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Bihar
c) Karnataka
d) Kerala
114. Which articles of The Indian constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj?
a) Article 36
b) Article 39
c) Article 40
d) Article 48
115. The 73rd amendment of The Indian constitution deals with :
a) Panchayati Raj
b) Compulsory primary education
c) Minimum wages
d) Nagar Palika
116. In which one of the following schedules of the constitution of India is Urban Local government
mentioned?
a) 7th
b) 8th
c) 11th
d) 12th
117. The term ‘preamble’ refers to
a) Introduction to the constitution
b) Preface to the constitution
c) Summary or essence of the constitution
d) All of the above
118. When was the first backward classes commission appointed
a) 1953
b) 1954
c) 1955
d) 1956
119. Which of the following articles of the Indian constitution deals with the fundamental duties of
the Indian citizens/
a) Articles 51(a)
b) Articles 51 (b)
c) Articles 51(c)
d) Articles 51(d)
120. The emergency provision of the Indian constitution are contained in which part of the
constitution
a) XIV
b) XV
c) XVI
d) XVIII
121. States in India have
a) Planning Commission
b) Planning board
c) Planning Mission
d) None of the aabove
122. The Balwantray Mehta committee was a committee on
a) Democratic-decentralization
b) Panchayati Raj institution
c) Administrative arrangement for rural development
d) Community development programme.
123. President rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of
1. Article 352
2. Article 360
3. Article 352 Article 365
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 1 and 2
124. Which of the the following are areas identified by NITI Aayyog to engage in?
a) Land leasing
b) Land tithing
c) Right to Education Act
d) All of the above
125. The definition of money bill is provided in which article of the Indian constitution?
a) Article 19
b) Article 110
c) Article 10
d) Article 111
126. Which article of the Indian constitution provides for a Hight court in each state?
a) Article 213
b) Article 214
c) Article 215
d) Article 216
127. Who can remove the judges of the supreme court from the office?
a) Vice-President
b) The President
c) Prime minister
d) None of the above
128. How many times has national Emergency been proclaimed in India
 a) Twice
b) thrice
c) Four Times
d) Never
129. Which was the first state to introduce the institution of Lokayukta?
a) Maharashtra
b) West Benga
c) l Karnataka
d) Orissa
130. Which of the following state does not have Panchayati Raj institution at all?
a) Tripura
b) Assam
c) Kerala
d) Nagaland

131. Who was not the member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly in India?
a) M.K.Gandhi b) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar c) K.M.Munshi d) K. Ayyangar
132. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on -
a) December 6, 1946 b) December 9, 1946 c) January 26, 1950 d) January 6, 1950
133. Fundamental Rights are specially mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
a) Part II b) Part III c) Part IV d) Part V
134. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament of India to resolve any conflict between the
two Houses is presided over by -
a) President b) Vice-President c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha d) Chief Justice
135. The authority to alter the boundaries of the states in India rests with the -
a) State Government b) Parliament c) Prime Minister d) President
136. The Constitution of India reserves Residuary Powers to –
a) the Union b) the States c) the Parliament d) the president
137. To which of the following categories does the Right to Property belong?
a) Legal Right b) Fundamental Right c) Human Right d) Natural Right
138. The Rajya Sabha –
a) is a permanent House b) has a maximum life of six months c) has a maximum life of five
months d) has no fixed life
139. The Constitution of India describes India as -
a) a Union of Territories b) a Union of Princely States c) a Union of States d) a federation
140. Panchayat Samity exists at -
a) District Level b) Block Level c) Village Level d) Both District and Village Level
141. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged under the constitution of India?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
142. Part - IV of Indian Constitution deals with –
 a) Fundamental Rights b) Citizenship c) Directive Principles of State Policy d) Fundamental Duties
143 The original Indian Constitution had –
a) 22 Parts & 8 Schedules b) 18 Parts & 18 Schedules c) 8 Parts & 22 Schedules d) 8 Parts & 18 Schedules
144. The 9th Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by –
a) 1st Amendment b) 5th Amendment d) 42nd Amendment c) 44th Amendment
145. The provision of the Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution was taken from the –
a) British Constitution b) Constitution of USA c) Constitution of Canada d) France Constitution
146. The Constitution of India provides------------------- citizenship.
a) Single b) Dual c) Multiple d) None of these
147. The President of India is ---------------------
a) The Senior most member of the Parliament b) the Head of the State c) the Head of the
Government d) None of these
148. The Prime Minister in India is ------------------
a) The Senior most member of the Parliament b) The leader of the majority party in the
Lok Sabha c) a close friend of President d) not a member of the parliament
149. Which one of the following is not a WRIT ?
a) Habeas Corpus b) Mandamus c) Prohibition d) Impeachment
150. The Local Self Government body for a big city is ---------------
a) Panchayat Samity b) Nagar Panchayat c) Municipal Council d) Municipal Corporation

151. Article 52 of the Constitution of India says that there shall be a ------------------
a) Prime Minister of India b) President of India c) Chief Justice of India d) Vice-President of India
152. Right to freedom of religion in India has been guaranteed by ---
a) Articles 14 to 18 b) Articles 19 to 21 c) Articles 25 to 28 d) Articles 29 to 32
153. Fundamental Duties are specially mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution ?
a) Part II b) Part III c) Part IV d) Part V
154. Is the Preamble to the Constitution of India is justiciable?
a) Yes b) No c) At times Yes d) Not Certain
155. What is meant by absolute majority in a House of Indian Parliament –
a) Unanimous Decision b) Two-third of Votes c) More than 50% of Votes d) More than 60% of Votes.
156. The Chief Justice of a High Court can be removed by –
a) The Lok Sabha b) The Prime Minister c) The President d) the Impeachment in Parliament on
violation of the Constitution
157. Which of the following is not included in the ‘Union List’?
a) Foreign affairs b) Railways c) Airways d) Public Health
158. The meeting of the Council of Ministers is presided over by-
a) The President b) The Speaker c) The Prime Minister d) The Chief Justice
159. Under which Mission the Constituent Assembly was set up in India?
a) Cabinet Mission b) Simon Commission c) Montague Commission d) Morley-Minto Reform
Commission.
160. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution.’?
a) Right to equality b) Right to Liberty c) Right to Religion d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
161. The Constitution of India was adopted by –
a) The Parliament b) M.K.Gandhi c) Constituent Assembly d) Governor General of India
162. Which of the following Writs is issued by the Court in case of illegal detention of a person?
a) Quo Warranto b) Habeas Corpus c) Mandamus d) Certiorari
163. The Constitutional Amending power is provided in –
a) Article 368 b) Article 375 c) Article 378 d) Article 385
164. Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives special status to Jammu and Kashmir ?
a) Article 358 b) Article 124 c) Article 370 d) None of these
165. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
a) K.M.Munshi b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar d) None of them
166. Which one of the following is the custodian of fundamental rights in India?
a) Parliament b) Speaker of Lok Sabha c) President d) Supreme Court
167. Can the Parliament eliminate all the fundamental rights ?
a) Yes b) No c) Depends on situation d) If the President of India is agreed
168. Maximum age for election as President is –
a) 70 years b) 65 years c) 60years d) There is no maximum age limit
169. The president of India should be at least –
a) Forty years of age b) Forty-five years of age c) Thirty years of age d) Thirty-five years of age
170. Who can establish a new state in India ?
a) The Cabinet b) The Prime Minister c) The President d) The Parliament
171. “swaraj is birth right and I shall prove it”- who said this?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d) Surendranath Benerjee
172. Indian Independence Act was passed on
a) 1943
b) 1947 1
c) 951
d) none of the above
173. The demand for a Cabinet Assembly was officially made by INC in
a) 1903
b) 1934
c) 1935
d) 1946
174. Who is regarded as the “Father of the constitution of India”?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Rajendra Prasad
c) Sachinanda Sinha
d) None of the above
175. Which of the following terms is not incorporated in the Preamble to the Indian constitution?
a) Secular
b) Federal
c) Democratic
d) Socialist
176. Part III of the Indian constitution deals with
a) Federal system
b) Duties of the citizen
c) Fundamental Rights
d) None of the above
177. Article 300 A of the Indian constitution deals with
a) Right to property
b) Right to education
c) Right to culture
d) All of the above
178. The term ‘secular’ was incorporated in the preamble by the
a) 32 Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) None of the above
179. Indian constitution provides protection to the life and liberty of citizens as well as non citizens by
a) Art. 20
b) Art. 21
c) Art. 22
d) Art. 19
180. The Indian constitution borrowed the idea of Directive principles of state policy from the
a) Irish Constitution
b) British Constitution
c) US Constitution
d) None of the above
181. The President of India is elected by the member of
a) Electoral College
b) Parliament
c) Legislative assembly of the state
d) None of the above
182. Ordinance can pro emulated by
a) Parliament
b) Prime Minister
c) President of India
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
183. Rajya Sabha is
a) Permanent body
b) Dissolved in 3 years
c) Dissolved once in 5 years
d) Dissolved once in 6 years
184. Who officiates in the absence of President of India/
a) Prime Minister
b) Vice-President
c) Chief Justice
d) None of the above
185. Parliament of India is composed of
a) Lok Sabha only
b) Rajya Sabha only
c) Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha
d) Lok sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
186. Which of the following is also called the “House of Elders”?
a) Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha
c) Gram sabha
d) Vidhan sabha
187. Which of the following states assemblies has a six years term?
a) Punjab
b) West Bengal
c) Karnataka
d) Jammu and Kashmir
188. A money bill can be introduce in
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Parliament
d) None of the above
189. The Chairman of the Agartal Municipal Corporation is called
a) Mayor
b) Sabhadhipati
c) Chairperson
d) None of the above
190. Who appoint the judges of a High court?
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Governor
c) President
d) Chief Minister
191. The TTAADC consist of
a) 27 members
b) 28 members
c) 30 members
d) 32 members
192. The headquarter of TTAADC is located at
a) Agartala
b) Radhapur
c) Belbari
d) None of the above
193. Which institution is regarded as the guadia of fundamental Rights in India/
a) Supreme Court
b) High Court
c) Supreme Court and High Court
d) None of the above
194. The High Court is the highest court at the
a) State level
b) District level
c) National level
d) None of the above
195. Judicial review in India is governed by the principle
a) Due process of Law
b) Procedure established by Law
c) By Law
d) None of the above
196. The chairman of the Planning Commission is
a) President of India
b) Minister of Planning
c) Prime Minister
d) None of the above
197. Who prepares the five years plan?
a) Finance Commission
b) Planning Commission
c) Government Of India
d) None of the above
198. First five year plan put emphasis on
a) Education
b) Industry
c) Agriculture
d) Health
199. Who prepared the second five year plan?
a) P. C. Mahalanobis
b) J. L Nehru
c) Sardar patel
d) None of the above
200. Twelfth FYP gave emphasis on
a) Sustainable and inclusive growth
b) Inclusive growth
c) Liberalization
d) None of the above
 ******

NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.
 QUESTION BANK
INTRODUCTION TO JOURNALISM
(SOFT STUDY COURSE)

1. Name the popular columnist of yester-years who became famous for his popular column
“Between the Lines”.
a)Kushwant Singh b) KuldipNayar c) Shoba De d) ChetanBhagat
2. Advertising provides 75-80 percent of the total revenue of the Newspaper organization. What is
the other source of revenue of newspaper?
a) Circulation b) Printing c) Editorial d) None
3. Which is the most important department in a newspaper organization?
a) Advertising b) Circulation c) Editorial d) Printing
4. Which type of advertising often carry an illustration of the product/service in the newspaper?
a) Classified Advertising b) Local Advertising c) Display Advertising d) None
5. What is the full form of RNI?
a) Regional Newspaper of India b) Regional Newsprint of India c) Regional News and views
of India d).Registrar of Newspaper of India.
6. ABC is term commonly used in newspaper organizations. What is the full form of ABC?
a) Audit Bureau of Circulation b) Audit and Sales Certificate c) Assam Bengal
Corporation d) Auditor Bureau of Calcutta
7.The news story is written in the inverted pyramid style. Inverted pyramid styleimplies-
a) Writing the most significant facts at the top b) Writing the most significant facts at the
bottom c) Writing the most significant facts at the middle d) None
8. The lead should try to answer the six basic questions commonly known as 5 Ws and One H. Of
these the 5w’s are -what? Where? Who? When? Why? And what does H signify?
a) However b) How c) Howsoever d) None
9.What is the name of a headline which very large composed of one or more lines and usually
extending across a page or almost the full width of a page?
a) Banner Headline b) Drop Headline c) Label Headline d) Blanket Headline
10.Who was the founder of yellow journalism?
a) William Hurst b) William John c) William Hickey d) None of these
11.Whichamong the below is not a Hindi newspaper?
a) Sanmarg b) Jansatta c) Jagaran d) Eenaadu.
12.“It is communication of feelings, emotions, attitudes, and thoughts through body movements
/ gestures / eye contact, etc.” which type of communication is this?
a) Oral communication b) Written communication c) Non -verbal communication
d) None
13.A story appearing with the name of the writer is called?
a) Credit Line b) By Line c) Print Line d) None of these
14.The cultivation theory was put forward by
a) Denis McQuail b) Joseph c) George Gerbner d) None of these
15.The head quarter of CNN is situated in:
a) New York b) Washington c) Atlanta d) None of these
16.The concept of “Global Village” was first introduced by :
 a) Marshal McLuhan b) Wilbur Schramm c) Charles Wright d) Joseph Klapper
17.The news of important public events appearing in the front sections of a newspaper, are called:
a) Hard news b) Soft News c) Investigative News d) Feature News
18. The famous communication Model SMCRE was devised by:
a) Rogers b) Lasswell c) Osgood d) Schramm
19. Newspaper is a:
a) Cool medium b) Hot medium c) Both “a” and “b” d) None of these
20.The author of well- known communication book “Process and Effects of MassCommunication”
is:
a) David Berlo b) Marshal McLuhan c) Wilbur Schramm
d)Herbert Brucver
21.The founding fathers of the mathematical or electronic theory of communication are:
a) Roger and Berlo b) Shannon and Weaver c) McQuail and Windahl
d) Blumer and Katz
22.What is embargo?
a) A ship, which often comes late b) A ban on publication before a specific date
c) A story, which has no end d) None of these
23. What is editorial?
a) Piece of interview b) A point of view of the newspaper
c) One-Sided approach of the Govt d) None of these
24. What is Dummy in terms of print journalism?
a) A dead body of an animal b) Make up of newspaper
c) Front page of the newspaper (d) None of these
25.What is lithography?
a) A method of printing b) A system of local bodies
c) Circulation of newspapers d) None of these
26.What is a “by line” in print journalism?
a) A matter written with lines b) A track of train c) Reporter's name given with printed story
(d) none of these

27. Intra Personal Communication is:

a) Communication between two persons b) Inner monologues-communications within self
c) Communication with more people d) Communication with masses

28.Who is attributed as the originator of the phrase “press is the fourth estate”?
a) Edmund Burke b) Lord Macaulay c) North Cliff d) Rudyard Kipling
29.The Magic Bullet theory of mass communication was evolved by:
a) Ball Rokeach b) Klapper c) George Gerber d) None of these
30. To be considered a daily, a newspaper has to appear at least:
a) Four times a week b) Five times a week c) Six times a week d) Seven times a week

31. The term yellow journalism was started from

a) Pakistan b) India c) Germany d) USA
32. The inventor of the printing press was:
a) Marshal McLuhan b) George Garbner c) Johannes Gutenberg d) None of these

33. The reading of the script to check the errors is called:

a) Composing b) Proof-reading c) Editing d) None of these

34.A brief introduction of a photograph is called:

a) Embargo b) Credit line c) Caption d) None of these

35. Research has established that while beginning to read a newspaper, a human eye enters the
newspaper from:
a) Top Left Corner b) Top Right Corner c) Bottom Left Corner
d) Bottom Right Corner

36.Design is not just the pattern or the style of a newspaper. It is the architecture on the basis of
which the whole structure is built. What does the word architecture mean?
a) White space b) Important
c) Structural design d) None of these
37.DTP was introduced in the year?
a) 1980 b) 1984 c) 1990 d) 1994
38. ……………………..is known as the art of arranging various visual elements to form newspaper
page.
a) Printing b) Editing c) Proof Reading d) layout
39. Who is the author of the book- Newspaper Design?
a)R.K.Laxman b) M.K.Gandhi c) M.J.Akbar d)Harold Evan
40. Headlines that appear directly opposite to each other are known as:
a) Bumping Heads b) Straight Heads c) Vertical Heads d) None of these
41. Placing headline against each other in newspaper terms is known as:
a) Boxes b) Dummy c) Tomb stoning d) Make Up
42. When a story is too long for a front page, it may be continued to inside pages. This process is
called as:
a) Jumping b) Origin c) Half Cast d) Mitgate
43.“In a fully automated modern newspaper establishment, sub-editors often uses VDT on which
they can call up both agency reports and stories by local reporters”. What does VDT stand for?
a) Video Display Terminal b) Video Delay Terminal
c) Voice Display Terminal d) None of these
44. In a modern newspaper house editing is done through computers only and the pages are
made up on computers using software known as:
a). Adobe Premier b) MS Word
c) MS Excel d) Quark Xpress
45. Cropping a photograph means:
a) Cleaning a photograph b) Developing a black and white reel
c) Cutting out unwanted background d) None of these.
46. The process of putting a number of pictures and combining it as one for a total effect is known
as:
a) Photo Montage b) Electric Montage
c) Rhythmic Montage d) None of these

47. While conducting an interview, is it ethical to use a tape recorder without the consent of the
person concerned?
a) Yes b) No c) Do not know d) None of these

