06-07-2025

0999DMD363101250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle A is projected vertically upward & another particle B is projected at an angle. The path
of B as seen by A, during both are in air, will be :-

(1) Straight line

(2) Circle
(3) Parabola
(4) Hyperbola

2) Two swimmers A and B start swimming from different positions on the same bank as shown in
figure. The swimmer A swims at angle 90° with respect to the river -flow to reach point P. He takes
120 seconds to cross the river of width 10 m. The swimmer B also takes the same time to reach the
point P. Select incorrect statement.

(1) Velocity of A with respect to river is (1/6) m/s

(2) river flow velocity is (1/4) m/s
(3) Velocity of B along y-axis with respect to earth is (1/12) m/s
(4) Velocity of B along x-axis with respect to earth is (5/24) m/s

3) A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What will be the displacement from initial point ?

(1) 22.36 km
(2) 2 km
(3) 5 km
(4) 20 km

4) The acceleration of a particle, starting from rest, varies with time according to the relation:
a = –sω2 sin ωt
The displacement of this particle at time t will be:

(1) s sin ωt
(2) sωcos ωt
(3) sωsin ωt

(4)
(sω2 sin ωt)t2
5) A body of 5 kg is moving with a velocity 20 m/s. If a force of 100 N is applied on it for 10 sec in
the same direction as its velocity, what will now be the velocity of the body?

(1) 200 m/s

(2) 220 m/s
(3) 240 m/s
(4) 260 m/s

6) A train 100 m long travelling at 40 m s–1 overtakes another train 200 m long travelling at 30 m s–1.
The time taken by the first train to pass the second train is:

(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

7) A body dropped from the top of the tower covers a distance 7x in the last second of its journey,
where x is the distance covered in first second. How much time does it take to reach the ground?

(1) 3 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 6 s

8) A bus is travelling with speed 12m/s. A Biker starts its motion from rest with acceleration 3m/s2,
'18m' ahead of the bus. The instant at which the biker again overtakes the bus will be :

(1) 2 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 12 sec

9) The acceleration a (in ms–2) of a body, starting from rest varies with time t (in s) following the
equation a = 3t + 4. The velocity of the body at time t = 2s will be :

(1) 10 ms–1
(2) 18 ms–1
(3) 14 ms–1
(4) 26 ms–1

10) A train is moving towards east and a car is going along north, both with same speed. The
observed direction of motion of car to the passenger in the train is:

(1) east-north direction

(2) west-north direction
(3) south-east direction
(4) none of these

11) A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t2
to reach the floor when lift is moving up with constant acceleration, then :

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t2 > t1
(4) t2 = 2t1

12) A ball is projected horizontally from the top of high tower at 12 m/s. Wind is blowing horizontally
as indicated in figure, which causes acceleration 6 m/s2 horizontally. Displacement of the ball, when

it strikes the tower, will be (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 60 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 40 m

13) A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 ms–1. It reaches the maximum
vertical height h, in time t. In time t/2, the height covered is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A body is thrown upwards with velocity 100 m/s and it travels 5 m in the last second of its
upward journey. If the same body is thrown upward with velocity 200 m/s, what distance will it
travel in the last second of upward journey ?

(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 25 m

15) A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground G with a speed u. It reaches a point B at a
height h (lower than the maximum height) after time t1. It returns to the ground after time t2 from
the instant it was at B during the upward journey. Then t1t2 is equal to :
(1) 2h/g
(2) h/g
(3) h/2g
(4) h/4g

16) A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10
seconds. The total distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of the following
statements about the motion of the particles is not correct?

(1) The displacement of the particle is zero.

(2) Average velocity of the particle is zero.
(3) Displacement of the particle is 30 m.
(4) Average speed of the particle is 3 ms–1.

17) A particle is moving on a straight line path with constant acceleration directed along the
direction of instantaneous velocity. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(1) Particle may reverse the direction of motion

(2) Distance covered = magnitude of displacement
(3) Average velocity < average speed
(4) Average velocity = instantaneous velocity

18) A car travels a distance s on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point in
next three hours. Its average velocity is:

(1) s/5
(2) 2s/5

(3)

(4) Zero

19) In a motion with constant acceleration the velocity is reduced to zero in 5 seconds and after
covering a distance of 100 m. The distance covered by the particle in next 5 seconds will be :

(1) zero
(2) 250 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 500 m

20) A boat-man can row a boat with speed 10 m/s in still water. River flows steadily at the rate of 6
m/s and width of the river is 80 m. If the boat-man cross the river along the shortest path then the
time taken by him to cross the river :-

(1) 8 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) 12 sec
(4) 6 sec
21) When a particle moves with variable velocity, which of following relations are false?
(I) Average speed = average velocity
(II) Instantaneous speed = instantaneous velocity
(III) Distance covered = magnitude of displacement

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II
(3) II, III
(4) I, III

22) A man walks in rain with a velocity of 5 km/hour. The raindrops strike at him at an angle of 45°
with the horizontal. The velocity of the raindrops (falling vertically) will be :

(1) 5 km/h
(2) 4 km/h
(3) 3 km/h
(4) 1 km/h

23) Two particles start moving from the same point along the same straight line. The first moves
with constant velocity u and the second with constant acceleration a. During the time that elapses
before the second catches the first, the greatest distance between the particles is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) From the top of the tower of height 400 m, a ball is dropped by a man, simultaneously from the
base of the tower, another ball is thrown up with velocity 50 m/s; at what distance will they meet
from the base of the tower ?

