1 What are the dietary and nutritional errors related to hepatic encephalopathy

A. The daily heating capacity should be 5-6.7kJ

B. If necessary, a deep venous catheter can be used to drip 25% glucose to ensure calorie intake
C. 3-6g of essential amino acids available daily
D. Plant protein is the best way to correct negative Nitrogen balance
E. After waking up, the negative Nitrogen balance should be corrected quickly, and 60 g protein
should be given every day

2 Anemia is classified according to its etiology and pathogenesis

A. Lack of hematopoietic raw materials and hematopoietic dysfunction
B. Reduced erythropoiesis and excessive destruction of red blood cells
C. Reduced red blood cell production, excessive destruction of red blood cells, and blood loss
D. Internal defects in red blood cells, excessive destruction of red blood cells 20179
E. Erythrocyte maturation disorder, excessive destruction of red blood cells

3 Generally, at least the amount and duration of alcohol consumption required to cause alcoholic
liver disease are
A Male: Average daily intake of over 20g of ethanol within 5 years
B Male: Over a 5-year period, the average daily intake of ethanol exceeds 30g
C Male: Average daily intake of over 40g of ethanol within 5 years
D Male: Over a 10-year period, the average daily intake of ethanol exceeds 40g
E Male: Over the past 15 years, the average daily intake of ethanol exceeded 40g

[Link] the clinical manifestations of alcoholic hepatitis, the following statement is incorrect:
May cause general discomfort
May have a lack of appetite
May have fever
May have jaundice
Often asymptomati

5. For hypertension caused by pheochromocytoma, the first choice of antihypertensive drugs is?
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
Phentolamine
Calcium antagonists
Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
Diuretic

[Link] most common cause of death for aortic valve stenosis is

Left heart failure
Arrhythmias
Infective endocarditis
Systemic circulation embolism
Intrapulmonary infection
[Link] common sputum characteristics during
Brick red gel like sputum
Pink foam sputum
Chartreuse purulent sputum
White foam sputum
Rusty phlegm

[Link] is the correct treatment for tuberculous pleurisy

[Link] there is a large amount of chest fluid, it should be drained as much as possible in one go
[Link] should be routinely added
[Link] addition to oral anti tuberculosis drugs, anti tuberculosis drugs should also be injected into
the chest cavity
[Link] drugs can be used for short-term treatment, with a course of 6-8 months
[Link] a moderate amount of liquid accumulates, it can be naturally absorbed

9. Pneumococcus proliferates in the alveoli and causes consolidation in the lung segments or
lobes. The diffusion pathway is?
[Link] through Cohn's hole
[Link] along the bronchus
Lymphatic dissemination
[Link] dissemination
[Link] capsule destruction of alveolar wall

10. The most effective measures to prevent acute glomerulonephritis are?

Strengthen nutrition
Pay attention to rest
Warm and moisture-proof
Actively treating streptococcal infections
Regular urine routine examination

11. Which of the following drugs do not cause sinus bradycardia?

B Receptor blocker
Calcium channel blocker
Propafenone
Amiodarone
Atropine

12. The purulent sputum produced by a patient with empyema is the same as the pus extracted
through chest puncture, indicating merger
* Pneumonia
* Lung abscess
* Tuberculosis
* Insensitivity to antibiotics
* Bronchopleural fistula
13. Which type of thyroid cancer has the best prognosis?
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Thyroid follicular carcinoma
Eosinophilic adenocarcinoma
Undifferentiated thvroid cancer
Papillary thyroid carcinoma

14. Items unrelated to the normal hemostatic function of the body are?
Vascular endothelial cells
Red blood cells
Platelets
Coagulation factor
Antithrombin

15. What belongs to functional proteinuria

Proteinuria caused by renal congestion
Proteinuria caused by renal arteriosclerosis
Proteinuria this week
Exercise induced proteinuria
Hemoglobinuria

16. The most common etiology classification of hypothyroidism is?

Pituitary hypothyroidism
Hypothalamic hypothyroidism
Primary hypothyroidism
ISH insensitivity syndrome
TH insensitivity syndrome