48. An accepted means of issuing information to the press is called as:

a). Vox Pop b) Interview c) Press Conference d) None of these

49. News reports announcing deaths are known as:

a) Advertorials b) Editorial c) Obituary d) News Feature

50………………….is the term which simply means the reporting of information that helps people
cope with their daily lives and it is the bread and butter of magazines.
a) Service Journalism b) Yellow Journalism
c) Sports Journalism d) Chequebook Journalism

51. The most glamorous form of journalism is known as:

a) Court Reporting b) Police Reporting c) Forest Reporting
d) Investigative Reporting

52.Which is the largest circulated newspaper in the state of Tripura?

a) SyandanPatrika b) Daily Desher Katha
c) Tripura Times d) DainikSambad

53.Which of the following was edited by Raja Rammohan Roy?

a). MiratulAkhbar b) SambadKaumudi
c) Bangadootta d) All of the above

54. What does a “Nose for News” mean?

a) Space for News b) Senses material for News
c) Publishing crime reports d) None of the above

55. Who has given the famous statement- Medium is the message?
a) Wilbur Schramm b) Weaver c) Marshal McLuhan d) R.K. Narayanan

56. India’s largest news agency is?

a) FBI b) UTI c) UNI d) PTI

57 The headquarters of Press Trust of India is located at?

a) Mumbai b) Chennai c) New Delhi d) Kolkata
58. The Bennett and Coleman Company publishes which of the following newspapers in India?
a) Hindu b) Times of India c) Indian Express d) None of the above

59. Who is the present editor of The Hindu?

a). MukundPadmanabhan b) Sadhu Jain c). SP Goenka d) Paromita Livingstone

60. Yellow Journalism is all about………………?

a) Exaggerations of news incidents b) Scandal Mongering
c) Sensationalism of news stories d) all of these

61.Which among the following is not included in the qualities a journalist?

a) Irrational Thoughts b) High Quality Communication
c) Obligation and promptness d) Professionalism

62.The essence of the journalism profession lies in…………………

a) Incidents and happenings b) Exploring the truth
c) Both “a” and “b” d) None of the above

63. Who is a columnist?

a) One who writes detailed stories on news
b) One who writes daily reports on current happenings?
c)One who writes for a particular section pertaining to a specific theme or topic
d) None of above

64.From the following examples which one is considered as a news?

a). A man bites a dog b) A dog bites a man c) Both “a” and “b” d) None of the these

65.Which is first English daily newspaper of Tripura?

a) Tripura Observer b) Jagaran c) Tripura Times d) DainikSambad

65. When Mahatma Gandhi was in South Africa, which newspaper was started by him?
a) Young India b) Hindustan c) Reformer d) Indian Opinion

66. PCI stands for?

a). Press Committee for India b) Press Council of India
c) Press Corporation of India d) Press Court of India

67. The abbreviation RNI stand for?

a) Reports and News for India b) Reports and Non-reports for India
c) Registrar of Newspapers for India d) None of these.

68.Which among the following is/are a type of lead?

 a) Summary b) Descriptive c) Question d) all of the above

69. Who publishes the magazine- Sananda?

a) Living Media b) Benett and Coleman c) The Hindu d) ABP Group

70. Which of the following magazine is published by the Hindu?

a) Front Line b) Film Fare c) India Today d) The Business Today

71. THE PRESS AND REGISTRATION OF BOOKS ACT ENACTED IN

THE YEAR
a. 1857
b. 1867
c. 1877
d. 1897

72. THE PRESS COUNCIL OF INDIA WAS INITIATED IN

a. 1966
b. 1952
c. 1982
d. 1984

73. NEWSPAPERS PRIMARILY SERVED WHICH FUNCTIONS?

a. Surveillance
b. Correlation
c. Entertainment
d. All of these

74. YELLOW JOURNALISM

a. Does not spoil the society
b. Mutated division of Journalism that goes against the key principles of
reporting
c. Exploits, distorts, or exaggerates the news to create sensations and
attract readers
d. Both B and C

75. PRINTING PRESS WAS INVENTED BY?

a. Charles Babbage
b. Johann Guttenberg
c. Edgar Thorpe
d. Paul Swizz

76. ………….. IS THE MODERN ASPECT OF JOURNALISM

a. Web
b. Print
c. Electronic
 d. All of these

77. THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT WAS PASSED IN THE

YEAR
a. 2003
b. 2005
c. 2004
d. 2002

78. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOES NOT CONTRIBUTE TO

THE CREDIBILITY OF THE PRESS?
a. Sensationalism
b. Impartiality
c. Accuracy
d. Believability

79. THE WORD COMMUNICATION IS DERIVED FROM A………….

WORD.
a. Latin
b. Greek
c. English
d. French

80. COMMUNIS MEANS TO……

a. Inform
b. Community
c. share
d. None of these

81. THE PROCESS OF COMMUNICATION NEEDS A SENDER, A

RECIPIENT AND A….
a. Caprice
b. Medium
c. Channel
d. None of these

82. WHICH AMONG THESE IS NOT A MASS MEDIA TOOL

a. Radio
b. Newspapers
c. Telephone
d. Internet

83. LEAD IN A NEWS STORY IS …..

 a. The opening paragraph that sums up the story
b. The words that people use to euphemize
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above.
84. WHAT IS THE GOLDEN RULE FOR WRITING HEADLINES
a. Keep it short and bright
b. Be as clever as possible
c. Never let the facts get in the way of news story
d. Use Abbreviations

85. WHEN THE HEADLINE JUST INDICATE THE TYPE OF THE

EVENT THAT IS CALLED….
a. Label headline
b. Banner Headline
c. Active Headline
d. None of the above

86. INTERVIEW BASED REPORTS ARE WRITTEN IN….FORMAT

a. Narrative format
b. Question and answer format
c. Both A and B
d. News format

87. SPECIFIC AREAS COVERED REGULARLY BY A SPECIFIC

REPORTER IS CALLED AS…
a. Beats
b. Leads
c. Interview
d. Editing
88. INTRA-PERSONAL COMMUNICATION INVOLVES
a. An individual talking to a group
b. An individual communicating to a large number of people
c. An individual thinking or talking to himself
d. An individual talking to another individual

89. A STORY WHICH TAKES AN IN DEPTH LOOK AT THE

SUBJECT IS CALLED…….
a. Editorial
b. Article
c. Feature
d. News
90. AN ………………… JOURNALIST WORK IS TO DISCOVER THE
TRUTH AND TO IDENTIFY LAPSES FROM it in whatever media may
be available.
a. Interpretative
b. Investigative
 c. Both A and B
d. War

91. THE INFORMATION IS BROADCASTED BY ELECTRONIC

MEANS IN THE
a. Media
b. Electronic Media
c. Mass media
d. None of these

92. …….. IS THE FOURTH PILLAR OF DEMOCRACY

a. Media
b. People
c. Executive
d. Judiciary
93. WHAT IS THE OTHER NAME OF BROADCAST MEDIA
a. Electronic Media
b. Wireless media
c. Online Media
d. Print Media
94. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS THAT MAKES
NEWS?
a. Proximity
b. Prominence
c. Timeliness
d. All of these

95. SLANDER IS
a. Written Defamation
b. Verbal Defamation
c. Both A and B
d. None of these

96. FOLLOW UP IN NEWS WRITING MEANS:

a. A story giving later development of a story one printed earlier.
It is a second day story also a subsidiary story following a big
lead or similar subject
b. A paragraph without indentation
c. An addition to news item sent for publication
d. None of these

97. OBITUARY’S NEWS RELATES TO:

a. Deaths
b. Birth
c. Weather
 d. None of these

98. AUDIT BUREAU CIRCULATION …..

a. Certifies and audits the circulations of major publications
b. Disseminates information to the print, electronic and new media
c. Help newspapers to maintain their independence
d. Build up a code of conduct for newspapers and journalists in
accordance with high professional standards
99. COPYRIGHT ACT OF 1957 PROVIDES
a. Intangible right of property, if it is original work
b. Authentic information to the public
c. Safeguard to one’s reputation
d. None of the above
100. THE NEWS OF IMPORTANT PUBLIC EVENTS APPEARING IN
THE FRONT SECTIONS OF A NEWSPAPER, ARE CALLED:
a. Hard news
b. Soft News
c. Investigative News
d. Feature News

101. WHICH OF THESE IS NOT PART OF SEVEN C’S OF

COMMUNICATION
a. Channels
b. Content
c. Curiosity
d. Clarity
102. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF CIRCULATION IN CONTEXT TO
PRINT MEDIA
a. Number of copies printed
b. Number of copies sold
c. Number of edition
d. None of these

103. HEADLINES ARE GENERALLY GIVEN BY….

a. Page Designer
b. Sub-Editors
c. Reporter
d. Both B and C

104. TO CHOOSE THE NEWS ITEM FOR THE NEWSPAPER AND TO

CORRECT THE LANGUAGE, SPELLING AND REMOVE ALL
THE UNIMPORTANT SENTENCES ARE THE FUNCTIONS OF
a. Writer
b. Reporter
c. Sub-Editor
d. None of these
 105. YELLOW JOURNALISM WAS INTRODUCED BY
a. Joseph Pulitzer
b. Denis McQuail
c. Shannon and Weaver
d. None of these