(1) 100 m
(2) 320 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 240 m

25) The velocity of a bullet is reduced from 200 m/s to 100 m/s while travelling a wooden block of
thickness 10 cm. The retardation, assuming it to be uniform, will be:

(1) 10 × 104 m/s2

(2) 12 × 104 m/s2
(3) 13.5 × 104 m/s2
(4) 15 × 104 m/s2
26) The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line depends on time (t) as:
x = αt3 + βt2 + γt + δ. The ratio of its initial acceleration to its initial velocity depends:

(1) only on α
(2) only on α and β
(3) only on β and γ
(4) only on α and γ

27) A particle starts from rest and experiences a constant acceleration for 6 seconds. If it travels a
distance d1 in the first two seconds, a distance d2 in the next two seconds and a distance d3 in the
last two seconds, then:

(1) d1 : d2 : d3 =1 : 1 : 1
(2) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 2 : 3
(3) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 3 : 5
(4) d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 5 : 9

28) The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of
the particle at time t is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Three particles A, B and C are thrown from the top of a tower with the same speed. A is thrown
up, B is thrown down and C is thrown horizontally. They hit the ground with speeds υA, υB and υC
respectively:

(1) υA = υB = υC
(2) υA = υB > υC
(3) υB > υC > υA
(4) υA > υB = υC

30) Two balls are dropped from same height at 1 second interval of time. The separation between
the two balls after 3 second of the drop of the 1st ball is:

(1) 50 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 35 m
(4) 25 m

31) A steamer moves with velocity 3 km/h with respect to river water whose velocity is 2
km/h. Calculate the total time for total journey if the boat travels 2 km in the direction of stream and
then come back to its place:

(1) 2 hrs
(2) 2.5 hrs
(3) 2.4 hrs
(4) 3 hrs

32) A particle moving with uniform acceleration has velocity 6 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the
initial position. After moving another 7 m, the velocity becomes 8 m/sec. The initial velocity and
acceleration of the particle are:

(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s, 2 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s, 4 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s, 1 m/s2

33) A car is moving with speed 15 m/s. Suddenly the driver sees an obstruction on the road and
takes 0.4 sec to apply the brake, which cause a deacceleration of 5 m/s2. Then distance travelled by
car before stopping is :-

(1) 22.5 m
(2) 24.5 m
(3) 26.5 m
(4) 28.5 m

34) Assertion (A) : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at an instant.
Reason (R) : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

35) The velocity–time graphs of four particles A, B, C and D moving along a straight line are shown
are follows:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

If vA, vB, vC and vD be the respective average velocities of the four particles, then:
(1) vD > vA > vB > vC
(2) vD > vB > vA > vC
(3) vD > vC > vA > vB
(4) vA = vB = vC < vD

36) For a moving body, velocity vs time graph is below given. Find
displacement vs time graph of body.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Three particles are projected with same speed but different angles of projection of 20°, 40°, 50°

with horizontal. Then the particle B will have angle of projection as :-

(1) 20°
(2) 40°
(3) 50°
(4) Insufficient Data
38) The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 36 t metre and 2y = 96 t – 9.8 t2 metre.
The angle of projection is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

An aeroplane is travelling horizontally at a height of 2000 m from the ground. The aeroplane, when
at a point P, drops a bomb to hit a stationary target Q on the ground. In order that the bomb hits the
target, what angle θ must the line PQ make with the vertical ? [g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 45°
(2) 15°
(3) 30°
(4) None

40) A ball is projected upwards from the top of a tower with a velocity of 50 m/s making an angle of
30° with the horizontal. The height of the tower is 70 m. After how much time from the instant of
throwing will the ball reach the ground ?

(1) 2 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 9 s

41) Two bodies A & B are 100 km apart such that B is in south of A. A & B start moving with same
speed 25 km/hr eastward & northward respectively then find the time elapsed, from starting to
attain minimum separation :-

(1) 1 hr
(2) 2hr
(3) 3 hr
(4) 4 hour
42) Two particles A and B are projected simultaneously as shown in figure. Find the value of θ, if

they collide after 2 seconds :-

(1) 37°
(2) 45°
(3) 53°
(4) 60°

43) A person holding a flag is moving towards west with speed 10 m/s. There is wind flowing
towards north with speed 10 m/s. Find the direction in which cloth of flag will point.

(1) S-W
(2) S-E
(3) N-W
(4) N-E

44) At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the velocity of a projectile thrown form the ground, in vector

form is The angle of projection is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) tan–1 (3/4)

45) A boy wants to jump from building A to building B. Height of building A is 25 m and that of
building B is 5m. Distance between buildings is 4m. Assume that the boy jumps horizontally, then
calculate minimum velocity with which he has to jump to land safely on building B.

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1
(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

2) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct increasing order of their
radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

3) X = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2

Find out the group number of element X.

(1) 2nd
(2) 8th
(3) 7th
(4) 4th

4) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :-

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

5) Which of the following have nearly same atomic radius :-

(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs

(2) Li, Be, B, C
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) F, Cl, Br, I

6) The metallic and non metallic elements which are liquid at room temperature respectively are :-

(1) Cs, Fr
(2) As, Fr
(3) Br, Hg
(4) Hg, Br

7) Which element is not diagonally related ?

(1) Li-Na
(2) Li-Mg
(3) Be-Al
(4) B-Si

8) Which two elements are in same period as well as same group of modern periodic table ?

(1) Z=23, Z=31

(2) Z=65, Z=66
(3) Z=52, Z=87
(4) Z=58, Z=46

9) Match the following :-

(1) (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 (a) Noble gas

(2) Ga (b) Halogen

(3) Ar (c) Transition element

(4) Cl (d) Eka aluminium

(1) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

10) Assertion (A) :- Elements of a group exhibits similar chemical properties.

Reason (R) :- Elements of a group possess similar electronic configuration of their outermost shell.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11) Which statement is false ?

(1) Screening effect increases down the group

(2) Zeff decreases from left to right across the period
(3) Zeff increases from left to right across the period
(4) All of the above

12) 1st Ionisation energy values of Al, Si and S are 496, 530 and 640 kJ/mol respectively then what
will be 1st IE value for phosphorus ?

(1) More than 640 kJ/mol

(2) Between [496-530] kJ/mol
(3) Between [530-640] kJ/mol
(4) Can't be predicted
13) Second ionisation energy is highest for :-

(1) Lithium
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Fluorine

14) Which of the following triads do not follow Dobereiner's law of triads?