17. Which of the following types of drugs is flumazenib a specific antidote for poisoning?
Benzenediazepines
Barbiturates
Non barbiturates, non benzodiazepines
Phenothiazides
Tricyclic class

18. Regarding the Ph chromosome, what is correct

[Link] present in chronic myeloid leukemia
[Link] individuals with Ph chromosome in chronic myeloid leukemia have a better prognosis
[Link] patients with negative Ph chromosome after interferon treatment
[Link] of the long arm of chromosome 23
[Link] chromosome only exists in granulocytes

19. Which statement is incorrect about pre renal acute renal failure
[Link] caused by insufficient effective circulatory capacity and insufficient renal blood
perfusion
[Link] obvious renal histological damage
C. Renal blood flow perfusion returns to normal, and pre renal acute renal failure is often
reversible
[Link] is the most common type of acute renal failure, accounting for approximately 55% to 60%
[Link] acute renal failure does not progress to renal acute renal failure

20. Patient, male, 29 years old, has recurrent urinary tract stones, which of the following reasons
may not be included?
Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone
Reduced secretion of parathyroid hormone
Renal tubular acidosis
Gout
Hyperoxaluria

21. Asymptomatic insidious nephritis refers to the absence of edema, hypertension, and renal
function damage. The nature of proteinuria is?
Transient proteinuria
Functional proteinuria
Postural proteinuria
Pathological proteinuria
Physiological proteinuria

22. For the treatment of ascites, the first consideration is to use diuretics?
Spironolactone 20mg tid
Spironolactone 100mg tid
Furosemide 40mg tid
Furosemide 40mg-Spironolactone 100mg
20% mannitol intravenous drip 250ml gd

23. A patient suffered from pain in the precordium after 3 weeks of continuous fever and
expectoration of purulent sputum, heard pericardial friction sounds for 4 days, and
pericardiocentesis revealed purulent pericardial [Link] most important handling should be?
Repetitive pericardiocentesis
Increase antibiotic treatment for primary diseases
Pericardiotomy, drainage, and pus drainage
Blood extraction and pericardial fluid for bacterial culture
Pericardiectomy

24. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator for diagnosing acute renal failure
Shock
Hypertension
Anura
Sudden increase in urea nitrogen
Sudden increase in creatinine

[Link] main role of the anti reflux barrier in the esophagus is

Esophageal mucosa
Diaphragmatic foot
Diaphragmatic esophageal ligament
Lower esophageal sphincter
The acute angle between the esophagus and the fundus of the stomach

26. For certain splenic ruptures, repair of the rupture and partial splenectomy are performed to?
Save time
Preserve hematopoietic function without being affected
To avoid serious infections that may result from immune deficiency in the future
Blood is stored in the spleen to avoid excessive blood loss
Reduce surgical difficulty

27. The most common cell types of lung cancer

Small cell carcinoma
Adenosquamous carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma

28. Which of the following is not an indication for closed chest drainage surgery
Hemothorax
Pneumothorax
Hemopneumothorax
Incision of pleural cavity
Tuberculous pleurisy

29. What is the incorrect statement about gonococcal urethritis?

Urethral infections caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae often involve the mucous membranes of the
urinary and reproductive systems
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is Gram negative
People are susceptible and have extremely low immunity after onset, which can lead to
reinfection
Mainly transmitted directly through sexual contact
Gonococcal urethritis is less common in male patients than in females

30. The characteristics of gastrointestinal bleeding caused by severe head injury are incorrect?
It is caused by irritability uicer caused by hypothalamus or brain stem injury
Blood transfusion should be used to replenish blood volume
High dose hormone pulse therapy should be used
Apply proton pump inhibitors until bleeding stops
After stopping bleeding, use H2 receptor antagonists

31. The following are manifestations of constrictive pericarditis, except for?

Liver enlargement, ascites
Heart sounds distant
X-rays show significant increase in heart shadow
Elevated venous pressure
Decreased apical impulse

32. Which of the following tests is the least helpful in diagnosing stenosis at the ureteropelvic
junction?
Urinary cystourethrography
Intravenous urography
MRU
Nephrogram
CT