106. AFP IS THE NEWS AGENCY OF

a. England
b. America
c. France
d. None of these

106. A SHEET CONTAINING ADDITIONAL FACTS AND DETAILED

INFORMATION ON ANY ISSUE IS KNOWN AS:
a. Summary
b. Write up
c. Backgrounder
d. News
107. OFFICIAL SECRETS ACT WAS ENCATED IN THE YEAR
a. 1923
b. 1963
c. 1857
d. 1959

108. THE KEY NARRATOR OF A NEWSCAST OR PROGRAM IS

CALLED:
a. Announcer
b. Editor
c. Anchor
d. Reader

109. ‘STRINGER’ IS CALLED..

a. Whole time employee
b. Part-time correspondent paid a column rate
c. Sub-editor
d. None of these

110. Who is the person who holds the key position in the newspaper organization; he is
responsible for the editorial content of the newspaper including everything from comics to news
stories to editorial?
a) Editor b) Publisher c) Advertising Manager d)
Circulation Manager
111.“A reporter must have a detached view of things. He is reporting as a newspaperman and not
as an individual.” What does the words detached view of things mean?
a) Personal view of things b) objective view of things c) baised view of things d)
None
112. Which of the following personnel is not a full time journalist, but pursues the profession in
addition to whatever else he is doing?
a) Reporter b) Editor c) Sub-editor d) Stringer

113. Which of the following paper was the first published from Calcutta in 1780?
(A) Hicky’s gazette
(B) Times of India 3
(C) Hindustan
(D) None
114. Which of the following Act tells that it regulates printing presses and newspapers and
makes registration with an appointed Authority compulsory for all printing presses?
(A) The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867
(B) The Press (Objectionable Matters) Act, 1951
(C) The Newspaper (Prices and Pages) Act, 1956
(D) None
115. Which of the following statute empowers the Central Government to regulate the
price of news papers in relation to the number of pages and size?
(A) The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867
(B) The Press (Objectionable Matters) Act, 1951
(C) The Newspaper (Prices and Pages) Act, 1956
(D) None
116. The Press Council is headed by
(A) Chairman
(B) President
(C) Vice president
(D) None
117. The first evening daily newspaper of India was
(A) The Evening News
(B) The Mid-day
(C) The Mail
(D) The Free Press Bulletin.
118. Multi-tasking in journalism is due to
(A) media globalisation
(B) economic liberalisation
(C) social integration
(D) technology convergence 4
119. The traditional practice of referring to the news source as 'spokesperson' has become
redundant due to the emergence of
(A) new media
(B) embedded journalism
(C) investigative journalism
(D) television.
120. The first Indian owned newspaper was established in the city of
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Kolkata.
121.A newspaper in which employees have their stake as shareholders is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Guardian
(C) The New York Times
(D) Le Monde.
122. The first Englishman who was the editor of two prestigious newspapers of India was
(A) James Silk Buckingham
(B) Robert Knight
(C) James Augustus Hicky
(D) C. F. S. Andrews
123.Who is described as the symbol of the New Journalism era ?
(A) Winder Randolph
(B) Joseph Pulitzer
(C) Woodrow Wilson
(D) Frank I. Cobb.
124. A writing is not libellous, if it is a fair comment on a matter of
(A) Media interest 5
(B) Editor's interest
(C) Public interest
(D) Corporate interest.
125. 'Freebies' are described as
(A) writing for jazz journalism
(B) obscene stories
(C) special favours to media persons
(D) precision journalism.
126. Identify the correct sequence of the publication of the newspapers in India :
(A) The Statesman, The Times of India, The Hindu, The Hindustan Times
(B) The Times of India, The Hindu, The Statesman, The Hindustan Times
(C) The Times of India, The Statesman, The Hindu, The Hindustan Times
(D) The Hindustan Times, The Hindu, The Times of India, The Statesman
127. Match List I ( Newspaper ) with List II ( Country ) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
( Newspaper ) ( Country )
(a) The Wall Street Journal i. India
(b) The Economist ii. Great Britain
(c) The Straits Times iii. The United States
(d) The Mint iv. Singapore
Codes :
abcd
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) ii i iii iv
128. Name the popular columnist of yester-years who became famous for his popular
column “Between the Lines”.
a) Kushwant Singh
b) Kuldip Nayar
c) Shoba De
d) Chetan Bhagat 6
129. Advertising provides 75-80 percent of the total revenue of the Newspaper
organization. What is the other source of revenue of newspaper?
a) Circulation
b) Printing
c) Editorial
d) None
130. Which is the most important department in a newspaper organization?
a) Advertising
b) Circulation
c) Editorial
d) Printing
131. Which type of advertising often carry an illustration of the product/service in the
newspaper?
a) Classified Advertising
b) Local Advertising
c) Display Advertising
d) None
132. What is the full form of RNI?
a) Regional Newspaper of India
b) Regional Newsprint of India
c) Regional News and views of India
d). Registrar of Newspaper of India.
133. ABC is term commonly used in newspaper organizations. What is the full form of
ABC?
a) Audit Bureau of Circulation
b) Audit and Sales Certificate
c) Assam Bengal Corporation
d) Auditor Bureau of Calcutta
134. The news story is written in the inverted pyramid style. Inverted pyramid style
implies-
a) Writing the most significant facts at the top
b) Writing the most significant facts at the bottom 7
c) Writing the most significant facts at the middle
d) None
135. The lead should try to answer the six basic questions commonly known as 5 Ws and
One H. Of these the 5w’s are -what? Where? Who? When? Why? And what does H
signify?
a) However
b) How
c) Howsoever
d) None
136. What is the name of a headline which very large composed of one or more lines and
usually extending across a page or almost the full width of a page?
a) Banner Headline
b) Drop Headline
c) Label Headline
d) Blanket Headline
137. Who was the founder of yellow journalism?
a) William Hurst
b) William John
c) William Hickey
d) None of these
138. Which among the below is not a Hindi newspaper?
a) Sanmarg
b) Jansatta
c) Jagaran
d) Eenaadu.
139. “It is communication of feelings, emotions, attitudes, and thoughts through body
movements
/ gestures / eye contact, etc.” which type of communication is this?
a) Oral communication
b) Written communication
c) Non -verbal communication
d) None 8
140. A story appearing with the name of the writer is called?
a) Credit Line
b) By Line
c) Print Line
d) None of these
141. The cultivation theory was put forward by
a) Denis McQuail
b) Joseph
c) George Gerbner
d) None of these
142. The head quarter of CNN is situated in:
a) New York
b) Washington
c) Atlanta
d) None of these
143. The concept of “Global Village” was first introduced by :
a) Marshal McLuhan
b) Wilbur Schramm
c) Charles Wright
d) Joseph Klapper
144. The news of important public events appearing in the front sections of a newspaper,
are called:
a) Hard news
b) Soft News
c) Investigative News
d) Feature News
145. Newspaper is a:
a) Cool medium
b) Hot medium
c) Both “a” and “b”
d) None of these
146. The author of well- known communication book “Process and Effects of Mass
Communication” is:
a) David Berlo
b) Marshal McLuhan
c) Wilbur Schramm
d)Herbert Brucver
147 The founding fathers of the mathematical or electronic theory of communication are:
a) Roger and Berlo
b) Shannon and Weaver
c) McQuail and Windahl
d) Blumer and Katz
148. What is embargo?
a) A ship, which often comes late
b) A ban on publication before a specific date
c) A story, which has no end d) None of these
149. What is editorial?
a) Piece of interview
b) A point of view of the newspaper
c) One-Sided approach of the Govt
d) None of these
150. What is Dummy in terms of print journalism?
a) A dead body of an animal
b) Make up of newspaper
c) Front page of the newspaper
(d) None of these 10
151. What is lithography?
a) A method of printing
b) A system of local bodies
c) Circulation of newspapers
d) None of these
152. What is a “by line” in print journalism?
a) A matter written with lines
b) A track of train
c) Reporter's name given with printed story
(d) none of these
153. Intra Personal Communication is:
a) Communication between two persons
b) Inner monologues-communications within self
c) Communication with more people
d) Communication with masses
154.Who is attributed as the originator of the phrase “press is the fourth estate”?
a) Edmund Burke
b) Lord Macaulay
c) North Cliff
d) Rudyard Kipling
155. The Magic Bullet theory of mass communication was evolved by:
a) Ball Rokeach
b) Klapper
c) George Gerber
d) None of these
156. To be considered a daily, a newspaper has to appear at least:
a) Four times a week
b) Five times a week
c) Six times a week
d) Seven times a week
157. The term yellow journalism was started from
a) Pakistan
b) India
c) Germany 11
d) USA
158. The inventor of the printing press was:
a) Marshal McLuhan
b) George Garbner
c) Johannes Gutenberg
d) None of these
159. The reading of the script to check the errors is called:
a) Composing
b) Proof-reading
c) Editing
d) None of these
160. A brief introduction of a photograph is called:
a) Embargo
b) Credit line
c) Caption
d) None of these
161. Research has established that while beginning to read a newspaper, a human eye
enters the newspaper from:
a) Top Left Corner
b) Top Right Corner
c) Bottom Left Corner
d) Bottom Right Corner
162.Design is not just the pattern or the style of a newspaper. It is the architecture on the
basis of which the whole structure is built. What does the word architecture mean?
a) White space
b) Important
c) Structural design
d) None of these
163. DTP was introduced in the year?
a) 1980
b) 1984
c) 1990
d) 1994
164. ……………………..is known as the art of arranging various visual elements to form
newspaper page.
a) Printing
b) Editing
c) Proof Reading
d) layout
165. Who is the author of the book- Newspaper Design? 12
a) R.K.Laxman
b) M.K.Gandhi
c) M.J.Akbar
d) Harold Evan
166. Headlines that appear directly opposite to each other are known as:
a) Bumping Heads
b) Straight Heads
c) Vertical Heads
d) None of these
167. Placing headline against each other in newspaper terms is known as:
a) Boxes
b) Dummy
c) Tomb stoning
d) Make Up
168When a story is too long for a front page, it may be continued to inside pages. This
process is called as:
a) Jumping
b) Origin
c) Half Cast
d) Mitgate
169. “In a fully automated modern newspaper establishment, sub-editors often uses VDT
on which they can call up both agency reports and stories by local reporters”. What does
VDT stand for?
a) Video Display Terminal
b) Video Delay Terminal
c) Voice Display Terminal
d) None of these
170. In a modern newspaper house editing is done through computers only and the pages
are made up on computers using software known as:
a). Adobe Premier
b) MS Word 13
c) MS Excel
d) Quark Xpress
171. Cropping a photograph means:
a) Cleaning a photograph
b) Developing a black and white reel
c) Cutting out unwanted background
d) None of these.
172. The process of putting a number of pictures and combining it as one for a total effect
is known as:
a) Photo Montage
b) Electric Montage
c) Rhythmic Montage
d) None of these
173. While conducting an interview, is it ethical to use a tape recorder without the consent
of the person concerned?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Do not know
d) None of these
174. An accepted means of issuing information to the press is called as:
a). Vox Pop
b) Interview
c) Press Conference
d) None of these
175. News reports announcing deaths are known as:
a) Advertorials
b) Editorial
c) Obituary
d) News Feature
176………………….is the term which simply means the reporting of information that
helps people cope with their daily lives and it is the bread and butter of magazines.
a) Service Journalism
b) Yellow Journalism
c) Sports Journalism
d) Chequebook Journalism
177. The most glamorous form of journalism is known as:
a) Court Reporting
b) Police Reporting
c) Forest Reporting
d) Investigative Reporting 14
178. Which is the largest circulated newspaper in the state of Tripura?
a) Syandan Patrika
b) Daily Desher Katha
c) Tripura Times
d) Dainik Sambad
179.Which of the following was edited by Raja Rammohan Roy?
a). Miratul Akhbar
b)Sambad Kaumudi
c) Bangadootta
d) All of the above
180. What does a “Nose for News” mean?
a) Space for News
b) Senses material for News
c) Publishing crime reports
d) None of the above
181. Who has given the famous statement- Medium is the message?
a) Wilbur Schramm
b) Weaver
c) Marshal McLuhan
d) R.K. Narayanan
182. India’s largest news agency is?
a) FBI
b) UTI
c) UNI
d) PTI