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Ca, Sr, Ba
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) Cl, Br, I

15) The first four I.E. values of an elements are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ/mole. The number of
valence electrons in elements are :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Among the following configuration, the elements which has the highest EA is :-

(1) [Ne] 3s1 3p2

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p5
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d5, 4s1

17) Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide :-

(1) BeO
(2) B2O3
(3) MgO
(4) ZnO

18) The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is

(1) Al(OH)3 , LiOH

(2) Be(OH)2 , Mg(OH)2
(3) B(OH)3 , Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2 , Zn(OH)2

19) Which one of the following order represent the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature
of the given oxides :-
(1) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
(2) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(4) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

20)

Select correct option related to given equations:-

I.
II.
III.

IV.
(1) |E.A. of Cl in (I)| = |I.E. of Cl in (III)|
(2) |I.E. of Cl in (III)| = |I.E. of Cl+1 in (IV)|
(3) |E.A. of Cl in (I)| = |I.E. of Cl– in (II)|
(4) |I.E. of Cl–1 in (II)| = |I.E. of Cl in (III)|

21) Correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10

(2) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(3) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(4) K2O > CaO > MgO

22) The pair of elements for which addition of electron in both atoms are endothermic.

(1) N, O
(2) Be, F
(3) N, Ne
(4) B, C

23) The correct order of acidity is :-

(1) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

(2) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3

24) IUPAC name of Z = 109 is represented by symbol :-

(1) Unn
(2) Uun
(3) Une
(4) Uuu

25) Which of the following is smallest in size?

(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1

(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p5
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2

26)

Which of the following electronic configuration belongs to most metallic character ?

(1) 1s2 2s1

(2) 5s2 5p5
(3) 3s2 3p6 4s1
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5

27) If atomic radius of B, Al and Ga are x, y and z respectively then correct order is :-

(1) x = y = z
(2) x > y > z
(3) y > z > x
(4) y > x > z

28) Consider the following statements :

(i) First Ionisation energy of 'N' atom is more than first Ionisation energy of 'O' atom.
(ii) Electron affinity of 'O' is less than electron affinity of 'S' atom.
(iii) Electronegativity of Cl is less than F.
The above statement (i), (ii),(iii) respectively are

(1) T.F.F.
(2) T.T.F.
(3) T.T.T.
(4) F.T.F.

29) Correct order of bond strength is :-

(1) HF < HCl

(2) HI > HF
(3) HBr < HCl
(4) HI > HBr

30) Arrange Cl, F, F–, Cl– in increasing order of ionisation potential ?

(1) F– < Cl– < Cl < F

(2) Cl– < F– < Cl < F
(3) Cl– < F– < F < Cl
(4) F– < Cl– < F < Cl

31) Which of the following is correct order of atomic radius ?

(1) Cl > F > S > O

(2) S > Cl > F > O
(3) S > Cl > O > F
(4) Cl > S > O > F

32) Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si is :-

(1) N < P < C < Si

(2) N > C > Si > P
(3) N = P > C = Si
(4) N > C > P > Si

33) Identify the block, group and period of element having electronic configuration respectively [Kr]
5s2 4d10 5p5 :-

(1) p-block, 5th and 5th

(2) p-block, 12th and 5th
(3) p-block, 7th and 5th
(4) p-block, 17th and 5th

34) Radius of which of the following elements is almost similar, but not due to Lanthanoid
contraction :-

(1) Mo, W
(2) Al, Ga
(3) Sn, Pb
(4) In, Tℓ

35) Select the correct order of IP1 :-

(1) Li > Be > B > C

(2) Li < Be < B < C
(3) Li < B < Be < C
(4) Li < B < C < Be

36) Correct order of Electron Affinity is :-

(1) N < P < S < O

(2) N < P < O < S
(3) I < Br < Cl < F
(4) I < F < Br < Cl

37) The successive ionisation energies of an element (A) is given as IE1 = 20eV, IE2 = 45eV, IE3 =
150eV, IE4 = 200eV, IE5 = 1800 eV Formula of halide of (A) is :-

(1) AX
(2) AX3
(3) AX4
(4) AX5

38) O(g) + 2e → O2–(g), ΔHeg = + 603 kJ/mole. The positive value of ΔHeg is due to :-

(1) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O

(2) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O–1
(3) Energy is released to add on 1 electron to O–1
(4) None of the above are correct

39) Among the following least and most polar bonds are respectively :-
(a) C – I (b) N – O
(c) C – F (d) P – F

(1) d and c
(2) a and d
(3) b and d
(4) b and c

40) Electronic configuration of Gd (Z = 64) is written as :-

(1) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

(2) [Xe] 4f8 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f9 6s1
(4) [Xe] 4f10

41) Match the compounds given in Column I with type of oxide given in Column II and choose the
correct option :-

Column I Column II
A BeO 1 Neutral oxide
B N2O 2 Acidic oxide
C Cl2O7 3 Basic oxide
D Bi2O3 4 Amphoteric oxide
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
42) Second ionisation enthalpy (in eV) of oxygen and nitrogen is respectively

(1) 13.6, 13.6

(2) 14.6, 15.8
(3) 13.6, 14.6
(4) 14.6, 14.0

43) Which of the following element has highest IP but EA is zero.

(1) H
(2) F
(3) B
(4) He

44) Assertion :- Vanderwaal radii of Ne is more than the covalent radii of F.

Reason :- Ne has more Zeff than F.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) The second ionisation enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order:

(1) Mg < Si < Al < Na

(2) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(3) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(4) Na > Mg > Al < Si

BIOLOGY

1) Complex post fertilization development is seen in :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Red algae

2) The members of Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae because of the :-

(1) They are found in greater concentrations of warmer area of ocean.

(2) They have floridean starch as a stored food.
(3) Predominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body.
(4) They have chlorophyll-a

3) Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Agar-Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(2) Chlorella is used as space food.
(3) Mannitol is stored food in phaeophyceae.
(4) Algin and carragen are products of fungi.

4) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

Non-vascular Gymnosperms,
A. (i)
plants Angiosperms

B. Vascular plants (ii) Pteridophytes

C. Seeded plants (iii) Algae, Bryophytes

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i

5) Assertion :- Bryophyta are considered as amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants on earth.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Statement-I :- The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow

geographical regions.
Statement-II :- Pteridophytes required water for fertilization.