33. Which of the following clinical examinations can be used to determine the presence of flexion
contracture in the hip joint?
Gaenslen test
Trendelenburg sign
Ortolani test
Thomas sign
Ober test

34. Patients with bloody stools emphasize that the purpose of rectal digital examination is?
Diagnosis of external hemorrhoids
Diagnosis of internal hemorrhoids
Excluding tumors
Excluding inflammation
Confirmed anal hemorrhoids

35. The somatic motor center is located?

Precentral gyrus and anterior paracentral lobule
Posterior central gyrus and posterior paracentral lobule
Cingulate gyrus
Transverse temporal gyrus
Cortex near the sulcus of the occipital lobe

36. Functions that do not belong to the frontal lobe are

Advanced Thinking
Dominating contralateral body movements
Pronunciation
Speech
Manage the superficial sensation of the opposite body

[Link] injuries that require emergency thoracotomy are

Traumatic asphyxia
Lung blast injury
Coagulation hemothorax
Rupture of the trachea or bronchus leading to significant pleural leakage
Rib fracture

[Link] posterior dislocation of the hip joint occurs, the typical deformity of the affected limb
is?
The affected limb is shortened, and the hip joint exhibits flexion, adduction, and pronation
deformities
The affected limb is shortened, and the hip joint exhibits flexion, abduction, and external rotation
deformities
The affected limb grows and the hip joint exhibits abduction and external rotation deformities
Affected limb growth and hip joint hyperextension deformity
Hip joint hyperflexion deformity

39. The parietal cell of gastric mucosa that secrete hydrochloric acid are distributed in the
stomach?

Cardia
Gastric body
Gastric fundus and body
Gastric fundus and antrum
Gastric body and antrum

[Link] of the following is incorrect in diagnosing clinical manifestations of shock?

Limb dampness and coldness
Pulse 80 beats/min
Urine volume:30ml/h
Pulse pressure 30mmHg
Systolic blood pressure «90mmHg

[Link] of the following disinfection methods are not commonly used in operating rooms?
40% formaldehyde
Ionizing radiation
UV disinfection method
Lactic acid disinfection method
Disinfection with 0.1% sodium hypochlorite solution

[Link] patient, male, 30 years old, felt discomfort in the lower back after lifting a heavy object.
After a few days, the symptoms worsened and radiation pain appeared in the right lower limb. It
took half a month from the onset to the outpatient visit. After relevant examination, it is
suspected to be diagnosed as lumbar disc herniation. The wrong treatment is?
Nucleus pulposus enucleation
Full bed rest
Pelvic traction
Tuna Massage
Acupuncture and moxibustion

[Link] patients with thoracolumbar fractures for 2 days, physical examination showed normal
sensation, movement, and reflex functions in both lower thighs, normal trunk sensation, and
normal urination, but weakened intestinal peristalsis, abdominal distension, and abdominal pain.
The most likely reason for this is?
Spinal cord injury
Nerve root injury
Combined abdominal organ injury
Retroperitoneal hematoma
Abdominal visceral nerve injury

[Link] following main factors that may be related to the failure of vas deferens ligation surgery
are:
Hematoma
Semmal vesiculitis
Vasculitis
Congenital duplication of vas deferens ignored
Vas deferens fistula

[Link] a fracture of the upper one-third of the right femoral shaft, the best position for traction
treatment is?
Horizontal traction
Hip joint flexion traction
Adduction traction
Abdominal traction
External thigh rotation and abduction, hip flexion traction

[Link] can be cured by applying chemotherapy alone

Breast cancer
Nephroblastoma
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Granulosa cell leukemia
Hodgkin's disease

[Link] is the incorrect description of normal male reproductive organ examination?