******

NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.
 Question Bank

Society and Technology (Soft Study Course)

Semester: 6th Semester
2017

1. What is a brand?
a. The name of companies that made computers
b. The name of product a company gives to identify its product in market.
c. A name of class to indicate all similar products from different companies.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (b) The name of product a company gives to identify its product in market.

2. Which of the following is known as father of computer?

a. Dennis Ritchie.
b. Napier.
c. Charless Babbage
d. Alam Turing
Answer: (c) Charless Babbage
3. The earliest calculating device is :
a. Calculator
b. Abacus
c. Difference engine
d. Analytical engine
Answer: (b) Abacus
4. First computer of the world
a. CRAY-1
b. PARAM
c. Tian
d. IBM-370
Answer: (a) CRAY-1
5. Which of the following is the fastest type of computer ?
a. Laptop
b. PC
c. Work station
d. Super computer
Answer: (d) Super computer
6. First super computer developed in India is
a. PARAM
b. Aryabhatt
c. Buddha
d. Ram
Answer: (a) PARAM
7. Computer’s basic architecture was developed by
a. John Von Neumann
b. Charles Babbage
 c. Blaiscpascal
d. Jordan Murn
Answer: (a) John Von Neumann
8. Who invented Vaccumtubes ?
a. John Bardeen
b. William Shockley
c. Lee de Forest
d. None of above
Answer: (c) Lee de Forest
9. The first general purpose electronic computer in the world was
a. UNIVAC
b. EDVAC
c. ENIAC
d. All of the above
Answer: (c) ENIAC
10. The term ‘Computer’ is derived from
a. Greek language
b. Sanskrit language
c. Latin language
d. German language
Answer: (c) Latin language
11. SPSS
a. Statistics package for the social science
b. Software package for system development
c. Software package for editing
d. None of the above
Answer: (a) Statistics package for the social science
12. Formula in Excel start with
a. %
b. =
c. +
d. –
Answer: (b) =
13. In Excel, a data series is define as what?
a. A type of chart
b. A cell reference
c. A collection of related data
d. A division of results
Answer: (c) A collection of related data
14. Multiple calculations can be made in a single formula using……
a. Standard Formula
b. Array Formula
c. Complex Formulas
d. Smart Formula
Answer: (b) Array Formula
15. Which chart can be created in Excel
a. Area
 b. Line
c. Pie
d. All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
16. Which of the following is not a term of MS-Excel?
a. Cells
b. Rows
c. Columns
d. Document
Answer: (d) Document
17. What type of commerce is enable by technology
a. Path-to-profitability
b. E-commerce
c. EBuy
d. Internet
Answer: (b) E-commerce
18. What age group was born after the digital revolution?
a. Digital natives
b. Digital immigrants
c. Digital boomers
d. Web kids
Answer: (a) Digital natives
19. When two companies are linked together by computers and they send business transactions through
these computer, they are probably using-
a. Digital wallets
b. Electronic data interchange
c. B2C
d. Smart cards
Answer: (b) Electronic data interchange
20. What is the term used when the government employs technology to deal with citizens, businesses and
other government agencies?
a. G2BC
b. Web
c. Consumer
d. E-government
Answer: (d) E-government.
21. It is impossibleto proceed to the age of the steam-mill until one has passed through the age of
a. The hand-mill.
b. The hydroelectric plant.
c. The steam-mill.
d. The nuclear power age.
Answer: (a) The hand-mill.

22. The inventionof a steam engine (the aeolipile)was

a. Alexander Fleming.
b. Aldo Leopold.
c. Hero of Alexandria.
 d. None of them.
Answer: (c) Hero of Alexandria.

23. The development of technical progress has always seemed intrinsically

a. Predictable.
b. Unpredictable.
c. Gradual.
d. Uneven.
Answer: (a) Predictable.

24. For a ‘‘higher’’ stage of technology depends not alone on knowledgeor sheer skill but on
a. The division of labor.
b. The specialization of industry.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of them.
Answer: (c) Both a. and b.

25. Technology imposes certain __________ characteristics upon the society in which it is
found.
a. Social.
b. Political.
c. Cultural.
d. Both a. and b.
Answer: (d) Both a. and b.
26. ________ wrote in The German Ideology, ‘‘A certain mode of production, or industrial stage,
is alwayscombined with a certain mode of cooperation, or social stage,’’
a. Karl Marx.
b. Rousseau.
c. Frank.
d. Alexander.
Answer: (a) Karl Marx.

27. The Hierarchical Organization of Work Different technological apparatuses not onlyrequire
different labor forces but different orders of
a. Supervision.
b. Co-ordination.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c) Both a. and b.

28. Who said that, ‘‘engineers have committed such blunders as saying thetypewriter brought
women to work in offices, and with the typesetting machine madepossible the great modern
newspaper, forgetting that in Japan there are women officeworkers and great modern
newspapers getting practically no help from typewriters andtypesetting machines.’’
a. Marx.
b. Gilfillan.
c. Roosevelt.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (b) Gilfillan.
29. Technological Change Must Be Compatible with Existing
a. Social Conditions.
b. Economic Conditions.
c. Other institutions in society.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

30. Who said that what is needed is an understanding of technology from inside, both as a body
of knowledgeand as a social system. Instead, technology is often treated as a ‘‘black box’’
whose contentsand behaviour may be assumed to be common knowledge.
a. Layton.
b. Rolston III.
c. Hume.
d. John Locke.
Answer: (a) Layton.