(1) Both statement I & statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

7) In gymnosperms :-

(1) Ovules are absent

(2) Ovary is present
(3) Archegonia is absent
(4) Seeds are present
8) Identify the structure. Marked A, B and C for diagram :-

(1) A-Antheridiophore, B-Gemma cup, C-Unicellular rhizoids

(2) A-Archegoniophore, B-Gemma cup, C-Multicellular rhizoids
(3) A-Antheridiophore, B-Multicellular scales, C-Multicellular rhizoids
(4) A-Archegoniophore, B-Gemma cup, C-Unicellular rhizoids

9) First vascular plant on earth is :-

(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Thallophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

10) Assertion : Pteridophyta shows precursor of seed habit

Reason : Sporophyte retains on parent gametophyte for variable periods.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False

11) Select the odd one out with respect to presence vascular tissue :

(1) Marselia
(2) Funaria
(3) Azolla
(4) Selaginella

12) Read the following statements :-

(i) Cycas have coralloid roots.
(ii) In Cycas, the stem is unbranched.
(iii) Cycas is monoecious plant.
Choose the correct option :

(1) (i)-correct and (ii), (iii)-incorrect

(2) (i)-incorrect and (ii), (iii)-correct
(3) (i), (ii)-correct and (iii)-incorrect
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) correct
13) Label the A, B, C & D in the given diagram :
Code :
Seta – IV
Capsule – II
Rhizoids – I

Main axis – III

(1) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(3) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(4) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

14) In which of the plant group embryo is not formed ?

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Algae
(4) Angiosperms

15) The plants which includes horsetails and ferns are :-

(1) Found in dry, hot and shady places

(2) Frequently grown as ornamentals
(3) Only megaphyllous
(4) All heterosporous

16) In which of the following plants female gametophyte retain on present sporophyte for variable
periods ?

(1) Pinus
(2) Mango
(3) Funaria
(4) Salvinia

17) Identify the parts A, B and C with ploidy in the given figures :-
 Name of Part Ploidy

A - Rhizome Haploid
(1) B- Rhizoids Haploid
C- Seta Diploid

A- Roots Diploid
(2) B- Leaves Haploid
C- Seta Haploid

A- Rhizome Diploid
(3) B- Leaves Haploid
C- Seta Diploid

A- Rhizome Haploid
(4) B- Leaves Diploid
C- Seta Diploid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) In Pteridophyte, gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage

(2) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free living
(3) Antheridia and archegonia are absent in pteridophytes
(4) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil binders.

19) All seed bearing plants have/show –

(1) Meiosis in zygote

(2) Few celled haploid gametophytes
(3) Multicellular and independent gametophytes
(4) Alternation of dominant gametophyte with short lived multicellular sporophyte

20)

All seeded plants are :-

(1) Dioecious
(2) Monoecious
(3) Homosporous
(4) Heterosporous

21) Statement-I :- In red algae food is stored as floridean starch.

Statement-II :- Floridean starch is similar to amylopectin and glycogen is structure.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

22) Prothallus is :-

(1) Gametophyte of bryophyte

(2) Produced by fusion of gametes
(3) Small, multicellular, free living and mostly photosynthetic body
(4) A creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous body

23)

S.N. Character Bryophyta Pterid-ophyta Gymno-sperms

Main plant
(I) Gameto-phyte Sporo-phyte (A)
body

Vascular
(II) Absent (B) Present
tissue

Embryo
(III) (C) Occurs Occurs
formation

(IV) (D) Archego-nium Archego-nium Archego-nium

Identify A, B, C & D in the above table :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Does not occur Female

(1) Sporo-phyte Absent
reproductive organ

Gameto- Female
(2) Absent Does not occur
phyte reproductive organ

Sporo- Female
(3) Present Occurs
phyte reproductive organ

Male
Sporo- Does not
(4) Present reproductive
phyte occur
organ
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) What is true about Bryophytes ?

(1) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent

(2) Sporophyte is independant
(3) They form dense mats on soil and prevent soil erosion.
(4) Bryophytes are of great economic importance.

25) Assertion : In vascular plants, sporophyte is main, dominant, free - living plant body.
Reason : Sporophyte of vascular plants produces spores by meiosis in spore mother cells.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False

26) The multicellular female gametophyte in gymnosperms is _______ :-

(1) Free living

(2) Partially dependent on sporophyte
(3) Partially independent & photosynthetic
(4) Retained within megasporangium

27) Read the following characters/terms.

(i) Heterosporous
(ii) Naked seed
(iii) Multicellular female gametophyte
(iv) Tap root
How many characters are related to gymnosperms ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

(1) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas

(2) Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(4) Anabaena and Volvox

29) Which one of the following pairs of plants does not produce seed ?

(1) Pinus and Wolfia

(2) Cycas and fern
(3) Fern and Funaria
(4) Ficus and Ephedra

30) In gymnosperm, the development of pollen grains occurs within :-

(1) Microsporangium
(2) Megasporangium
(3) Ovary
(4) Both (1) and (2)

31) In liverworts, asexual reproduction takes place by:

(1) gemmae and fragmentation of thalli

(2) fragmentation and zoospores
(3) gemmae formation and spores formation
(4) isogamy and anisogamy

32) Read the following terms :- (i) Prothallus

(ii) Archegonium
(iii) Zygotic meiosis
(iv) Sporophyll
How many terms are related to pteriodophyte :

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

33) The main plant body of the pteridophyte is :-

(1) Unicellular, haploid

(2) Unicellular, diploid
(3) Multicellular, diploid
(4) Multicellular, haploid

34) Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having :

(1) Independent gametophyte

(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Independent gametophyte and sporophyte
(4) Dependent sporophyte and gametophyte

35) Evolutionary important character of seed habit in Selaginella is:

(1) Heterosporous nature

(2) Root
(3) Strobili
(4) Sporangia

36)

Precursor of seed habit was noticed for the first time in :

(1) Pteris
(2) Lycopodium
(3) Salvinia
(4) Dryopteris

37)

Archaegoniophore is found in

(1) Funaria
(2) Marchantia
(3) Adiantum
(4) Cycas

38) In which of the following plant seeds enclosed in fruits?