The pubic hair is distributed in a spindle shape
Penile length 7-10cm
Testicular volume 12-25ml
Bilateral symmetry of prostate, presence of central sulcus
Palpation of seminal vesicles without tenderness

[Link] the onset of acute cerebral infarction, the CT manifestations may not be abnormal
within
0-6 hours
14-18 hours
20-24 hours
32-36 hours

[Link] type of fluid metabolism disorder is most likely to occur in surgical patients
Isotonic water deficiency
Hyperosmotic water deficiency
Low permeability water deficiency
Acute water poisoning
Chronic water poisoning

[Link] trauma patients, which of the following situations should be treated with closed
thoracic drainage?
Traumatic asphyxia
Severe hemopneumothorax
Chest wall softening
Pulmonary contusion
Lung blast injury

[Link] widespread introduction o the Papanicolaou (Pap) test in the 1950s, cervical cancer
screening has reduced the incidence o and mortality rate from invasive cervical cancer by more
than what percentage?
50 percent
60 percent
70 percent
90 percent

[Link] what percentage o U.S. women who undergo Pap testing will have an
abnormal result prompting further patient evaluation?
0.19 percent
0.7 percent
7 percent
19 percent

[Link] the lower genital tract, the term intrepithelial neoplasia refers to squamous epithelial
lesions that are potential precursors o invasive cancer. In the case of cervical intrepithelial
neoplasia (CIN), what term applies when abnormal cells involve the full thickness of the
squamous epithelium?
CIN 1
CIN 2
CIN 3
Carcinoma in situ (CIS)

[Link] location o the cervical squamocolumnar junction (SCJ varies with age and hormonal
status. As shown in the image below, the SC tends to revert outward onto the ectocervix during
which o the following conditions?
Menopause
Pregnancy
Prolonged lactation
Long-term progestin-only contraceptive use

[Link] of the following are true statements regarding the cervix transformation zone (Z) EXCEPT:
Nearly all cervical neoplasia develops within the Z.
Squamous metaplasia occurring within the Z is abnormal.
The Z lies between the original squamous epithelium and columnar epithelium.
The location and size o the Z change through the process of squamous metaplasia.

[Link], human papillomavirus (HPV) types are classified as high risk (HR) or low risk (LR)
based upon their oncogenic potential. Which two HR HPV types together account or
approximately 70 percent of cervical cancers woridwide?
6 and 11
11 and 45
16 and 18
18 and 31

57.A 20-year-old mulligravida complains of occasional pelvic pain and intermittent vaginal
discharge. She is also concerned about possible exposure to sexually transmitted infections.
Which of the following is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States?
Chlamydial infection
Gonorrhea
Trichomoniasis
Genital human papillomavirus infection

[Link] o the following is the LEAST common outcome of cervical human papillomavirus
infection?
Latent infection
Subclinical infection
High-grade dysplasia or cancer
Cervical intrepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1

59.A 40-year-old woman has been in a mutually monogamous relationship or 20 years. She is
concerned that her recent Pap test result was reported as atypical squamous cells o
undetermined significance (ASC-US). Concurrent human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is reliably
diagnosed by which of the following?
Cytology
Histology
Colposcopy
HPV nucleic acid testing

[Link] clinical uses or high-risk human papillomavirus (HV) testing include which of the
following?
Surveillance after treatment of cervical neoplasia
Cotesting (cytology plus HPV testing) as screening or women 30 years or older
Triage or surveillance o certain abnormal cervical cytology results or untreated cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
All of the above

[Link] to treat human papillomavirus (HPV)-related lower genital tract disease include all
of the following
EXCEPT:
Invasive cancer
Latent HPV infection
Symptomatic genital warts
High-grade intraepithelial neoplasia

[Link] of the following is true of the prophylactic human papillomavirus (HPV)

vaccines currently available?
All three use HPV type-specife virus-like particles to induce immunity.
They require one initial dose followed by a booster dose 2 years later.
They are theoretically protective against the HPV types that account or 40 percent of cervical
20 cancers.
All three are Food and Drug Administration(FDA)-approved or the prevention o anogenital and
oropharyngeal neoplasia

[Link] of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is most strongly related to persistent genital
high-risk human papillomavirus infection plus which o the following?
Tobacco use
Increasing age
Increasing parity
Increasing number of sexual partner

[Link] women diagnosed with cervical cancer in the United States, approximately what
percentage have never been screened?
10 percent
30 percent
50 percent
70 percent

[Link] of the following is NOT a positive prognostic factor or ovarian cancer?