31. Scientific findings are _______ to more than one interpretation.

a. Not open.
b. Open.
c. Static.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (b) Open.

32. Technology ___________ has the power to help the billions of poor people all over the earth.
a. Not guided by ethics.
b. Guided by ethics.
c. Guided by Scientists.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (b) Guided by ethics.

33. Too much of technologytoday is making ___________.

a. Toys for the rich.
b. Toys for the poor.
c. Toys for both rich and poor.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Toys for the rich.

34. The sun, the genome, and ________ are three revolutionaryforces arriving with the new
century.
a. The Mobile.
b. The Computer.
c. The internet.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c) The internet.

35. What is one of the greatest evils in the world?

a. Rural poverty.
b. Dowry system.
 c. Child marriage.
d. Caste system.
Answer: (a) Rural poverty.

36. Poverty can be reduced by a combination of solar energy, ___________ andthe internet.
a. Genetic engineering.
b. Cyber café.
c. Nanotechnology.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (a) Genetic engineering.

37. Solar energy is distributed __________ overthe earth.

a. Unequally.
b. Equitably.
c. Same.
d. Evenly.
Answer: (b) Equitably.

38. What can make solar energy usable everywhere for thelocal creation of wealth?
a. Internet.
b. Sun.
c. Genetic engineering.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c) Genetic engineering.

39. What can provide people in every village withthe information and skillsthey need to develop
their talents?
a. The solar system.
b. The internet.
c. The Genome.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (b) The internet.

40. Solar energy is most abundant where it is most needed, in the

a. Countryside.
b. In the tropical countries.
c. Temperate latitudes.
d. Both a. and b.
Answer: (d) Both a. and b.

41. The technology of solar energy is still too expensivefor average ________ countriesto afford.
a. First world.
b. Third-world.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of them.
Answer: (b) Third-world.

42. There is enough ______ to supply our needs many times over, if we can find away to use it.
a. Sunlight.
 b. Internet.
c. Animals.
d. None of the above.
Answer:(a) Sunlight.

43. Sugar cane canbe fermented to make ______.

a. Methane gas.
b. Alcohol.
c. Electricity.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (b) Alcohol.

44. Solar energy has not yetbeen used on a large scale for one simple reason: it is
a. Too expensive.
b. Too cheap.
c. Not much available.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (a) Too expensive.

45. Solar energy is expensive today because it has to be collected from large areas andwe do not
yet have a technology that covers large areas
a. Easily.
b. Cheaply.
c. Conveniently.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (b) Cheaply.

46. What are the two main tools for collecting solar energy?
a. Photoelectric panels and energy crops.
b. Genetic engineering and internet.
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Photoelectric panels and energy crops.

47. Fuels produced from energy crops are _________.

a. Not storable.
b. Storable.
c. Very weak.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (b) Storable.

48. Traditional farming has always been based on __________.

a. Genetic engineering.
b. Solar harvesting.
c. Photosynthesis.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (a) Genetic engineering.

49. Alongside the human genome, what are other genomes beingsequenced?
 a. Bacteria.
b. Yeast.
c. Worms.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

50. Before long we shall have sequenced the genomes of the major crop plants,
a. Wheat.
b. Maize.
c. Rice.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

51. The internet will allow people in remote places tomake

a. Business deals.
b. To buy and sell.
c. To keep in touch with their friends.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

52. Cheap solar energy and genetic engineering will provide the basis for primaryindustries in
the countryside,
a. Modernized farming.
b. Mining.
c. Manufacturing.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

53. Ethics must guide technology in the direction of

a. Political justice.
b. Cultural justice.
c. Social justice.
d. None of the Above.
Answer: (c)Social Justice.
54. Who said that, “The increased deployment of nuclear power facilities must lead
societytoward authoritarianism. Indeed, safe reliance upon nuclear power as the
principalsource of energy may be possible only in a totalitarian state.”
a. Mumford.
b. Denis Hayes.
c. Louise.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (b) Denis Hayes.

55. Who said that ‘‘dispersed solar sources are more compatible than centralized technologies
withsocial equity, freedom and cultural pluralism.’’
a. Mumford.
b. Denis Hayes.
c. Louise.
d. None of the above.
 Answer: (b) Denis Hayes.

56. The factory system,automobile, telephone, radio, television, space program and nuclear
powerhave all at one time or another been described as
a. Democratizing forces.
b. Liberating forces.
c. Mobilizing forces.
d. Both a. and b.
Answer: (d) Both a. and b.

57. It is obvious that technologies can be used in ways that enhance the ____________ of some
over others, for example, the use of television to sell acandidate.
a. Power.
b. Authority.
c. Privilege.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

58. Who wrote the little essay ‘‘On Authority’’ in 1872?

a. Friedrich Engels.
b. Karl Marx.
c. Rousseau.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Friedrich Engels.

59. Who said that the roots of unavoidable authoritarianism are deeply implanted in the human
involvementwith science and technology?
a. Karl Marx.
b. Friedrich Engels.
c. Immanuel Kant.
d. John Locke.
Answer: (b) Friedrich Engels.

60. The atom bomb is an inherently a

a. Political artifact.
b. Social artifact.
c. Cultural artifact.
d. Economical artifact.
Answer: (a) Political artifact.

61. Who was the famous inventorof the first reading machine for the blind?
a. Ray Kurzweil.
b. Friedrich Engels.
c. Karl Marx.
d. Hume.
Answer: (a) Ray Kurzweil.

62. Who wrote “The Age of Spiritual Machines”?

a. Ray Kurzweil.
 b. Hume.
c. Frank.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Ray Kurzweil.

63. ‘‘Anything that can go wrong, will’’ whose law is it?

a. Finagle’s law.
b. Ray Kurzweil’s law.
c. Friedrich Engels’ law.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a) Finagle’s law.

64. Who wrote the book “Robot: Mere Machine to Transcendent Mind”?
a. Finagle.
b. Moravec.
c. Engels.
d. Marx.
Answer: (b) Moravec.

65. What are the most compelling 21st-century technologies?

a. Robotics.
b. Genetic engineering.
c. Nanotechnology.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

66. Who said that in the game of life and evolution there are three players at the table: human
beings, nature, and machines?
a. George Dyson.
b. Engels.
c. Marx.
d. None of them.
Answer: (a) George Dyson.

67. Genetic engineering promises to revolutionize agriculture by

a. Increasing crop yields.
b. Reducing the use of pesticides.
c. Creating tens of thousands of novel species of bacteria,plants, viruses, and animals.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

68. The effort to build the first atomic bomb was led by the brilliant physicist ______.
a. J. RobertOppenheimer.
b. Rousseau.
c. John Locke.
d. Hume.
Answer: (a) J. Robert Oppenheimer.

69. Who wrote the book “Visions of Technology”?

 a. Richard Rhodes.
b. Robert Oppenheimer.
c. Aristotle.
d. Descartes.
Answer: (a) Richard Rhodes.

70. Who said, ‘‘We do not ride on the railroad; it rides upon us’’?
a. Richard Rhodes.
b. Aristotle.
c. Thoreau.
d. None of them.
Answer: (c) Thoreau.
71. Cybercrime is also known as
a. Computer crime
b. Network crime
c. Surfing crime
d. Digital crime.
Answer: (a) Computer crime
72. Cybercrime that involves
a. A computer and a network
b. A computer and a website
c. A computer and a computer expert.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (a). a computer and a network .

73. The device of cybercrime is

a. Internet.
b. (b). emails
c. Mobile phones.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d). all of the above.

74. Activity crossing international borders and involving the interests of at least one nation state
is sometimes referred to as
a. Cyber warfare.
b. Cybercrime.
c. Financial crime.
d. None of all these.
Answer: (a) Cyber warfare.

75. “Cyber-crime against women” is a motive to intentionally harm the victim

a. Psychologically.
b. Physically.
c. Emotionally.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d).all of the above.

76. Juniper Research estimated that the costs of cybercrime could be as high as 2.1 trillion by
a. 2018.
 b. 2019.
c. 2017.
d. 2020.
Answer: (b) 2019.

77. Computer fraud refers

a. Bank Fraud.
b. Carding.
c. Theft of Classified Information.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d). all of the above.
78. Someone who intimidates or coerces a government or organization to advance his or her
political or social objectives by launching a computer-based attack against computers,
networks, or the information stored on them is called
a. A cyber-terrorist.
b. A cyber theft.
c. A terrorist.
d. None of the these.
Answer: (a)A cyber-terrorist.

79. Cyberterrorism in general, as an act of terrorism committed through the use of cyberspace or
computer resources is defined by
a. DebaratiHalder.
b. K. Jaishankar.
c. Parker.
d. Kramer.
Answer:(c). Parker.