(1) Cycas
(2) Equisetum
(3) Eucalyptus
(4) Ginkgo

39) Chlorophyll 'b', Chlorophyll 'c' and chlorophyll 'd' belong to class respectively :-

(1) Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae and Chlorophyceae

(2) Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae, Phacophyceae and Chlorophyceae
(4) Chlorophyceae, Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae

40) Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is :-

(1) Anisogamous
(2) Isogamous
(3) Oogamous
(4) All three type of

41) In which of the following plant group, leafy members with tiny leaf like appendages in two rows
on the stem like structure are present.

(1) Funaria
(2) Liverworts
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Horsetails

42) Mycorrhizal association is seen in roots of :-

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Salvinia
(3) Pinus
(4) Cycas

43)

Find the correctly match pair in given table :-

Name of plant Pigment

(1) Fucus Chlorophyll 'd'

(2) Laminaria Chlorophyll 'b'

(3) Dictyota Fucoxanthin

(4) Porphyra Chlorophyll 'c'

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Multi-cellular sex organs are present in :-

(1) Ulothrix
(2) Funaria
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Chlamydomonas

45) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) In Pinus both male and female cones developed on different trees.
(2) Megaspore of pteridophyte form female gametophyte
(3) Algin is found in brown algae
(4) In Cycas pinnate leaves persist for few years

46) Which of the following character is not related with given figure ?

(1) It is a cartilagenous fish

(2) Placoid scales are found
(3) Air bladder is present that help in buoyancy
(4) In males, pelvic fins bear claspers.

47) How many points are correct about the figure given below ? (a)
Ectoparasite on true fishes
(b) Body bearing 6 -15 pairs of gill slits for respiration
(c) Mouth is circular and with jaw
(d) Circulatory system is of open type
(e) Body is devoid of scales

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

48) Find out the correct match.

(1) Chelone, Chameleon, Calotes - epidermal scales

(2) Ornithorhynchus, Panthera leo, Macropus - Oviparous
(3) Exocoetus, Pavo, Psittacula, Columba - Forelimbs are modified into wings
(4) Scoliodon, Pristis, Pterophyllum - Placoid scales

49) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Protochordates are exclusively marine
(B) In cephalochordates, Notochord extends from head to tail region.
(C) In urochordates, Notochord is present only in larval tail.
(D) Cranium and vertebral column are bony in cyclostomates.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(1) A alone
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All

50) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to
the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they excret.

A B C
AMMONO-TELIC UREOTE-LIC URICO-TELIC
Pigeon, Lizards,
(1) Aquatic amphibia Frog, Humans
Cockroach
Cockroach, Frog, Pigeon,
(2) Aquatic amphibia
Humans Lizards
 Aquatic
Pigeon, Cockroach,
(3) Amphibia,
humans Frog
Lizards
Aquatic
Cockroach,
(4) Frog, Lizards Amphibia,
Pigeon
Humans
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II

I Corvus a Vulture

II Columba b Ostrich

III Psittacula c Parrot

IV Struthio d Pigeon

V Neophron e Crow
(1) I-d, II-e, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d, V-e
(3) I-e, II-d, III-c, IV-b, V-a
(4) I-e, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-a

52) Which of the following is correct match of animal with it's common name ?

(1) Exocoetus - Flying frog

(2) Betta - Fighting fish
(3) Clarias - Rohu
(4) Both (1) and (2)

53)

Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Agnatha — Petromyzon

(2) Gnathostomata — Myxine
(3) Bony fish — Pristis
(4) Electric organ — Trygon

54) Assertion : The lungs of birds are provided with air sacs.
Reason : Air sacs helps in supplement respiration.
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

55) Assertion (A) :– Ascidia is a member of Urochordata.

Reason (R) :– It has notochord only in the tail of larva.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

56) Statement-I : Amphibians show external fertilisation.

Statement-II : They are homeothermic animals.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

57) Statement I :- Subphyla Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as

protochordates.
Statement II :- In Tunicata, notochord is present only in tail of adult animal.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

58) What is common between tunicates and vertebrates.

(1) Presence of bony vertebral column

(2) Presence of notochord and dorsal hollow nerve cord
(3) Locomotion by 2 pair of limbs
(4) Closed blood circulatory system

59)

Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in :-

(1) house lizard

(2) flying fish
(3) pigeon
(4) tadpole of frog

60) Which of the following fish is without operculum?

(1) Exocoetus
(2) Clarias
(3) Betta
(4) Trygon

61) Respiration in Balaenoptera takes place by :-

(1) Gills
(2) Skin
(3) Trachea
(4) Lungs

62) Which one belongs to agnatha ?

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Cephalochordata

63) The unique character of animal belonging to class-Mammalia is :-

(1) bipedal locomotion

(2) completely four-chambered heart
(3) the presence of mammary glands
(4) fertilisation is internal

64) What is not correct for the given figure?

(1) Presence of tunicin

(2) Tail is present in adult
(3) Presence of Larva
(4) Referred to as protochordata

65) Flying Fox is a common name of -

(1) Pteropus
(2) Elephas
(3) Macaca
(4) Rhinocerous
66) In which animal air sacs are connected to lungs?

(1) Chelone
(2) Chameleon
(3) Crocodilus
(4) Corvus

67) Members of which class are cold blooded ?

(1) Amphibia
(2) Reptilia
(3) Aves
(4) Both (1) and (2)

68) Which of the following is commonly known as sea horse or pregnant male ?

(1) Labeo
(2) Hippocampus
(3) Catla
(4) Exocoetus

69) Jawless fishes are included in :

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteicthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Cephalochordata

70) The basic character of chordate is -

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Cloaca
(3) Dorsal nerve cord
(4) Mammary glands

71) Which one of the following is not correct for urochordata ?

(1) Chordate
(2) Fresh water habitat
(3) Marine
(4) Coelomate

72) Common character of all Vertebrates without exception is -

(1) Presence of cranium

(2) Exoskeleton
(3) Two pairs of limbs
(4) Body divided into head, trunk and tail

73) Vertebral column is formed in place of –

(1) Dorsal nerve cord

(2) Ventral nerve cord
(3) Outgrowth of cranium
(4) Notochord

74) Notochord is absent in –

(1) Porifera to annelida

(2) Coelenterata to chordata
(3) Porifera to hemichordata
(4) Annelida to hemichordata

75) Nerve cord is represented by which labelling ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

76) Phylum chordata is divided into how many sub-phyla ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

77) In which of the following animal post anal tail is found ?