Younger age
Clear cell type
Absence of ascites
Debulking to no gross residual

[Link] of the following statements is true regarding conventional glass slide versus liquid-
based cytology or cervical cancer screening according to current guidelines?
Both are equally acceptable or screening
They are now replaced by primary human papillomavirus (HPV) screening.
Liquid-based cytology is more sensitive or screening.
Conventional glass slide cytology is obsolete and should not be used.

[Link] of the following is true regarding the clinical performance o the Pap test?
Higher sensitivity than specificity
Higher specificity than sensitivity
Equally low sensitivity and specificity
Equally high sensitivity and specificity

[Link] on current guidelines, how often should a 52-year-old woman undergo cervical cancer
cytology screening if she is at average risk or this cancer and her three previous Pap test results
were negative?
Annuallv
Every 2 years
Every 3 years
Every 5 years

[Link] of the following statements regarding cervical cancer is NOT true?

It is the most common gynecologic cancer in women worldwide.
It is te second most common cancer diagnosed in women worldwide.
In the Unites States, Hispanic women have the highest incidence rate.
In the United States, African-American women have the highest mortality rate.

[Link] human papillomavirus (HPV) subtype is most strongly associated with adenocarcinoma
of the cervix?
HPV 651
HPV 16
HPV 18
HPV 31

[Link] of the following is not a routine follow-up item after curettage for hydatidiform mole?
Follow-up of gynecological examination for xanthocele
Regular HCG quantitative testing
Chest X-ray examination
Regular vaginal cell smears
Is there a purple blue nodule in the vagina

[Link] serous tumors originate from

The surface epithelium of the ovary differentiates into the epithelium of the fallopian tubes
The surface epithelium of the ovary differentiates into the cervical mucosa
The surface epithelium of the ovary, malignant transformation
The surface epithelium of the ovary undergoes reversal
The surface epithelium of the ovary differentiates into the endometrium

[Link] of the following types of heart disease with pregnancy has the highest incidence rate
Pregnancy induced hypertension heart disease
Rheumatic heart disease
Congenital heart disease
Anemic heart disease
Perinatal heart disease

[Link] accompanied by sudden abdominal pain, slight vaginal bleeding, and decreased
blood pressure. The first thing to consider is
Placental abruption
Placenta previa
Uterine rupture
Threatened labor
Polyhydramnios

[Link] main causes of uterine prolapse in mulliparous women are

Delivery injury
Surgical injury
Increased abdominal pressure
Pelvic floor tissue degeneration
Pelvic floor tissue dysplasia

[Link] fastest period of growth and development for children is

Preschool age
Early childhood
Infancy
Neonatal period
Perinatal period

[Link] of the following is not a characteristic of purulent meningitis in infants and young
children

Most infants and young children suffer from diseases

Symptoms of prodromal infection
Infants may not have obvious meningeal irritation signs
No obvious signs of nervous system localization
The appearance of cerebrospinal fluid is clear, and routine biochemistry is normal

[Link] the pathological and physiological characteristics of nephrotic syndrome, the most
important one is
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Systemic edema
Massive proteinuria
Increased secretion of aldosterone

[Link] main clinical manifestations of rickets during the active phase are
Irritability and frequent crying
Restless sleep, night terrors
Changes in the skeletal system
Sudden convulsions
Hyperhidrosis

[Link] cerebrospinal fluid changes in typical acute purulent meningitis are

Increased cell count, increased protein levels, and normal glucose levels
Cell count increases, protein increases, and sugar decreases
Increased cell count, normal protein, reduced sugar
Normal cell count, increased protein, reduced sugar
Increased cell count, normal protein, normal sugar

[Link] divides childhood into

There are five stages: neonatal, infancy, early childhood, preschool, and school-age
Four stages: newborn, infancy, school-age, and adolescence
Three stages: neonatal, infancy, and school-age
seven stage: fetal, neonatal, infancy, early childhood, preschool, school age, and adolescence
Six stages: fetal, neonatal, infant, early childhood, preschool, and school-age