80. Phishing is mostly propagated via

a. Email.
b. Internet
c. Computer
d. Mobile
Answer:(a) Email.
81. One area of Internet pornography that has been the target of the strongest efforts at
curtailment is
a. Adult pornography.
b. Women pornography.
c. Child pornography.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c) Child pornography.

82. The dark web site silk road was a major online marketplace for
a. Terrorism.
b. Drugs.
c. Pornography.
d. Computer.
Answer:(b)Drugs.
83. A European wide Data Retention Directive (applicable to all EU member states) states that
all E-mail traffic should be retained for a minimum of
a. 13 months.
b. 10 months.
c. 11 months.
d. 12 months.
Answer:(d) 12 months.

84. The process of preventing and detecting unauthorized use of computer is known as
a. Internet security.
b. Cyber security.
c. Computer security.
d. All of the above.
Answer:(c) Computer security.

85. Computer security is needed for

a. Prevention of work related documents.
b. Prevention of data theft.
c. Prevention of bank accounts.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d)All of the above.

86. World Intellectual Property will organize on

a. 26th June.
b. 26th May.
c. 26th April.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (c) 26th April.

87. Responsible computing can be defined as

a. Lawful use of computing and information resources.
b. Respect the right of others.
c. Never create problems by using virus.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d)All of the above.

88. Creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols,
names an and images used in commerce is known as
a. Intellectual property.
b. Personal property.
c. Computer property.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a). intellectual property.

89. Intellectual property is protected in law by, for example

a. Patents.
b. Copyright.
c. Trademarks.
d. All of the above.
 Answer: (d) All of the above.

90. Intellectual Property system aims to foster an environment in which

a. Creativity and innovation can flourish.
b. Creativity can flourish.
c. Innovation can flourish.
d. Motivation can flourish.
Answer: (a)Creativity and innovation can flourish.

91. Types of intellectual property are

a. Copyright.
b. Patents.
c. Trademark.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.

92. The objectives of intellectual property law is

a. Financial incentive.
b. Economic growth.
c. Morality.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d) All of the above.
93. In cybercrime the computer may have been used
a. In the commission of a crime.
b. It may be the target.
c. In the commission of a crime, or it may be the target.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (c) In the commission of a crime, or it may be the target.

94. DebaratiHalder and K. Jaishankar define cybercrimes as: "Offences that are committed
against
a. Individuals.
b. Group of individuals.
c. None of the above.
d. Both (a) and (b).
Answer: (d)Both (a) and (b).

95. The motive of cybercrime is

a. Intentionally harm the reputation of the victim.
b. Physically harm.
c. Mentally harm.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (d). all of the above

96. The only way to solve social issues caused by the rise of technology is
a. Good citizenship in the internet community.
b. Academic excellency.
c. Computer experts.
d. Only (a)
 Answer: (d)Only (a).

97. Major computer crime can be categorized into

a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Two.
d. None of the above.
Answer: (a)Four.

98. Internal computer crime includes

a. Trojan horses.
b. Logic bombs.
c. Worms and viruses.
d. All of the above.
Answer:(d)All of the above.

99. Hacking is a
a. Cybercrime.
b. Internal computer crime.
c. Telecommunications crime.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (c) Telecommunications crime.

100. The most common form of computer crime is

a. Bank and credit card fraud.
b. Terrorism.
c. Hacking.
d. All of the above.
Answer: (c) Hacking.

101. Who was called the father of computer?

a) J. Presper Eckert b) John W. Mauchly
c) Charles Babbage d) Clifford Berry

102. Which of the following are the parts of Computer Hardware?

a) Keyboards b) Printers
c) Motherboard d) All of the above

103. What is business ethics?

a) The study of business situations, activities, and decisions where issues of right and
wrong are addressed
b) Defined as decisions organisations make on issues that could be considered right or wrong
c) Ethics that can be applied to an organisation’s practises
d) Ethical processes businesses use in order to achieve a good ethical standard

104. Define morality-

a) What is considered as correct within a society
b) Making the right decision's where there is a chance to do wrong
c) Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community
 d) Where individuals have a conscious choice to make a right and ethical decision

105. According to Utilitarianism theory-

a) an action is morally right if it results in the greatest amount of good for the greatest
amount of people affected by the action
b) an action is morally right if results in the most amount of good possible in the given
situation.
c) an action is if you do a whole lotta good
d) an action is morally right if it results in the least amount of negativity possible

106. A byte consists of how many bits?

a) 16 b) 4
c) 2 d) 8

107. Which is the research methods used in computer sciences?

a) Experimental method b) Survey method
c) Qualitative method d) All the above

108. What are ethical theories?

a) Ethical theories are conduct that should be followed in order to have good ethical practise.
b) Ethical theories are the rules and principles that determine right and wrong for any
given situation.
c) Ethical theories are ancient hypothesis on how to create good business practise.
d) Ethical the 0ries give guidelines on how to achieve a good corporate image.

109. Pirating software is an example of violating:

a) Morals b) Ethics
c) Laws d) Character

110. Which is a model of management ethics?

a) Moral Management b) Immoral Management
c) Amoral Management d) All of the above

111. What are the threats to privacy in privacy encroachment issues?

a) Public Information Availability b) Commercial Compromise of Privacy
c) Government compromise of Privacy d) All of the above

112. In which year was chip used inside the computer for the first time?
a) 1964 b) 1975
c) 1999 d) 1944

113. The main purpose of research in education is to _________

a) Help in the personal growth of an individual b) Help the candidate become an eminent
educationist
c) Increase job prospects of an individual d) Increase social status of an individual

114. The data of research is ______

a) Qualitative only b) Quantitative only
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
115. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the basis of some
universal code?
a) Deontological b) Ethical skepticism
c) Utilitarianism d) None of them

116. Socially responsible behaviour

a) never leads to improved financial performance b) has adverse impact on stakeholders
c) is in a firm’s self-interest d) results in ill-will from the community

117. Who designed the basic design called Analytical Engine based on which computers are made today?
a) Clifford Berry b) Charles Babbage
c) John W. Mauchly d) J. Presper Eckert

118. What does Simulation Research Method investigate?

a) It makes predictions and study performances
b) It Studiesorganizational and social phenomena in the social and cultural contexts.
c) It identifies issues and problems previously unrecognized.
d) It collects information about the population from the drawn sample.

119. What is research?

a) Searching again and again b) Finding solution to any problem
c) Working in a scientific way to search for d) None of the above
truth of any problem

120. Modern supercomputers and minicomputers, accessed by network are called

a) Desktop Computers b) Laptops
c) Servers d) Micro Computer

121. Every letter of computer is referred to as

a) Bit b) Alphabet
c) Nibble d) Number

122. Which are the advantages of simulation?

a) Results are accurate in general, compared to analytical model
b) Help to find un-expected phenomenon, behavior of the system
c) Easy to perform ``What-If'' analysis
d) All of the above
123. Which one is not a key branch of ethics?
a) Performative ethics b) Normative ethics
c) Applied ethics d) Descriptive ethics

124. Which one falls under the cognitivist metaethical theories?

a) Emotivism b) Imperativism
c) Supernaturalism d) Prescriptivism

125. Who invented ethics of duty?

a) Wilson, H b) Wilson, I
c) Kant, H d) Kant, I

126. John Locke’s Ethic’s of Rights-

a) Right to life, liberty, justice and property b) Right to life, safety and shelter
c) Right to safety, esteem, self-actualisation, d) Right to life and justice
 and psychological needs

127. Ethics & Law overlap. This is called…

a) Yellow area b) White area
c) Black area d) Grey area

128. The fraudulent practice of sending emails purposing to be from reputable companies in order to
induce individuals
to reveal personal information (Credit or Debit card) details is called-
a) Hot swapping of devices b) Pharming
c) Phishing d) None
129. Who is the author of ‘The Rise of the Network Society’?
a) Anthony Giddens b) Manuel Castells
c) Immanuel Wallerstein d) Thomas L. Friedman

130. Consequentialism/Teleological-
a) Decisions are established based on previous consequences and results from past actions
b) Focus on the outcomes/ consequence of ethical decisions, not on moral principles.
c) Focuses on the intrinsic goodness or value of an action
d) Consequences of competitor actions determine your actions

131. Virtue Ethics…

a) Assumes good businesses will make good decisions
b) Assumes good governments will enforce good ethical practices on their businesses
c) Assumes good persons will make good decisions and personal qualities affect
decisions
d) Assumes good persons will make good decisions but it has nothing to do with personal
qualities.