(1) Earthworm
(2) Lower invertebrate
(3) Scorpion
(4) Snake

78) In which of the following notochord is present in embryonic stage?

(1) All chordates

(2) Hemi-chordates
(3) Non-chordates
(4) All of the above

79) Origin of notochord is :-

(1) Ectodermal
(2) Mesodermal
(3) Endodermal
(4) (1) and (2) both

80) Which is not a character of chordate animal ?

(1) Dorsal heart

(2) Dorsal Nerve cord
(3) Post anal tail
(4) Notochord

81) Protochordates are :-

(1) Ascidia, Lamprey, Pristis

(2) Salpa, Branchiostoma, Myxine
(3) Doliolum, Ascidia, Amphioxus
(4) Branchiostoma, Petromyzon, Myxine

82) Read the following statements A-D and choose the option which have all the correct one only. :-
(A) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
(B) In cephalochordata notochord persist through out the life.
(C) Protochordates are vertebrates
(D) In chordates nerve cord is situated at the ventral surface of body.

(1) Statement C, D
(2) Statement A, B
(3) Statement A,B,D
(4) Statement B,C and D

83) Mark the correct match of the animal and its common name.

(1) Trygon - dog fish

(2) Ascidia - lancelet
(3) Pterophyllum - flying fish
(4) Myxine - hagfish

84) Larva stage in chordata:

(1) May be present

(2) Always present
(3) Absent in all
(4) None of these

85) tree frog is :-

(1) Bufo
(2) Hyla
(3) Icthyiophis
(4) Carcharodon

86) The examples of cold blooded animals are :-

(1) Scoliodon
(2) Bufo
(3) Chelone
(4) All of them

87) To which classes do the following animals belong to?

A–Petromyzon, B–Scoliodon, C–Pristis

(1) A–Cyclostomata, B–Chondrichthyes, C–Chondrichthyes

(2) A–Osteichthyes, B–Chondrichthyes, C–Chondrichthyes
(3) A–Osteichthyes, B–Chondrichthyes, C–Osteichthyes
(4) A–Osteichthyes, B–Chondrichthyes, C–Cyclostomata

88) Birds are not characterised by :-

(1) Fore limbs modified into wings

(2) Fully ossified endoskeleton
(3) Skin dry without glands
(4) Oviparous & external fertilisation

89) Non-poisnous snake is :-

(1) Naja
(2) Python
(3) Vipera
(4) Bungarus

90) Dry and cornified skin is the feature of :-

(1) Aves
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptilia
(4) Mammalia
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 2 1 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 1 2 4 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Straight line

2)

and

Now, say velocity of B makes angle θ w.r.t. x-axis (i.e. w.r.t. river flow)
Then,

Similarly,

3)

4)

Integrating,

and

5)

a= = = 20m/s2
V = u + at
= 20 + 20 × 10 = 220 m/s

6) Relative velocity of overtaking = 40 ms–1 –30 ms–1 = 10 ms–1. Total distance covered with this
relative velocity during overtaking will be = 100 m + 200 m = 300 m. Time taken = =
30 s.

7) ....(1) .... (2)

7 = 2n – 1
n=4
t = 4 sec.

8)

12 t + 18 =
24t + 36 = 3t2
3t2 – 24t + 36 = 0
t2 – 8t + 12 = 0
t2 – 6t – 2t + 12 = 0
t (t – 6) – 2 (t – 6) = 0
t=2 , t=6

9) Given that ; a = 3t + 4 or ∴ or
at t = 2s :

10)

(West - North)

11) Time taken by coin to reach the floor is given by:

h = 1/2 gt2 (∴ u = 0)

or

In stationary lift,
In upward moving lift with constant acceleration a,
g’ = g + a
∴
Clearly, g’ > g
Thus, t2 < t1.

12)

Ball strikes tower ⇒ Sx = 0

∴ ⇒ t = 4 sec
So displacement in y-direction in 4 sec

13)
100 = 2gh or 10 =

s=

14) u = 100 m/s, a = –10m/s2, s = 5 m

or n = 10
Body thrown upwards with velocity 100 m/s takes 10 sec to reach the highest point.
So body thrown upwards with velocity of 200 m/s will take 20 sec to reach the highest point.
Hence,
distance travelled in 20th sec,

= 200 – 5 × 39 = 200 – 195 = 5 m

[Note: Bodies travel the same distance in the last second of their upward journey irrespective
of their velocities.]

15) t = t1 + t2 = 2u/g

16) Displacement = 0

Avg speed =
Avg velocity = 0

17) Particle has velocity and constant acceleration in the same direction. So velocity
continouosly increases and particle moves in the same direction. Average velocity = Average
speed
Average velocity < instantaneous velocity.

18)

Average velocity =
= Zero

19) During the first 5 seconds of the motion, the acceleration is –ve and during the next 5
seconds it becomes positive. (Example: a stone thrown upwards, coming to momentary rest at
the highest point.) The distance covered remains same during the two intervals of time.

20)

For shortest distance

v = 10 m/s
u = 6 m/s

21) When a particle moves with variable velocity,

Average speed ≠ average velocity
and Distance covered ≠ magnitude of displacement
Hence, option (d) is correct.

22)

Vr = 5 Km/hr

23) Let x be the distance between the particles after t second. Then
 …(i)
For x to be maximum,

or u – at = 0

or t =
putting this value in eqn. (i), we get;

24)

....(i)

and ....(ii)
Adding, 50 t = 400
or t = 8 sec

∴
= 400 – 320 = 80 m
OR
Vrel = 50m/s
arel = 0

= 80 m

25)

V2 = u2 – 2as

a = 15 × 104 m/s2

26)

x = αt3 + βt2 + γt + δ

= 3 αt2 + 2βt + γ
υ0 = Initial velocity (at t = 0) = γ
Similarly, acceleration

Initial acceleration when t = 0,

 a0 = 2β

i.e.,

27)

d1 = S2 =

d2 = S4 – S2 =

d3 = S6 – S4 =
d1 : d2 : d3 = 4 : 12 : 20
=[Link]

28) x = αt3 and y = βt3

29) When A is thrown up, it reaches to maximum height at zero velocity, comes back to A with
the same initial velocity vA. vB has the same initial velocity. The vertical velocity for C = 0. vC is
acting horizontally.