[Link] most important indicator for early diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency rickets is
Reduced blood phosphorus
Increased alkaline phosphatase
Decreased blood calcium
Reduced blood 25- (OH) D3
Elevated parathyroid hormone

[Link] pathogen causing herpetic angina is

Coxsackie Group A virus
Rhinovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Adenovirus
Influenza virus

[Link] congenital heart disease is most prone to Eisenmenger syndrome

Pulmonary artery stenosis
Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of Fallot
Interventricular septum defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

[Link] respiratory system is divided into upper and lower respiratory tracts, with the boundary
being?
Larynx
Vocal cords
Inferior margin of cricoid cartilage
Main tracheal bifurcation
Inferior margin of epiglottic cartilage

[Link] of the following are not common pathogens of pneumonia

Rickettsia
Mcoplasma pneumonia
Adenovirus
Syncytial virus
Staphylococcus aureus

87. The main source of human vitamin D is

Milk
Fish liver oil
Sunlight skin exposure
Animal liver
Calcium tablet

[Link] are not the characteristics of the respiratory tract in infants and young children
Mucosa is tender and blood vessels are abundant
The eustachian tube is narrow, straight, and short
Cartilage is soft and lacks elastic tissue
The chest is barrel shaped
Insufficient secretion of mucous glands

[Link] nutritional megaloblastic anemia shows obvious psychiatric symptoms, the first
application should be?
Vitamin C
Folic acid
Iron agent
Vitamin B12 determination+folic acid
Vitamin B12

[Link] mechanism of noise generation in atrial septal defect is due to

Blood flow through atrial septal defect
Increased right atrial blood flow
Relative stenosis of pulmonary valve
Relative insufficiency of tricuspid valve
Increased right ventricular blood flow

[Link] age at which the ratio of normal neutrophils to lymphocytes undergoes secondary
crossing in childhood is
4-6 days and 4-6 months after birth
4-6 davs after birth and 1-2 vears old
4-6 days after birth and 4-6 years old
4-6 months and 4-6 years after birth
4-6 months and 8-10 years after birth

[Link] of the following reflexes does not belong to the primitive reflexes of the newborn
Sucking reflex
Abdominal wall reflex
Embrace reflex
Grip reflex
Foraging reflex

[Link] most common pathogen causing infant diarrhea is

Norovirus
Clostridium difficile
Rotavirus
Diarrhea causing Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus

[Link] of the following pathogens can cause pneumonia and easily lead to pyothorax
Streptococcus pneumonia
Staphvlococcus aureus
Streptococcus hemolyticus
Mcoplasma
Haemophilus influenzae

[Link] main pathogen of bacterial pneumonia in children is

Streptococcus
Staphvilococcus
Streptococcus pneumonia
Influenza bacteria
Escherichia coli

[Link] most common type of atrial septal defect is

Patent foramen ovale
Primary foramen defect (first foramen unclosed)
Secondary foramen defect (second foramen patent type)
Primary foramen defect with mitral valve defect
Secondary foramen defect with partial anomalous pulmonary vein drainage

[Link] content of Apgar rating mainly includes

Skin color, heart rate, response to stimuli, muscle tone, respiration
Sucking force, heart rate, response to stimuli, muscle tone, respiration
Crying, heart rate, response to stimuli, muscle tone, breathing
Heart rate, breathing, crying, skin color, and response to stimuli
Heart rate, breathing, crying, skin color, and presence of primitive reflexes

[Link] main pathological and physiological changes of bronchopneumonia are

Hypoxemia and carbon dioxide retention
Infection poisoning
Cardiac insufficiency
Acidosis
Ventilation dysfunction

[Link] with acute poststreptococcal nephritis should rest in bed until?

Complete disappearance of hematuria, edema, and normal blood pressure
Visual hematuria disappears, edema subsides, and blood pressure is basically normal
Blood settling to normal
ASO drops to normal
Complement returns to normal

[Link] most common pneumonia during infancy and young children is

Bronchopneumonia
Segmental pneumonia
Lobar pneumonia
Interstitial pneumonia
Caseous pneumonia