132. Which country introduced Smart Health Care Card in large scale for the first time?
a) France b) India
c) USA d) China

133. Electronic discovery (“e-discovery”) refers to

a) Discovery in Electronic Affairs for Storing Information
b) Discovery in Civil Litigation with Electronically Stored Information
c) Discovery in outlining Electronic evidence
d) Discovery in accounting databases and websites

134. Which organization developed Telemedicine facility at Remote CHC/PHC in Tripura?

a) WECS, Kolkata b) SGPGI, Lucknow
c) CDAC, Mohali d) CDAC, Pune

135. Which of the following is known as Malicious software

a) illegalware b) badware
c) malware d) maliciousware

136. Key logger is a

a) Firmware b) Antivirus
c) Spyware d) All of the Above
137. To protect yourself from computer hacker, you should turn on a
a) Script b) Firewall
c) VLC d) Antivirus

138. The term “ Intellectual Property Rights” covers

a) Copyrights b) Know-how
c) Trade dress d) All of the above

139. The following can be patented

a) Machine b) Process
c) Composition of matter d) All of the Above

140. The agreement that is enforceable by law is known as

a) Valid agreement b) Void agreement
c) Illegal agreement d) Unenforceable agreement

141. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port b) pipe
c) node d) none of the mentioned

142. Which device is required for the Internet connection?

a) Joystick b) Modem
c) CD Drive d) NIC Card

143. The first web browser is

a) Mosaic b) Netscape
c) Internet explorer d) Collabra

144. What is the term that describes a gap in terms of access to and usage of information and
communication technology?
a) Digital Information b) Digital Divide
c) Digital Hub d) Digital Technology

145. What is ‘metadata’?

a) Data about the IT b) Data about the Informatics
c) Data about the tools and methods d) Data about the data

146. Which is not among the major factors responsible for successful implementation and sustenance of
ICT projects for social development?
a) Degree of efficiency and transparency demonstrated in citizen services
b) Extent of reduction in cost and improvement of convenience for citizens
c) Extent of reengineering and improvement of back-end services
d) Degree of autocracy and informative step from the state authority.

147. Which of the following is Pre-archival Processing Tool?

a) e-SANGRAHAN b) e-RUPANTAR
c) DATĀNTAR d) e-Goshwara

148. Ethical hackers who use their skill to secure the integrity of computer systems or networks is called-
a) Black Hat b) White Hat
 c) Green Hat d) None.

149. In India, the literary work is protected until

a) Lifetime of author b) 25 years after the death of author
c) 40 years after the death of author d) 60 years after the death of author

150. Symbol of Maharaja of Air India is

a) Copyright b) Patent
c) Trademark d) All of the above

151. ------ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
a) Biometrics b) Bio measurement
c) Computer security d) Smart weapon machinery

152. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other people's computers to get information
illegally or do damage is a-
a) Hacker b) spammer
c) instant messenger d) programmer

153. Who wrote the book ‘Small is Beautiful: A Study of Economics As If People Mattered’ (1973)?
a) Albert Einstein b) Ivan Illch
c) E. F. Schumacher d) Amartya Sen

154. When did Cyber Law, The Information Technology (Amendment) Act have been passed?
a) June, 2008 b) February, 2009
c) July, 2010 d) March, 2008

155. Which of the following searches websites by keyword(s)?

a) Web bugs b) Search engine
c) Spyware d) Portals

156. ICT is a blend of

a) IT and telecommunication b) Technology and communication
c) Codes and information d) IT and social networking

157. The following is (are) the most effective ways of communication.

a) Verbal b) Non verbal
c) Written d) All of the above

158. The _____ of business letter is called layout.

a) Body b) Content
c) Pattern d) All of the above

159. Which of the following is true about civil liberties?

a) They are constitutionally established guarantees against government interference.
b) They are positive acts of government designed to protect individual liberties.
c) The term applies to both constitutionally established guarantees against government
interference, and positive acts of government designed to protect individual liberties.
 d) None of the above

160. Which of the following is not the Statutory organization of (Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology) MeitY?
a) CAT b) UIDAI
c) CCA d) ICERT
161. Method used to transfer information to far off places instantly is called
i) Information technology
ii) Language
iii) Data
iv) Telecommunication

162. ICT is a blend of

i) IT and telecommunication
ii) Technology and communication
iii) Codes and information
iv) IT and social networking

163. Software are referred to as

i) Hardware
ii) Computer programs
iii) Binary data
iv) procedure

164. In Computer terminology processed data is called

i) Binary data ii) Information
iii) Language iv) Code

165. This invention replaced vacuum tubes and made computers much smaller and faster. However, it was
eventually replaced by another invention
(i) RAM (ii) ENIAC (iii) Transformer (iv) Transistor.

166. On the basis of time, research can be classified as,

(i) Qualitative versus Quantitative
(ii) Pure versus applied research
(iii) Cross-sectional versus longitudinal research
(iv) None of the above

167. Research is basically-

(i) A methodology of enquiry
(ii) Search of truth
(iii) A systematic exploration of facts
(iv) All of the above

168. Social research can be divided into-

(i) Two categories
(ii) Three categories
(iii) Four categories
(iv) Five categories

169. This person created a machine called The Analytical Engine. His ideas were some of the first that led
to the creation of computers.
(i) Simon Konrad (iii) John Lovelace
(ii) Charles Babbage (iv) William Howard

170. Research design is-

(i) A plan
(ii) A structure
(iii) A strategy
(iv) All of these

171. This invention was 1,000 times faster than any machine built before it. It was so big that it could fill
up a house.
(i) Apple I
(ii) ENIAC
(iii) Windows
(iv) Z3

172. Which of the following Researches emphasise primarily the factual aims?
(i) Philosophical researches
(ii) Historical researches
(iii) Theoretical researches
(iv) Behavioural researches

173. The aims of research is/are

(i) verification
(ii) fact finding
(iii) theoretical development
(iv) All of the above

174. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(i) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(ii) Survey of related literature
(iii) Identification of problem
(iv) Searching for solutions to the problem

175. One of the following is not a survey method

(i) Personal interview
(ii) Telephone interview
(iii) Mail interview
(iv) Structured observation
176. How many models are for technological innovation-
(i) Two (ii) Three
(iii) Four (iv) None of the above

177. ICT systems consists of-

(i) Enable sensing
(ii) Visualizing
(iii) Storing and computing
(iv) All of the above

178. Bibliography given in a research report

(i) Helps those interested in further research and studying the problem
(ii) Makes the report authentic
(iii) Both (i) & (ii)
(iv) None of the above

179. The data of research is-

(i) Qualitative only
(ii) Quantitative only
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) Neither (i) nor (ii)

180. Inductive reasoning is-

(i) Data collection analysis method
(ii) Theory data collection analysis method
(iii) Data collection method
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)

181. Research design of a study should not include

(i) Objectives
(ii) Hypothesis
(iii) Findings
(iv) Blue print of Research

182. The first page of the research report is-

(i) Acknowledgement Page
(ii) Index Page
(iii) Title Page
(iv) None of the above

183. Factors that create the digital divide-

(i) Economic & Geographical
(ii) Technological
(iii) Social & Cultural
(iv) All of the above
184. Field study is related to
(i) Real life situations
(ii) Experimental situations
(iii) Laboratory situations
(iv) None of the above

185. Questionnaire is a
(i) Research method
(ii) Measurement technique
(iii) Data collection technique
(iv) None of the above

186. Quantitative data refers to

(i) Graphs and tables
(ii) Any data you present in your report
(iii) Statistical analysis
(iv) Numerical data that could be useful to answer your research question(s) and to meet
your
Objectives

187. Data collection can be done through

(i) Interview
(ii) Questionnaires
(iii) Through E-Mail or by Telephone
(iv) All of the above

188. Independent variables are not manipulated in

(i) Normative researches
(ii) Ex-post facto researches
(iii) Both of the above
(iv) None of the above

189. A hypothesis is a
(i) tentative statement whose validity is still to be tested
(ii) statement of fact
(iii) supposition which is based on the past experiences
(iv) All of the above

190. Action research means

(i) a longitudinal research
(ii) an applied research
(iii) research which are initiated to solve the immediate problems
(iv) All of the above
191. In computer security, __________means that computer system assets can be modified only by
authorized parities.
i) Confidentiality
ii) Integrity
iii) Availability
iv) Authenticity

192. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host program?
i) Trap doors
ii) Trojan horse
iii) Virus
iv) Worm

193. Verification of a login name and password is known as

i) Configuration
ii) Accessibility
iii) Authentication
iv) logging in

194. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is

i) Jacking
ii) Identify Theft
iii) Spoofing
iv) Hacking

35. Which of the following is/are threats for electronic payment systems?
i) Computer worms
ii) Computer virus
iii) Trojan horse
iv) All of the above
196. The term 'Intellectual Property Rights' covers
i) Copyrights
ii) Know-how
iii) Trade dress
iv) All of the above

197.The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others.
i) Patent
ii) Designs
iii) Trademark
iv) All of the above

198. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is
i) Ergonomics
ii) Compression
iii) Biometrics
iv) Encryption
199. _________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security
access.
i) Biometrics
ii) Bio measurement
iii) Computer security
iv) Smart weapon machinery

200. Code red is a(n)__________

i) Word Processing Software
ii) Antivirus
iii) Virus
iv) Photo Editing Software

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NB : (1) Answer Key are given highlighted in Bold Mark.

(2) Question Banks are prepared and uploaded as received from various colleges.
(3) If any error in the Questions & answer keys University would not have any liability.