For A: final velocity =

For B: final velocity =

For C: final velocity =

As υA = υB = υC (given)
Hence, υ for A = υ f for B = υ f for C.

30) For the motion of first ball,

u = 0, a = g, t = 3 s.
Let S1 be the distance covered by the first ball in 3 sec
∴
Let S2 be the distance covered by the second ball in 2 sec

Then
∴ Separation between the two balls
= S1 – S2 = 45 – 20 = 25m.

31) The velocity upstream is (3 – 2) km/hr and down the stream is (3 + 2) km/h.

∴ Total time taken = = 2.4 hrs

32) υ2 – u2 = 2as or 62 – u2 = 2a × 5
and 82– u2 = 2a (5 + 7) = 2a × 12
solving a = 2m /s2 and u = 4 m/s

33) Reaction time = 0.4 sec

∴ s = (15)(0.4) + = 28.5 m

34)

When a body is moving with an acceleration such that direction of its motion and direction of
acceleration are opposite to each other; then body reverses its direction of motion and during
this process, it has zero velocity at an instant.

35)

Velocity =

36)

When v ∝ t ⇒ x ∝ t2 (parabola)
When V = constant ⇒ x ∝ t (straight line)

37) A = 20°
B = 40°
C = 50°
38)

x = (ucosθ)xt = 36t ⇒ ucosθ = 36 ....(1)

y = 48t – 4.9t2 ⇒ usinθ = 48 ....(2)

using (1) and (2) tanθ =

39)

R = 2000 m

θ = 45°

40)

uy = usinθ =

5t2 – 25t – 70 = 0
t2 – 5t – 14 = 0
(t – 7) (t + 2) = 0
t = 7 sec

41)

100 cos45° =

[A0 = shortest distance between A and B]

42)

For collision,
 (VA)y = (VB)y
25sinθ = sin60°

43)

θ = 45º
N-E direction

44)

45) Height to ground projectile motion -

S = 25 – 5 = 20 m

20 = × 10t2 ⇒ t = 2 sec.
4 = vx × 2 ⇒ vx = 2 m/s
Option (4) 2 m/s

CHEMISTRY

46) Asking about : s-block elements

Concept : e– configuration

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
1s22s22p63s23p64s1 → 'K' (19)

belongs to s-block
 Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

47)

Among isoelectronic species,

ionic radii

48)

Group no. for d-block.

(n – 1) d + ns e–
5 + 2 = 7 group.

49) Pb > Pb+2 > Pb+4

50) Explanation :- The question asks which set of elements has similar atomic sizes.
Concept- :- Fe, Co, Ni, transition metals in the same period, have similar radii due to d-orbital
filling. Alkali metals (Na, K, Rb, Cs) and halogens (F, Cl, Br, I) show increasing radii down
their groups. Elements Li, Be, B, C show decreasing radii across their period, thus, only Fe,
Co, Ni have nearly the same atomic radius.
Answer-3 (Fe, Co, Ni)

51) 80Hg-metal
35Br Nonmetal(ℓ)

52) Li-Na is not diagonally related.

53) 65, 66 (Lanthanides)

period = 6, group = III B

54)

(1) (n-2)f14(n-1)d4 ns2 (c) Transition element

(2) Ga (d) Eka aluminium

(3) Ar (a) Noble gas

(4) Cl (b) Halogen

55)

Ncert page 85 (2023 - 24).

56) Zeff increase from left to right across the period.

57)

The ionisation energy of phosphorous is more than Al, Si, S due to half filled stable
configuration.

58) After removal of 1 e– form Li+ ⇒ 1s2(stable compound) so high 2nd IP.

59)

law applicable for same group element.

60) The difference betweeen 3rd & 4th IP is maximum.

61) Answer - Option(2 )

Explanation -To determine which element has the highest Electron Affinity (EA), let's first
understand what Electron Affinity.
Concept - The element with the highest electron affinity among these options is Chlorine (Cl),
which has the configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p5.

62)

As NaOH is basic hence it will not react with basic oxide.

63)

Amphoteric compounds are those which behaves both as an acid and base.
Many metals such as zinc, lead, aluminium, beryllium form amphoteric oxides or hydroxides.

64)

In s-block moving from top to bottom basic nature increases.

Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(ampho) (Basic)

65)
EA of Cl = IE of
(I) (II)

66) along a period acidity increases so Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10
 67)

Addition of electron in half filled or full filled stable configuration element is always
endothermic.

68) Concept:

A. Oxyacids: Acids containing oxygen.

B. Acidity of Oxyacids: The acidity of oxyacids increases with the increasing oxidation state of
the central atom.
C. Oxidation State: The degree of oxidation (loss of electrons) of an atom in a chemical
compound.

Formula:

A. No specific formula, but understanding the relationship between oxidation state and acidity.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Determine the oxidation sate of chlorine (Cl) in each oxyacid:

A. HClO: Cl has an oxidation state of +1.
B. HClO2: Cl has an oxidation state of +3
C. HClO3: Cl has an oxidation state of +5.
D. HClO4: Cl has oxidation state of +7.
B. Arrange the oxyacids with increasing oxidation state:
A. HClO (+1) < HClO2 (+3) < HClO3 (+5)

< HClO4 (+7)

A. Acidity increases with increasing oxidation state:

A. Therefore, the correct order of acidity is:
A. HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

69)

Z = 109
Unnilennium (Une)

70)

The given electronic configuration belongs to the elements Na, Cl, P and Mg. The correct
decreasing size of the elements is Na > Mg > P > Cl.

71) Answer - Option(3)

Explanation - To determine which electronic configuration belongs to the element with the
most metallic character, we need to look for the configuration that is characteristic of a metal,
which tends to have low ionization energy, easily loses electrons, and has a tendency to form
positive ions.
Concept- Li - 1s2 2s1 (Metal)
I - 5s2 5p5 (Non metal)
K - 3s2 3p6 4s1 (Metal)
F - 1s2 2s2 2p5 (Non metal)
The configurations of lithium (Li) and potassium (K) both exhibit high metallic character due to
their ease in losing a single valence electron. However, K being a more reactive can be
considered to have the most metallic character.

72) NCERT Pg. # 86

Atomic radius
B < Ga < Al
x z y

73)

(i) I.E. = N > O

2P3 2P4
(ii) E.A. = O < S
(iii) E.N = F > Cℓ
4.0 3.0

74)

Bond strength ∝ ΔEN

75)

IP. of anion = EA of Neutral atom

76)

Concept

77) N > C > P > Si

78)

The given electronic configuration belongs to iodine.

79)
Transition contraction

80)

Li < B < Be < C

2s22p1 2s2
due to penetration effect
s > p > d > f.

81)

Concept

82) Longest jump occur after removed of 4th electron → So element have ue–is outer most
shell.
∴ A4 X1 = AX4

83)

Formation of polynegative anion like O–2, N–3 etc. is always an endothermic process.

84) Polarity of bond ∝ ΔEN

85) [Xe]54 4f7 5d1 6s2

86)

BeO = amphoteric
N2O = neutral
Cl2O7 = acidic
Bi2O3 = basic

87) N = 2s2 2p3 O = 2s2 2p4

N+ = 2s2 2p2 O+ = 2s2 2p3
(half filled configuration)
So, IP of O+ > IP of N+

88) He → inert gas ⇒ EA ≈ 0

⇒ IP maximum

89)

Vanderwaal radii of Ne is more than the covalent radii of F as Ne has more atomic size than F.

90) IP2 order

Na, Mg Al Si
3s1 3s2 3p1 3p2
–1e– ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ –1e–
6 1 2 1
2p 3s 3s 3p
Noble gas configuration have max. IP
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28

92) XI New NCERT Page No. 27

93) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27

94)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 24,29,30,32,34

95)

NCERT XI Pg. # 29

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

97)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

98) NCERT Pg No. # 28 Fig. 3.2(a)

99)

NCERT XI Pg.# 30

100)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

101)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28

102)
 NCERT XI Pg. # 32

103)

Explanation :

A. Seta (IV) → The stalk-like structure supporting the capsule.

B. Capsule (II) → The spore-producing structure at the top.
C. Rhizoids (I) → Root-like structures anchoring the bryophyte.
D. Main Axis (III) → The central stem-like structure supporting the plant.

Labeling Based on the Code: A = Capsule (II),B = Main Axis (III),C = Seta (IV) and D =
Rhizoids (I)

Pg. # 28

104)

NCERT XI Pg. # 24

105)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30

106)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

107)

NCERT XI Pg. # 31
108)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

109)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33,34

110)

The correct answer is 4. Heterosporous.

Explanation: All seed plants (including gymnosperms and angiosperms) are heterosporous,
meaning they produce two distinct types of spores: microspores (male spores) and
megaspores (female spores). This is a key feature of seed plants, and it is a precursor to the
formation of seeds. In contrast, homosporous plants produce only one type of spore.

111)

NCERT XI, Pg # 27

112) NCERT XI, Page # 32

113)

NCERT XI Pg. # 29,32,33

114)

NCERT XI Pg. # 29

115)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32,33,34

116)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

117)

NCERT XI Pg. # 32

118) NCERT XI Pg. # 26

119)
NCERT XI Pg. # 28,32

120)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

121) NCERT (XI) Pg # 29

122)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30,31

123)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30

124)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30

125)

NCERT XI Pg. # 31

126)

NCERT XI Pg. # 31

127)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28

128)

NEW NCERT XI Pg. # 38

129)

NCERT XI Pg. # 26,27

130)

NCERT XI Pg. # 26
131)

NCERT XI, Pg # 29

132) NCERT XI, Page # 32

133) NCERT XI Page No. # 26, 27

134)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28, 29

135)

NCERT XI, Pg # 26, 32, 33

136)

NCERT- Pg # 47, Para-[Link], fig. 4.19

137) NCERT- Pg # 47, para-[Link], fig. 4.18

138)

NCERT Pg. # 47, 48, 49

139)

NCERT Pg. # 46

140)

Ammonotelic → Aquatic animals

Uricotelic → Insect, Bird, Reptile
Ureotelic → Frog, Human

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 48

143)

NCERT Pg. # 47 (Chart)

144) NCERT Pg # 50

145)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 46

146) NCERT Pg. # 48

147) NCERT Pg. No. 46

148)

NCERT Pg. # 46

149)

NCERT Pg. # 49

150)

NCERT Pg. # 47

151) NCERT Pg. # 50

152) NCERT Pg. # 47

153)

NCERT Pg. # 50

154) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 48

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51; Para - [Link]

156) NCERT XIth Pg # 50

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 48, IIIrd-Para & Pg. 49, Ist -para

158)

Module No. # 4, Pg. # 29

159)

NCERT Pg. # 47

160)

NCERT Pg. # 45, 46

161)

NCERT Pg. # 46

162)

NCERT Pg. # 46

163)

NCERT Pg. # 46

164)

NCERT Pg. # 46 (Chart)

165) NCERT-Page No. 46

166) NCERT-Page No. 46

167)

NCERT Pg. # 49

168)

NCERT Pg. # 45, 46

169)

NCERT Pg. # 45

170)

NCERT Pg. # 46
171)

NCERT Pg. # 46

172) NCERT XI, Pg.# 45, 46

173) Solution/Explanation:
(1) Trygon - dog fish
(2) Ascidia - lancelet
(3) Pterophyllum - flying fish
(4) Myxine - hagfish
Answer :- (4) Myxine known as hagfish

174)

NCERT Pg. # 46
(Few chordate like protochordate, Cyclostomes and Amphibia have larva)

175) NCERT Pg.# 47,48,49

176)

NCERT Pg. # 46, 47, 48, 49

177)

NCERT Pg. # 47, 48

178) NCERT, Pg. # 49

179)

NCERT Pg. # 49

180)

NCERT Pg. # 49